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CTFL_Syll_4.0 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

A typical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to:

A.

take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.

assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team

C.

use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient

D.

determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

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Question # 7

Confirmation testing is performed after:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Question # 8

As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.

Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?

A.

Defect management

B.

Configuration management

C.

Change management

D.

Risk management

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Question # 9

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualizing the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project

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Question # 10

Which ONE of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

A.

Effectiveness depends on the individual testers' skills

B.

Usually conducted when there is sufficient time for testing

C.

Test cases are written once the specifications become available

D.

Testing without defined time-boxes

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Question # 11

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describesbranch testing?

A.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In branch testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between decisions, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise flow transfers in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

C.

In branch testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as thenumber of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

D.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable decisions. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is expressed as a percentage.

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Question # 12

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

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Question # 13

Consider the following list of activities (I to V):

I. Test design

II. Test planning

III. Review test basis

IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review

V. Test monitoring and control

Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?

A.

Activities III, IV, and V

B.

Activities II and V

C.

Activities I and V

D.

Activities I, III, and IV

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Question # 14

Which ONE of the following options CANNOT be subjected to static analysis?

A.

COTS (Commercial off-the-shelf)

B.

Source code

C.

BPMN (Business Process Modeling and Notation) models

D.

UML (Unified Modeling Language) models

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Question # 15

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumeric characters, and its first character must be a letter. As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.

What is the number of partitions to cover?

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

3

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Question # 16

You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.

Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room

Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

A.

Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room

B.

Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.

C.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

D.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.

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Question # 17

Which ONE of the following options isNOTa benefit oftest automation?

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

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Question # 18

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Question # 19

Which ONE of the following is a GOOD testing practice that is INDEPENDENT of the chosen SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) model?

A.

Testers are involved in reviewing work products as soon as the final version of this documentation is available so that this earlier testing and defect detection can support the “shift-left" strategy.

B.

Test analysis and design for a specific test level begin during the corresponding development phase of the SDLC, allowing testing to follow the principle of late testing.

C.

For every software development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity, ensuring that all development activities are subject to quality assurance.

D.

Different test levels have specific and overlapping test objectives, allowing tests to be appropriate to specific test object types while managing redundancy.

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Question # 20

Which ONE of the following options contains the statements (I - V) that MOST ACCURATELY characterize acceptance test levels?

I. Acceptance test levels focus on validating and demonstrating readiness for deployment.

II. Acceptance test levels must be performed by an independent test team.

III. Acceptance test levels often require specific support, such as test harnesses.

IV. Acceptance test levels ideally should be performed by the intended users.

V. Acceptance test levels use component specifications as the test basis for the system.

A.

Statements I, III, and V

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I and IV

D.

Statements II and V

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Question # 21

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

A.

A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.

B.

A testmanager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test caseswillnot be written as

mandated by the test policy.

C.

A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people

D.

A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person

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Question # 22

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is false?

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed

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Question # 23

Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:

I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.

II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.

III. Can lead to the detection of defects.

IV. Can find defects directly.

V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.

Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?

A.

Statements I, III, and IV

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I, II, and IV

D.

Statements II, III, and V

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Question # 24

A number of characteristics are given for impact of SDLC on the testing effort.

i.Finishing of requirements review leading to test analysis

ii.Both - static and dynamic testing performed at unit testing level

iii.Frequent regression testing may need to be performed

iv.Extensive product documentation

v.More use of exploratory testing

Which of the following statements is MOST correct?

A.

i, ii and iii are characteristics of sequential models; iv and v are characteristicsof iterativeandincrementalmodels

B.

i and iv are characteristics of sequential models;ii, iii and varecharacteristicsof iterativeandincrementalmodels

C.

ii and iv are characteristics of sequential models;i, iii and varecharacteristicsof iterativeandincrementalmodels

D.

iii and iv are characteristics of sequential modelsand i, ii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

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Question # 25

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

A.

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.

Train all testers on using the tool

D.

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

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Question # 26

Test automation allows you to:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Question # 27

Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

A.

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B.

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

C.

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

D.

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

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Question # 28

Consider the followinguser storyand itsacceptance criteria:

User Story:

As a member of the"Agnotoly"association, I want to be able topay the association’s dues through an automatic payment methodso that I can forget about payment deadlines.

Acceptance Criteria:

    The member can only pay with‘Agnesis Master’ credit card.

    The member must register theircell phone number.

    The member must register thecredit cardin the payment system.

    The member must select apayment method (monthly or annual).

    The member mustaccept the terms and conditionsfor the selected method.

    If terms and conditions are accepted, the system sends anOTP(one-time password) to the member’s phone for verification.

    The payment method isregistered only after OTP verification.

    Once the payment method is registered, the system will charge on the first business day of the following month.

Test Cycle Results:

    Members successfully paid dues using the credit card.

    Payments were processedmonthly and for over a year.

Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered?

A.

Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

B.

Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

C.

All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.

D.

Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

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Question # 29

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which acollective authorship processgenerates a shared vision of user stories?

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

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Question # 30

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Question # 31

Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?

A.

Test plans

B.

Source code

C.

Compiled code

D.

Formal models

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Question # 32

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

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Question # 33

The whole-team approach:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Question # 34

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

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Question # 35

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator

C.

Recorder

D.

Moderator

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Question # 36

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

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Question # 37

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment?

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5

B.

TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1

D.

TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3

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Question # 38

Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:

A.

not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others

B.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

C.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

D.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

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Question # 39

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques

B.

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes

C.

Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques

D.

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

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Question # 41

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Question # 42

In a review, which of the following is the responsibility of the manager?

A.

Organizing the logistics of the review meeting

B.

Measuring the performance of each reviewer

C.

Ensuring that sufficient time is available for review

D.

Performing detailed review based on past experience

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Question # 43

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

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Question # 44

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes black-box test techniques?

A.

Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.

B.

In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software's implementation.

C.

Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object's specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.

D.

Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.

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Question # 45

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

C.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D.

It is an example of test implementation tool

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Question # 46

Which of the following statement about the shift-left approach is false?

A.

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices

C.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools

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Question # 47

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

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Question # 48

Which ONE of the following options is a practice that does NOT TYPICALLY correspond to a shift left approach?

A.

Using continuous integration (CI) and even better continuous delivery (CD).

B.

Reviewing the specification from the perspective of testing.

C.

Write the test cases before writing the code and run the code in a test harness during code implementation.

D.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

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Question # 49

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of atest plan?

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

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Question # 50

The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 51

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

A.

9,5001

B.

10,5000

C.

9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D.

9,10,5000,5001

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Question # 52

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

A.

Reproducing the failure

B.

Adding new test cases

C.

Fixing the cause

D.

Diagnosing the root cause

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Question # 53

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

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Question # 54

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

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Question # 55

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modularization

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyze

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

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Question # 56

Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know that:

•If n < 0, a message "Value out of range" must be issued.

•If 0 < n < 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number

•If 100 < n < 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued

Which of the following statements about the equivalence partitions is CORRECT?

A.

There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200

B.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same

C.

The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping

D.

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to 200 will be very large

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Question # 57

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing duringexploratory testing?

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

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Question # 58

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

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Question # 59

In branch testing, what is the significance of a conditional branch in a software program?

A.

It marks a point where the program’s execution will terminate bringing the program to a halt.

B.

It indicates a decision point where the program can follow different paths based on specific conditions.

C.

It represents a programming error and therefore a conditional branch should be avoided.

D.

It signifies a comment or documentation within the code and it doesn't indicate a defect.

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Question # 60

Which ONE of the following statements about the objectives of confirmation and regression testing is the BEST?

A.

Confirmation testing aims to confirm that the observed failure is not a false positive. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

B.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

C.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been satisfactorily fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in modified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

D.

The purpose of regression testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been satisfactorily resolved. The purpose of the confirmation testing is to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

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