Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?
Risk management action plans
Business impact analysis (BIA)
What-if technique
Tabletop exercise results
Business Impact Analysis (BIA):
Purpose: A BIA is a systematic process to evaluate the potential effects of an interruption to critical business operations as a result of a disaster, accident, or emergency.
Identification of Consequences: It identifies critical resources and the consequences of their loss, allowing an organization to determine the operational and financial impacts of such losses.
Steps Involved in BIA:
Identify Critical Functions: Determine which business functions and processes are essential to the organization's operations.
Assess Impact: Evaluate the impact of losing these functions on the organization’s ability to operate.
Estimate Downtime Tolerance: Determine the maximum allowable downtime for critical functions before significant harm occurs.
Identify Dependencies: Document dependencies between systems, processes, and resources to understand how disruptions to one part affect the whole.
Comparison with Other Options:
Risk Management Action Plans: These are detailed plans developed to address identified risks but do not specifically focus on the impact of losing critical resources.
What-if Technique: This is a brainstorming technique used to explore potential risks and their impacts but is not as structured as a BIA.
Tabletop Exercise Results: These exercises simulate disaster scenarios to test response plans but do not provide the comprehensive impact analysis that a BIA does.
Best Practices:
Regular Updates: Regularly update the BIA to reflect changes in the business environment and operational dependencies.
Integration with DR/BC Plans: Ensure that findings from the BIA are integrated into disaster recovery (DR) and business continuity (BC) plans to enhance overall preparedness.
Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?
Repeatable
Automated
Quantitative
Qualitative
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that helps organizations monitor and assess potential risks that may impact their operations, objectives, or performance. A good KRI should have certain characteristics that make it effective for risk management. One of these characteristics is repeatability, which means that the KRI can be measured consistently over time and across different situations. A repeatable KRI ensures that the risk data is reliable, comparable, and meaningful, and that the risk trends and patterns can be identified and analyzed. A repeatable KRI also supports the decision-making process by providing timely and accurate information on the risk level and status. Therefore, repeatability is the most important attribute of a KRI. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 441
Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of aligning generic risk scenarios with business objectives?
It establishes where controls should be implemented.
It ensures relevance to the organization.
It quantifies the materiality of any losses that may occur.
It provides better estimates of the impact of current threats.
By aligning risk scenarios with business objectives, risk practitioners can accurately measure the potential loss (materiality) based on business value. This enhances prioritization and allows for risk treatment to be directed toward what impacts the organization’s mission and goals the most.
When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?
BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.
BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.
Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time that an IT system can be inoperable without causing significant damage to the business operations and objectives. RTOs are determined by the business impact analysis (BIA) and are used to define the recovery strategies and priorities. Therefore, if the RTOs do not meet the business requirements, it would be themost significant deficiency in the BCP, as it would imply that the recovery plan is not aligned with the business needs and expectations. The other options are not the most significant deficiencies, as they do not directly affect the recovery time and the business continuity. BCP testing is not necessarily done in conjunction with the DRP, as they have different scopes and objectives. BCP testing can use different methods, such as walk-through, simulation, or full interruption, depending on the purpose and scope of the test. Each business location can have separate BCPs, as long as they are consistent with the enterprise-wide BCP and the business requirements. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2, page 240.
Which of the following is MOST helpful to facilitate the decision of recovery priorities in a disaster situation?
Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)
Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
Risk Scenario Analysis
A BIA identifies critical processes and interdependencies, enabling prioritization of recovery efforts based on business impact.
Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?
An alert being reported by the security operations center.
Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response
Completion of a project for implementing a new control
Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan
The completion of a project for implementing a new control would most likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. The completion of a project for implementing a new control means that a risk response has been executed and a new control has been established. This may affect the likelihood and/or impact of the related risks, and the residual risk level. Therefore, the risk practitioner should update the risk register to reflect the current status and outcome of the risk response and the new control. The other options are not as likely to require a risk practitioner to update the risk register, as they are related to the reporting, planning, or assessment of the risks or the controls, not the implementation or completion of the risk response or the new control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
An organization is implementing Internet of Things (IoT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?
Insufficient network isolation
Lack of interoperability between sensors
Insecure data transmission protocols
Impact on network performance
IoT devices often lack strong built-in security, and CRISC stresses that the most serious risk is insufficient network isolation, because it exposes the entire enterprise network. If IoT devices are placed on the same network as business systems, an attacker who compromises an IoT device can move laterally to critical assets. This significantly increases the risk of a major security incident. Insecure transmission protocols are a concern but can be mitigated with encryption layers. Sensor interoperability and performance issues are operational problems but do not pose major security threats. Proper segmentation, isolation, and VLAN separation are the most critical controls for IoT risk reduction.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a control is not meeting agreed-upon performance criteria?
Implement additional controls to further mitigate risk
Review performance results with the control owner
Redefine performance criteria based on control monitoring results
Recommend a tool to meet the performance requirements
The best approach is tocollaborate with the control ownerto understand root causes and determine next steps. This respects ownership and enables targeted, informed decision-making before implementing drastic changes.
A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?
Subscription to data breach monitoring sites
Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts
Increased monitoring of executive accounts
Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance
Training employees to recognize and respond to social engineering tactics is the most effective way to mitigate these attacks. It empowers staff to act as the first line of defense, aligning withRisk Awareness and Organizational Trainingpractices.
The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:
the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value
there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control
the mitigation measures create compounding effects
the control eliminates the risk
The most important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value, because this determines the cost-benefit ratio of the control. A control should not be implemented if the cost of implementing and maintaining it is higher than the expected benefit of reducing the risk exposure. The other options are not the most important considerations, although they may also influence the control selection process. The availability of internal resources, the potential compounding effects, and the possibility of eliminating the risk are secondary factors that depend on the cost and value of the control. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is
maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets
determine their sensitivity and critical
establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)
categorize data into groups
Information asset classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity and criticality to an information asset based on its value, importance, and impact to the organization. The major reason to classify information assets is to determine their sensitivity and criticality, which are the measures of how confidential, proprietary, or sensitive the information is, and how essential, urgent, or time-sensitive the information is for the business operations. By determining the sensitivity and criticality of information assets, the organization can prioritize the protection and recovery of the information assets, implement the appropriate security controls and safeguards, comply with the regulatory and contractual requirements, and manage the information lifecycle and disposal. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 74.
The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:
facilitate resource availability.
help ensure objectives are met.
safeguard corporate assets.
help prevent operational losses.
According to the What Is Risk Management & Why Is It Important? article, risk management is the systematic process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating threats or uncertainties that can affect your organization. The primary goal of a risk management program is to help ensure objectives are met, by aligning the risk management process with the organization’s strategy, vision, mission, values, and objectives. By having a risk management program, an organization can identify potential problems before they occur and have a plan for addressing them, as well as monitor and report on the effectiveness of the risk responses. This can help the organization to achieve its desired outcomes and create value for its stakeholders. References = What Is Risk Management & Why Is It Important?
Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?
Previous audit reports
Control objectives
Risk responses in the risk register
Changes in risk profiles
Understanding the Question:
The question seeks to identify which source provides the most useful information for evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Previous audit reports:Provide historical data but might not reflect current risks.
B. Control objectives:These are standards to be achieved, not current evaluations.
C. Risk responses in the risk register:Useful but focused on specific responses rather than overall effectiveness.
D. Changes in risk profiles:Reflect current and emerging risks, providing a dynamic view of control effectiveness.
Risk Profiles:Evaluating changes in risk profiles helps understand how effective existing controls are against current threats. If risk levels are increasing, it may indicate that controls are insufficient or need updating.
Proactive Adjustment:By monitoring changes in risk profiles, organizations can proactively adjust their controls to address new or evolving risks.
Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?
Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.
Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.
Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.
Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.
Ensuring segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes is the best strategy employed by risk management to prevent internal fraud, because it reduces the opportunity for a single person to manipulate or misuse the system or process for fraudulent purposes. Segregation of duties is a control that assigns different roles and responsibilities to different individuals, such that no one person can perform all the steps of a transaction or process. Requiring control owners to conduct an annual control certification, conducting regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting, and requiring the information security officer to review unresolved incidents are all useful strategies to detect ordeter internal fraud, but they are not the best strategy to prevent it, as they do not directly address the root cause of fraud. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, page 197
An automobile manufacturer is considering implementing an Internet of Things (IoT) network to improve customer service by collecting customer and vehicle data. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation?
Establish secure design and coding practices for the IoT network and devices
Conduct a pilot program before implementing the IoT network and devices
Ensure backward compatibility of IoT devices with previous generations of vehicles
Provide a range of IoT device options and configurations for customers
The greatest inherent risk in IoT adoption is the potential for vulnerabilities within device software and connectivity. The best way to reduce this risk is to implement secure-by-design and secure-coding practices from the outset.
CRISC guidance:
“For emerging technologies such as IoT, risk mitigation begins with embedding secure design, coding, and configuration practices throughout the development lifecycle.”
Pilot testing is beneficial but occurs later; secure design is foundational.
Hence, A is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 3 – Risk Response and Mitigation, Topic: Secure System Development and Emerging Technologies.
Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?
The outsourcing of related IT processes
Outcomes of periodic risk assessments
Changes in service level objectives
Findings from continuous monitoring
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to measure and evaluate the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies1. KPIs for critical IT assets are KPIs that focus onthe performance and value of the IT assets that are essential for the organization’s operations and functions2. KPIs for critical IT assets may include metrics such as availability, reliability, utilization, cost, and security of the IT assets3. The need to review and update KPIs for critical IT assets may be driven by various factors, such as changes in the business environment, customer expectations, or regulatory requirements. However, the most likely factor that would drive the need to review and update KPIs for critical IT assets is the outcomes of periodic risk assessments. A risk assessment is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and their potential impacts on the organization’s objectives and performance4. A periodic risk assessment is a risk assessment that is performed at regular intervals, such as monthly, quarterly, or annually, to capture the changes and updates in the risk environment and the risk profile5. The outcomes of periodic risk assessments would most likely drive the need to review and update KPIs for critical IT assets, as they would provide insights into the current and emerging risks that may affect the performance and value of the critical IT assets, as well as the effectiveness and efficiency of the existingand planned controls and responses. By reviewing and updating the KPIs for critical IT assets based on the outcomes of periodic risk assessments, the organization can ensure that the KPIs are relevant, realistic, and aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and that they provide accurate and timely information for decision making and reporting. The outsourcing of related IT processes, changes in service level objectives, and findings from continuous monitoring are not the most likely factors that would drive the need to review and update KPIs for critical IT assets, as they do not provide the same level of information and impact as the outcomes of periodic risk assessments. The outsourcing of related IT processes is a decision that involves transferring some or all of the IT processes that support or enable the critical IT assets to an external service provider. The outsourcing of related IT processes may affect the performance and value of the critical IT assets, but it does not necessarily require a review and update of the KPIs for critical IT assets, as the KPIs may still be valid and applicable for the outsourced IT processes. Changes in service level objectives are changes in the expected or agreed level of quality or performance of the IT services that support or enable the critical IT assets. Changes in service level objectives may affect the performance and value of the critical IT assets, but they do not necessarily require a review and update of theKPIs for critical IT assets, as the KPIs may still be consistent and compatible with the changed service level objectives. Findings from continuous monitoring are the results or outcomes of the ongoing observation and measurement of the performance and compliance of the IT processes and systems that support or enable the critical IT assets. Findings from continuous monitoring may affect the performance and value of the critical IT assets, but they do not necessarily require a review and update of the KPIs for critical IT assets, as the KPIs may still be relevant and reliable for the continuously monitored IT processes and systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:
develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy
develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios
identify root causes for relevant events
perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis
Low-probability, high-impact events are those that have a low chance of occurring but would cause significant harm if they do. These events are often difficult to predict and quantify, but they can have a major impact on the organization’s objectives, reputation, or operations. By including these events in a risk assessment, the organization can develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios that reflect the potential consequences of different outcomes1. This can help the organization to prioritize its risk management activities and allocate its resources accordingly.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Assessment Process
Which of the following BEST helps to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk?
Prioritizing risk responses
Evaluating risk based on frequency and probability
Considering risk factors that can be quantified
Managing the risk by using controls
Prioritizing risk responses helps to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk by ensuring that the most significant risks are addressed first and that the resources allocated to risk management are used efficiently and effectively. Evaluating risk based on frequency and probability is a part of risk analysis, not risk response. Considering risk factors that can be quantified is also a part of risk analysis, and it does not necessarily capture all the relevant aspects of risk. Managing the risk by using controls is a possible risk response, but it does not guarantee that the costs and benefits of risk management are balanced, as some controls may be too expensive or ineffective for the level of risk they mitigate. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 145.
To ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) are effective and meaningful, the KRIs should be aligned to:
A control framework
Industry standards
Capability maturity targets
Business processes
KRIs must be aligned to business processes to ensure they reflect actual risk conditions affecting critical operations. Misalignment can lead to inaccurate monitoring and ineffective response.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?
Well documented policies and procedures
Risk and issue tracking
An IT strategy committee
Change and release management
The best way to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover is to have well documented policies and procedures. Policies and procedures are the formal documents that define the roles, responsibilities, processes, and standards for the IT risk management function. They provide guidance, consistency, and continuity for the IT risk management activities and outcomes. They also facilitate the knowledge transfer, training, and performance evaluation of the IT risk management staff. The other options are not as helpful as well documented policies and procedures, as they are related to the tools, mechanisms, or structures that support the IT risk management function, not the foundation and direction of the IT risk managementfunction. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Management Process, page 15.
Which of the following MUST be captured in a risk treatment plan?
Risk owner
Senior management
Risk register details
Risk financial impact
Each risk in a treatment plan must have a designated risk owner accountable for implementing the mitigation or response.
CRISC states:
“The risk treatment plan must specify the risk owner responsible for implementing chosen treatments for risks exceeding tolerance.”
While financial details and register links are supportive, ownership is mandatory for accountability.
Hence, A. Risk owner is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 3 – Risk Response and Mitigation, Topic: Developing and Managing Risk Treatment Plans.
Risk mitigation procedures should include:
buying an insurance policy.
acceptance of exposures
deployment of counter measures.
enterprise architecture implementation.
Risk mitigation procedures are the actions and plans that an organization implements to reduce the likelihood and impact of identified risks. Risk mitigation procedures should include the deployment of counter measures, which are the specific controls or solutions that address the root causes or sources of the risks, and prevent or minimize the potential losses or damages. For example, a counter measure for therisk of data breach could be encrypting the data or implementing a firewall. The deployment of counter measures should be based on a cost-benefit analysis, a risk assessment, and a risk response strategy. The other options are not necessarily part of risk mitigation procedures. Buying an insurance policy is an example of risk transfer,which is a risk response strategy that shifts the responsibility or burden of the risk to another party, such as an insurer or a vendor. However, risk transfer does not eliminate or reduce the risk itself, and it may involve additional costs or conditions. Acceptance of exposures is an example of risk acceptance, which is a risk response strategy that acknowledges the existence and consequences of the risk, and decides not to take any action to change the risk situation. However, risk acceptance does not mitigate the risk, and it may require contingency plans or reserves to deal with the potential outcomes. Enterprise architecture implementation is an example of a business process or project that may involve or create risks, but it is not a risk mitigation procedure itself. Enterprise architecture is the design and structure of an organization’s IT systems, networks, and resources, and how they align with the organization’s goals and strategies. Enterprise architecture implementation may require risk management activities, such as risk identification, assessment, and response, but it is not a risk mitigation procedure itself. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 151
Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?
Calculating the cost
Analyzing cost-effectiveness
Determining the stakeholders
Identifying the objectives
The first step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management is to identify the objectives of the project. The objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the project aims to accomplish. The objectives should be aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the identified business problem or opportunity. The objectives should also reflect the expected benefits and outcomes of the project, such as reducing the risk exposure, enhancing the security posture, or improving the business performance. Identifying the objectives is the first step because it provides the direction, scope, and justification for the project, and it serves as the basis for evaluating the alternative solutions, estimating the costs and benefits, and communicating the value proposition to the senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not the first step, although they may be subsequent or concurrent steps in the business case development process. Calculating the cost is a part of the financial analysis, which estimates the total expenditure and funding sources of the project, but it does not define the purpose or the scope of the project. Analyzing cost-effectiveness is a part of the economic analysis, which compares the costs and benefits of the alternative solutions and recommends the optimal one, but it does not specify the goals or the criteria of the project. Determining the stakeholders is a part of the stakeholder analysis, which identifies and assesses the interests, expectations, and influence of the parties involved in or affected by the project, but it does not establish the objectives or the rationale of the project. References = Business case: 7 key steps to build it and use it - Twproject: project …, Guide to developing the Project Business Case - GOV.UK, How to Write a Business Case: Template & Examples | Adobe Workfront
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner
recommend be done NEXT?
Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.
Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.
Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.
Reduce the risk tolerance level.
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. This means that the potential benefits of BYOD outweigh the potential risks, and that the controls in place are adequate to mitigate those risks.
The next step for the risk practitioner is to identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact. Log sources are records of events or activities that occur in a system or network, such as file access, network traffic, user behavior, etc. Log sources can provide valuable information about how BYOD devices are used, what data they access, what applications they run, what threats they encounter, etc.
By monitoring log sources, the risk practitioner can track and measure the actual performance and security of BYOD devices, compare them with the expected outcomes and standards,identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate a breach or a vulnerability, and take appropriate actions to address them.
Therefore, identifying log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact is a recommended action after a successful risk assessment.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 10
Information Technology & Security, page 4
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 2
The use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) when applied to an FTP connection is an example of which type of control category?
Compensating
Detective
Deterrent
Corrective
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to ISACA CRISC guidance)
Multi-factor authentication (MFA) added to an FTP connection is typically used as a compensating control when the primary mechanism (e.g., legacy FTP protocol without strong encryption or modern authentication support) cannot be fully replaced in the short term. A compensating control provides an alternative safeguard that meets the intent of a required control and affords comparable or enhanced protection. MFA strengthens authentication and reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access, thereby compensating for inherent weaknesses in the underlying protocol or environment. Detective controls identify events after they occur (e.g., logging, monitoring). Deterrent controls discourage attempts (e.g., warning banners, visible cameras). Corrective controls act after an event to restore the system (e.g., backups, patches). Here, MFA is proactive, implemented in place of or in addition to the required stronger protocol, making “compensating” the most appropriate category.
An organization has implemented immutable backups to prevent successful ransomware attacks. Which of the following is the MOST effective control for the risk practitioner to review?
Data recovery testing of the backups
Physical security of the backups
Configuration of the backup solution
Retention policy for the backups
A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?
Assessing risk with no controls in place
Showing projected residual risk
Providing peer benchmarking results
Assessing risk with current controls in place
Showing projected residual risk is the most helpful way to respond to the request of explaining how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. Projected residual risk is the estimated level of risk that will remain at a future point in time, based on the assumptions and expectations of the risk responses2. By showing projected residual risk, the risk practitioner can:
Demonstrate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk treatment plans, and how they reduce the risk level from the inherent risk (the risk before the risk responses) to the residual risk3.
Compare the projected residual risk with the risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives4. This can help to determine whether the projected residual risk is acceptable or not, and whether the risk treatment plans are consistent and proportional to the risk level5.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the achievement of the projected residual risk, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions or contingency plans6.
The other options are not the most helpful ways to respond to the request, because:
Assessing risk with no controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the current or future risk posture of the organization. Controls are the measures or actions that are implemented to modify the risk, such as prevent, detect, correct, or mitigate the risk7. Assessing risk with no controls in place can help to measure the inherent risk, but it does not show the impact or outcome of the risk treatment plans.
Providing peer benchmarking results is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the specific or unique risk profile of the organization. Peer benchmarking is the process ofcomparing the organization’s risk level and performance with its peers or competitors, based on a common set of criteria or indicators8. Providing peer benchmarking results can help to provide a reference or a standard for the risk posture, but it does not show the effect or result of the risk treatment plans.
Assessing risk with current controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the future or projected risk posture of the organization. Assessing risk with current controls in place can help to measure the current residual risk, but it does not show the expected or estimated residual risk at the end of the year.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Projected Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Control - CIO Wiki
Benchmarking - CIO Wiki
[Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following BEST contributes to the implementation of an effective risk response action plan?
An IT tactical plan
Disaster recovery and continuity testing
Assigned roles and responsibilities
A business impact analysis
A governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution is an integrated system that supports the management of governance, risk, and compliance activities across the enterprise. A GRC solution can provide benefits such as improved efficiency, consistency, transparency, andaccountability. The best justification to invest in the development of a GRC solution is to facilitate risk-aware decision making by stakeholders. By providing a holistic view of the enterprise’s risk profile, a GRC solution can enable stakeholders to make informed decisions that are aligned with the enterprise’s objectives, risk appetite, and tolerance. A GRC solution can also help to monitor and report on the performance and outcomes of the risk management program, and provide feedback and assurance to the board of directors and senior management. The other options are not as compelling as the facilitation of risk-aware decision making, as they may not directly contribute to the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives or the management of its risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.2.1, pp. 12-13.
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?
An annual contract review
A service level agreement (SLA)
A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework
A requirement to provide an independent audit report
A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a SaaS vendor and a customer that defines the quality and availability of the SaaS service, as well as the responsibilities and obligations of both parties. An SLA is most important to include in a SaaS vendor agreement because it sets the expectations and standards for the SaaS service, provides a mechanism for measuring and monitoring the serviceperformance, and establishes the remedies and penalties for service failures or breaches. An SLA can also help to mitigate the risks and liabilities associated with SaaS delivery, such as data security, privacy, compliance, and disaster recovery. The other options are not the most important to include in a SaaS vendor agreement, although they may be beneficial or desirable depending on the context and nature of the SaaS service. An annual contract review is a process of evaluating and revising the SaaS vendor agreement to reflect the changing needs and circumstances of the customer and the vendor, but it is not a mandatory or essential element of the agreement. A requirement to adopt an established risk managementframework is a way of ensuring that the SaaS vendor follows the best practices and standards for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the SaaS service, but it is not a specific or measurable term of the agreement. A requirement to provide an independent audit report is a way of verifying and validating the SaaS vendor’s compliance with the SLA and other contractual obligations, but it is not a direct or primary component of the agreement. References = SaaS Agreements: Key Contractual Provisions, SaaS Agreement: Everything You Need to Know, Essential checklist for SaaS agreement negotiations, KeyClauses To Understand and Evaluate in SaaS Contracts, SaaS Reseller Agreement: Everything You Need to Know
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans?
Risk policy review
Business impact analysis (B1A)
Control catalog
Risk register
A risk register is a document that is used as a risk management tool to identify and track risks that may affect a project or an organization1. A risk register also includes information about the risk responses,which are the actions taken or planned to mitigate or eliminate the risks2. Therefore, a risk register provides the best evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans, as it shows the status and progress of the riskresponses, the results and outcomes of the risk responses, and the feedback and lessons learned from the risk responses3. A risk policy review is not the best evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans, as it does not provide specific information on the risk responses. A risk policy review is a process that involves checking and verifying that the organization’s risk management policies are up to date, relevant, and effective4. A risk policy review can help to identify and address any gaps or issues in the risk management policies, but it does not show the details and performance of the risk responses. A business impact analysis (BIA) is not the best evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans, as it does not provide specific information on the riskresponses. A BIA is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of a disruption on the critical functions and processes of an organization5. A BIA can help to forecast the impacts of a risk event, but it does not show the actions and outcomes of the risk responses. A control catalog is not the best evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans, as it does not provide specific information on the risk responses. A control catalog is adocument that lists and describes the controls that are implemented or planned to manage the risks within an organization6. A control catalog can help to document and communicate the controls, but it does not show the status and results of the risk responses. References = 1: Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana2: Risk Response Strategy and Contingency Plans - ProjectManagement.com3: Risk Register: Examples, Benefits, and Best Practices4: A brief guide to assessing risks and controls | ACCA Global5: Using Business Impact Analysis to Inform Risk Prioritization and Response6: [Control Catalogue - ISACA]
From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?
Residual risk is reduced.
Staff costs are reduced.
Operational costs are reduced.
Inherent risk is reduced.
From a risk management perspective, the primary benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools is that they reduce the inherent risk, which is the risk that exists before any controls are applied. Automated system configuration validation tools can help to ensure that the system settings are consistent, compliant, and secure, and that they match the predefined standards and policies. This can reduce the likelihood and impact of errors, misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, or deviations that may compromise the system’s functionality, performance, or integrity. The other options are not the primary benefits of using automated system configuration validation tools, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the controls are applied, and it may not be directly affected by the automated system configuration validation tools. Staff costs and operational costs are related to the efficiency and economy of the system configuration process, but they are not the main risk management objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 150.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?
Communicate the new risk profile.
Implement a new risk assessment process.
Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.
Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).
Communicating the new risk profile is the best recommendation for a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure, because it helps to inform and align the stakeholders on the current state of risks and their implications for the organization’s objectives and strategy. A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that an organization faces, along with their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. An organizational structure is the way that an organization arranges its people, roles, and responsibilities to achieve its goals and deliver its value proposition. A change in the organizational structure may affect the risk profile, as it may introduce new sources or types of risk, or alter the existing risk levels orresponses. Therefore, communicating the new risk profile is the best recommendation, as it helps to ensure that the stakeholders are aware of and prepared for the changes and challenges that the new organizational structure may bring. Implementing a new risk assessment process, revalidating the corporate risk appetite, and reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs) are all important tasks to perform after communicating the new risk profile, but they are not the best recommendation, as they depend on the communication and understanding of the new risk profile. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3, page 91
A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:
a root cause analysis is required
controls are effective for ensuring continuity
hardware needs to be upgraded
no action is required as there was no impact
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control documents, the risk practitioner should conclude that no action is required as there was no impact. The fact that there have been no interruptions to business operations despite the increasing hardware failure incidents indicates that the built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture are effective in ensuring continuity.
Options A and C are not necessary in this scenario. A root cause analysis (Option A) might be considered if there were actual interruptions or impact on business operations. However, since there were no interruptions, a root cause analysis may not be immediately required. Similarly, upgrading hardware (Option C) may not be necessary if the existing controls are effectively preventing business disruptions.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual
Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?
Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios
Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution
Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans
Prioritization for implementing the action plans
The management’s primary consideration when approving risk response action plans should be the changes in residual risk after implementing the plans. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. It indicates the degree of exposure or uncertainty that the organization still faces, and the potential impact or consequences of the risk events. The management should evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the risk responses, and decide whether the residual risk is acceptable or not2. The management should also compare the residual risk with the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives3. The management should ensure that the residual risk is aligned with the risk appetite, and that the risk responses are consistent and proportional to the risk level4.
The other options are not the primary consideration when approving risk response action plans, because:
Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios is a desirable but not essential criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how a risk event could occur and what the consequences could be5. They can help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risks, and to design and evaluate the risk responses6. However, not all risk scenarios are equally likely or relevant, and some risk scenarios may be too complex or improbable to address. Therefore, the ability of the action plansto address multiple risk scenarios is not the primary consideration, but rather a secondary or supplementary one.
Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution is a practical but not critical criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk treatment is the process of selecting and applying appropriate measures to modify the risk7. It can involve different strategies, such as avoid, reduce, transfer, or accept the risk8. The ease of implementing the risk treatment solution depends on various factors, such as the availability of resources, the feasibility of the solution, or the cooperation of the stakeholders. However, the ease of implementation is not the primary consideration, but rather a supporting or facilitating one.
Prioritization for implementing the action plans is a useful but not vital criterion for approving risk response action plans. Prioritization is the process of ranking the action plans according to their importance, urgency, or impact. It can help to allocate the resources, schedule the activities, and monitor the progress of the action plans. However, prioritization is not the primary consideration, but rather a subsequent or follow-up one.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack - ISACA
Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
[Prioritization - CIO Wiki]
A business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Recommend allowing the new usage based on prior approval.
Request a new third-party review.
Request revalidation of the original use case.
Assess the risk associated with the new use case.
A risk practitioner’s best course of action when a business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization is to assess the risk associated with the new use case. This is because the new use case may introduce different or additional risks that were not considered or addressed in the original approval. For example, the new use case may involve different data types, volumes, or sensitivities; different business processes, functions, or objectives; different regulatory or contractual requirements; or different technical or operational dependencies. Therefore, the risk practitioner should perform a vendor risk assessment (VRA) to identify, evaluate, and mitigate the potential risks of the new use case and ensure that the vendor solution meets the organization’s riskappetite and tolerance12. Recommending allowing the new usage based on prior approval is not the best course of action, as it may overlook or underestimate the risks of the new use case and expose the organization to unacceptable levels of risk. Requesting a new third-party review is not the best course of action,as it may be unnecessary or redundant if the vendor solution has already been reviewed and approved for another use case within the organization. Requesting revalidation of the original use case is not the best course of action, as it may not address the specific risks of the new use case and may also delay or disrupt the existing use case. References = Risk and Information SystemsControl Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to an organization's use of AI technology?
The AI system's contract does not include a right-to-audit clause
The AI system is being used beyond its intended purpose
The AI system is on unsupported infrastructure
The AI system results have not been validated
Unvalidated AI outputs pose considerable integrity and operational risks, potentially leading to erroneous decisions or compliance lapses. ISACA CRISC guidance underscores that ensuring results validity is a highest-priority control for new technologies such as AI.
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?
Perform a gap analysis
Conduct system testing
Implement compensating controls
Update security policies
Performing a gap analysis is the best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization. A gap analysis can help identify the current state of compliance, the desired state of compliance, and the actions needed to achieve compliance. Conducting system testing, implementing compensating controls, and updating security policies are possible actions that may result from the gap analysis, but they arenot the best initial recommendation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 1; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 143.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?
Assign process owners to key risk areas.
Obtain independent risk assessments.
Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.
Create accurate process narratives.
The most effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk is to assign process owners to key risk areas. Process owners are the persons or entities that have the authority andresponsibility to manage a specific process or a group of related processes. Process owners help to identify, assess, and respond to the risks associated with the process, and to monitor and report on the process performance and improvement. Process owners also help to communicate and coordinate the process management activities with the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. Assigning process owners to key risk areas helps to ensure accountability for managing risk, because it helps to define and clarify the roles and responsibilities of the process owners, and to establish and enforce the expectations and standards for the process owners. Assigning process owners to key risk areas also helps to measure and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the process owners, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the process management activities. The other options are not as effective as assigning process owners to key risk areas, although they may be related to the risk management process. Obtaining independent risk assessments, assigning incident response action plan responsibilities, and creating accurate process narratives are all activities that can help to support or improve the risk management process, but they do not necessarily ensure accountability for managing risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-11.
Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?
Risk owner
Security management function
IT management
Enterprise risk function
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the security management function is responsible for ensuring that effective cybersecurity controls are established and maintained. The security management function should:
Define the cybersecurity strategy and objectives aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and business goals
Establish and maintain the cybersecurity policies, standards, procedures and guidelines
Implement and monitor the cybersecurity controls and processes
Coordinate and communicate with other stakeholders, such as risk owners, IT management, enterprise risk function, internal and external auditors, regulators and third parties
Report on the cybersecurity performance and risk posture to senior management and the board
Continuously improve the cybersecurity capabilities and maturity
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Management Roles and Responsibilities, pp. 29-301
Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?
Conduct penetration testing.
Interview IT operations personnel.
Conduct vulnerability scans.
Review change control board documentation.
Conducting vulnerability scans is the best way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program. Vulnerability scans are automated tools that identify and report on the vulnerabilities in a system or network, such as missing patches, misconfigurations, or outdated software. Vulnerability scans can help the risk practitioner to verify that the patches have been applied correctly and consistently, and that there are no remaining or new vulnerabilities that need to be addressed. Conducting penetration testing, interviewing IT operations personnel, and reviewing change control board documentation are also useful methods to evaluate the patching program, but they are not as comprehensive, objective, or timely as vulnerabilityscans. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3, page 2-28.
Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?
Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives
Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review
Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk
Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate
The most important outcome of reviewing the risk management process is assuring that the risk profile supports the IT objectives, because this ensures that the organization is managing its IT-related risks in alignment with its business goals and priorities. The risk profile is a summary of the key risks that the organization faces, their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. The IT objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the organization expects to achieve from its IT investments and activities. Byreviewing the risk management process, the organization can evaluate whether the risk profile is accurate, complete, and up-to-date, and whether the risk responses are effective, efficient, and consistent with the IT objectives. The review can also identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and provide recommendations for enhancing the process and its outcomes. The review can also help to communicate and report the value and performance of the risk management process to the senior management, the board of directors, and other stakeholders. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 17
During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:
compensating controls are in place.
a control mitigation plan is in place.
risk management is effective.
residual risk is accepted.
Compensating controls are additional or alternative controls that are implemented when the existing controls are found to be ineffective or do not meet the required standards. Compensating controls are designed to reduce the risk exposure to an acceptable level and ensure that the organization can still comply with the relevant regulations and industry best practices. For an organization that processes credit cards, compensating controls may include enhanced encryption, monitoring, auditing, or authentication mechanisms. By having compensating controls in place, the organization can maintain an effective overall control environment despitethe deficiencies in the existing controls. The other options are not correct because they do not ensure that the overall control environment is effective. A control mitigation plan is a document that outlines the actions and resources needed to address the control deficiencies, but it does not guarantee that the compensating controls will be implemented or effective. Risk management is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks, but it does not directly affect the control environment. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk treatment, and it may or may not be acceptable depending on the risk appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 153-1541; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 632
Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:
it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.
structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.
structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.
technical specifications are defined during this phase.
Controls are the mechanisms or procedures that ensure the security, reliability, and quality of an IT system or process. Controls can be preventive, detective, or corrective, and can be implemented at various levels, such as physical, logical, administrative, or technical. Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase. The design phase is the stage where the system requirements are translated into a detailed technical plan, which includes the system architecture, database structure, user interface, and system components. The design phase also defines the system objectives, goals, and performance criteria. Defining controls during the design phase can help ensure that the controls are aligned with the system requirements and objectives, and that they are integrated into the system design from the start. Defining controls during the design phase can also help avoid or reduce the costs and risks associated with implementing controls later in the development or operation phases, such as rework, delays, errors, failures, or breaches. References = THE SYSTEM DEVELOPMENT LIFE CYCLE (SDLC), p. 2-3, System Development LifeCycle - GeeksforGeeks, 7.3: Systems Development Life Cycle - Engineering LibreTexts, What Is SDLC? 7 Phases of System Development Life Cycle - Intetics.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?
Approval of the control by senior management
Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives
Control owner attestation of control effectiveness
Internal audit review of control design
Internal Audit Review:
An internal audit review of control design involves a thorough examination of the control’s structure, implementation, and effectiveness.
Auditors use a systematic, disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of risk management, control, and governance processes.
Steps in Audit Review:
Understand Control Objectives:Auditors ensure that the control is designed to meet specific risk management objectives.
Evaluate Implementation:Check whether the control has been implemented as designed.
Test Effectiveness:Perform tests to verify that the control operates effectively and consistently over time.
Importance of Audit Review:
Provides independent and objective assurance that the control is appropriately designed and functioning as intended.
Identifies any deficiencies or areas for improvement in the control design.
Comparing Other Validation Methods:
Senior Management Approval:Indicates support but does not validate effectiveness.
Documentation of Control Objectives:Important for understanding intent but not validation.
Control Owner Attestation:Provides insight but lacks the independence of an audit.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the role of internal audits in validating control design and ensuring effective risk management (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.9 Control Testing and Effectiveness Evaluation).
The GREATEST concern when maintaining a risk register is that:
impacts are recorded in qualitative terms.
executive management does not perform periodic reviews.
IT risk is not linked with IT assets.
significant changes in risk factors are excluded.
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. The greatest concern when maintaining a risk register is that significant changes in risk factors are excluded. Risk factors are the internal and external variables that influence the occurrence and impact of risks. Risk factors can change over time due to changes in the business environment, the IT landscape, the threat landscape, or the regulatory requirements. If the risk register does not reflect the significant changes in risk factors, it may not provide an accurate and current view of the enterprise’s risk profile and may not support effective risk management decisions and actions. The other options are not as concerning as the exclusion of significant changes in risk factors, as they involve different aspects of the risk register:
Impacts are recorded in qualitative terms means that the risk register uses descriptive scales, such as low, medium, and high, to measure the potential consequences of the risks. This may not be asprecise or consistent as quantitative measures, such as monetary values or percentages, but it does not necessarily affect the validity or usefulness of the risk register.
Executive management does not perform periodic reviews means that the risk register is not regularly evaluated and updated by the senior leaders of the enterprise. This may indicate a lack of management commitment or oversight for risk management, but it does not directly affect the quality or completeness of the risk register.
IT risk is not linked with IT assets means that the risk register does not associate the identified risks with the specific IT resources, such as hardware, software, data, or services, that are affected by or contribute to the risks. This may limit the visibility and traceability of the risks, but it does not necessarily affect the identification or assessment of the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2.2, pp. 21-22.
An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?
IT service desk manager
Sales manager
Customer service manager
Access control manager
Residual system access is the risk that the customer service representatives who are transferred to the sales department may still have access to the systems or applications that they used in their previous role, which may not be relevant or authorized for their new role.
The access control manager is the person or function who is responsible for defining, implementing, and maintaining the policies and procedures for granting, modifying, reviewing, and revoking access rights to the systems or applications, based on the principle of least privilege and the segregation of duties.
The access control manager is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access, by ensuring that the access rights of the customer service representatives are updated or removed according to their new role and responsibilities, and that the access changes are documented and approved by the appropriate authorities.
The other options are not responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access. They are either irrelevant or less effective than the access control manager.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 26
Information Technology & Security, page 20
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 18
A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.
The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.
The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.
The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.
According to the CRISC 351-400 topic3 Flashcards, the administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict, which should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner. Segregation of duties is a principle that aims to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of power by ensuring that no single person can perform incompatible functions, such as development, testing, and production. By having administrative access to a production application, a software developer can potentially modify the code, bypass the testing and approval process, and deploy the changes without proper authorization or documentation. This can compromise the integrity, availability, and security of the application, and expose the organization to operational, financial, legal, or reputational risks. Therefore, the answer is D. The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict. *References
Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?
Prioritize risk response options
Reduce likelihood.
Address more than one risk response
Reduce impact
The most important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization is to address more than one risk response. Aggregated risk responses are risk responses that can affect multiple risks or objectives simultaneously. By addressing more than one risk response, the organization can achieve cost efficiency and effectiveness in risk management. Prioritizing risk response options, reducing likelihood, and reducing impact are other possible objectives, but they are not as important from a cost perspective as addressing more than one risk response. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
External penetration tests MUST include:
use of consultants to ensure completeness.
communications to users of the target systems.
changes to target data to prove the attack was successful.
advance approval from system owners.
Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for
sensitive data?
Assess the threat and associated impact.
Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels
Recommend device management controls
Enable role-based access control.
Assessing the threat and associated impact is the next thing that a risk practitioner should do after learning that Internet of Things (IoT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for sensitive data. This is because assessing the threat and associated impact can help determine the level and nature of the risk posed by the IoT devices, as well as the potential consequences and costs of a security breach or incident. Assessing the threat and associated impact can also provide the basis for further risk analysis and response steps, such as evaluating risk appetite and tolerance levels, recommending device management controls, or enabling role-based access control. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, assessing the threat and associated impact is one of the key steps in the IT risk assessment process1. According to the web search results, assessing the threat and associated impact is a common and recommended practice for addressing the security risks of IoT devices
An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?
Risk profile
Risk culture
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
A risk profile is a summary of the nature and level of risk that an organization faces. It includes information such as the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. A risk profile is influenced by various factors, such as the organization’s objectives, strategies, activities, processes, resources, capabilities, culture, etc. When an organization configures a new business division, the factor that is most likely to be affected is the risk profile, as the new business division may introduce new or change existing risks, opportunities, and uncertainties that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. Therefore, the organization should update its risk profile to reflect the currentand potential risks associated withthe new business division, and implement the appropriate risk management actions to optimize the risk exposure and performance. References = 4
Which of the following is the MOST important driver of an effective enterprise risk management (ERM) program?
Risk policy
Risk committee
Risk culture
Risk management plan
Risk culture is the foundation upon which ERM is built. It dictates how employees perceive, communicate, and act on risk. A strong risk culture ensures consistency in risk behaviors, supports governance, and sustains long-term effectiveness of the ERM.
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:
by the security administration team.
successfully within the expected time frame.
successfully during the first attempt.
without causing an unplanned system outage.
The best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed successfully within the expected time frame. This KPI can help to evaluate how well the security patching process meets the predefined objectives and standards, and how timely the patches are applied to reduce the risk exposure. The percentage of patches installed by the security administration team, successfully during the first attempt, or without causing an unplanned system outage are other possible KPIs, but they are not as relevant as the percentage of patches installed successfully within the expected time frame. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?
Time between control failure and failure detection
Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count
Time spent on internal control assessment reviews
Number of internal control failures within the measurement period
The effectiveness of a control monitoring program can be measured by how quickly it can detect and correct any control failures that may compromise the achievement of the organization’s objectives. A shorter time between control failure and failure detection means that the control monitoring program is able to identify and report the issues promptly, and initiate the remediation actions accordingly. This can reduce the impact and likelihood of the risks associated with the control failures, and enhance the performance and reliability of the controls. The other options are not as good indicators of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program, because they do not reflect the timeliness and responsiveness of the program, but rather the scope, effort, or frequency of the program. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.
The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure
The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract
The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract
The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services
The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient. In this case, the risk owner is also the owner of the business service that depends on the managed hosting service. Therefore, the risk owner should be notified of the new information about the flood risk first, as they have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The risk owner can then decide on the appropriate actions to take, such as reviewing the contract terms, requesting additional controls, or changing the service provider. The other options are not the correct answers because they are not the primary stakeholders of the risk and its consequences. The data center manager is an employee of the managed hosting service provider, not the organization that procured the service. The data center manager may not have the authority or the incentive to address the flood risk or inform the organization. The site manager is also an employee of the managed hosting service provider, and their role is to conduct annual risk assessments under the contract. The site manager may not be aware of the new information or have the responsibility to communicate it to the organization. The CIO is the senior executive who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization. The CIO may have a general interest in the managed hosting service and its risks, but they are not the direct owner or managerof the specific risk or the business service that relies on the service. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 702
Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?
Providing risk awareness training for business units
Obtaining input from business management
Understanding the business controls currently in place
Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)
Obtaining input from business management is the best way to enable the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation, because it helps to align and integrate the IT objectives and activities with the business goals and priorities. An IT strategy is a plan that defines how IT supports and enables the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy. A business risk mitigation is a process that aims to reduce or eliminate the risks that may affect the achievement of the business objectives or expectations. Obtaining input from business management is the best way to ensure that the IT strategy is relevant, realistic, and responsive to the business needs and challenges, and that the IT risks are identified, assessed, and managed in accordance with the business risk appetite and tolerance. Providing risk awareness training for business units, understanding the business controls currently in place, and conducting a businessimpact analysis (BIA) are all useful ways to support the development of an IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation, but they are not the best way, as they do not directly involve the input and feedback from business management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 37
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:
corporate culture alignment
low risk tolerance
high risk tolerance
corporate culture misalignment.
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure most likely demonstrates corporate culture misalignment, as it indicates that the organization is not following the principles and values of effective risk management, and that there is a lack of communication and coordination among the risk owners and stakeholders. Corporate culture misalignment can also result in inefficient and wasteful use of resources, and reduced risk-return trade-off. The organization should align its corporate culture with its risk appetite and tolerance, and ensure that the control costs are proportional and justified by the risk exposure and the expected benefits. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 255. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 255. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization's risk management processes are mature?
Risk policy is approved and communicated by the risk manager
Annual risk awareness training is conducted by risk owners
Risk principles are embedded within business operations and decisions
The board regularly follows up on risk status and action plans
CRISC maturity models describe high-maturity organizations as those where risk management is integrated into everyday operations and decision-making.
Supporting extract:
“An organization achieves mature risk management when risk principles are embedded within business operations, culture, and decision-making processes.”
A and B describe compliance-level practices.
D shows oversight but not integration.
C reflects operational embedding, which defines maturity.
CRISC Reference: Domain 1 – IT Risk Governance, Topic: Risk Management Maturity Model.
A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Report the issue to internal audit.
Submit a request to change management.
Conduct a risk assessment.
Review the business impact assessment.
The first course of action for a risk practitioner when discovering a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched is to conduct a risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that could affect the achievement of the objectives of the system or the organization. A risk assessment helps to determine the level and nature of the risk exposure, and to prioritize and respond to the risks. Conducting a risk assessment is the first course of action, as it helps to understand the source, cause, and impact of the deficiency, and to estimate the likelihood and consequences of the risk events that could exploit the deficiency. Conducting a risk assessment also helps to identify and evaluate the existing or potential controls or mitigations that could address the deficiency, and to recommend the appropriate risk treatment options. Reporting the issue to internal audit, submitting a request to change management, and reviewing the business impact assessment are not the first courses ofaction, as they are either the outputs or the inputs of the risk assessment process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the risk situation and status. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?
Automated access revocation
Daily transaction reconciliation
Rule-based data analytics
Role-based user access model
A role-based user access model is a type of technology control that assigns access rights and permissions to users based on their roles and responsibilities within the organization. A role-based user access model can reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally, because it can help to:
Enforce the principle of least privilege, which means that users only have the minimum level of access required to perform their duties
Implement segregation of duties, which means that users cannot perform conflicting or incompatible functions, such as initiating and approving payments
Prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access to sensitive data or systems, such as payment information or applications
Detect and deter fraud attempts by creating audit trails and logs of user activities and transactions
Simplify and streamline the management and maintenance of user access rights and permissions, such as adding, modifying, or deleting users or roles12
The other options are not as important as a role-based user access model for reducing the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally. Automated access revocation is a technology control that automatically revokes or suspends user access rights and permissions when certain conditions are met, such as termination of employment, change of role, or expiration of password. Automated access revocation can help to prevent fraud by former or inactive users, but it does not address the risk of fraud by current oractive users3. Daily transaction reconciliation is a technology control that compares and verifies the transactions recorded in different systems or sources, such as bank statements and accounting records. Daily transaction reconciliation can help to detect fraud by identifying discrepancies or anomalies in the transactions, but it does not prevent fraud from occurring in the first place4. Rule-based data analytics is a technology control that applies predefined rules or criteria to analyze data and identify patterns, trends, or outliers. Rule-based data analytics can help to monitor fraud by generating alerts or reports of suspicious or unusual transactions, but it does not prevent fraud from happening or being attempted5. References =
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) - ISACA
Role-Based Access Control: What It Is and How It Works
Automated Access Revocation - ISACA
Reconciliation - ISACA
Rule-Based Data Analytics - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?
Approving operational strategies and objectives
Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk
Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program
Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register
Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?
The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools
Blocking the attack route immediately
The ability to trace the source of the attack
The timeliness of attack recognition
The most important factor for successful incident response is the timeliness of attack recognition. Incident response is the process of detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and reporting on security incidents that could affect the organization’s IT systems or data. The timeliness of attack recognition is the speed and accuracy with which the organization can identify and confirm that an attack has occurred or is in progress. The timeliness of attack recognition is crucial for successful incident response, as it affects the ability and effectiveness of the organization to respond to and mitigate the attack, and to minimize the damage and impact of the attack. The other options are not as important as the timeliness of attack recognition, although they may also contribute to or influence the incident response. The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools, the ability to trace the source of the attack, and the blocking of the attack route immediately are all factors that could help or hinder the incident response, but they are not the most important factor for successful incident response. References = CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?
Comparing the actual process with the documented process
Reviewing access logs for user activity
Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees
Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy
The best way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process is to reconcile a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees. This will ensure that the access rights of the employees who have left the organization are revoked in a timely and accurate manner, and that there are no orphaned or unauthorized accounts that could pose a security risk. Comparing the actual process with the documented process, reviewing access logs for user activity, and reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy are also useful methods, but they are not as direct and conclusive as reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of relying on artificial intelligence (Al) within heuristic security systems?
Al may result in less reliance on human intervention.
Malicious activity may inadvertently be classified as normal during baselining.
Risk assessments of heuristic security systems are more difficult.
Predefined patterns of malicious activity may quickly become outdated.
AI in Heuristic Security Systems:
Heuristic security systems use artificial intelligence (AI) to identify and respond to potential threats by learning from data patterns and behaviors.
Risk of Misclassification:
During the baselining process, AI systems establish what is considered normal behavior. If malicious activity is present during this period, it may be incorrectly classified as normal.
This misclassification can lead to undetected security breaches, as the system will not recognize these activities as threats in the future.
Impact of Misclassification:
Misclassified malicious activities can lead to significant security risks, allowing attackers to operate undetected within the system.
It undermines the effectiveness of the heuristic system, reducing its ability to protect the organization from real threats.
Comparing Other Risks:
Less Reliance on Human Intervention:This is a general concern but does not directly impact the accuracy of threat detection.
Difficulty in Risk Assessments:While a challenge, it is not the greatest risk compared to misclassification of malicious activity.
Outdated Patterns:While a concern, the primary risk lies in initial misclassification during baselining.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual discusses the challenges of AI in security systems, particularly the risk of misclassification during the learning phase (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 4: Information Technology and Security, Section 4.7.4 Artificial Intelligence) .
Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?
Control owner
Risk manager
Control operator
Risk treatment owner
The control owner is the person who is accountable for ensuring that a control is designed, implemented, and operated effectively to mitigate risk. The control owner is also responsible for monitoring the performance of the control and reporting any issues or deficiencies. The risk manager is the person who oversees the risk management process and ensures that risks are identified, assessed, and treated appropriately. The control operator is the person who executes the control activities on a day-to-day basis. The risk treatment owner is the person who is accountable for implementing the risk response strategy and ensuring that the residual risk is within the acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, p. 181.
What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Ensure compliance.
Identify trends.
Promote a risk-aware culture.
Optimize resources needed for controls
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the primary reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs) is to identify trends, because it helps to monitor the changes and patterns in the performance and effectiveness of the risk management processes and controls. KPIs are metrics that measure the achievement of the objectives and targets of the risk management activities. Periodically reviewing KPIs allows the organization to evaluate the progress and results of the risk management strategies and actions, and to identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement. The other options are not the primary reason to periodically review KPIs, as they are related to other aspects or outcomes of the risk management process. Ensuring compliance is the reason to review key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the occurrence of risk events.Promoting a risk-aware culture is the reason to review key goal indicators (KGIs), which are metrics that measure the alignment of the risk management with the business goals and values. Optimizing resources needed for controls is the reason to review key control indicators(KCIs), which are metrics that measure the efficiency and adequacy of the risk controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 143.
Before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, which of the following should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk?
A data extraction tool
An access control list
An intrusion detection system (IDS)
An acceptable usage policy
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, an acceptable usage policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for the appropriate and secure use of IT resources within an organization. It helps to mitigate data leakage risk by establishing the roles and responsibilities of users, the types and purposes of data that can be shared or transmitted, the authorized methods and channels of communication, the security controls and measures to protect data, and the consequences of non-compliance. An acceptable usage policy also educates and raises awareness among users about the potential risks and threats associated with instant messaging and other forms of online communication. Therefore, before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, an acceptable usage policy should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 237.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?
To provide evidence of activities
To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)
To ensure that changes are authorized
To ensure that changes made are correctly applied
The primary reason for logging is to provide evidence of activities, ensuring accountability and traceability. This supports investigations, audits, and compliance requirements, aligning withControl Monitoring and Reportingstandards.
Which of the following would be MOST effective in monitoring changes in an organization's IT risk environment?
Lagging indicators
Risk mitigation plans
Industry regulatory reports
Risk inventory
The risk inventory contains a current and historical record of identified risks and their statuses. Monitoring this inventory reveals emerging risks, shifts in severity, and whether mitigation is effective. It supports trend analysis and continuous improvement.
An organization has implemented a system capable of comprehensive employee monitoring. Which of the following should direct how the system is used?
Organizational strategy
Employee code of conduct
Industry best practices
Organizational policy
The best answer is D. Organizational policy. An organizational policy is a set of rules and guidelines that defines how the organization operates and conducts its activities. Anorganizational policy should direct how the employee monitoring system is used, because it can specify the purpose, scope, methods, and limitations of the monitoring, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved, the data protection and privacy measures, and the consequences of non-compliance. An organizational policy can also help to ensure that the employee monitoring system is aligned with the organization’s objectives, values, and culture, and that it complies with the relevant laws and regulations. The other options are not the best answer, although they may be related or influential to the organizational policy. Organizational strategy is a plan of action that outlines the organization’s vision, mission, goals, and initiatives, but it does not provide the details or the rules of how the employee monitoring system is used. Employee code of conduct is a document that describes the expected behavior and ethics of the employees, but it does not address the specific aspects or the procedures of the employee monitoring system. Industry best practices are the proven methods and standards that are adopted by the leading organizations in a specific field or sector, but they may not be applicable or suitable for every organization or situation. References = Workplace Monitoring Policy Template - CurrentWare, The All-In-One Guide to Employee Monitoring - G2
The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability assessments is to:
provide clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure.
determine the impact of potential threats.
test intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures.
detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise.
The primary purpose of vulnerability assessments is to detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise. A vulnerability assessment is a systematic review of security weaknesses in an information system. It evaluates if the system is susceptible to any known vulnerabilities, assigns severity levels to those vulnerabilities, and recommends remediation or mitigation, if and whenever needed1. By identifying and prioritizing the vulnerabilities, a vulnerability assessment helps to prevent or reduce the risk of cyberattacks that could exploit the vulnerabilities and compromise the system. The other options are not the primary purpose, but they may be secondary or tertiary outcomes or benefits of a vulnerability assessment. Providing clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure is a result of a successful vulnerability assessment and remediation process, but it is not the main objective. Determining the impact of potential threats is a part of the risk assessment process, which complements the vulnerability assessment process, but it is not the same as detecting the vulnerabilities. Testing intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures is a part of the penetration testing process, which simulates a real-world attack on the system to evaluate its security posture, but it is not the same as scanning the system for vulnerabilities. References = What is Vulnerability Assessment | VA Tools and Best Practices - Imperva
The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:
assess effectiveness of different projects.
define the risk assessment methodology.
ensure assets have low residual risk.
account for identified key risk factors.
A risk register is a tool used to identify, assess, and prioritize risks in an organization. It typically includes a detailed description of each identified risk, an assessment of its likelihood and potential impact, and a plan for managing or mitigating the risk1. A risk register is usually created at the beginning of a project or a process, and is updated regularly throughout the risk management life cycle2.
The main reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to account for identified key risk factors. This means that the risk register helps to:
Document and track all the relevant risks that may affect the project or the organization, and their sources, causes, and consequences
Provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk profile and exposure of the project or the organization
Support the decision-making and prioritization of the risk responses and controls, based on the risk appetite and tolerance of the project or the organization
Communicate and report the risk information and status to the stakeholders and regulators, and ensure transparency and accountability
Enable the continuous improvement and learning from the risk management process and outcomes3
References = What is a risk register and why is it important?, Purpose of a risk register: Here’s what a risk register is used for, Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2024], Risk Register - Wikipedia
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?
Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization
Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management
Ensuring senior management's primary focus is on the impact of identified risk
Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers
Enterprise risk management (ERM) is a holistic and strategic approach to managing the risks that an organization faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. ERM aims to align the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance with its objectives and vision, and to optimize the value and performance of the organization1.
IT risk management is a subset of ERM that focuses on identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the use of information technology (IT) in the organization. IT risk management aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and information, and to support the IT governance and strategy of the organization2.
The greatest benefit when ERM provides oversight of IT risk management is aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization, because it can help to:
Integrate IT risk management with the overall business strategy and risk management, and ensure that IT risks are considered and addressed at the enterprise level
Align IT risk appetite and tolerance with the business risk appetite and tolerance, and ensure that IT risks are balanced with the expected benefits and opportunities
Enhance IT risk awareness and communication among the stakeholders, and ensure that IT risks are reported and escalated appropriately
Optimize IT risk response and control, and ensure that IT risks are managed efficiently and effectively
Demonstrate IT risk value and impact, and ensure that IT risks are measured and monitored against the business objectives and performance34
The other options are not the greatest benefit when ERM provides oversight of IT risk management, but rather some of the outcomes or consequences of it. Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management is a benefit that can help to allocate and prioritize the IT resources and funds according to the IT risk level and the business needs. Ensuring senior management’s primary focus is on the impact of identified risk is a benefit that can help to increase the senior management’s involvement and accountability in IT risk management, and to support the IT risk decision making and reporting. Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers is a benefit that can help to improve the quality and efficiency of the IT service delivery and customer satisfaction. References =
Enterprise Risk Management - ISACA
IT Risk Management - ISACA
Aligning IT risks with Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)
Five Benefits of Enterprise Risk Management : Articles : Resources …
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the PRIMARY accountability for a control owner?
Communicate risk to senior management.
Own the associated risk the control is mitigating.
Ensure the control operates effectively.
Identify and assess control weaknesses.
The primary accountability for a control owner is to ensure the control operates effectively, as they have the authority and responsibility to design, implement, monitor, and report on the performance and adequacy of the control, and to identify and address any control gaps or deficiencies. Communicating risk to senior management, owning the associated risk the control is mitigating, and identifying and assessing control weaknesses are not the primaryaccountabilities, as they are more related to the roles and responsibilities of the risk owner, the risk practitioner, or the auditor, respectively, rather than the control owner. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:
gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization
gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization
adjust the controls prior to an external audit
reduce the dependency on external audits
A control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that allows managers and work teams directly involved in business units, functions, or processes to participate in assessing the organization’s risk management and control processes. The main purpose of conducting a CSA is to gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization, which means how well the controls are designed, implemented, and operated to achieve the desired outcomes and mitigate the risks. A CSA can help to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the existing controls, as well as the gaps and opportunities for improvement. A CSA can also help to enhance the awareness, ownership, and accountability of the control environment among the managers and staff. The other options are not the main purpose of conducting a CSA, although they may be related or beneficial. Gaining a better understanding of the risk in the organization is a result of conducting a CSA, but it is not the primary goal. The primary goal is to evaluate the controls that address the risks, not the risks themselves. Adjusting the controls prior to an external audit is a possible action that may follow a CSA, but it is not the reason for conducting a CSA. The reasonfor conducting a CSA is to improve the control effectiveness, not to prepare for an audit. Reducing the dependency on external audits is a potential benefit of conducting a CSA, but it is not the objective of conducting a CSA. The objective of conducting a CSA is to enhance the internal control assurance, not to replace the external audit assurance. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 153-1541; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 802
Of the following, whose input is ESSENTIAL when developing risk scenarios for the implementation of a third-party mobile application that stores customer data?
Information security manager
IT vendor manager
Business process owner
IT compliance manager
What should be the PRIMARY objective of updating a risk awareness program in response to a steady rise in cybersecurity threats across the industry?
To increase familiarity and understanding of potential security incidents
To ensure compliance with risk management policies and procedures
To reduce the risk of insider threats that could compromise security practices
To lower the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels
The main goal of updating a risk awareness program in response to rising threats is to ensure employees understand new risks and how to respond to them, thereby enhancing overall security posture.
Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?
A centralized computer security response team
Regular performance reviews and management check-ins
Code of ethics training for all employees
Communication of employee activity monitoring
Employee activity monitoring is the process of tracking and recording the actions and behaviors of employees on company owned IT systems, such as email, internet, applications, etc. Thepurpose of employee activity monitoring is to ensure compliance with the company’s policies and regulations, prevent data leakage and misuse, detect and deter inappropriate or malicious activities, and improve productivity and performance. The most likely way to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems is to communicate the employee activity monitoring policy and practice to the employees, and make them aware of the consequences of violating the policy. By doing so, the company can create a deterrent effect and discourage the employees from misusing the IT systems, as they know that their actions are being monitored and recorded, and that they will be held accountable for any misconduct. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 181.
Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced:
with strategic initiatives.
to meet risk appetite.
within resource availability.
below risk appetite.
Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced to meet risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, as well as its risk culture and tolerance. Reducing risk with strategic initiatives, within resource availability, or below risk appetite are all possible approaches, but they do not necessarily optimize risk management, as they may result in over- or under-investment in risk mitigation, or misalignment with business objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 47
Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?
User awareness of policies and procedures
Implementation of proper controls
Senior management support
Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, senior management support is the commitment and involvement of the top-level executives and leaders in the risk management process. Senior management support is the most important enabler of effective risk management, as it helps to establish and communicate the risk vision, strategy, and culture of the organization. Senior management support also helps to allocate the necessary resources, authority, and accountability for risk management, and to ensure the alignment of the risk management objectives and activities with the organization’s strategy, goals, and values. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 198.
Which of the following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?
Quantified risk triggers
Cost of controls
Regulatory requirements
Organizational goals
The most relevant information to include in a risk management strategy is the organizational goals, because they provide the direction and purpose for the risk management activities. A risk managementstrategy is a document that outlines the objectives, scope, approach, roles, and responsibilities for managing risks in an organization. A risk management strategy should align with the organizational goals, which are the desired outcomes or results that the organization wants to achieve. The organizational goals should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART), and they should reflect the organization’s vision, mission, values, and strategy. By including the organizational goals in the risk management strategy, the risk practitioner can ensure that the risk management process supports and enables the achievement of the organizational goals. The risk practitioner can also use the organizational goals as a basis for identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and responding to the risks that may affect theorganization’s performance and success. The risk practitioner can also monitor and measure the progress and effectiveness of the risk management process by comparing the actual results with the expected results based on the organizational goals. Therefore, the organizational goals are themost relevant information to include in a risk management strategy, as they provide the foundation and framework for the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Management Strategy, pp. 3-61
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that risk management is important in project management?
It helps identify and mitigate potential issues that could derail projects.
It helps to ensure project acceptance by end users.
It reduces the risk associated with potential project scope creep.
It facilitates agreement and collaboration on project goals among stakeholders.
Risk management in project management is crucial for identifying and mitigating potential issues that could jeopardize project success. By proactively addressing risks, project managers can ensure that projects are completed on time, within budget, and meet quality standards.
Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?
Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results
Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments
A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed
The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the level of risk for each risk area based on the impact and likelihood of occurrence. It also provides a summary of the risk assessment results, such as the number and severity of risks, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk response strategies. A risk heat map can help senior management to understand the risk profile of the organization, prioritize the risks that need attention, and allocate resources accordingly. A risk heat map is more effective than the other options because it can communicate complex information in a simple and visual way, and it can highlight the key risk areas and trends. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 97.
Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?
Robust organizational communication channels
Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy
Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks
Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)
Robust organizational communication channels are the best way to support ethical IT risk management practices, as they enable transparent and consistent sharing of risk information anddecisions among all stakeholders. Ethical IT risk management requires that the risk management process and outcomes are aligned with the enterprise’s values, objectives, and obligations, and that the risk management activities are conducted with integrity, accountability, and respect. Robust organizational communication channels facilitate these aspects by ensuring that the risk management roles and responsibilities are clearly defined and communicated, that the risk management policies and procedures are widely disseminated and understood, that the risk management performance and results are regularly reported and reviewed, and that the risk management feedback and improvement suggestions are solicited and addressed. Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy, capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks, and rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs) are not directly related to ethical IT risk management practices, but rather to the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question201; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 201.
An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).
Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.
Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.
Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained
This can help to:
Ensure that the implemented measures are effective and efficient in reducing the risk level to an acceptable level, and that they are aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization2.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may arise from the deviation from the approved risk action plan, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions or contingency plans3.
Communicate and report the results and outcomes of the validation to the relevant stakeholders, such as the risk owner, the risk committee, or the chief risk officer, and obtain their feedback and approval4.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Reporting the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO) is not the best course of action, as it may not provide sufficient information or evidence to support the deviation from the approved risk action plan. The CRO may not be able to evaluate or approve the implemented risk mitigation measures without knowing their adequacy or impact on the risk level5.
Updating the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions is not the best course of action, as it may not reflect the current or accurate risk status or performance. The risk register is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses6. Updating the risk register without validating the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures may create inconsistencies or inaccuracies in the risk register.
Reverting the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained is not the best course of action, as it may expose the organization to higher or unacceptable levels of risk. Reverting the implemented mitigation measures may undo or negate the benefits or outcomes of the risk mitigation, and may increase the likelihood or impact of the risk events7.
References =
ISACA Risk Starter Kit provides risk management templates and policies
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Risk Reporting - CIO Wiki
Chief Risk Officer - CIO Wiki
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Mitigation - CIO Wiki
When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:
insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.
service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.
a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.
accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.
According to the FIC Article by FSCA, accountable institutions remain fully accountable, responsible and liable for any compliance failures that may result from or be associated with an outsourcing arrangement and as such, liability and/or culpability for non-compliance with the FIC Act obligations cannot be transferred to a third-party service provider2. Therefore, even if a business process is outsourced to a cloud service provider, the organization still has the ultimate responsibility and accountability for the risk associated with the outsourced process. The other options are not correct, as they imply that the cloud service provider can take over the accountability or responsibility for the risk, or that the organization can mitigate the risk by acquiring insurance, which is not the case.
A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?
Risk manager
Control owner
Control tester
Risk owner
The control owner is the person who is responsible for ensuring that the control is designed to effectively address risk. The control owner is also responsible for implementing, operating, monitoring, and maintaining the control. The control owner should ensure that the control is aligned with the risk owner’s risk appetite and tolerance, and that the control is periodically reviewed and updated to reflect changes in the risk environment. The risk manager, the control tester, and the risk owner are not directly responsible for the design of the control, although they may provide input, feedback, or approval. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 1-15.
Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?
Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods
Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives
linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy
Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods
The best way to facilitate the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM) is to link IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy, because this ensures that the IT risks are considered in the context of the enterprise’s mission, vision, and goals. Linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy also helps to prioritize the IT risks based on their impact and relevance to the enterprise’s objectives, and to select the appropriate risk responses and resources. The other options are not the best ways to facilitate the alignment of IT risk management with ERM, because they do not address the integration or alignment of the IT and enterprise perspectives. Adopting qualitative or quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods, and linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives are examples of techniques or tools that can be used to perform IT risk management or ERM, but they do not ensure the alignment or consistency of the two processes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.3, p. 22.
What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

Relative positions on the risk map
Risk treatment options
Capability of enterprise to implement
The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response
The risk scenario chart shows the initial and residual risk ratings, and the project cost, for four projects named Sierra, Tango, Uniform, and Victor. The initial risk rating is the level of risk before applying any controls or mitigation measures, while the residual risk rating is the level of risk after applying the controls or measures. The project cost is the amount of resources required to implement the project. These three factors can be used to determine the relative positions of the projects on a risk map, which is a graphical tool for displaying the risks based on their impact and likelihood. The risk map can help to prioritize and compare the risks, and to select the most appropriate risk response strategy. The other options are not the best answers, as they are not directly shown or derived from the risk scenario chart. The risk treatment options are the possible actions that can be taken to address the risks, such as accept, avoid, mitigate, or transfer. The capability of enterprise to implement is the ability of the organization to execute the risk response plan,considering the available resources, skills, and constraints. The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response are the various elements that contribute to or affect the risk, such as the threat sources, events, vulnerabilities, assets, and impacts. These factors are not explicitly stated or measured in the risk scenario chart, and may require further analysis or information. References = How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA; Identifying the Right Risk Scenarios to Measure with FAIR; How to write good risk scenarios and statements
Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?
Audit and compliance management
The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)
Enterprise risk management and business process owners
Executive management and the board of directors
The stakeholders who are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite are the executive management and the board of directors, because they are the ones who set thestrategic direction and objectives of the enterprise, and who define the acceptable level of risk exposure and tolerance for achieving those objectives. The other options are not the primary stakeholders, because:
Option A: Audit and compliance management are responsible for providing assurance and oversight on the effectiveness of the risk management process and the compliance with internal and external requirements, but they do not determine the enterprise IT risk appetite.
Option B: The CIO and the CFO are responsible for managing the IT resources and the financial resources of the enterprise, respectively, but they do not determine the enterprise IT risk appetite.
Option C: Enterprise risk management and business process owners are responsible for identifying, assessing, and responding to the risks that affect their domains, but they do not determine the enterprise IT risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 83.
Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?
A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.
Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.
Redundant compensating controls are in place.
Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.
The issue of greatest concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment is the presence of successive assessments with the same recurring vulnerabilities. This indicates that the controls are ineffective or inadequate in addressing the identified risks, and that the risk management process is not functioning properly. Recurring vulnerabilities expose the enterprise to potential losses, breaches, or incidents that could harm its objectives, reputation, or compliance. Therefore, it is essential to identify the root causes of the recurring vulnerabilities, implement corrective actions, and monitor the effectiveness ofthe controls on a regular basis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2, page 183.
A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Conduct a gap analysis.
Terminate the outsourcing agreement.
Identify compensating controls.
Transfer risk to the third party.
The best course of action when a recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization’s use of a third party to supply outsourced business services is to conduct a gap analysis, as it involves comparing the current and desired states of compliance, and identifying any gaps or discrepancies that need to be addressed. Terminating the outsourcing agreement, identifying compensating controls, and transferring risk to the third party are not the best courses of action, as they may not be feasible, effective, or appropriate, respectively, and may require the prior knowledge of the compliance gaps and risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?
Board of directors
Risk officers
Line management
Senior management
Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?
Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced
Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy
Listing alternative causes for risk events
Illustrating changes in risk trends
The most important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making is illustrating changes in risk trends, as it provides a clear and timely indication of the direction and magnitude of the risk level and exposure, and enables the stakeholders to take proactive andappropriate actions to address the risk. The other options are not the most important characteristics, as they are more related to the monitoring, measurement, or identification of the risk, respectively, rather than the illustration of the risk trends. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
A risk practitioner is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a breach at a hosted third-party provider. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?
Include an indemnification clause in the provider's contract.
Monitor provider performance against service level agreements (SLAs).
Purchase cyber insurance to protect against data breaches.
Ensure appropriate security controls are in place through independent audits.
Conducting independent audits to verify that appropriate security controls are in place is the most effective way to mitigate the risk of data loss at a third-party provider. These audits provide assurance that the provider adheres to security best practices and complies with relevant standards and regulations. While contractual clauses and insurance can provide financial remedies post-incident, proactive verification of security controls helps prevent breaches from occurring in the first place.
A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:
management.
tolerance.
culture.
analysis.
Risk culture is the system of values and behaviors present in an organization that shapes risk decisions of management and employees1. Risk culture influences how the organization perceives, responds to, and manages the risks that may affect its objectives, operations, or assets2.
The scenario described in the question best demonstrates an organization’s risk culture, because it shows how the management team’s attitude and actions towards risk are driven by the organization’s values and goals. In this case, the organization’s risk culture is characterized by:
A high risk appetite and tolerance, which means that the organization is willing to take and accept significant risks in order to achieve its strategic objectives of launching a new product and penetrating new markets
A low risk awareness and sensitivity, which means that the organization does not pay enough attention or consideration to the potential IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities that may affect its product development and market entry
A weak risk governance and control, which means that the organization does not have adequate or effective policies, procedures, or mechanisms to identify, assess, respond, or monitor the IT risks and their impacts
References = Risk Culture of Companies | ERM - Enterprise Risk Management Initiative …, Taking control of organizational risk culture | McKinsey
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?
Proportion of end users having more than one account
Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)
Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts
Percentage of accounts that have not been activated
User Access Management:
Effective user access management ensures that accounts are properly created, managed, and disabled to prevent unauthorized access.
Monitoring the percentage of accounts disabled within the SLA helps ensure that the organization responds promptly to changes in user status, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
Importance of KPI:
This KPI measures the efficiency and effectiveness of the user access management process by tracking how quickly accounts are disabled when no longer needed.
A high percentage indicates timely action, reducing the risk of orphaned accounts being exploited.
Comparing Other KPIs:
Proportion of End Users Having More Than One Account:Useful but not directly related to the timeliness of disabling accounts.
Proportion of Privileged to Non-Privileged Accounts:Important for monitoring privilege distribution but does not measure process efficiency.
Percentage of Accounts Not Activated:Indicates potential inefficiencies but does not address the risk of active accounts.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the importance of timely account management to mitigate access risks (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3 User Access Management).
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?
Assign ownership of the risk response plan
Provide awareness in early detection of risk.
Perform periodic audits on identified risk.
areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.
A risk response plan is a document that outlines the actions to be taken to address the identified risk scenarios. A risk response plan should include the objectives, scope, roles and responsibilities, resources, timelines, and metrics for each risk response. Assigning ownership of the risk response plan is the most effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios, as it ensures accountability, clarity, and communication among the stakeholders involved in the risk management process. Assigning ownership also helps to monitor and evaluate the progress and effectiveness of the risk response plan, and to make adjustments as needed. References =Riskand Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Risk Response Plan, p. 152-155.
As part of an aggressive new marketing strategy, an organization has decided to implement an emerging technology in a critical business system. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address the risk associated with this new technology?
Update the risk tolerance and appetite
Identify technical solutions
Obtain senior management support
Re-evaluate the risk and existing controls
When adopting new technology, the first step is to reassess risks and control effectiveness because the technology may introduce new vulnerabilities or alter existing risk profiles.
CRISC guidance:
“Significant changes to business or technology environments should trigger a re-evaluation of existing risk scenarios and control effectiveness to identify new or residual risk.”
Updating appetite or seeking support follows after reassessment.
Hence, D is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 2 – IT Risk Assessment, Topic: Emerging Technology Risk.
A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?
Business continuity manager
Chief risk officer (CRO)
IT infrastructure manager
Business application owner
The business application owner is responsible for the application's performance and availability. Therefore, they should approve any maintenance schedules that could impact the application's functionality, including temporary loss of failover capabilities. Their approval ensures that the business implications are considered and that appropriate contingency plans are in place.
A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.
Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.
Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.
Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action when the residual risk is now within the organization’s defined appetite and tolerance levels is to verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans. Risk monitoring is the process of tracking and reviewing the risk status and performance, and ensuring that the risk responses are effective and efficient1. Risk monitoring plans are the documents that specify the objectives, scope, methods, roles, and responsibilities for the riskmonitoring activities2. By verifying the adequacy of risk monitoring plans, the risk practitioner can:
Ensure that the risk monitoring plans are aligned with the organization’s risk strategy, objectives, and policies, and that they comply with the relevant standards and regulations3.
Evaluate whether the risk monitoring plans are comprehensive and consistent, and that they cover all the key aspects and indicators of the risks and the risk responses4.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the implementation or outcome of the risk monitoring plans, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions5.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Identifying new risk entries to include in ERM is not a relevant or necessary course of action, as it is not directly related to the residual risk or the risk responses. ERM is the process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and managing the risks that may affect the organization’s strategic, operational, financial, or reputational objectives6. Identifying new risk entries is a part of the risk identification process, which is the first step in ERM. It should be performedperiodically or when there are significant changes in the internal or external environment, not when the residual risk is within the appetite and tolerance levels7.
Removing the risk entries from the ERM register is not a valid or advisable course of action, as it may create a false sense of security or complacency. The ERM register is a tool that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses. Removing the risk entries from the ERM register may imply that the risks no longer exist or matter, which is not true. The risks may still occur or change, and the risk responses may still fail or become obsolete. Therefore, the risk entries should be kept and updated in the ERM register, unless the risks are completely eliminated or transferred.
Re-performing the risk assessment to confirm results is not an efficient or effective course of action, as it may be redundant or unnecessary. Risk assessment is the process of estimating the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizing the risks based on their significance and urgency. Re-performing the risk assessment may not provide any new or useful information or insights, and may waste time and resources. Instead, the risk practitioner should verify and validate the risk assessment results, and ensure that they are accurate and reliable.
References =
Risk Monitoring - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring and Reporting - ISACA
Risk Monitoring and Control - Project Management Institute
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Enterprise Risk Management - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification - CIO Wiki
[Risk Register - CIO Wiki]
[Risk Register: How to Use It in Project Management - ProjectManager.com]
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
[Risk Assessment Process - ISACA]
Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?
Key procedure control gaps
Business objectives
Senior management's risk appetite
Hypothetical scenarios
The most important factor to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios is B. Business objectives12
Top-down risk scenarios are based on the organization’s strategic goals, objectives, and key performance indicators (KPIs), and they aim to identify the potential events or situations that could prevent or hinder the achievement of those goals and objectives12
By identifying the business objectives, the risk practitioner can align the risk scenarios with the organization’s mission, vision, and values, and ensure that the risk scenarios are relevant, realistic, and meaningful for the senior management and other stakeholders12
The other factors are not as important as the business objectives when developing top-down risk scenarios, because they are either more relevant for bottom-up risk scenarios (A and D), or they are derived from the business objectives and the risk scenarios ©12
An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:
procedures to monitor the operation of controls.
a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.
real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.
monitoring activities for all critical assets.
Perform a controls assessment.
The best answer is C. real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions. Real-time monitoring is a process of continuously collecting and analyzing data and information on the occurrence and impact of risk events and control exceptions, using automated tools and techniques, such as dashboards, alerts, or analytics12. Real-time monitoring can help to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and to prevent or mitigate the potential consequences. Real-time monitoring can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to provide timely and accurate reporting and communication to the stakeholders. Real-time monitoring is the best answer, because itrepresents a leading-edge practice in risk monitoring, as it leverages the latest technology and innovation, and it enables a proactive and agile approach to risk management. The other options are not the best answer, although they may be useful or necessary for risk monitoring. Procedures to monitor the operation of controls are a part of the risk monitoring process, but they are not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as they may not be able to capture and address the risks and the issues in a timely manner, and they may rely on manual or periodic methods, rather than automated or continuous ones. A tool for monitoring critical activities and controls is a resource or a device that supports the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to collect and analyze the data and information in real time, and it may depend on the quality and reliability of the tool. Monitoring activities for all critical assets is a scope or a coverage of the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and it may require a lot of resources and efforts. Performing a controls assessment is a process of evaluating and testing the design and operation of the controls, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to detect and report the risks and the issues in real time, and it may follow a predefined or scheduled plan, ratherthan a dynamic or adaptive one. References = Real-Time Risk Monitoring - ISACA, Real-Time Risk Monitoring: A Case Study - ISACA
A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?
Appropriate approvals for the control changes
The reason the action plan was modified
The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan
The effectiveness of the resulting control
The MOST important aspect for the risk practitioner to confirm is:
A. Appropriate approvals for the control changes
Ensuring that the control design changes have the appropriate approvals is crucial. This confirms that the changes are recognized and sanctioned by the necessary authority within the organization, aligning with governance practices and maintaining the integrity of the risk management process.
Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?
Data owner
Control owner
Risk owner
System owner
The control owner is the person who is responsible for designing, implementing, monitoring, and maintaining a control. The control owner is best suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system, as they have the most knowledge and authority over the control. The control owner should also evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the control and report any issues or gaps to the risk owner.
The other options are not the best suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system. The data owner is the person who has the accountability and authority over the data and its classification. The data owner may not have the technical expertise or access to evaluate the new control. The risk owner is the person who has the accountability and authority to manage a specific risk. The risk owner may not have the detailed knowledge orinvolvement in the new control. The system owner is the person who has the accountability and authority over the system and its operation. The system owner may not have the direct responsibility or oversight of the new control. References = CRISC TOPIC 3 EXAM SHORT Flashcards, CRISC-1-50 topic3 Flashcards, CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question609
Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?
Single sign-on
Data integrity checking
Strong authentication
Intrusion detection system
Strong authentication is the most effective measure against external threats to an organization’s confidential information. Confidential information is any data or information that is sensitive, proprietary, or valuable to the organization, and that should not be disclosed to unauthorized parties1. External threats are malicious actors outside the organization who attempt to gain unauthorized access to the organization’s networks, systems, and data, using various methods such as malware, hacking, or social engineering2. Strong authentication is a method of verifying the identity and legitimacy of a user or device before granting access to the organization’s resources or data3. Strong authentication typically involves the use of multiple factors or methods of authentication, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, orcertificates4. Strong authentication can prevent or reduce the risk of external threats to the organization’s confidential information, by making it more difficult and costly for the attackers to compromise the credentials or devices of the authorized users, and by limiting the access to the data or resourcesthat are relevant and necessary for the users’ roles and responsibilities5. The other options are not the most effective measures against external threats to the organization’s confidential information, as they are either less secure or less relevant than strong authentication. Single sign-on is a method of allowing a user to access multiple systems or applications with a single set of credentials, without having to log in separately for each system or application6. Single sign-on can improve the user experience and convenience, as well as reduce the administrative burden and cost of managing multiple accounts and passwords. However, single sign-on is not the most effective measure against external threats to the organization’s confidential information, as it can also increase the risk of credential compromise or misuse, and create a single point of failure or attack for the attackers to access multiple systems or data. Data integrity checking is a method of ensuring that the data or information is accurate, complete, and consistent, and that it has not been altered or corrupted by unauthorized parties or processes. Data integrity checking can involve the use of techniques such as checksums, hashes, digital signatures, or encryption. Data integrity checking can enhance the quality and reliability of the data or information, as well as detect and prevent any unauthorized or malicious changes or tampering. However, data integrity checking is not the most effective measure against external threats to the organization’s confidential information, as it does not prevent or reduce the risk of data theft or leakage, and it does not verify the identity or legitimacy of the users or devices accessing the data. Intrusion detection system is a system that monitors the network or system activities and events, and detects and alerts any suspicious ormalicious behaviors or anomalies that may indicate an attempted or successful breach or attack. Intrusion detection system can help to identify and respond to external threats to the organization’s networks, systems, and data, by providing visibility and awareness of the network or system status and activities, and by enabling timely and appropriate actions or countermeasures. However, intrusion detection system is not the most effective measure againstexternal threats to the organization’s confidential information, as it is a reactive or passive system that does not prevent or block the attacks, and it may generate false positives or negatives that can affect its accuracy and efficiency. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 189.
Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?
Chief information officer (CIO)
Executive management team
Audit committee
Business process owner
Strategic decisions on risk management are the decisions that involve setting the direction, objectives, and priorities for risk management within an organization, as well as aligning them with the organization’s overall strategy, vision, and mission1. Strategic decisions on riskmanagement also involve defining the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and level of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept to achieve its goals2. The responsibility for strategic decisions on risk management should belong to the executive management team, which is the group of senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance3. The executive management team has the best understanding of the organization’s strategic context, environment, and stakeholders, and can make informed and balanced decisions that consider the benefits and costsof risk-taking4. The executive management team also has the ability and responsibility to communicate and cascade the strategic decisions on risk management to the rest of the organization, and to monitor and evaluate their implementation and outcomes5. The chief information officer (CIO), the audit committee, and the business process owner are not the best choices for being responsible for strategic decisions on risk management, as they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as the executive management team. The CIO is the senior leader who oversees the organization’s information andtechnology strategy, resources, and systems6. The CIO may be involved in providing input and feedback to the executive management team on the strategic decisions on risk management, especially those related to IT risk, but they do not have the final say or the overall responsibility for them. The audit committee is a subcommittee of the board of directors that oversees the organization’s financial reporting, internal controls, and external audits7. The audit committee may be involved in reviewing and approving the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as ensuring their compliance with the relevant laws and standards, but they do not have the authority or the expertise to make or implement them. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for a business process that supports or enables the organization’s objectives and functions. The business process owner may be involved in executing and reporting on the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as identifying and mitigating the risks related to their business process, but they do not have the perspective or the influence to make or communicate them. References = 1: Strategic Risk Management: Complete Overview (With Examples)2: [Risk Appetite and Tolerance - ISACA] 3: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles andResponsibilities] 4: Stanford Strategic Decision and Risk Management | Stanford Online5: A 7-Step Process for Strategic Risk Management — RiskOptics - Reciprocity6: [Chief Information Officer (CIO) - Gartner ITGlossary] 7: [Audit Committee - Overview, Functions, and Responsibilities] : [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.]
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with using cloud computing for disaster recovery?
Cloud vendor lock-in and dependency
Lack of adequate incident management capabilities
Use of multiple cloud access service brokers (CASBs)
Availability issues with cloud storage solutions
In cloud-based disaster recovery, CRISC emphasizes that the most impactful strategic risk is vendor lock-in and dependency. When disaster recovery capabilities rely on a single cloud provider, organizations become fully dependent on that provider’s technology, APIs, and platform architecture. This dependency makes it difficult and costly to migrate to another provider, limits flexibility in recovery options, and increases exposure if the provider experiences outages or changes service terms. While availability issues, CASB usage, and incident management gaps are important, they do not present the same level of strategic long-term operational and resilience impact as vendor lock-in.
While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:
control is ineffective and should be strengthened
risk is inefficiently controlled.
risk is efficiently controlled.
control is weak and should be removed.
Risk is inefficiently controlled when the annual cost of the control exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk, as this means that the organization is spending more on the control than the potential loss that the control is supposed to prevent or reduce. This indicates that the control is not cost-effective or optimal, and that the organization should consider alternative or complementary controls that can lower the cost or increase the benefit of the risk management. Control is ineffective and should be strengthened when the control does not reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk to an acceptable level, regardless of the cost. Risk is efficiently controlled when the annual cost of the control is equal to or less than the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk, as this means that the organization is spending less or equal on the control than the potential loss that the control is supposed to prevent or reduce. Control is weak and should be removed when the control does not provide any benefit or value to the risk management,regardless of the cost. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question205; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 205.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?
User provisioning
Role-based access controls
Security log monitoring
Entitlement reviews
An organization’s account provisioning process is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for the organization’s information systems and resources. It involves defining the access requirements, policies, and standards, and implementing and enforcing them across the organization.
The best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process is entitlement reviews, which are the periodic or regular reviews and validations of the user accounts and access rights that are granted or assigned to the users or entities that interact with the organization’s information systems and resources. Entitlement reviews can provide assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
Entitlement reviews can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, reports, audits, surveys, etc. Entitlement reviews can also be integrated with the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions, and aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process, because they do not provide the same level of assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
User provisioning is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for a specific user or entity, based on their identity, role, or function in the organization. User provisioning is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the user accounts and access rights are appropriate and authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Role-based access controls are the controls that grant or restrict user accounts and access rights based on the predefined roles or functions that the users or entities perform or assume in the organization. Role-based access controls are an important part of the account provisioningprocess, but they are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because they do not indicate whether the roles or functions are defined and assigned correctly and consistently, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Security log monitoring is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the security events or activities that are recorded or logged by the organization’s information systems and resources. Security log monitoring is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the security events or activities are legitimate or authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 173
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:
low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels
high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.
high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels
low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.
The areas to address first when classifying and prioritizing risk responses are those with high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels, as they represent the most optimal and urgent risk responses that can reduce the risk exposure and impact significantly with a reasonable cost. Theother options are not the areas to address first, as they may indicate suboptimal or less urgent risk responses that may not align with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of reviewing security trends reported by a log monitoring system?
Identification of process weaknesses
Assessment of system performance
Confirmation that risk is at acceptable levels
Identification of emerging risk scenarios
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to ISACA CRISC guidance)
Log monitoring and security trend analysis provide visibility into changes in the threat landscape and control effectiveness. From a CRISC perspective, the most valuable outcome of trend review is identifying emerging risk scenarios—patterns of events, anomalies, or repeated alerts that signal new attack vectors, control bypasses, or increased threat activity. Recognizing these trends early allows the organization to adjust controls, update risk assessments, and revise scenarios before major incidents occur. While process weaknesses can be discovered through logs and performance can be indirectly assessed, these are secondary benefits. Simply reviewing trends does not in itself confirm that risk is at acceptable levels; that requires a broader comparison to risk appetite and KPI/KRI thresholds. The primary strategic value is early detection and understanding of new or evolving risks.
An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:
reduce the risk to an acceptable level.
communicate the consequences for violations.
implement industry best practices.
reduce the organization's risk appetite
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the primary goal of a risk awareness program is to reduce the risk to an acceptable level by increasing the knowledge and understanding of the risk among the stakeholders. A risk awareness program should:
Educate the stakeholders about the sources, types and impacts of IT-related risks
Explain the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders in the risk management process
Promote a risk-aware culture that supports the risk appetite and risk tolerance of the organization
Provide guidance and tools for identifying, assessing, responding and monitoring IT-related risks
Encourage the reporting and escalation of risk issues and incidents
Reinforce the benefits and value of effective risk management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 224-2251
Which of the following is a KEY principle of a Zero Trust architecture?
Only allowing access to systems and data from trusted locations
Mandating the use of complex passwords for access to data systems
Requiring periodic reauthentication of access to systems
Assuming that all systems are malicious
A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.
Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.
Outsource the process for updating the risk register.
Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.
The best course of action for a newly hired risk practitioner who finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year is to identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews. This would help the risk practitioner to update the risk register with the current and relevant information on the risks facing the enterprise, such as their sources, drivers, indicators, likelihood, impact, and responses. It would also help the risk practitioner to evaluate the effectiveness of the existing controls, and to identify any new or emerging risks that need to be addressed. Identifying changes in risk factors and initiating risk reviews would enable the risk practitioner to maintain the accuracy and completeness of the risk register, and to provide valuable input for the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.1.1, page 2271
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to increase the likelihood of identifying risk associated with unethical employee behavior?
Require a signed agreement by employees to comply with ethics policies
Conduct background checks for new employees
Establish a channel to anonymously report unethical behavior
Implement mandatory ethics training for employees
Anonymous reporting mechanisms (e.g., hotlines, web portals) encourage employees to report unethical behavior without fear of retaliation. This increases visibility into otherwise hidden risks and supports early intervention.
A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?
IT infrastructure manager
Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Business continuity manager
Business application owner
The business application owner is responsible for the operation and risk decisions related to the application. Since the loss of failover may impact business continuity, their approval is essential.
Which of the following should be the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset?
Assess risk scenarios.
Update the risk register.
Evaluate threats.
Assess controls.
Assessing risk scenarios is the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset. A risk scenario is a description of a possible event or situation that could cause harm or loss to an asset. Assessing risk scenarios involves identifying the sources and causes of risk, the potential impacts and consequences of risk, and the likelihood and frequency of risk occurrence. Assessing risk scenarios can help establish the risk context, scope, and criteria for the asset, and provide the basis for further risk analysis steps, such as evaluating threats, assessing controls, and updating the risk register. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, assessing risk scenarios is thefirst step in the IT risk assessment process1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, assessing risk scenarios is the correct answer to this question
Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?
Level of residual risk
The results of a gap analysis
IT alignment to business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk management maturity level is the degree to which an organization has developed and implemented a systematic and proactive approach to managing the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk management maturity level reflects the organization’s risk culture and capability, and its alignment with its objectives and strategies1.
The best measurement of an organization’s risk management maturity level is the key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential exposure and performance of the organization in relation to specific risks. KRIs can help to:
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the risk level and the risk response over time
Identify and alert the risk issues or events that require attention or action
Evaluate and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and practices
Support and inform the risk decision making and improvement23
KRIs can be classified into different types, such as:
Leading KRIs, which are forward-looking and predictive, and indicate the likelihood or probability of a risk event occurring in the future
Lagging KRIs, which are backward-looking and descriptive, and indicate the impact or consequence of a risk event that has already occurred
Quantitative KRIs, which are numerical or measurable, and indicate the magnitude or severity of a risk event or outcome
Qualitative KRIs, which are descriptive or subjective, and indicate the nature or characteristics of a risk event or outcome4
The other options are not the best measurements of an organization’s risk management maturity level, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Level of residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Level of residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, and the need for further action or monitoring. The results of a gap analysis are the differences between the current and the desired state of the risk management processes and practices. The results of a gap analysis reflect the completeness and coverage of the risk management activities, and the areas for improvement or enhancement. IT alignment to business objectives is the extent to which IT supports and enables the achievement of the organization’s goals and strategies. IT alignment to business objectives reflects the integration and coordination of the IT and business functions, and the optimization of the IT value and performance. References =
Risk Maturity Assessment Explained | Risk Maturity Model
Key Risk Indicators - ISACA
Key Risk Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Risk Indicators: Types and Examples
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?
Variances between organizational risk appetites
Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios
Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems
Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols
The greatest challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations is the variances between organizational risk appetites, as they may indicate a significant difference in the risk culture, strategy, and objectives of the two organizations, and may require a complex and lengthy process of alignment and integration. Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios, disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems, and dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols are not the greatest challenges, as they are more related to the technical, operational, or procedural aspects of risk management, rather than the strategicor cultural aspects of risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?
Skills matrix
Job descriptions
RACI chart
Organizational chart
A RACI chart is a matrix that defines the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders in relation to the IT risk management process. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI chart would be most helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process, as it clarifies who is responsible for performing the tasks, who is accountable for the outcomes, who is consulted for input and feedback, and who is informed of the progress and results. A RACI chart can help to avoid confusion, duplication, and conflict among the stakeholders, and to ensure that the IT risk management process is executed effectively and efficiently. A skills matrix, job descriptions, and an organizational chart are not as helpful as a RACI chart, as they do not specify the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders in relation to the IT risk management process, and may not reflect the actual involvement and contribution of the stakeholders. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 35.
Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?
Testing control design
Accepting residual risk
Establishing business information criteria
Establishing the risk register
Accepting residual risk is the most important responsibility of a risk owner, as it implies that the risk owner is accountable for the risk and its impact on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls, and it should be aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner is responsible for implementing the risk response strategies and monitoring the risk status and outcomes, as well as for reporting and escalating the risk issues and incidents. Testing control design, establishing business information criteria, and establishing the risk register are not the most important responsibilities of a risk owner, but rather the tasks or activities that the risk owner may performor delegate as part of the risk management process. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question218; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 218.
A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Update the KRI threshold.
Recommend additional controls.
Review incident handling procedures.
Perform a root cause analysis.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that measures the level of risk exposure or the likelihood of a risk event1. A KRI threshold is a predefined value or range that triggers an alert or action when the KRI reaches or exceeds it2. A data leakage incident is an unauthorized or accidental exposure of sensitive or confidential data to external parties3.
When a KRI threshold reaches the alert level, indicating that data leakage incidents are highly probable, the risk practitioner’s first course of action should be to review the incident handling procedures. Incident handling procedures are the plans and actions to be taken in the event of a data breach or security incident, such as data leakage4. Reviewing the incident handling procedures can help the risk practitioner to:
Verify the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team and other stakeholders
Confirm the communication and escalation channels and protocols
Identify the tools and resources available for incident detection, containment, analysis, eradication, recovery, and reporting
Evaluate the readiness and preparedness of the organization to respond to a data leakage incident
Update or revise the procedures as needed to reflect the current situation and risk level
Reviewing the incident handling procedures can help the risk practitioner to ensure that the organization can respond to a data leakage incident effectively and efficiently, minimizing the potential or expected impact on the organization’s operations, reputation, or objectives.
The other options are not the first course of action for the risk practitioner, although they may be relevant or necessary at later stages of the risk management process. Updating the KRI threshold, which means adjusting the value or range that triggers an alert or action, may be appropriate if the KRI threshold is too high or too low, but it does not address the imminent risk of data leakage or the response plan. Recommending additional controls, which means suggesting new or improved measures to prevent, detect, or mitigate data leakage, may be useful for reducing the risk exposure or impact, but it does not ensure that the organization is ready or capable to handle a data leakage incident. Performing a root cause analysis, which means finding and identifying the underlying factors that contributed to the risk event, may be helpful for learning from the incident and improving the risk management strategy, but it is usually done after the incident has occurred and resolved, not before.
References = Key Risk Indicators: Definition, Examples, and Best Practices, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva, What is Data Leakage? Definition, Causes, and Prevention, Incident Response Planning: Best Practices for Businesses
Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?
Informed consent
Cross border controls
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Data breach protection
According to the GDPR, personal data shall be collected for specified, explicit and legitimate purposes and not further processed in a manner that is incompatible with those purposes1. This means that a business unit can only use personal information for a different purpose if it has obtained the consent of the data subject, or if it has a clear legal basis or obligation to do so2. Therefore, informed consent should be the first consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected.
References = GDPR Article 5 (1) (b) and Article 6 (4)1, ICO Principle (b): Purpose limitation2
Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?
Cost-benefit analysis
Alignment of investment with risk appetite
Elimination of compensating controls
Reduction in personnel costs
A cost-benefit analysis is the best method to assist in justifying an investment in automated controls, as it helps to compare and evaluate the costs and benefits of the investment and to determine its feasibility and profitability. A cost-benefit analysis is a process of identifying, measuring, and comparing the expected costs and benefits of a project or a decision, such asinvesting in automated controls. A cost-benefit analysis can help to justify an investment in automated controls by providing the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to decision making, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of assessing and communicating the value and impact of the investment across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the alignment of the investment with the organizational strategy and objectives, and helps to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
It helps to identify and prioritize the opportunities and challenges of the investment, and to develop and implement appropriate strategies and actions to address them.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the investment and its outcomes, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best methods to assist in justifying an investment in automated controls. Alignment of investment with risk appetite is an important aspect of risk management, but it does not directly address the costs and benefits of the investment. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Alignment of investment with risk appetite helps to ensure that the investment is consistent with the organizational risk tolerance and preferences,and does not expose the organization to excessive or unacceptable risk. Elimination of compensating controls is a possible benefit of investing in automated controls, but it is not a method to justify the investment. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that are implemented to mitigate the risk when the primary or preferred controls are not feasible or effective. Elimination of compensating controls can help to reduce the complexity and costs of the control environment, and to improve the efficiency and reliability of the controls. Reduction in personnel costs is a possible benefit of investing in automated controls, but it is not a method to justify the investment. Personnel costs are the expenses related to the staff and employees involved in the processes or functions that are automated. Reduction in personnel costs can help to increase the profitability and productivity of the organization, and to allocate the resources more effectively and efficiently. References = Cost Benefit Analysis: An Expert Guide | Smartsheet, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Automation - Efficiency, Cost-Savings, Robotics | Britannica
Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?
Encrypted storage of data
Links to source data
Audit trails for updates and deletions
Check totals on data records and data fields
Check totals are IT controls that verify the accuracy and completeness of data by comparing the sum or count of data records or data fields with a predetermined or expected value. Check totals can help detect and prevent errors, omissions, or alterations in data entry, processing, or transmission. Check totals can also help identify and correct data discrepancies or anomalies. Therefore, check totals are the most useful IT controls in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data. The other options are not the best answers because they do not directly address the risk of inaccurate data. Encrypted storage of data is an IT control that protects the confidentiality and integrity of data by preventing unauthorized access or modification. However, encryption does not ensure the accuracy or validity of the data itself. Links to source data are IT controls that provide traceability and transparency of data by allowing users to access or view the original data from which the derived or aggregated data is obtained. However, links to source data do not verify or correct the data quality or consistency. Audit trails for updates and deletions are IT controls that record thehistory and changes of data by capturing the date, time, user, and action performed on the data. Audit trails can help monitor and review the data activities and transactions, but they do not prevent or detect the data errors or inaccuracies. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 722
Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?
Organizational reporting process
Incident reporting procedures
Regularly scheduled audits
Incident management policy
The most important factor to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting is an organizational reporting process. An organizational reporting process is a set of procedures that defines the roles, responsibilities, frequency, format, and distribution of the risk and security metrics reports. An organizational reporting process helps to ensure that the risk and security metrics are relevant, accurate, consistent, and timely, and that they provide useful information for decision making and performance improvement. An organizational reporting process also helps to align the risk and security metrics reporting with the enterprise’s objectives, strategies, and policies, and to communicate the risk and security status and issues to the appropriate stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 2421
A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?
Risk impact
Risk trend
Risk appetite
Risk likelihood
Risk impact is the potential loss or damage that a risk event can cause to an organization. Risk impact can be expressed in qualitative or quantitative terms, such as financial, reputational, operational, or legal. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the key information about the identified risks, such as their description, likelihood, impact, response, and status. A risk register helps an organization to monitor and manage its risks effectively and efficiently. When there is a change in the external or internal environment that affects the organization’s risks, such as new regulations, the risk register should be updated to reflect this change. The most important element of the risk register to update in this case is the risk impact, because the new regulations have significantly increased the penalties for data breaches, which means that the potential loss or damage that a data breach can cause to the organization has also increased. By updating the risk impact, the organization can reassess the severity and priority of the data breach risk, and adjust its risk response accordingly. The other elements of the risk register are less important toupdate in this case. The risk trend shows the direction and rate of change of the risk over time, which may or may not be affected by the new regulations. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, which is unlikely to change due to the new regulations. The risk likelihood is the probability of a risk event occurring, which is also independent of the new regulations. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?
Recommend risk remediation
Change the level of risk appetite
Document formal acceptance of the risk
Reject the business initiative
The risk practitioner’s most important action related to the decision to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite is to document formal acceptance of the risk. Formal acceptance of the risk means that the organization acknowledges and agrees to bear the risk and its potential consequences. Formal acceptance of the risk should be documented and approved by the appropriate authority level, such as senior management or the board of directors. Formal acceptance of the risk should also include the rationale, assumptions, and conditions for accepting the risk, as well as the monitoring and reporting mechanisms for the risk. Formal acceptance of the risk provides evidence and accountability for the risk management decision and helps to avoid disputes or misunderstandings in the future. The other options are not as important as documenting formalacceptance of the risk, as they are related to the alternatives, adjustments, or rejections of the risk, not the actual acceptance of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?
Risk policy requirements
A risk register
Control self-assessment
Key performance Indicators
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that measure the achievement of objectives and the effectiveness of processes. KPIs can help management report on risk by providing quantitative and qualitative information on the risk profile, the risk appetite, the risk response, and the risk outcomes. KPIs can also help monitor and communicate the progress and results of risk management activities, such as risk identification, assessment, mitigation, and reporting. KPIs can be aligned with the strategic,operational, and tactical goals of the organization, and can be tailored to the specific needs and expectations of different stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Risk Indicators and Key Performance Indicators, p. 197-199.
when developing IT risk scenarios associated with a new line of business, which of the following would be MOST helpful to review?
Organizational threats
Resource allocation plan
Competitor analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Develop policies with less restrictive requirements to ensure consistency across the organization.
Develop a global policy to be applied uniformly by each country.
Develop country-specific policies to address local regulations.
Develop a global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements.
A global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements balances consistency and compliance. It establishes a baseline of controls while allowing adaptation to local laws and cultural differences. Uniform application without adaptation risks non-compliance. Country-specific policies alone may lack global coherence. Therefore, accommodating local requirements within a global policy framework is best practice.
A key performance indicator (KPI) has been established to monitor the number of software changes that fail and must be re-implemented. An increase in the KPI indicates an ineffective:
corrective control.
preventive control.
administrative control.
deterrent control.
Software change failures typically reflect weaknesses in preventive controls, such as code reviews, approval workflows, and test procedures. Preventive controls are designed to ensure defect-free changes before they reach production. An increase in failed changes indicates these safeguards are not functioning properly. Corrective controls respond after failures, not before them. Administrative controls (policies and standards) guide behavior but do not directly prevent implementation errors. Deterrent controls are intended to discourage malicious behavior, not prevent unintentional change failures. Therefore, ineffective preventive controls are the root cause indicated by the KPI trend.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of involving business owners in risk scenario development?
Business owners have the ability to effectively manage risk.
Business owners have authority to approve control implementation.
Business owners understand the residual risk of competitors.
Business owners are able to assess the impact.
The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:
risk assessment methodology.
risk appetite.
capabilities
asset value.
An organization’s policies are the set of rules and guidelines that define the organization’s objectives, expectations, and responsibilities for its activities and operations. They provide the direction and framework for the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions.
The most important characteristic of an organization’s policies is to reflect the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. The risk appetite is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the organization’s strategy and culture.
Reflecting the organization’s risk appetite in its policies ensures that the policies are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the most important characteristic of an organization’s policies, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the policies are suitable and acceptable for the organization.
The risk assessment methodology is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It involves determining the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency. The risk assessment methodology is important to inform and support the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because it does not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The capabilities are the resources and abilities that the organization has or can acquire to achieve its objectives and manage its risks. They include the people, processes, technologies, and assets that the organization uses or relies on. The capabilities are important to enable and implement theorganization’s policies, but they are not the most important characteristic of the policies, because they do not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite.
The asset value is the worth or importance of the assets that the organization owns or controls, and that may be affected by the risks that the organization faces. The assets include the tangible and intangible resources that the organization uses or relies on, such as data, information, systems, infrastructure, reputation, etc. The asset value is important to measure and monitor the organization’s policies, but it is not the most important characteristic of the policies, because itdoes not indicate whether the policies are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45, 50-51, 54-55
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 148
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Conduct frequent internal audits of IT systems.
Review information from threat intelligence sources.
Define a comprehensive set of key risk indicators (KRIs).
Document thorough IT risk scenarios in the risk register.
The identification of advanced persistent threats (APTs) is best supported by timely and relevant external information. Reviewing information from threat intelligence sources enables the organization to detect emerging threats quickly and accurately, reducing the mean time to identify APTs. While internal audits and KRIs are important, they typically focus on internal controls and risk monitoring rather than external threat detection. Thorough documentation of risk scenarios supports risk assessment but does not directly reduce detection time. Therefore, leveraging threat intelligence is the most effective approach for early identification of sophisticated threats.
Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?
Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.
Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.
Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.
Qualitative measures are easier to update.
Qualitative measures are methods of expressing risk levels using descriptive terms, such as high, medium, or low, based on subjective criteria, such as likelihood, impact, or severity. Qualitative measures are often used to identify and prioritize risks, and to communicate risk information to stakeholders1.
Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, and the need for further action or monitoring2.
Emerging threats are new or evolving sources or causes of risk that have the potential to adversely affect the organization’s objectives, assets, or operations. Emerging threats are oftencharacterized by uncertainty, complexity, and ambiguity, and may require innovative or adaptive risk responses3.
The best reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats is that qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment. Expert judgment is the opinion or advice of a person or a group of people who have specialized knowledge, skills, or experience in a particular domain or field. Expert judgment can help to:
Provide insights and perspectives on the nature and characteristics of the emerging threats, and their possible causes and consequences
Assess the likelihood and impact of the emerging threats, and their interactions and dependencies with other risks
Evaluate the suitability and effectiveness of the risk responses, and their alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
Identify and recommend the best practices and lessons learned for managing the emerging threats, and for improving the risk management process45
Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment than quantitative measures, which are methods of expressing risk levels using numerical or measurable values, such as percentages, probabilities, or monetary amounts. Quantitative measures are often used to estimate and analyze risks, and to support risk decision making1. However, quantitative measures may not be suitable or feasible for expressing residual risk levels related to emerging threats, because:
Quantitative measures require reliable and sufficient data and information, which may not be available or accessible for the emerging threats
Quantitative measures rely on mathematical models and techniques, which may not be able to capture or reflect the complexity and uncertainty of the emerging threats
Quantitative measures may create a false sense of precision or accuracy, which may not be justified or warranted for the emerging threats
Quantitative measures may be influenced or manipulated by biases or assumptions, which may not be valid or appropriate for the emerging threats67
Therefore, qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment, which can enhance the understanding and management of the residual risk levels related to emerging threats.
The other options are not the best reasons to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats, but rather some of the advantages or disadvantages of qualitative measures. Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring than quantitative measures, because they are simpler and easier to apply and update. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can eliminate or reduce the need for monitoring, which is an essential part of the risk management process. Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements than quantitative measures, because they are more consistent and comparable across different domains and contexts. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can satisfy or comply with all the regulatory requirements, which may vary depending on theindustry or sector. Qualitative measures are easier to update than quantitative measures, because they do not depend on complex calculations or formulas. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can always reflect the current or accurate risk levels, which may change over time or due to external factors. References =
Qualitative Risk Analysis vs. Quantitative Risk Analysis - ISACA
Residual Risk - ISACA
Emerging Threats - ISACA
Expert Judgment - ISACA
Expert Judgment in Project Management: Narrowing the Theory-Practice Gap
Quantitative Risk Analysis - ISACA
Quantitative Risk Analysis: A Critical Review
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
An organization plans to provide specific cloud security training for the IT team to help manage risks associated with cloud technology. This response is considered risk:
Transfer
Mitigation
Acceptance
Deferral
Risk mitigation involves implementing measures to reduce either the likelihood or impact of a risk.
By providing targeted training, the organization increases staff capability, thereby reducing the likelihood of misconfigurations or compliance errors in cloud usage.
ISACA defines mitigation as:
“Implementing controls or training to reduce exposure to risk within acceptable levels.”
A Transfer = insurance or outsourcing.
C Acceptance = no action.
D Deferral = postponing response.
Hence, B. Mitigation is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 3 – Risk Response and Mitigation, Topic: Risk Response Options.
An external security audit has reported multiple findings related to control noncompliance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management?
A recommendation for internal audit validation
Plans for mitigating the associated risk
Suggestions for improving risk awareness training
The impact to the organization’s risk profile
The risk profile of an organization is a summary of the key risks that affect its objectives, operations, and performance. The risk profile can help senior management understand the current and potential exposure of the organization to various sources of uncertainty, and prioritize the risk response accordingly. An external security audit can reveal multiple findings related to control noncompliance, which indicate that the existing controls are not adequate, effective, or aligned with the organization’s risk appetite. These findings can have a significant impact on the organization’s risk profile, as they can increase the likelihood and/or impact of adverse events, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, regulatory fines, reputational damage, etc. Therefore, the most important information that the risk practitioner should communicate to senior management is the impact to the organization’s risk profile, as it can help them make informed decisions about the risk response and allocation of resources. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Risk Profile, p. 193-195.
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?
Enhance the security awareness program.
Increase the frequency of incident reporting.
Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.
Conduct a control assessment.
A control assessment is the process of evaluating the design and effectiveness of controls that are implemented to mitigate risks. A control assessment can help identify the root causes of data loss, thegaps in the existing controls, and the potential solutions to improve the control environment. A control assessment should be conducted after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system, as it can provide valuable information for risk response and reporting. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.2: Control Assessment, p. 147-149.
Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?
Technical event
Threat event
Vulnerability event
Loss event
The result of a realized risk scenario is a loss event. A loss event is an occurrence that causes harm or damage to the organization’s assets, resources, or reputation. A loss event is also known as an incident or a breach. A loss event is the outcome of a risk scenario, which is a description of a possible situation or event that could affect the organization’s objectives or operations. A risk scenario consists of three elements: a threat, a vulnerability, and an impact. A threat is a potential source of harm or damage. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw that could be exploited by a threat. An impact is the consequence or effect of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. A risk scenario is realized when a threat exploits a vulnerability and causes an impact, which results in a loss event. The other options are not the result of a realized risk scenario, although they may be part of a risk scenario. A technical event, a threat event, and a vulnerability event are all types of events that could occur in a risk scenario, but they are not the final outcome or result of a risk scenario. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?
Cost-benefit analysis
Internal and external audit reports
Threat and vulnerability analysis
Control effectiveness assessment
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how IT-related risks can affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. IT risk scenarios help to make IT risk more concrete and tangible, and to enable proper risk analysis and assessment2. IT risk scenarios are developed after IT risks are identified, and are used as inputs for risk analysis, where the frequency and impact of the scenarios are estimated3.
The most important factor to the successful development of IT risk scenarios is threat and vulnerability analysis. Threat and vulnerability analysis is the process of identifying and evaluating the potential sources and causes of IT risks, such as malicious actors, natural disasters, human errors, or technical failures4. Threat and vulnerability analysis can help to:
Define the scope and boundaries of the IT risk scenarios, and ensure that they are relevant and realistic
Identify the critical assets, processes, or functions that are exposed or affected by the IT risks, and assess their value and importance to the organization
Determine the likelihood and methods of the threat events, and the existing or potential weaknesses or gaps in the IT control environment
Estimate the potential consequences and impacts of the IT risks, such as financial losses, operational disruptions, reputational damages, or compliance violations5
References = IT Scenario Analysis in Enterprise Risk Management - ISACA, IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin, Threat and Vulnerability Analysis - Wikipedia, Threat and Vulnerability Analysis - ISACA
Implement project status checks to avoid financial risk.
Support the project team in identifying and responding to risk.
Update and publish the project risk register on a regular basis.
Reduce project cost by eliminating risk to the project.
The risk management function acts as a consultant and facilitator in IT projects, helping the project team identify, assess, and respond to risks effectively. It does not directly control project status or costs but supports decision-making. Updating risk registers is an operational task often handled by the project team with guidance from risk management. Eliminating all risk is impractical; instead, risks are managed within appetite levels.
An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?
Classification of the data
Type of device
Remote management capabilities
Volume of data
The most important factor when assessing the risk of allowing users to access company data from their personal devices is the classification of the data, as it indicates the level of sensitivity, confidentiality, and criticality of the data. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls that are needed to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss of the data. Data classification also helps to define the roles and responsibilities of the data owners, custodians, and users, and the acceptable use of the data. The other options are not the most important factors, although they may be relevant or influential in the risk assessment. The type of device may affect the security features and vulnerabilities of the device, but it does not determine the value or impact of the data. The remote management capabilities may affect the ability to monitor, control, or wipe the device in case of theft or loss, but they do not reflect the nature or purpose of the data. The volume of data may affect the storage capacity or performance of the device, but it does not indicate the importance or significance of the data. References = What is BYOD (Bring-Your-Own-Device) - CrowdStrike; Understanding BYOD Policy - Get Certified Get Ahead; Addressing cyber security concerns on employees’ personal devices; Personal Devices at Work – Nonprofit Risk Management Center; 10 Keys to an Effective BYOD and Remote Access Policy
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?
Assigning a data owner
Scheduling periodic audits
Implementing technical controls over the assets
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Assigning a data owner ensures accountability and responsibility for classifying and protecting data according to its sensitivity. This role is critical in implementing effectiveData Governance Practices.
Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?
Risk tolerance is decreased.
Residual risk is increased.
Inherent risk is increased.
Risk appetite is decreased
A critical patch is a software update that fixes a security vulnerability or a bug that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of a system or a network. A critical patch implementation is a process that applies the software update to the system or network in a timely and effective manner. The failure of a critical patch implementation is a situation where the software update is not applied or not applied correctly, which may expose the system or networkto various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. The failure of a critical patch implementation would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile by increasing the residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, which means the risk that is not avoided, transferred, or mitigated by the existing controls or measures. The failure of a critical patch implementation would increase the residual risk, as it would reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the existing controls or measures that are supposed to address the security vulnerability or the bug. The failure of a critical patch implementation would also increase the likelihood or impact of the potential threats, as well as the exposure or consequences of the system or network. The other options are not the correct changes that would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation, although they may be affected or related. Risk tolerance is the degree of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is not willing to accept. Risk tolerance may be decreased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become more cautious or conservative in accepting the risk, but it is not a direct or immediate change in the risk profile. Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of any controls or measures, which means the risk that is inherent to the system or network or the environment. Inherent risk may be increased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the system or network may become more vulnerable or susceptible to the threats, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile considers the existing controls or measures. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite may be decreasedby the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become less willing orable to accept the risk, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile reflects the actual or current risk level, not the desired or expected risk level. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 972; What is a Critical Patch? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia4
Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization's data disposal policy?
Compliance manager
Data architect
Data owner
Chief information officer (CIO)
The data owner should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization’s data disposal policy, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the data they own. The compliance manager, the data architect, and the chief information officer (CIO) are not the best choices, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to data governance, design, and strategy, respectively, but they do not own the data. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Report it to the chief risk officer.
Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.
follow incident reporting procedures.
Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.
The best course of action for the risk practitioner is to follow the incident reporting procedures established by the organization. This will ensure that the incident is properly documented, escalated, and resolved in a timely and consistent manner. Reporting the incident to the chief risk officer, advising the employee to forward the email to the phishing team, or advising the employee to permanently delete the email are not the best courses of action, as they may not comply with the organization’s policies and standards, and may not address the root cause and impact of the incident. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2.1, page 193.
Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?
Defining risk taxonomy
Identifying vulnerabilities
Conducting an impact analysis
Defining risk response options
Defining risk response options is performed after a risk assessment is completed. A risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations. After a risk assessment is completed, the enterprise needs to define the risk response options, which are the actions that can be taken to address the risks.The risk response options include accepting, avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or exploiting the risks. Defining risk response options helps to select the most appropriate and effective strategy to manage the risks. Defining risk taxonomy, identifying vulnerabilities, and conducting an impact analysis are performed before or during a risk assessment, not after. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.4, page 541
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 644.
IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:
for compliance with laws and regulations
as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.
as input for decision-making
to measure organizational success.
IT risk assessments can best be used by management as input for decision-making, because they provide valuable information about the current and potential risks facing the organization’s IT systems, networks, and data, and their impact on the organization’s objectives and performance. IT risk assessments can help management to identify and prioritize the most critical and relevant risks, and to evaluate and select the most appropriate and effective risk responses. IT risk assessments can also help management to allocate and optimize the resources and budget for IT risk management, and to communicate and report the risk status and performance to the senior management, the board of directors, and other stakeholders. IT risk assessments can support management in making informed and balanced decisions that consider both the opportunities and the threats of IT-related activities and investments. References = Complete Guide to IT Risk Management 1
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?
Requirements for regulatory obligations.
Cost of control implementation.
Effectiveness of risk treatment.
Number of risk response options.
The effectiveness of risk treatment determines whether the selected response sufficiently mitigates the identified risk. This consideration ensures alignment with risk appetite and reduces residual risk to acceptable levels, reflecting the priorities set out in theRisk Response and Treatmentdomain of CRISC.
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to continuously manage after implementing a Zero Trust security model?
Privileged user access reviews
Integration with existing security protocols
Policy enforcement inconsistencies
Network segmentation errors
In a Zero Trust model, access is never implicitly trusted and must be continuously verified — making privileged access review critical.
ISACA CRISC guidance:
“Under the Zero Trust model, continuous validation and review of privileged user access is essential to prevent privilege escalation and insider threats.”
Integration and segmentation are design concerns; privileged access management is the ongoing control requirement.
Thus, A is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 4 – Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Topic: Zero Trust and Continuous Authorization.
Which of the following BEST ensures that the data feeds used by an organization are complete and accurate?
Data is inspected and accepted by owners
Best-in-class data mining technology is used
Sources of data and attributes are known
The project is run by an experienced team
Whendata owners inspect and approveincoming data, it provides assurance of its completeness and accuracy, as they are accountable for the integrity of the data under their ownership.
An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?
Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.
Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).
Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.
Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).
The best way to mitigate the risk to operations caused by severe weather events is to develop a business continuity plan (BCP). A BCP is a document that describes the procedures and resources needed to ensure the continuity of the organization’s critical functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP helps to identify the recovery objectives, strategies, and priorities, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team members. A BCP also helps to prepare and test the recovery capabilities and resources, such as alternate locations, backup systems, and communication channels. The other options are not as effective as developing a BCP, although they may be part of the BCP process or outcomes. Preparing a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation, preparing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), and conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location are all activities that can help to develop or implement a BCP, but they are not the best way to mitigate the risk to operations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 5-9.
The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:
define the IT risk framework for the organization
populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting
comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies
prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance
An IT risk awareness program shouldprimarily ensure that employees and stakeholders understand and comply with the organization's risk and information security policies. ISACA highlights that an awareness program must reinforce policy understanding to drive compliant and secure behavior across the organization.
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Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?
Incident reports
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk tolerance
Control objectives
When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:
evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.
evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.
address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.
determine which risk factors have high remediation costs
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, the first step in prioritizing risk response is to address the high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions. This means that management should focus on the risks that have the most impact on the organization’s objectives and can be mitigated with the least amount of resources and effort. This approach helps to optimize the risk response process and achieve the best results in terms of risk reduction and value creation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, Page 223.
During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.
Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.
Determine the root cause of the control failures.
Escalate the control failures to senior management.
The control evaluation phase of a risk assessment is the phase where the risk practitioner evaluates the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing or planned controls that mitigate the identified risks. Controls are the actions or measures that reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks to an acceptable level. The control evaluation phase involves testing, reviewing, and auditing the controls, and identifying any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. If the control evaluation phase reveals that multiple controls are ineffective, the risk practitioner’s first course of action should be to determine the root cause of the control failures. The root cause is the underlying or fundamental reason that leads to the problem or issue, such as the controlfailure. By determining the root cause of the control failures, the risk practitioner can understand why the controls are not working as intended, and what factors or variables are influencing the control performance. This will help the risk practitioner to identify and implement the most appropriate and effective risk response strategy and actions, such as recommending risk remediation, comparing the residual risk, or escalating the control failures. The other options are not the first course of action, as they involve different steps or outcomes of the risk management process:
Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls means that the risk practitioner suggests the actions or measures that can improve or restore the effectiveness of the controls, such as by modifying, replacing, or adding the controls. This may be a useful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not address the root cause of the control failures, or may not be feasible or efficient for the enterprise’s needs.
Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite means that the risk practitioner evaluates the level of risk that remains after considering the existing or planned controls, and compares it with the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. This may be a helpful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not reflect the true or current level of risk exposure, or may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the risks or the controls.
Escalate the control failures to senior management means that the risk practitioner communicates the control failures to the senior leaders of the enterprise, who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. This may be a necessary step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not provide sufficient or timely information or action to address the control failures, or may not reflect the urgency or priority of the control failures. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
Which of the following should be implemented to BEST mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates?
Role-specific technical training
Change management audit
Change control process
Risk assessment
The best way to mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates is to implement a change control process. A change control process is a set of procedures that ensures that any changes to the infrastructure are planned, approved, tested, implemented, and documented in a consistent and controlled manner. A change control process helps to reduce the risk of errors, conflicts, disruptions, or security breaches that could result from infrastructure updates. A change controlprocess also helps to monitor and evaluate the impact and effectiveness of the changes, and to ensure that they align with the enterprise’s objectives and requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 1391
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?
Identifying users who have access
Selecting an encryption solution
Defining the data retention period
Determining the value of data
Determining the value of data is essential when implementing a DLP system. Understanding data value helps prioritize protection efforts, allocate resources effectively, and ensure that critical information assets are adequately safeguarded against loss or unauthorized access.
The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:
operates as intended.
is being monitored.
meets regulatory requirements.
operates efficiently.
The main purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control operates as intended, as this can help to ensure that the control is effective and efficient in mitigating the risk, and that it meets the control objectives and requirements. Reviewing a control after implementation can also help to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the control operation, and to monitor and evaluate the performance and impact of the control. Reviewing a control after implementation can also provide feedback and information to the control owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the control design and implementation accordingly. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions andAnswers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question254. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 254. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?
An assessment of threats to the organization
An assessment of recovery scenarios
industry standard framework
Documentation of testing procedures
As part of business continuity planning, the most important thing to include in a business impact analysis (BIA) is an industry standard framework. A BIA is a process of identifying and analyzing the potential effects of disruptions to the critical business functions and processes. An industry standard framework is a set of best practices, guidelines, and methodologies that provide a consistent and comprehensive approach to conducting a BIA. An industry standard framework can help to ensure that the BIA is complete, accurate, and reliable, and that it covers all the relevant aspects, such as the scope, objectives, criteria, methods, data sources, and reporting. An industry standard framework can also help to benchmark the BIA results against the industry norms and expectations, and to align the BIA with the business continuity strategy and plan. The other options are not as important as an industry standard framework, as they are related to the specific steps, activities, or outputs of the BIA, not the overall structure and quality of the BIA. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?
Including trend analysis of risk metrics
Using an aggregated view of organizational risk
Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data
Ensuring relevance to organizational goals
The most important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management is ensuring relevance to organizational goals. This means that the risk information presented should align with the strategic objectives and priorities of the organization, and demonstrate how risk management supports the achievement of those goals. Executive management is responsible for setting the direction and vision of the organization, and therefore needs to understand how risk management contributes to the value creation and protection of the organization. By ensuring relevance to organizational goals, risk management updates can help executive management make informed decisions, allocate resources, and communicate with stakeholders.
Some of the ways to ensure relevance to organizational goals are:
Linking risk management updates to the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy
Highlighting the key risks and opportunities that affect the organization’s performance and competitiveness
Providing clear and concise risk reports that focus on the most critical and material risks
Using a common risk language and framework that is understood by executive management
Providing actionable recommendations and solutions to address the identified risks
Aligning risk management updates with the organization’s reporting cycle and governance structure
References =
The Importance of Integrating Risk Management with Strategy
Four steps for managing risk at the CEO level
5 Key Principles of Successful Risk Management
Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?
An antivirus program
Database activity monitoring
Firewall log monitoring
File integrity monitoring
Zero-day malware is malware that exploits unknown and unprotected vulnerabilities. This novel malware is difficult to detect and defend against, making zero-day attacks a significant threat to enterprise cybersecurity1. The best way to detect zero-day malware on an end user’s workstation is to use file integrity monitoring, which is a technique that monitors and alerts on changes to files and directories that may indicate a malware infection or compromise2. By using fileintegrity monitoring, the end user can detect zero-day malware that may alter or damage the files or directories on their workstation, and take appropriate actions to remove or isolate the malware. File integrity monitoring can also help to prevent the spread of zero-day malware to other systems or networks, and to restore the integrity and availability of the affected files or directories. Antivirus program, database activity monitoring, and firewall log monitoring are not the best ways to detect zero-day malware on an end user’s workstation, as they are not as effective or reliable as file integrity monitoring. Antivirus program is a software that scans and removes known malware from a system or network3. Antivirus program can help to protect the end user’s workstation from common or known malware, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malware that does not have a signature or a pattern that matches the antivirus program’s database. Database activity monitoring is a technique that monitors and audits the activities and transactions on a database, such as queries, updates, or deletions4. Database activity monitoring can help to protect the end user’s database from unauthorized or malicious access or modification, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malware that does not target or affect the database. Firewall log monitoring is a technique that monitors and analyzes the logs generated by a firewall, which is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall log monitoring can help to protect the enduser’s workstation from external or internal network attacks, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malwarethat bypasses or evades the firewall rules or that originates from the workstation itself. References = 1: What is Zero Day Malware? - Check Point Software2: File Integrity Monitoring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: Antivirus Software - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics4: Database Activity Monitoring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : [Firewall Log Analysis - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.] : [Zero-day attack detection: a systematic literature review | Artificial Intelligence Review] : [Zero-day Attacks Detection and Prevention Methods | Apriorit]
A compensating control is MOST appropriate when:
Management wants to increase the number of controls.
A vulnerability is identified.
Existing controls are inadequate.
A key control is already in place and operating effectively.
A compensating control addresses risk when the primary control cannot meet the required objectives due to practical constraints.
Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the environment?
Relying on multiple solutions for Zero Trust
Utilizing rapid development during implementation
Establishing a robust technical architecture
Starting with a large initial scope
Zero Trust Model:
Zero Trust security model assumes that threats can exist both inside and outside the network. Every access request must be authenticated, authorized, and encrypted.
Preventing Control Gaps:
A robust technical architecture ensures comprehensive and consistent security controls across the entire network.
It integrates various security measures, such as microsegmentation, strong authentication, continuous monitoring, and least privilege access, to create a unified defense strategy.
Other Options:
Relying on Multiple Solutions:Can lead to fragmentation and inconsistencies in security controls.
Utilizing Rapid Development:May introduce vulnerabilities if security is not properly integrated.
Starting with a Large Initial Scope:Can be overwhelming and difficult to manage effectively, leading to potential gaps.
References:
The CISSP Study Guide emphasizes the importance of a strong and cohesive technical architecture in implementing Zero Trust effectively (Sybex CISSP Study Guide, Chapter 8: Principles of Security Models, Design, and Capabilities) .
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate risk assessments to senior management?
To ensure actions can be taken to align assessment results to risk appetite
To ensure key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds can be adjusted for tolerance
To ensure awareness of risk and controls is shared with key decision makers
To ensure the maturity of the assessment program can be validated
Communicating risk assessments to senior management is crucial for ensuring that key decision-makers are aware of the organization's risk landscape. This awareness enables informed decision-making regarding risk responses, resource allocation, and strategic planning. It also fosters a risk-aware culture throughout the organization.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when developing an organization's risk management strategy?
Complexity of technology architecture
Disaster recovery strategy
Business operational requirements
Criteria for assessing risk
Thebusiness operational requirementsshould be the central consideration when crafting a risk management strategy. This ensures that risk management aligns with and supports business objectives, a core principle in ISACA’s risk management framework.
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Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?
Regular testing of risk controls
Communication of audit findings
Procedures for security monitoring
Open communication of risk reporting
Open communication of risk reporting is the most important factor for promoting a risk-aware culture, because it fosters trust, transparency, and accountability among all stakeholders. It also enables timely and informed decision-making, feedback, and learning from risk events. Regular testing of risk controls, communication of audit findings, and procedures for security monitoring are all important aspects of risk management, but they do not necessarily create a risk-aware culture, which requires a shared understanding and commitment to risk management across the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2, page 1-9.
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?
Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays
Maintaining a risk register
The best way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability is to establish a disaster recovery plan (DRP), because a DRP is a document that defines the procedures and resources needed to restore the IT infrastructure and resume the critical business functions in the event of a disaster or disruption. A DRP helps to minimize the downtime, data loss, and financial impact of a disaster, and ensures the continuity of operations and services. The other options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability, although they may also be helpful in supporting the DRP. Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs), maintaining a current list of staff contact details, and maintaining a risk register are examples of planning or monitoring activities that aim to define the requirements, roles, and responsibilities for the disaster recovery process, but they do not address the actual implementation or execution of the DRP. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Owners of technical controls should be PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring the controls are:
Mapped to the corresponding business areas.
Aligned with corporate security policies.
Effectively implemented and maintained.
Designed based on standards and frameworks.
Technical control owners are responsible for the day-to-day operation and maintenance of controls. Their primary accountability is to ensure that controls are effectively implemented and continue to operate as intended to mitigate associated risks.
A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?
Enable data encryption in the test environment.
Prevent the use of production data in the test environment
De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.
Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.
The best recommendation to address the situation where personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments is to de-identify data before being transferred to the test environment. De-identification is the process of removing or modifying any personally identifiable information (PII) or other sensitive data from the data sets, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc., so that the data cannot be traced back to specific individuals. De-identification protects the privacy and confidentiality of the data, while still allowing for testing, analysis, or training purposes. Enabling data encryption, preventing the use of production data, and enforcing multi-factor authentication are also useful measures, but they do not eliminate the risk of data breaches or unauthorized access to PII. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?
Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets
Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments
A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents
A large number of control exceptions
A risk management program is a set of processes, policies, and tools that enable an enterprise to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate its risks. The maturity level of a risk management program indicates how well the program is integrated, standardized, and aligned with the enterprise’s objectives, culture, and values. The best indication that an organization’s risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level is large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments. Risk ratings are the measures of the impact and likelihood of the risks, and they should be consistent and comparable across the enterprise and over time. Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments suggest that the risk management program is not stable, reliable, or effective, and that the risk identification and analysis methods are not robust, accurate, or transparent. The other options are not as indicative of the maturity level of the riskmanagement program, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the risk management program:
Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets means that the enterprise is spending more resources on implementing risk responses, such as controls, policies, or procedures. This may indicate that the enterprise is facing more or higher risks, or that the risk responses are more costly or complex, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the enterprise’s risk appetite, tolerance, and strategy.
A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents means that the enterprise is taking longer to restore its normal operations after a disruption or a loss. This may indicate that the enterprise is not prepared or resilient enough to deal with the incidents, or that the incidents are more frequent or severe, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the nature and source of the incidents, or the availability and effectiveness of the recovery plans.
A large number of control exceptions means that the enterprise is deviating from the established controls, policies, or procedures, either intentionally or unintentionally. This may indicate that the enterprise is not complying with the risk management program, or that the controls are not adequate or appropriate for the enterprise’s needs, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the reasons and justifications for the exceptions, or the approval and monitoring processes for the exceptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.3.1, pp. 14-15.
A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?
Key control indicator (KCI)
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Operational level agreement (OLA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
A KRI is a measure used by an organization to measure the health of a particular risk. In this case, the risk practitioner is developing a metric to measure the risk associated with security threats that were not identified by antivirus software12.
References
1Standardized Scoring for Security and Risk Metrics - ISACA
2Key Performance Indicators for Security Governance, Part 1 - ISACA
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?
Distributed data sources
Manual data extraction
Incorrect data selection
Excessive data volume
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, data selection is the process of choosing the appropriate data sources and variables for data analysis. Data selection is the most critical step in data analytics, as it determines the quality and validity of the results and insights derived from the analysis. Incorrect data selection is the greatest risk associated with the use of data analytics, as it can lead to inaccurate, incomplete, irrelevant, or biased outcomes that can adversely affectthe decision making and performance of the organization. Incorrect data selection can also cause legal, regulatory, ethical, or reputational issues for the organization, if the data used for analysis is not authorized, reliable, or compliant. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 255.
Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?
Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities
Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience
Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite
Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation
Customizing the risk profile presentation ensures that stakeholders receive information in a format and context relevant to their roles. Tailored communication improves understanding, aligns risk discussions with decision-making needs, and ensures the stakeholders are equipped to act on the information effectively.
A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.
Conduct third-party resilience tests.
Update the risk register with the process changes.
Review risk related to standards and regulations.
Conducting a risk assessment with stakeholders is the best course of action for the risk practitioner to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform, because it helps to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks and opportunities associated with the platform, and to compare them with the organization’s risk appetite and value proposition. A risk assessment is a process of systematically identifying and assessing the sources and types of risk that an organization faces, and estimating their likelihood and impact. A risk assessment also involves identifying and evaluating the existing or proposed controls or mitigating factors that can reduce or eliminate the risk. A stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or influence in the organization or its activities, such as customers, employees, shareholders,suppliers, regulators, or partners. A blockchain integration platform is a software solution that enables the organization to connect and interact with blockchain networks or applications, such as cryptocurrencies, smart contracts, or distributed ledgers. A blockchain integration platform can offer benefits such as transparency, security, efficiency, and innovation, but it can also pose risks such as technical complexity, interoperability issues, regulatory uncertainty, or cyberattacks. Therefore, conducting a risk assessment with stakeholders is the best way to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform, as it helps to understand the benefits and risks of the platform, and to align them with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite. Conducting third-party resilience tests, updating the risk register with the process changes, and reviewing risk related to standards and regulations are all important tasks to perform after conducting a risk assessment, but they are not the best course of action, as they depend on the results of the risk assessment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 87
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?
internal audit recommendations
Laws and regulations
Policies and procedures
Standards and frameworks
The most important factor for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies is the laws and regulations that apply to the organization and the technologies. Laws and regulations are the legal and ethical obligations that the organization must comply with when collecting, processing, storing, and sharing personal data. Laws and regulations can vary depending on the jurisdiction, sector, and type of data involved, and they can impose different requirements and restrictions on the use of emerging technologies that may affect data privacy. For example, the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States, and the Personal Data Protection Act (PDPA) in Singapore are some of the laws and regulations that govern data privacy and protection in different regions and contexts123. A riskpractitioner should consider the laws and regulations when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies, because they can help to ensure that the organization respects the rights and interests of the data subjects, avoids legal and reputational risks, and maintains trust and accountability. The other options are not the mostimportant factor, although they may be relevant or influential to the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies. Internal audit recommendations are the suggestions and feedback from the internal audit function, which evaluates and improves the effectiveness of the governance, risk management, and control systems of the organization, but they do not supersede or replace the laws and regulations. Policies and procedures are the rules and guidelines that define how the organization operates and conducts its activities, but they should be aligned and consistent with the laws and regulations. Standards and frameworks are the best practices and benchmarks that are adopted by the organization to guide and support its processes and performance, but they should be compatible and compliant with the laws and regulations. References = Emerging privacy-enhancing technologies: Current regulatory and policy approaches | en | OECD, Data and Cybersecurity: 2023 Regulatory Challenges - KPMG, Ethical Dilemmas and Privacy Issues in Emerging Technologies: A … - MDPI
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?
Implement user access controls
Perform regular internal audits
Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies
Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.
Developing and communicating fraud prevention policies is the most effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud because it creates a culture of integrity and accountability, sets clear expectations and consequences for employees, and deters fraudulent behavior. Implementing user access controls, performing regular internal audits, and conducting fraud prevention awareness training are also important controls, but they are more reactive and detective than preventive. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 4-26.
A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?
Change logs
Change management meeting minutes
Key control indicators (KCIs)
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
The best way to provide information to management about emergency changes that may not be approved is to use key risk indicators (KRIs). KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs help to provide information to management about emergency changes, because they help to alert and inform management about the potential risks and consequences of the changes, and to support the risk decision-making and reporting processes. KRIs also help to provide information to management about emergency changes, because they help to track and evaluate the effectiveness and performance of the changes, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise from the changes. The other options are not the best way to provide information to management about emergency changes, although they may be part of or derived from the KRIs. Change logs, change management meeting minutes, and key control indicators (KCIs) are all examples of documentation or communication tools, which may help to record or report the details and status of the changes, but they do not necessarily measure or monitor the risks and outcomes of the changes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.5.1, page 4-38.
Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective?
Independent audit report
Control self-assessment
MOST important to update when an
Service level agreements (SLAs)
The MOST important thing to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective is an independent audit report, because it provides an objective and reliable assessment of the service provider’s controls and compliance with standards and regulations. The other options are not as important as an independent audit report, because:
Option B: Control self-assessment is a subjective and voluntary process that may not reflect the actual effectiveness of the service provider’s controls.
Option C: This option is incomplete and irrelevant to the question.
Option D: Service level agreements (SLAs) are contractual agreements that specify the expected performance and availability of the service provider, but they do not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of the service provider’s controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 195.
Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Risk policy requirements
A risk register
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Key performance indicators (KPIs) will best support management reporting on risk, as they help to measure and monitor the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management and control processes. KPIs are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potentialperformance of a specific activity, process, or objective. KPIs can be classified into two types: leading and lagging. Leading KPIs are predictive indicators that provide early warning signals or trends of future performance. Lagging KPIs are outcome indicators that reflect the actual or historical performance.
KPIs help to support management reporting on risk by providing the following benefits:
They enable a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk management and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
They facilitate a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk performance across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
They support the alignment of risk management and control activities with the organizational strategy and objectives, and help to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
They help to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk management and control processes, and guide the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
They provide feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and help to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best choices to support management reporting on risk. Control self-assessment (CSA) is a process that involves the participation and involvement of the staff and managers in assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the internal controls within their areas of responsibility, but it does not provide a comprehensive or objective view of the risk performance. Risk policy requirements are the documents that define the principles, rules, and guidelines for the risk management and control processes, but they do not provide actual or potential information on the risk performance. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses, but it does not measure or monitor the risk performance. References = Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Risk Management - Resolver, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Risk Reporting - Open Risk Manual
When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;
tests are conducted after business hours.
operators are unaware of the test.
external experts execute the test.
agreement is obtained from stakeholders.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, stakeholders are the individuals or groups that have an interest or stake in the outcome of the IT system and its risks. Stakeholders include the system owners, users, operators, developers, managers, auditors, regulators, and customers. It is most important to ensure that agreement is obtained from stakeholders when testing the security of an IT system, as this helps to define the scope, objectives, and expectations of the test, and to obtain the necessary authorization, support, and resources for the test. Agreement from stakeholders also helps to avoid any conflicts, disruptions, or misunderstandings that may arise during or after the test, and to ensure the validity and acceptance of the test results and recommendations. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 198, 224.
Upon learning that the number of failed backup attempts continually exceeds
the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:
initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency.
adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance.
inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions.
keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal.
Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data when disposing of storage media?
Physical destruction
Degaussing
Data anonymization
Data deletion
When disposing of storage media, the best way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data is physical destruction. Here’s why:
Physical Destruction:
Physical destruction involves destroying the storage media so that the data it contains cannot be recovered or reconstructed.
Methods include shredding, crushing, incinerating, or using industrial-grade degaussers that destroy the magnetic fields on the media.
Comparison with Other Methods:
Degaussing:This method erases data by disrupting the magnetic fields of the storage media. While effective for some types of media, it may not work on all (e.g., solid-state drives) and does not provide a visual confirmation that the data is irrecoverable.
Data Anonymization:This process involves altering data to prevent identification of individuals, but it does not destroy the data itself and is not applicable for disposing of storage media.
Data Deletion:Simply deleting data does not remove it permanently. Deleted data can often be recovered using specialized software unless it is overwritten multiple times, which is still less reliable than physical destruction.
Security Best Practices:
Physical destruction is considered the most secure method because it ensures that the media is rendered completely unusable and the data cannot be retrieved by any means.
This method is recommended by various standards and frameworks, including NIST Special Publication 800-88 Guidelines for Media Sanitization.
During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?
Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.
Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.
Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.
Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment
A new risk scenario without controls means that there is a potential threat or event that could adversely affect the organization’s objectives, and there are no existing measures to prevent or reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment, so that the risk practitioner can analyze therisk, evaluate its severity and priority, and recommend suitable controls to mitigate the risk. By including the new risk scenario in the current riskassessment, the risk practitioner can ensure that the risk register is updated and reflects the current risk profile of the organization. The other options are not appropriate because they either ignore the new risk scenario, delay the risk assessment process, or remove valuable information from the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 95.
If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?
Confidentiality
Accountability
Availability
Integrity
Integrity is the property of data that ensures its accuracy, completeness, and consistency2. If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, the integrity of the data may be compromised, as it may lead to concurrency problems such as lost update, unrepeatable read, or phantom read3. These problems can cause the data to be incorrect, incomplete, or inconsistent, which may affect the reliability and validity of the data. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it reflects the impact of improper concurrent update transactions on the data integrity. The other options are not correct, as they do not directly relate to the effect of concurrent update transactions on the data. Option A, confidentiality, is the property of data that ensures its protection from unauthorized access or disclosure2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the confidentiality of the data, as they do not involve exposing the data to unauthorized parties. Option B, accountability, is the property of data that ensures its traceability and auditability2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the accountability of the data, as they do not involve losing the records or logs of the data transactions. Option C, availability, is the property of data that ensures its accessibility and usability2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the availability of the data, as they do not involve preventing the access or use of the data.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?
Unencrypted data
Lack of redundant circuits
Low bandwidth connections
Data integrity
The greatest concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet is unencrypted data, as this exposes the data to unauthorized access, interception, modification, or disclosure, which may compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data. Healthcare data is sensitive and personal information that may include medical records, diagnoses, treatments, prescriptions, insurance claims, and biometric data. Healthcare data is subject to various legal and regulatory requirements, such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the United States, that mandate the protection and privacy of the data. Encryption is a method of transforming the data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed or restored by authorized parties who have the decryption key. Encryption helps to prevent or reduce the risk of data breaches, identity theft, fraud, or other malicious attacks. The other options are not the greatest concerns associated with the transmission of healthcare dataacross the internet, although they may pose some challenges or issues. Lack of redundant circuits is a concern for the reliability and continuity of the data transmission, but it does notaffect the security or privacy of the data. Low bandwidth connections is a concern for the speed andefficiency of the data transmission, but it does not affect the security or privacy of the data. Data integrity is a concern for the accuracy and completeness of the data, but it does not necessarily depend on the encryption of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 156.
Which of the following problems is BEST solved by a cloud access security broker (CASB)?
Lack of expertise to implement single sign-on (SSO)
Cloud access security vendor selection
Inadequate key management policies
Inconsistently applied security policies
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) acts as a control point between cloud service users and providers to enforce the organization’s security policies consistently across all cloud applications.
CRISC-aligned cloud risk guidance explains:
“CASBs provide visibility, data security, threat protection, and compliance enforcement by applying consistent security controls across all cloud services.”
Therefore, the main issue CASBs address is inconsistent security policy enforcement between on-premise and multiple cloud environments.
Option details:
A and C (SSO and key management) relate to identity or encryption control tools.
B is unrelated to CASB’s purpose.
Hence, D. Inconsistently applied security policies is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 3 – Risk Response and Mitigation, Topic: Cloud Risk Controls.
A risk practitioner has been asked to advise management on developing a log collection and correlation strategy. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when developing this strategy?
Ensuring time synchronization of log sources.
Ensuring the inclusion of external threat intelligence log sources.
Ensuring the inclusion of all computing resources as log sources.
Ensuring read-write access to all log sources
Ensuring time synchronization of log sources is the most important consideration when developing a log collection and correlation strategy, as it enables the accurate and consistent analysis and correlation of log data from different sources and systems. Time synchronization can help to identify the sequence and causality of events, and to detect and respond to any anomalies or incidents. Time synchronization can also facilitate the compliance and audit of the log data, and support the forensic investigation and legal action if needed. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 248. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 248. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?
The number of threats to the system
The organization's available budget
The number of vulnerabilities to the system
The level of acceptable risk to the organization
Determining Controls:
Acceptable Risk Level: The level of acceptable risk to the organization is the most important consideration because it directly influences the type and extent of controls implemented. Controls must be designed to keep risk within acceptable levels.
Risk Management Strategy: Aligning controls with the organization's risk appetite ensures that resources are used effectively and that critical information systems are adequately protected.
Comparison with Other Options:
Number of Threats: Important for understanding risk exposure but secondary to determining acceptable risk levels.
Available Budget: Budget constraints are important but should not compromise the implementation of necessary controls.
Number of Vulnerabilities: Identifying vulnerabilities is part of the risk assessment process, but controls are prioritized based on the acceptable risk level.
Best Practices:
Risk Assessment: Conduct thorough risk assessments to understand the potential impact of threats and vulnerabilities.
Control Effectiveness: Implement controls that are both cost-effective and capable of reducing risk to acceptable levels.
Continuous Monitoring: Regularly monitor and review controls to ensure they remain effective and aligned with the organization's risk tolerance.
Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on ensuring the alignment of the risk profile with business objectives?
An effective enterprise-wide risk awareness program
Senior management approval of risk appetite and tolerance
Stage gate reviews throughout the risk management process
Incorporation of industry best practice benchmarks and standards
The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:
security department.
business unit
vendor.
IT department.
A high-risk vulnerability in an application is a system flaw or weakness in the application’s code that can be exploited by a malicious actor, potentially leading to a security breach. The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is the possibility and impact of such a breach occurring. The risk owner of a high-risk vulnerability in an application is the person or entity who has the authority and responsibility for managing the risk. The risk owner should be able to define the risk appetite, assess the risk level, select and implement the risk response, monitor and report the risk status, and ensure the risk alignment with the business objectives and strategy. The risk owner of a high-risk vulnerability in an application is the business unit, which is the organizational unit that operates the application and derives value from it. The businessunit understands the business needs and expectations of the application, and the potential consequences of a security breach. The business unit also has the resources and incentives to address the risk effectively and efficiently. Therefore, the business unit is the most appropriate risk owner of a high-risk vulnerability in an application. References = Why Assigning a Risk Owner is Important and How to Do It Right, CRISC 351-400 topic3, Foundations of Project Management : Week 2.
Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?
Regulatory compliance
Risk ownership
Best practices
Desired risk level
The most important factor to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program is the desired risk level, which is the level of risk that the organization aims to achieve in order to fulfill its objectives and strategy1. The desired risk level can help to:
Define and communicate the risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives2.
Guide and align the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment processes, and ensure that the risks are consistent and proportional to the desired risk level3.
Measure and monitor the risk performance and outcome, and ensure that the actual risk level is within the desired risk level, or take corrective actions if needed4.
The other factors are not the most important to communicate to senior management, because:
Regulatory compliance is a necessary but not sufficient factor to communicate to senior management, as it ensures that the risk management program complies with the applicable laws, rules, or standards that govern the organization’s activities and operations5. However, regulatory compliance does not guarantee that the risk management program is relevant and useful for the organization’s specific objectives and strategy.
Risk ownership is a desirable but not essential factor to communicate to senior management, as it assigns the roles and responsibilities for managing the risks and implementing the risk responses to the appropriate individuals or entities within the organization. However, risk ownership does not ensure that the risk management program is effective and efficient in achieving the desired risk level.
Best practices are a useful but not critical factor to communicate to senior management, as they provide the guidelines and standards for designing and implementing the risk management program, based on the experience and knowledge of the industry or the profession. However, best practices do not ensure that the risk management program is suitable and feasible for the organization’s specific context and capabilities.
References =
Desired Risk Level - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Management Process - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring - CIO Wiki
Regulatory Compliance - CIO Wiki
[Risk Ownership - CIO Wiki]
[Best Practice - CIO Wiki]
[Risk Management - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?
Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.
Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.
Validate the threat management process.
Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.
The risk management process is the systematic and continuous process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. The risk management process should be aligned with the organization’s overall risk management framework and strategy, and support the organization’s value creation and protection2.
Having the risk management process reviewed by a third party is a good practice that can provide various benefits for the organization, such as:
Enhancing the credibility and reliability of the risk management process and outcomes
Identifying and addressing any weaknesses, gaps, or errors in the risk management process and controls
Providing independent and objective feedback and recommendations for improving the risk management process and performance
Ensuring compliance with the relevant laws, regulations, and standards for risk management3
Among the four options given, the primary reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party is to obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors. This means that the third party can help to:
Assess the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management process and its alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
Detect and report any inconsistencies, inefficiencies, or inaccuracies in the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, or treatment activities
Identify and prioritize the root causes and consequences of the process gaps and systemic errors, and their impact on the organization’s risk exposure and acceptance
Suggest and implement corrective or preventive actions that can resolve or mitigate the process gaps and systemic errors, and prevent their recurrence
References = Risk Management Process - ISO 31000, Enterprise Risk Management - Wikipedia, How to Select a Third-Party Risk Management Framework
When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?
Sharing company information on social media
Sharing personal information on social media
Using social media to maintain contact with business associates
Using social media for personal purposes during working hours
The most important concern to address when formulating a social media policy to address information leakage is sharing company information on social media. Information leakage is the unauthorized or unintentional disclosure of confidential or sensitive information to unauthorized parties. Social media is a platform that enables the users to create and share content, such as text, images, videos, or links, with other users or the public. Sharing company information on social media is the most important concern, as it could expose the company’s trade secrets, intellectual property, customer data, financial data, or strategic plans to competitors, hackers, or regulators. Sharing company information on social media could also damage the company’s reputation, trust, or credibility, and result in legal or regulatory penalties, fines, or lawsuits. Therefore, a social media policy should clearly define what constitutes company information, and what are the rules and guidelines for sharing or not sharing company information on social media. A social media policy should also specify the roles and responsibilities of the employees, managers, and the social media team, and the consequences and sanctions for violating the policy. Sharing personal information on social media, using social media to maintain contact with business associates, and using social media for personal purposes during working hours are not as important as sharing company information on social media, as they do not directly involve the leakage of company information, and they may not have significant impact or risk on the company. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217
A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?
The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.
The CSA was not sample-based.
The CSA did not test control effectiveness.
The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.
A compliance-based CSA focuses on ensuring that the business unit follows the policies and procedures established by the enterprise, regardless of the actual risk level or impact of the controls.
A risk-based CSA focuses on identifying and evaluating the risks that may affect the business unit’s objectives, and designing and implementing controls that are appropriate to mitigate those risks.
A compliance-based CSA may not capture all the high-risk issues that exist in a business unit, especially if they are not aligned with the enterprise’s standards or expectations.
A risk-based CSA may identify more high-risk issues than a compliance-based CSA, because it considers both internal and external factors that may affect the business unit’s performance or security.
Therefore, a difference in results between a previous control self-assessment (CSA) and an audit indicates that either one of them was not risk-based, but rather compliance-based.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 9
Information Technology & Security, page 3
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 1
Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
The program has not decreased threat counts.
The program has not considered business impact.
The program has been significantly revised
The program uses non-customized training modules.
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner when reviewing the findings of a security awareness program assessment is that the program uses non-customized training modules. Non-customizedtraining modules are generic and may not address the specific security needs, issues, and challenges of the organization. They may also fail to engage and motivate the employees to follow the security policies and procedures, and to enhance their security knowledge and skills. The program not decreasing threat counts, not considering business impact, or being significantly revised are other possible findings, but they are not as concerning as the program using non-customized training modules. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?
Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders
Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training
Providing regular communication to risk managers
Appointing the risk manager from the business units
The best method of creating risk awareness in an organization is to ensure senior management commitment to risk training. Senior management plays a vital role in setting the tone and direction of the risk culture and governance in the organization. By demonstrating their support and participation in risk training, they can influence and motivate the employees to follow the risk policies and procedures, and to enhance their risk knowledge and skills. Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders, providing regular communication to risk managers, and appointing the risk manager from the business units are other methods of creating risk awareness, but they are not as effective as ensuring senior management commitment to risk training. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and documenting control procedures?
To facilitate ongoing audit and control testing
To help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels
To establish and maintain a control inventory
To increase the likelihood of effective control operation
The primary purpose of creating and documenting control procedures is to help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels. Control procedures are the specific actions or steps that are performed to achieve the control objectives and mitigate the risks. Control procedures should be documented to provide clear guidance, consistency, and accountability for the control activities. Documenting control procedures also helps to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness andefficiency of the controls, and to identify and address any gaps or weaknesses. The other options are not the primary purpose of creating and documenting control procedures, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 1-15.
Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?
Al requires entirely new risk management processes.
Al potentially introduces new types of risk.
Al will result in changes to business processes.
Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.
Artificial intelligence (AI) solutions can offer significant benefits to an organization, such as improved efficiency, accuracy, and innovation. However, AI also poses new challenges and risks that need to be considered and addressed by senior management. Some of these risks include:
Ethical and social risks: AI solutions may have unintended or undesirable impacts on human values, rights, and behaviors, such as privacy, fairness, accountability, and transparency. For example, AI systems may exhibit bias, discrimination, or manipulation, or may infringe on personal data or autonomy.
Technical and operational risks: AI solutions may have vulnerabilities, errors, or failures that affect their performance, reliability, or security. For example, AI systems may be subject to hacking, tampering, or misuse, or may malfunction or produce inaccurate or harmful outcomes.
Legal and regulatory risks: AI solutions may have unclear or conflicting legal or regulatory implications or obligations, such as liability, compliance, or governance. For example, AI systems may raise questions about ownership, responsibility, or accountability, or may violate existing laws or regulations, or create new ones.
Therefore, a risk practitioner should communicate to senior management that AI potentially introduces new types of risk that need to be identified, assessed, and managed in alignment with the organization’s objectives, values, and risk appetite. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 113.
After the implementation of a blockchain solution, a risk practitioner discovers noncompliance with new industry regulations. Which of the following is the MOST important course of action prior to informing senior management?
Evaluate the design effectiveness of existing controls.
Implement compensating controls.
Evaluate the industry response to the new regulations.
Evaluate the potential impact.
Before escalating to senior management, a risk practitioner must understand how serious the issue is for the enterprise. That means first assessing the business impact of the noncompliance (financial, regulatory, reputational, operational) so that management is given contextualized information rather than just “we are noncompliant.”
In ISACA’s CRISC framework, risk assessment always requires understanding likelihood and impact before risk response and escalation decisions. Evaluating the potential impact allows:
Identification of which processes, customers, or jurisdictions are affected.
Estimation of the magnitude of legal/regulatory exposure.
Understanding whether immediate containment actions are needed.
Preparation of meaningful options and recommendations for senior management.
Options A and B (evaluating controls and implementing compensating controls) are important later, as part of risk response / treatment. However, without first knowing the impact, you cannot determine how urgent or extensive the remedial actions must be.
Option C (evaluating industry response) may be useful for benchmarking, but it does not help the enterprise understand its own specific exposure and obligations and therefore is secondary to an internal impact assessment.
This aligns with CRISC guidance that the primary result of a risk assessment is input for risk-aware decisions and that risk professionals must assess likelihood and impact to determine risk significance before escalation and treatment (see the risk assessment and risk profile–related guidance in your CRISC notes).
Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?
Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Risk trends
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Risk objectives
KRI thresholds are the levels or points that trigger an action or a response when a KRI reaches or exceeds them. They reflect the risk appetite of the organization, which is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. A new privacy regulation may reduce the risk appetite of the organization, as it may impose stricter requirements and penalties for non-compliance. Therefore, the organization may need to adjust its KRI thresholds to lower levels, to ensure that it can identify and manage privacy risks more effectively and proactively
The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:
Benchmark against peer organizations.
Identify appropriate controls within business processes.
Assess compliance with global standards.
Identify risk owners related to business processes.
A review of business processes is crucial for identifying risk owners, as risk ownership is tied to specific processes within the organization. Risk owners are accountable for managing and mitigating risks within their respective areas. This ensures that risks are effectively addressed where they arise and aligns mitigation efforts with business objectives. Properly identifying risk owners supports better governance, accountability, and alignment with the organization's risk management strategy.
Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?
Improved alignment with business goals.
Reduction of residual risk.
Increased costs due to control implementation.
Decreased overall risk appetite.
The primary goal of risk mitigation is to reduce residual risk to an acceptable level. This aligns with the principles ofRisk Treatment, ensuring that the implemented strategies effectively address identified risks without exceeding the organization's risk appetite.
Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?
Balanced scorecard
Threat and vulnerability assessment
Compliance assessments
Business impact analysis (BIA)
A threat and vulnerability assessment is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential sources and impacts of risk events on an organization’s assets, processes, and objectives. It also estimates the probability of occurrence and the severity of consequences for each risk event. A threat and vulnerability assessment is the best way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization, as it provides a numerical or qualitative measure of the risk exposure and the level of uncertainty associated with the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, p. 68-69
A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?
Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports.
Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies.
Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.
Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.
Data protection is the process of safeguarding sensitive personal information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Data protection can help to ensure the privacy and security ofthe data subjects, and to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements that apply to the data processing activities1.
A highly regulated organization that acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls faces a high risk of data breaches, fines, lawsuits, reputational damage, or loss of customer trust. The best way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startupcompany is to classify and protect the data according to the parent company’s internal standards, because it can help to:
Identify and categorize the sensitive personal information based on its value, sensitivity, and criticality, such as confidential, restricted, internal, or public
Apply and enforce the appropriate data protection policies, procedures, and controls for each data category, such as encryption, access control, backup, retention, or disposal
Align and integrate the data protection practices and processes of the startup company with those of the parent company, and ensure the consistency and compliance across the organization
Balance and optimize the trade-off between data protection and data usability, and allow the startup company to leverage the data for innovation and growth, as long as it meets the data protection standards of the parent company23
The other options are not the best ways for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company, but rather some of the steps or aspects of data protection. Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports is a step that can help to assess the current data protection status and gaps of the startup company, and to learn from the past incidents and mistakes, but it does not address the future data protection needs and challenges of the startup company. Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies is an aspect that can help to ensure the legal and regulatory compliance of the data protection activities of the startup company, and to provide guidance and oversight for the data protection issues and risks, but it does not ensure the technical and operational effectiveness and efficiency of the data protection controls of the startup company. Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company’s network is a control that can help to prevent or limit the external or internal attacks or threats to the data of the startup company, and to reduce the exposure or impact of a data breach, but it does not ensure the availability or accessibility of the data for the legitimate and authorized purposes of the startup company. References =
Data Protection - ISACA
Data Classification - ISACA
Data Protection Best Practices - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of user passwords being compromised by a man in the middle technique?
Require users to select long passwords.
Implement a passwordless access mechanism.
Require users to change password as frequently as possible.
Block user sessions after short periods of inactivity.
Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:
time required to restore files.
point of synchronization
priority of restoration.
annual loss expectancy (ALE).
The recovery time objective (RTO) is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time frame for restoring a system or service after a disruption. The RTO is determined by the business impact and requirements of the system or service, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The calculation of the RTO is necessary to determine the priority of restoration,which means the order and urgency of recovering the systems or services based on their criticality and dependency. The priority of restoration helps to optimize the use of resources and minimize the downtime and losses during a disaster recovery. The other options are not the correct answers, as they are not the main purpose of calculating the RTO. The time required to restore files is a factor that affects the RTO, but it is not the outcome of the RTO calculation. The point of synchronization is the point in time to which the data must be restored to ensure consistency and accuracy. The point of synchronization is related to the recovery point objective (RPO), not the RTO. The annual loss expectancy (ALE) is a measure of the expected loss peryear due to a specific risk or threat. The ALE is calculated by multiplying the single loss expectancy (SLE) by the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). The ALE is not directly related to the RTO, although it may influence the RTO determination. References = Recovery Time Objective (RTO) - What Is It, Examples, Calculation; CRISC Review Manual, pages 197-1981; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 842
An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:
guidance of the risk practitioner.
competence of the staff involved.
approval of senior management.
maturity of its risk culture.
The factor that primarily influences an organization’s capability to implement a risk management framework is the maturity of its risk culture, as it reflects the degree of awareness, understanding, and commitment of the organization’s stakeholders towards the risk management objectives, values, and practices, and affects the adoption and integration of the risk management framework across the organization. The other options are not the primary factors, as they are more related to the guidance, competence, or approval of the risk management framework, respectively, rather than the influence of the risk management framework. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 99.
Which of the following can be affected by the cost of risk mitigation alternatives?
Risk appetite
Risk factors
Risk tolerance
Current risk rating
When the cost of mitigating a risk exceeds the benefit,organizations may adjust their risk toleranceto accept a higher level of risk. Thus, financial feasibility influences how much risk the organization is willing to accept.
An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?
Develop new loT risk scenarios.
Implement loT device monitoring software.
Introduce controls to the new threat environment.
Engage external security reviews.
The first thing that should be done when addressing security concerns associated with a new Internet of Things (IoT) solution is to develop new IoT risk scenarios. IoT is a network of physical devices, such as sensors, cameras, appliances, etc., that are connected to the internet and can collect, process, and exchange data. IoT introduces new security concerns, such as privacy, confidentiality, integrity, availability,and accountability of the data and devices, as well as new threats and vulnerabilities, such as unauthorized access, manipulation, or disruption of the data and devices. Developing new IoT risk scenarios is the first thing that should be done, because it helps to identify, analyze, and evaluate the potential risks that could affect the IoT solution’s objectives or operations. Developing new IoT risk scenarios also helps to select the most appropriate and effective controls to minimize the risks, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risks. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, although theymay be part of or derived from the IoT risk scenarios. Implementing IoT device monitoring software, introducing controls to the new threat environment, and engaging external security reviews are all activities that can help to support or improve the security of the IoT solution, but they do not necessarily identify, analyze, or evaluate the risks that could affect the IoT solution. References = 1
A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?
Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.
Controls are not operating efficiently.
Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated
Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold
An exception to the information security policy is a permission to continue operating a system, service, or product that cannot comply with the established information security standards and requirements1. A risk owner is a person or entity that has the authority and accountability for a risk and its management2. A risk practitioner is a person or entity that has the knowledge and skills to perform risk management activities3. A high number of exceptions to the information security policy indicates that there are many systems, services, or products that do not meet the expected level of security and pose potential risks to the organization. The risk practitioner’s greatest concern should be that the aggregate risk, which is the total amount of risk that the organization faces from all sources, is approaching the tolerance threshold, which is the limit beyond which the organization does not want to tolerate the risk4. If the aggregate risk isapproaching the tolerance threshold, it means that the organization is exposed to a high level of risk that may exceed its risk appetite, which is the amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives5. This may result in negative consequences for the organization, such as breaches, losses, damages, or reputational harm. Therefore, the risk practitioner should monitor and report the aggregate risk level and the tolerance threshold, and advise the risk owners and the management on the appropriate risk responses and actions to reduce the aggregate risk to an acceptable level. Security policies are being reviewed infrequently, controls are not operating efficiently, and vulnerabilities are not being mitigated are not the risk practitioner’s greatest concern, as they are not directly related to the aggregate risk level and the tolerance threshold. Security policies are being reviewed infrequently is a condition that indicates that the organization’s security policies are not updated or revised regularly to reflect the changes and updates in the security environment and the security requirements6. This may affect the relevance and effectiveness of the security policies, but it does not necessarilyincrease the aggregate risk level or the tolerance threshold. Controls are not operating efficiently is a condition thatindicates that the organization’s controls, which are the measures or actions taken to manage or mitigate the risks, are not performing well or optimally7. This may affect the quality and performance of the controls, but it does not necessarily increase the aggregate risk level or the tolerance threshold. Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated is a condition that indicates that the organization’s vulnerabilities, which are the weaknesses or gaps that may be exploited by the threats, are not being addressed or reduced8. This may increase the likelihood or impact of the risks, but it does not necessarily increase the aggregate risk level or the tolerance threshold. References = 1: IT/Information Security Exception Request Process2: [Risk Ownership - Risk Management] 3: [Risk Practitioner - ISACA] 4: Risk Threshold: Definition, Meaning & Example - PM Study Circle5: Risk Appetite vs Risk Tolerance vs Risk Threshold - projectcubicle6: [Security Policy Review and Update - SANS Institute] 7: [Control Effectiveness and Efficiency - ISACA] 8: [Vulnerability Management - ISACA] : [Risk andInformation Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Alignment to risk responses
Alignment to management reports
Alerts when risk thresholds are reached
Identification of trends
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are quantifiable measures of progress toward an intended result, such as a strategic objective or a desired outcome12.
The most important factor when developing KPIs is the alignment to risk responses, which are the actions taken to address the risks that may affect the achievement of the intended result12.
Alignment to risk responses means that the KPIs should reflect the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk responses, and provide feedback and guidance for improving the risk responses12.
Alignment to risk responses also means that the KPIs should be consistent and compatible with the risk responses, and support the risk management process and objectives12.
The other options are not the most important factor, but rather possible aspects or features of KPIs that may vary depending on the context and purpose of the KPIs. For example:
Alignment to management reports is an aspect of KPIs that relates to the communication and presentation of the KPIs to the relevant stakeholders, such as senior management,board members, or external parties12. However, this aspect does not determine the quality or validity of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12.
Alerts when risk thresholds are reached is a feature of KPIs that relates to the monitoring and control of the KPIs, and the triggering of actions or decisions when the KPIs exceed or fall below a certain level or range12. However, this feature does not define the content or scope of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12.
Identification of trends is a feature of KPIs that relates to the analysis and interpretation of the KPIs, and the identification of patterns or changes in the KPIs over time or across different dimensions12. However, this feature does not specify the criteria or methodology of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12. References =
1: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? Guide & Examples - Qlik3
2: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? - KPI.org4
Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?
Mean time to recover (MTTR)
IT system criticality classification
Incident management service level agreement (SLA)
Recovery time objective (RTO)
The best indicator of the risk appetite and tolerance level for the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures is the recovery time objective (RTO). The RTO is the maximum acceptable time or duration that a business process or an IT system can be disrupted or interrupted before it causes unacceptable impact or harm to the business. The RTO reflects the risk appetite and tolerance level for thebusiness interruption risk, as it indicates how much disruption or interruption the business can tolerate or accept, and how quickly the business needs to resume or recover the business process or the IT system. The RTO also helps to determine the priorities and requirements for the business continuity and recovery planning, and to select and implement the appropriate continuity and recovery strategies and solutions. Mean time to recover(MTTR), IT system criticality classification, and incident management service level agreement (SLA) are not the best indicators of the risk appetite and tolerance level for the business interruption risk, as they are either the measures or the outcomes of the business continuity and recovery performance, and they do not directly indicate how much disruption or interruption the business can tolerate or accept. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50
During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Report the infraction.
Perform a risk assessment.
Conduct risk awareness training.
Discontinue the process.
Perform a Risk Assessment:
Immediate Action: The first step when discovering a non-compliant implementation is to understand the potential risks it poses to the organization. This involves identifying threats, vulnerabilities, and potential impacts of the non-fungible token (NFT) asset program.
Risk Identification and Evaluation: Assess the new program’s impact on the organization’s risk profile. Determine if it introduces significant security, compliance, or operational risks.
Documentation and Reporting: Document the findings and present them to senior management along with recommendations for mitigation or further action.
Comparison with Other Options:
Report the Infraction: Reporting is necessary but should follow the risk assessment to provide a clear understanding of the implications and necessary mitigations.
Conduct Risk Awareness Training: Training is preventive and should be part of a long-term strategy, not the immediate response to a specific incident.
Discontinue the Process: Discontinuing the process may be a necessary step after assessing the risk, but the assessment must come first to justify such an action.
Best Practices:
Comprehensive Risk Assessment: Ensure that the risk assessment covers all aspects, including financial, reputational, and regulatory risks.
Stakeholder Involvement: Involve relevant stakeholders in the assessment process to gather diverse perspectives and ensure a thorough evaluation.
Actionable Recommendations: Provide clear, actionable recommendations based on the risk assessment findings.
Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?
Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis
Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.
Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.
Include information security control specifications in business cases.
Information security risk factors are the sources of uncertainty that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information assets within an organization. Information security risk factors can include threats, vulnerabilities, or impacts that may compromise the security of information assets. Information security risk factors should be mitigated when developing in-house applications, which are software applications that are designed, developed, and maintained by the organization itself, rather than by external vendors or providers. Mitigating information security risk factors when developing in-house applications canhelp prevent or reduce the occurrence or consequences of security incidents, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, unauthorized access, or data loss. The best way to ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications is to identify information security controls in the requirements analysis. The requirements analysis is the stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC) where the business needs and expectations of the application are defined and documented. The requirements analysis should include the functional and non-functional requirements of the application, such as the features, functions, performance, quality, reliability, and security of the application. Identifying information security controls in the requirements analysis can help ensure that the security requirements of the application are clearly specified and agreed upon by the stakeholders, and that they are aligned with the organization’s security policies, standards, and regulations. Identifying information security controls in the requirements analysis can also help ensure that the security requirements are integrated into the design, development, testing, and deployment of the application, and that they are verified and validated throughout the SDLC. Identifying information security controls in the requirements analysis can also help ensure that the security requirements are traceable, measurable, and manageable, and that they can be monitored and reviewed for effectiveness and efficiency. References = THE SYSTEM DEVELOPMENT LIFE CYCLE (SDLC), p. 2-3, System Development Life Cycle - GeeksforGeeks, 7.3: Systems Development Life Cycle - Engineering LibreTexts, What Is SDLC? 7 Phases of System Development Life Cycle - Intetics.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with insufficient focus on addressing blockchain interoperability in the SDLC?
Limited blockchain adoption and support
Reduced transaction speed and system responsiveness
Reduced network integrity and availability
Limited integration with external systems and blockchains
Limited integration with external systems and blockchainsis the greatest concern. Without considering interoperability during the SDLC, the system may not be able to connect seamlessly with partners or external networks, hindering business goals and limiting the blockchain’s benefits.
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A cote data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations. Which of the to" owing would provide the MOST useful information to determine mitigating controls?
Forensic analysis
Risk assessment
Root cause analysis
Business impact analysis (BlA)
The most useful information to determine mitigating controls when a core data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations is the root cause analysis. Root cause analysis is a technique that identifies the underlying factors or reasons that caused the problem or incident. Root cause analysis can help to understand the nature, scope,and impact of the problem or incident, and to prevent or reduce the recurrence or severity of the problem or incident in the future. Root cause analysis can also help to identify and prioritize the appropriate mitigating controls that address the root causes of the problem or incident. The other options are not as useful as root cause analysis, as they are related to the investigation, evaluation, or measurement of the problem or incident, not the resolution or prevention of the problem or incident. References = Risk and Information Systems ControlStudy Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes
risk exposure in business terms
a detailed view of individual risk exposures
a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.
recommendations by an independent risk assessor.
When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is most important to ensure the report includes risk exposure in business terms. Risk exposure is the potential loss or harm that may result from a risk event. Expressing risk exposure in business terms can help senior management to understand the impact and significance of the risk on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value. A detailed view of individual risk exposures, a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization, and recommendations by an independent risk assessor are other possible contents of the report, but they are not as important as risk exposure in business terms. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?
User access may be restricted by additional security.
Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.
Security administration may become more complex.
User privilege changes may not be recorded.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, single sign-on (SSO) is a method of authentication that allows a user to access multiple systems or applications with a single set of credentials. SSO can improve user convenience and productivity, but it also introduces some security risks. The greatest concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation is that unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems, as this can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and resources stored on those systems. If an attacker obtains the SSO credentials of a user, either by phishing, malware, or other means, they can Laccess all the systems or applications that the user is authorized for, without any additional authentication or verification. This can expose the organization to various threats, such as data leakage, theft, loss, corruption, manipulation, or misuse2345. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240, 253.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?
The skill level required of a threat actor
The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed
The ability to detect and trace the threat action
The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action
When assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited, the most important consideration is the skill level required of a threat actor. Here's an explanation:
Skill Level of Threat Actors:
The skill level required to exploit a vulnerability determines how accessible the exploit is to potential attackers.
If a vulnerability requires advanced technical skills to exploit, it is less likely to be targeted by less sophisticated attackers.
Conversely, if the exploit can be easily executed with minimal skills, it increases the likelihood of widespread exploitation.
Factors Influencing Likelihood of Exploitation:
Availability of Exploit Tools:If automated tools or scripts are available to exploit the vulnerability, even less skilled attackers can take advantage of it.
Publication of Exploit Details:If the vulnerability and its exploitation method are widely published, it becomes more accessible to a broader range of attackers.
Assessment of Likelihood:
Security teams assess the skill level required by analyzing whether the exploit is straightforward or complex.
They also consider the presence of exploit kits in the wild that could lower the barrier to entry for potential attackers.
Comparison with Other Factors:
Amount of PII Disclosed:While important, it relates more to the impact rather than the likelihood of exploitation.
Ability to Detect and Trace:This is crucial for response but does not directly influence the likelihood of exploitation.
Amount of Data Exposed:Similar to PII, this factor pertains to the impact rather than the likelihood of exploitation.
Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:
business process owner.
database administrator.
chief information officer.
systems administrator.
Read rights: The permission to view or access the content of a file or a folder1.
Application files: The files that contain the code, data, or resources of an application or a program2.
Controlled server environment: A server environment that is managed and secured by a set of policies, procedures, and tools3.
Business process owner: The person who is responsible for the design, execution, and performance of a business process.
Read rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the business process owner. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process that uses or depends on the application files. The businessprocess owner should approve the read rights to application files in a controlled server environment to:
Ensure that the read rights are aligned with the business needs and objectives
Prevent unauthorized or unnecessary access to the application files
Protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application files
Comply with the relevant laws and regulations that govern the access to the application files
The other options are not the best choices for approving the read rights to application files in a controlled server environment, because they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, or knowledge as the business process owner. The database administrator, who is the person who manages and maintains the database systems and data, may have the technical skills and access to grant the read rights to application files, but they may not have the business insight or approval to do so. The chief information officer, who is the person who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization, may have the executive power and oversight to approve the read rights to application files, but they may not have the specific or detailed knowledge of the business process or the application files. The systems administrator, who is the person who configures and maintains the server systems and networks, may have the administrative privileges and tools to grant the read rights to application files, but they may not have the business understanding or authorization to do so.
References = Read Permission - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, What is an Application File? - Definition from Techopedia, What is a Server Environment? - Definition from Techopedia, [Business Process Owner: Definition, Roles, and Responsibilities]
Which of the following MUST be captured in a risk treatment plan?
Risk owner
Senior management
Risk register details
Risk financial impact
A risk treatment plan (sometimes called a risk response plan) describes how selected risk treatments will be implemented, by whom, and by when. For the plan to be actionable and enforceable, every significant risk and its treatment must have a clearly assigned risk owner.
CRISC guidance emphasizes that:
Accountability for risk treatment lies with the risk owner.
A risk treatment plan primarily provides treatment for identified risk that exceeds risk tolerance and should specify responsibility for implementing the chosen risk treatment.
Ensuring accountability and ownership is critical for the effectiveness of the risk management program.
While items such as financial impact and risk register references are useful supporting information, the one element that must be present for each treated risk is the person or role responsible for making sure the treatment is implemented and monitored.
Therefore:
A. Risk owner — REQUIRED in every risk treatment plan entry.
B. “Senior management” is too generic; they may approve the plan but are not always the specific treatment owners.
C. “Risk register details” are normally linked to or referenced, but they are not the key must-have field for effective execution.
D. “Risk financial impact” is important for prioritization and cost–benefit analysis, but without an owner, nothing guarantees action.
This is consistent with CRISC’s treatment-plan guidance that risk treatment plans “primarily specify the responsibility for implementing the chosen risk treatment and provide treatment for identified risk that exceeds risk tolerance.”
Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization's risk register?
Limit access to senior management only.
Encrypt the risk register.
Implement role-based access.
Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.
A risk register is a document that contains information about potential cybersecurity risks that could threaten a project’s success, or even the business itself2. Therefore, it is important to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the risk register from unauthorized or inappropriate access, modification, or disclosure. One way to do this is to implement role-based access, which is a method of restricting access to the risk register based on the roles or responsibilities of the users1. This way, only authorized users who need to view or edit the risk register for legitimate purposes can do so, and the access rights can be revoked or modified as needed. This would most effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in the risk register. The other options are not as effective or feasible as option C, as they do not address the need to balance the security and availability of the risk register. Option A, limiting access to senior management only, would compromise the availability and usefulness of the risk register, as other stakeholders such as project managers, risk owners, or auditors may need to access therisk register for risk identification, analysis, response, or monitoring purposes3. Option B, encrypting the risk register, would enhance the security of the risk register, but it would not prevent authorized users from exposing the vulnerabilities to unauthorized parties, either intentionally or unintentionally. Encryption also adds complexity and cost to the risk register management process, and may affect the performance or usability of the risk register4. Option D, requiring users to sign a confidentiality agreement, would rely on the compliance and ethics of the users, but it would not prevent or detect any breaches of the agreement. A confidentiality agreement also does not specify the access rights or roles of the users, and may not be legally enforceable in some cases5.
During an IT department reorganization, the manager of a risk mitigation action plan was replaced. The new manager has begun implementing a new control after identifying a more effective option. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval
Seek approval from the previous action plan manager.
Identify an owner for the new control.
Modify the action plan in the risk register.
A risk mitigation action plan is a document that specifies the actions to be taken to address the identified risks, the resources required, the timelines, the owners, and the expected outcomes. The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response. The risk practitioner is the person who supports the risk owner in the risk management process. The best course of action for the risk practitioner when the manager of a risk mitigation action plan is replaced and a new control is implemented is to communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval. This will ensure that the risk owner is aware of the change, agrees with the new control, and approves the modification of the action plan. The other options are not the best course of action, as they may not involve the risk owner, who is ultimately responsible for the risk and its response. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?
Risk mitigation plans
heat map
Risk appetite statement
Key risk indicators (KRls)
A heat map is a graphical tool that displays the level of risk severity for various risk scenarios or categories using different colors, shapes, or sizes. A heat map is most helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity, as it can show the relative importance and urgency of the risks, and highlight the areas that require attention or action. A heat map can also help to communicate the risk information to the stakeholders, and facilitate the risk prioritization and decision making. References = 5
Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?
It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.
It requires more resources than other methods
It produces the results in numeric form.
It is based on impact analysis of information assets.
The drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis is that it requires more resources than other methods. Quantitative risk analysis is a method of risk analysis that assigns numeric values to the exposures of assets, the impact and likelihood of risk events, and the cost and benefit of risk responses. Quantitative risk analysis can provide more precise and objective results, and support the risk-based decision making process. However, quantitative risk analysis also requires more resources than other methods, such as data, time, expertise, and tools, to collect, validate, and analyze the quantitative information, and to perform the complex calculations and simulations. Quantitative risk analysis may also be limited by the availability, reliability, and accuracy of thedata, and the assumptions and models used. Assigning numeric values to exposures of assets, producing the results in numeric form, and being based on impact analysis of information assets are not drawbacks, but characteristics of quantitative risk analysis. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
During an organization's simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?
A high number of participants reporting the email
A high number of participants deleting the email
A low number of participants with questions for the help desk
A low number of participants opening the email
A mature program is indicated by employees recognizing phishing and actively reporting it—not just deleting it. ISACA guidance states that awareness programs should foster “threat identification and escalation actions,” not just passive compliance.
An organization control environment is MOST effective when:
control designs are reviewed periodically
controls perform as intended.
controls are implemented consistently.
controls operate efficiently
The organization control environment is most effective when the controls perform as intended. The controls are the mechanisms or measures that are designed and implemented to prevent, detect, or correct the risks that may affect the achievement of the objectives. The controls perform as intended when they provide reasonable assurance that the risks are mitigated or managed to an acceptable level, and that the objectives are met or exceeded. The performance of the controls can be measured and evaluated by using key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs). The other options are not as indicative of the effectiveness of the control environment, as they are related to the review, implementation, or efficiency of the controls, not the performance or assurance of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?
Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment
Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access
Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers
Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing
Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing is the best process control to mitigate the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor. This is because segregation of duties is a key internal control that prevents or detects errors, fraud, orabuse by ensuring that no single person can perform incompatible or conflicting tasks. The vendor master file is a database that contains the information and settings for each vendor, such as name, address, bank account, payment terms, etc. Invoicing is the process of generating and sending bills to the vendors for the goods or services they provide. If the same person can access and modify the vendor master file and issue invoices, he or she could create fictitious vendors, alter vendor information, or generate false or duplicate invoices, and then divert the payments to his or her own account. By segregating these duties, the organization can reduce the opportunity and likelihood of such fraudulent activities. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, segregation of duties is one of the key IT control objectives and practices1. According to the web search results, segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing is a common and recommended control to prevent vendor fraud
A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:
Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.
Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.
Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.
Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.
KRIs provide measurable indicators that flag when risks exceed predefined thresholds, enabling swift and effective risk response. This supports theMonitoring and Reportingfunction in risk management, ensuring risks are managed proactively.
When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?
An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events
An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations
A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls
A justification of corrective action taken
An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events is the most important information for the person responsible for managing the incident, as it can help to identify the source, scope, and impact of the security breach, and to determine the appropriate response actions. An analysis of the security logs can also provide evidence for forensic investigation and legal action, and help to prevent or mitigate future incidents by identifying the root causes and vulnerabilities. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 235. CRISC by Isaca Actual FreeExam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 235. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 235.
Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application'?
The third-party risk manager
The application vendor
The business process owner
The information security manager
A risk profile is a summary of the nature and level of risk that an organization faces. It includes information such as the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. A risk profile is influenced by various factors, such as the organization’s objectives, strategies, activities, processes, resources, capabilities, culture, etc. When defining a risk profile during the selection process for a new third party application, the stakeholder that is most important to include is the business process owner, who is the person who has the authority and responsibility for the design, execution, and performance of a business process. The business process owner can provide valuable input and insight into the requirements, expectations, and dependencies of the business process that will use the new third party application, and the potential risks and opportunities that may arise from the selection of the application. The business process owner can also help to prioritize and address the risks, and ensure that the risk profile is aligned with the business objectives and strategies. References = 5
A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r
Prepare a business case for the response options.
Identify resources for implementing responses.
Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.
Update the risk register with the results.
The risk practitioner’s next step after identifying risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios in a recent risk workshop is to update the risk register with the results, as it involves documenting and communicating the risk information and decisions, and maintaining the accuracy and completeness of the risk register. Preparing a business case for the response options, identifying resources for implementing responses, and developing a mechanism for monitoring residual risk are possible steps, but they are not the next step, as they require the prior update of the risk register with the new risk information and decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following is the BEST control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT)?
Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls
Conducting regular penetration tests
Monitoring social media activities
Implementing automated log monitoring
Implementing automated log monitoring is the best control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT), which is a stealthy and continuous attack on a target network or system. Automated log monitoring can help to identify anomalous or suspicious activities, such as unusual network traffic, unauthorized access attempts, or data exfiltration, that may indicate the presence of an APT. Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls, conducting regular penetration tests, and monitoring social media activities are controls that help to prevent or mitigate APTs, but not to detect them. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers - The Knowledge Academy, question 200.
A maturity model will BEST indicate:
confidentiality and integrity.
effectiveness and efficiency.
availability and reliability.
certification and accreditation.
According to Wikipedia1, a maturity model is a framework for measuring an organization’s maturity, or that of a business function within an organization, with maturity being defined as a measurement of the ability of an organization for continuous improvement in a particular discipline. A maturity model will best indicate the effectiveness and efficiency of an organization or a business function, as it helps to evaluate how well they achieve their intended objectives with minimum resources, time, and cost. A maturity model also helps to identify and prioritize the areas and opportunities for improvement, and to establish and communicate the standards and best practices for the discipline. References = Wikipedia1
Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?
Board of directors
Human resources (HR)
Risk management committee
Audit committee
The group that has primary ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization is A. Board of directors. According to the CFA Institute, the board of directors is responsible for setting the tone at the top and ensuring that the company adheres to high ethical standards and values. The board of directors also oversees the company’s culture, governance, and risk management practices, and holds the management accountable for any misconduct or breach of trust1 The board of directors may delegate some of its oversight functions to other committees, such as the human resources, risk management, or audit committee, but ultimately, the board of directors bears the ultimate responsibility for the company’s reputation and integrity
An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Perform an impact assessment.
Perform a penetration test.
Request an external audit.
Escalate the risk to senior management.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action when an organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system is to perform an impactassessment, as it involves estimating the potential consequences or damage that the vulnerability may cause to the system and its related business processes, and prioritizing the risk response accordingly. The other options are not the best courses of action, as they may not address the urgency or severity of the vulnerability, or may require the prior knowledge of the impact or risk level, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?
Utilization of a cross-functional team
Participation by IT subject matter experts
Integration of contingency planning
Validation by senior management
The best way to facilitate the development of effective IT risk scenarios is to utilize a cross-functional team. A cross-functional team is a group of people with different skills, expertise, and perspectives who work together to achieve a common goal. A cross-functional team can help to create realistic, comprehensive, and relevant IT risk scenarios by bringing diverse knowledge, experience, and insights from various domains and functions. A cross-functional team can alsohelp to identify and address the interdependencies, interactions, and impacts of IT risks across the organization. The other options are not the best ways to facilitate the development of effective IT risk scenarios, although they may be useful or necessary depending on the context and nature of the IT risks. Participation by IT subject matter experts is important, but it is notsufficient, as IT risks may affect or be affected by non-IT factors and stakeholders. Integration of contingency planning is a part of the risk response process, which follows the risk scenario development process, but it is not the same as creating the risk scenarios. Validation by senior management is a quality assurance step that ensures the accuracy and completeness of the risk scenarios, but it is not the same as facilitating the development of the risk scenarios. References = Six Steps to Using Risk Scenarios for Improved Risk Management, IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?
Reduce retention periods for Pll data.
Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.
Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.
Implement strong encryption for Pll.
Avoiding the risk means eliminating the source of the risk or changing the likelihood or impact to zero. In this case, the source of the risk is the collection of customers’ personally identifiable information (Pll), which could be exposed to unauthorized parties and result in severe fines. Therefore, the best action to avoid the risk is to modify the business processes to stop collecting Pll, as this would eliminate the possibility of data leakage and the associated consequences. The other options are not as effective as modifying the business processes, because they do not avoid the risk, but rather mitigate or transfer the risk, as explained below:
A. Reduce retention periods for Pll data is a mitigation action, as it reduces the impact of the risk by minimizing the amount of data that could be leaked and the duration of exposure.
B. Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site is a transfer action, as it shifts the responsibility of protecting the data to a third party, but does not eliminate the risk of data leakage.
D. Implement strong encryption for Pll is a mitigation action, as it reduces the likelihood of the risk by making the data unreadable to unauthorized parties, but does not eliminate the risk of data leakage. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 40.
An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?
Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives
Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.
Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.
Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.
Data leakage is the unauthorized or accidental disclosure of sensitive or confidential data to unauthorized parties. Data leakage can cause serious damages or losses to the organization, such as data breaches, fines, lawsuits, reputational harm, or loss of customer trust. Data leakage can occur due to various reasons, such as human errors, malicious attacks, or inadequate controls1.
An organization that uses a vendor to destroy hard drives faces a risk of data leakage, as the vendor may not properly or securely destroy the hard drives, or may access or misuse the data stored on them. The best way to reduce this risk is to use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives, because it means that the vendor:
Has been certified or verified by a reputable or recognized authority or organization, such as ISACA, NAID, or R2, to provide hard drive destruction services
Follows the industry standards and best practices for hard drive destruction, such as NIST 800-88 or DoD 5220.22-M, and ensures the compliance with the legal and regulatory requirements, such as HIPAA, PCI DSS, or GDPR
Provides a secure and transparent process for hard drive destruction, such as using a specialized shredder, issuing a certificate of destruction, or allowing the customer to witness the destruction
Maintains a high level of professionalism and integrity, and does not compromise the confidentiality or security of the customer’s data234
The other options are not the best ways to reduce the risk of data leakage, but rather some of the steps or aspects of hard drive destruction. Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives is a step that can help to erase the data on the hard drives by using a strong magnetic field. However,degaussing may not be effective or reliable for some types of hard drives, such as solid state drives (SSDs), and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the data before degaussing5. Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives is an aspect that can help to protect the data on the hard drives by using a cryptographic algorithm to make it unreadable without a key. However, encryption may not be sufficient or applicable for some types of data, such as metadata, and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the key or the encrypted data6. Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager is a step that can help to verify that the hard drives have been destroyed by the vendor, and to document the process and the outcome. However, confirmation of destruction may not be accurate or authentic, and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the data before destruction7. References =
Data Leakage - ISACA
Hard Drive Shredding Services | Hard Drive Destruction & Disposal
Hard Drive Shredding and Destruction Service | CompuCycle
Electronic Destruction & Recycling | Shred Nations
Degaussing - ISACA
Encryption - ISACA
Certificate of Destruction - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following BEST enables risk mitigation associated with software licensing noncompliance?
Document IT inventory management procedures.
Conduct annual reviews of license expiration dates.
Perform automated vulnerability scans.
Implement automated IT asset management controls.
Automated IT asset management ensures real-time visibility and tracking of software usage, licensing, and compliance. It minimizes human error, improves audit readiness, and proactively addresses noncompliance risks.
An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:
identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring
validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner
update the risk register with the selected risk response
recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.
A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to disrupt or disable the normal functioning of a system or network by overwhelming it with excessive traffic or requests.
The chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a DoS attack. This means that the CTO has determined that the cost or effort of implementing or maintaining controls to prevent or reduce the impact of a DoS attack is not justified by the expected benefits or savings, and that the organization is willing to bear the consequences of a DoS attack if it occurs.
The best course of action for the risk practitioner in this situation is to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) for ongoing monitoring. This means that the risk practitioner should define and measure the metrics that provide information about the level of exposure to the DoS attack risk, such as the frequency, duration, or severity of the attacks, the availability, performance, or security of the systems or networks, the customer satisfaction, reputation, or revenue of the organization, etc.
Identifying KRIs for ongoing monitoring helps to track and evaluate the actual results and outcomes of the risk acceptance decision, compare them with the risk appetite and tolerance ofthe organization, identify any deviations or breaches that may require attention or action, and report them to the appropriate parties for decision making or improvement actions.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 15
Information Technology & Security, page 9
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 7
The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:
have a better understanding of specific business needs
can balance the overall technical and business concerns
can see the overall impact to the business
are more objective than information security management.
Continuity planning is the process of developing strategies and plans to ensure the continuity of critical business functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. Continuity planning involves identifying the risks, impacts, and recovery options for various scenarios, as well as testing and updating the plans regularly. The primary advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they have a better understanding of specific business needs, such as the operational requirements, the customer expectations, and the dependencies and interdependencies of the business processes. End users can provide valuable input and feedback on the continuity plans, as well as participate in the testing and validation of the plans. End users can also help to ensure the alignment of the continuity plans with the business objectives and priorities, as well as the compliance with the relevant standards and regulations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, p. 204-205
Which of the following will be MOST effective in helping to ensure control failures are appropriately managed?
Control procedures
Peer review
Compensating controls
Control ownership
Who should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?
Business process owner
Executive management
Risk management
IT management
Executive management should be primarily responsible for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture, as they have the authority and accountability to define and communicate the vision, mission, values, and objectives of the organization, and to set the tone and direction for the IT risk management and control processes. Executive management is the highest level of management in an organization, and it consists of the board of directors, the chief executive officer (CEO), and other senior executives. Executive management is responsible for the strategic planning and decision making of the organization, and for ensuring the alignment of the organizational strategy and objectives with the stakeholder expectations and requirements.
Executive management should be primarily responsible for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture by providing the following benefits:
It demonstrates the leadership and commitment of the executive management to the IT risk management and control processes, and to the achievement of the organizational strategy and objectives.
It influences and motivates the behavior and attitude of the staff and managers towards IT risk management and control, and fosters a culture of risk awareness, ownership, and accountability across the organization.
It defines and communicates the IT risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and guides and supports the development and implementation of the IT risk policies, standards, and procedures.
It allocates and monitors the resources and performance of the IT risk management and control processes, and ensures the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT risk governance and oversight.
The other options are not the primary choices for establishing an organization’s IT risk culture. Business process owner is the person who has the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of a specific business process, and they are accountable for the risks and controls associated with their process, but they do not have the overall or strategic responsibility for the IT risk culture. Risk management is the function or department that is responsible for managing and monitoring the IT risk management and control processes, and for providing advice and guidance to the executive management and the business units, but they do not have the ultimate or final responsibility for the IT risk culture. ITmanagement is the function or department that is responsible for managing and maintaining the IT operations and security, and for supporting the IT risk management and control processes, but they do not have the highest or broadest responsibility for the IT risk culture. References = Risk Culture - Open Risk Manual, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, The 6 key elements to creating and maintaining a good risk culture
Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?
Protecting the organization from negative publicity
Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence
Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers
Preventing further dissemination of customer information
Thefirst stepis toprevent further disseminationof sensitive data to limit the impact of the breach. ISACA emphasizes that containment is the priority in risk response to minimize harm before addressing other aspects like root cause analysis or reputational management.
===========
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?
A management-approved risk dashboard
A current control framework
A regularly updated risk register
Regularly updated risk management procedures
Importance of a Risk Register:
A risk register is a critical tool for documenting, tracking, and managing risks within an organization. It serves as a central repository for all identified risks, detailing their status, impact, likelihood, and the actions taken to mitigate them.
A regularly updated risk register demonstrates an active and ongoing risk management process, reflecting the organization's commitment to identifying and addressing risks promptly.
Evidence of Robust Risk Management:
The risk register shows the organization's proactive approach to risk management by continuously monitoring and updating risks.
It provides transparency and accountability, allowing stakeholders to see how risks are being managed and mitigated over time.
Regular updates ensure that new risks are identified and existing risks are reassessed, indicating a dynamic and responsive risk management practice.
Comparing Other Options:
Management-Approved Risk Dashboard:While useful for summarizing risk information, a dashboard does not provide the detailed, ongoing updates and comprehensive tracking found in a risk register.
Current Control Framework:A control framework outlines the controls in place but does not detail specific risks or their management.
Regularly Updated Risk Management Procedures:Procedures are important but do not provide the same level of detailed risk tracking and management as a risk register.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of a risk register in consolidating and tracking risk data, making it an essential component of robust risk management practices (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.6 Risk Register) .
In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?
The control catalog
The asset profile
Business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRls)
In addition to the risk register, which is a tool to document and monitor the risks that affect the organization, a risk practitioner should review the business objectives of the organization to develop an understanding of its risk profile. The risk profile is a description of the set of risks that the organization faces in relation to its goals and strategies. By reviewing the business objectives, the risk practitioner can identify the sources, drivers, and consequences of the risks, as well as the alignment, prioritization, and tolerance of the risks. The business objectives also provide the context and criteria for evaluating and managing the risks. The other options are not the best choices to review for developing an understandingof the organization’s risk profile, as they do not capture the full scope and nature of the risks. The control catalog is a list of the existing controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks, but it does not reflect the effectiveness, efficiency, or sufficiency of the controls. The asset profile is a description of the resources and capabilities that the organization possesses or relies on, but it does not indicate the value, vulnerability, or interdependency of the assets. The key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the level and trend of the risks, but they do not explain the causes, impacts, orresponses to the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.2, Page 49.
During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?
Data validation
Identification
Authentication
Data integrity
Authentication is a control that verifies the identity of a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Authentication can be based on something the user or system knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user or system has (such as a token or asmart card), or something the user or system is (such as a fingerprint or a retina scan). Authentication is a crucial control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as well as for ensuring the accountability and traceability of the actions performed by the user or system. If the authentication control is compromised, it means that the user or system can bypass or break the verification process and gain access to the system or network without being identified or authorized. This can expose the system or network to various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. Therefore, the authentication control has most likely been compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. A firewall is a device or a software that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules and policies. A firewall can help to protect the system or network from external or internal attacks by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, protocol, or content. However, a firewall cannot prevent an intruder from accessing the system or network if the intruder has already authenticated or impersonated a legitimate user or system. The other options are not the most likely controls to be compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall, although they may be affected or related. Data validation is a control that checks the accuracy, completeness, and quality of the data that is entered, processed,or stored by a system or anetwork. Data validation can help to prevent or detect data errors, anomalies, or inconsistencies that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of the system or network. However, data validation does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only focuses on the data, not the user or system. Identification is a control that assigns a unique identifier to a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Identification can be based on a username, an email address, a phone number, or a certificate. Identification is a necessary but not sufficient control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as it only declares who or what the user or system is, but does not prove it. Identification needs to be combined with authentication to verify the identity of the user or system. Data integrity is a control that ensures that the data is accurate, consistent, and complete throughout its lifecycle. Data integrity can be achieved by implementing various controls, such as encryption, hashing, checksum, digital signature, or backup. Data integrity can help to protect the data from unauthorized or accidental modification, deletion, or corruption that may affect the value, meaning, or usability of the data. However, data integrity does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only protects the data, not the user or system. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers &Explanations Manual, page 952; What is Authentication? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is a Firewall? - Definition from Techopedia4
Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?
Customer database manager
Customer data custodian
Data privacy officer
Audit committee
A data privacy officer is a role that is responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the applicable laws, regulations, and standards regarding the collection, processing, storage, and disclosure of customer data1. A data privacy officer is also responsible for developing and implementing policies, procedures, and controls to protect the privacy and security of customer data, and to prevent or mitigate the risk of customer data loss2. A data privacy officer is the most helpful role in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss, because:
A data privacy officer has the knowledge and expertise of the legal and ethical requirements and best practices for customer data protection, and can identify and assess the potential threats and vulnerabilities that may compromise customer data3.
A data privacy officer has the authority and accountability to oversee and monitor the customer data lifecycle, and to ensure that the organization follows the principles of data minimization, purpose limitation, accuracy, integrity, confidentiality, and accountability4.
A data privacy officer has the visibility and communication skills to report and advise the management and other stakeholders on the customer data risk profile, and to recommend and implement appropriate risk responses and improvement actions5.
The other options are not the most helpful roles in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss, because:
A customer database manager is a role that is responsible for designing, developing, maintaining, and optimizing the database systems that store and manage customer data6. A customer database manager may have some technical skills and knowledge to protect the customer data from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion, but may not have the comprehensive or holistic view of the customer data risk, as they may focus only on the database level, and not on the organizational or regulatory level.
A customer data custodian is a role that is responsible for handling, processing, and storing customer data according to the instructions and permissions of the data owner7. A customer data custodian may have some operational duties and responsibilities to safeguard the customer data from accidental or intentional loss, damage, or disclosure, but may not have the strategic or analyticalview of the customer data risk, as they may follow only the predefined rules and procedures, and not the risk management principles and practices.
An audit committee is a group of independent directors or members that is responsible for overseeing and evaluating the organization’s financial reporting, internal control, and auditfunctions. An audit committee may have some oversight and assurance roles andresponsibilities to review and verify the organization’s compliance and performance regarding customer data protection, but may not have the direct or proactive view of the customer data risk, as they may rely only on the audit reports and findings, and not on the risk assessment and analysis.
References =
Data Privacy Officer - CIO Wiki
What is a Data Protection Officer (DPO)? - Definition from Techopedia
Data Privacy Officer: Roles and Responsibilities - ISACA
Data Protection Principles - CIO Wiki
Data Privacy Officer: How to Be One and Why You Need One - ISACA
Database Manager - CIO Wiki
Data Custodian - CIO Wiki
[Audit Committee - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).
Developing contingency plans for key processes.
KRIs provide predictive metrics to monitor changes in risk levels, enabling timely interventions to maintain risks within the organization's appetite. This aligns with theRisk Monitoring and Reportingframework, which emphasizes proactive identification of risk thresholds.
A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:
updating the risk register
documenting the risk scenarios.
validating the risk scenarios
identifying risk mitigation controls.
Validating the risk scenarios is the most important time to involve business stakeholders, as they can provide feedback on the relevance, completeness, and accuracy of the scenarios. They can also help to ensure that the scenarios are aligned with the business objectives, context, and risk appetite. By involving business stakeholders in the validation process, the risk practitioner can increase the credibility and acceptance of the risk scenarios.
Updating the risk register, documenting the risk scenarios, and identifying risk mitigation controls are all important steps in the risk scenario development process, but they are not the most important time to involve business stakeholders. These steps can be performed by the risk practitioner with input from othersources, such as subject matter experts, historical data, industry standards, etc. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 47-481
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?
IT goals and objectives
Organizational goals and objectives
The organization's risk appetite statement
Legal and regulatory requirements
The most important factor for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy is the organizational goals and objectives. The organizational goals and objectives are the statements that define the purpose, direction, and desired outcomes of the organization. The organizational goals and objectives help to align the IT strategy with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the IT strategy supports and enables the organization’s performance and improvement. The organizational goals and objectives also help to communicate and coordinate the IT strategy with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions, and to facilitate the IT decision-making and reporting processes. The other options are not as important as the organizational goals and objectives, although they may be related to the IT strategy. IT goals and objectives, the organization’s risk appetite statement, and legal and regulatory requirements are all factors that could affect the feasibility and sustainability of the IT strategy, but they do not necessarily reflect or influence the organization’s purpose, direction, and desired outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-9.
Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:
trending data is available.
process flowcharts are current.
measurement objectives are defined.
data collection technology is available.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that provide information about the achievement of specific goals or objectives.
Prior to selecting KPIs, it is most important to ensure that measurement objectives are defined. This means that the desired outcomes and targets of the goals or objectives are clearly stated and aligned with the organization’s strategy and vision.
Defining measurement objectives helps to select the most relevant and meaningful KPIs that can accurately reflect the progress and performance of the goals or objectives. It also helps to establish the criteria and standards for evaluating and reporting the results and outcomes of the KPIs.
The other options are not the most important things to ensure prior to selecting KPIs. They are either secondary or not essential for KPIs.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 16
Information Technology & Security, page 10
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 8
The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:
financial risk.
data risk.
operational risk.
strategic risk.
Understanding Strategic Risk:
Strategic risk refers to the potential losses that can arise from adverse business decisions, improper implementation of decisions, or lack of responsiveness to changes in the business environment.
Reputational Impact of Cybersecurity Breaches:
A cybersecurity breach can severely damage an organization's reputation, affecting customer trust, investor confidence, and market value.
Such impacts go beyond immediate financial losses and can have long-term strategic implications for the organization's competitive position and strategic objectives.
Classification of Risk:
Financial Risk:Direct financial losses due to a breach (e.g., fines, legal costs) but does not cover reputational impacts.
Data Risk:Focuses on the loss or compromise of data but not the broader strategic impact.
Operational Risk:Pertains to disruptions in business operations, while reputational damage influences the organization’s strategic direction and goals.
Strategic Risk and Reputation:
Reputational damage from a cybersecurity breach can lead to a loss of customer base, reduced market share, and difficulties in strategic partnerships, all of which are strategic concerns.
Addressing reputational risk requires strategic planning, proactive communication, and long-term efforts to rebuild trust and credibility.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights that reputational risk is a significant aspect of strategic risk, especially following cybersecurity incidents (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.1.3 Importance and Value of IT Risk Management).
An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?
The third party s management
The organization's management
The control operators at the third party
The organization's vendor management office
Outsourcing IT security operations is a common practice that can provide benefits such as cost savings, access to specialized skills, and improved service quality12. However, outsourcing also introduces risks such as loss of control, dependency, contractual issues, and service failures12.
When an organization outsources its IT security operations to a third party, it does not transfer the accountability for the risk associated with the outsourced operations. Accountability is the obligation to answer for the execution of one’s assigned responsibilities34.
The organization’s management is ultimately accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations, as they are responsible for defining the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and objectives, and for ensuring that the organization’s IT security operations are aligned with them34.
The organization’s management is also accountable for selecting, contracting, and overseeing the third party, and for ensuring that the third party meets the agreed service levels, standards, and compliance requirements34.
The organization’s management is also accountable for monitoring and reporting the risk associated with the outsourced operations, and for taking corrective actions when necessary34.
The other options are not ultimately accountable, but rather have different roles and responsibilities in relation to the outsourced operations. For example:
The third party’s management is responsible for delivering the IT security services according to the contract, and for managing the risk within their own organization34. They are accountable to the organization’s management, but not to the organization’s stakeholders.
The control operators at the third party are responsible for implementing and operating the IT security controls according to the service specifications, and for reporting any issues orincidents to the organization’s management34. They are accountable to the third party’s management, but not to the organization’s management or stakeholders.
The organization’s vendor management office is responsible for facilitating the relationship between the organization and the third party, and for supporting the organization’s management in the outsourcing process34. They are accountable to the organization’s management, but not for the risk associated with the outsourced operations. References =
1: Outsourcing IT Security: A Risk Management Perspective, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2019
2: The Cyber Security Risks Of Outsourcing, Cybersecurity Intelligence, January 4, 2022
3: Accountability for Information Security Roles and Responsibilities, Part 1, ISACA Journal, Volume 5, 2019
4: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?
Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).
Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.
Require independent control assessments.
Obtain vendor references from existing customers.
The best way to provide assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls is to require independent control assessments. Independent control assessments are evaluations of thevendor’s security controls by a third-party auditor or assessor, such as an external auditor, a certification body, or a testing laboratory. Independent control assessments provide an objective and unbiased opinion on the adequacy and performance of the vendor’s security controls, as well as the compliance with relevant standards and regulations. Independent control assessments can also provide evidence and assurance to the customers of the vendor’s security posture and capabilities. Reviewing vendor control self-assessments (CSA), vendor service level agreement(SLA) metrics, or vendor references from existing customers are not as reliable or credible as independent control assessments, because they may be biased, incomplete, or outdated.
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?
Activate the incident response plan.
Implement compensating controls.
Update the risk register.
Develop risk scenarios.
The risk practitioner’s next step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor is to develop risk scenarios, as it involves identifying and describing the potential sources, events, impacts, and responses of the risk that may affect the organization in a similar way as the competitor, and assessing the likelihood and magnitude of the risk. Activating the incident response plan, implementing compensating controls, and updating the risk register are not the next steps, as they are more related to the reaction, mitigation, or reporting of the risk, respectively, rather than the identification and assessment of the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:
network operations.
the cybersecurity function.
application development.
the business function.
The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of the business function, because they are the primary stakeholder and beneficiary of the web application, and they are responsible for defining and achieving the business objectives and requirements that the web application supports or enables. Anoperational risk is a risk of loss or damage resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, or systems, or from external events. An attack on a web application is a type of operational risk that involves a malicious or unauthorized attempt to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the web application, such as a denial-of-service attack, a SQL injection attack, or a cross-site scripting attack. A web application is an application that runs on a web server and can be accessed or used through a web browser, such as an online shopping site, a social media platform, or a web-based email service. A business function is a set of activities or tasks that support or enable the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, such as marketing, sales, or customer service. A risk owner is a person or role that has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk, and to implement and monitor the risk response and controls. The individual in charge of the business function should be the risk owner, as they have the best understanding and interest of the web application and its business value and impact, and they have the ability and responsibility to manage the operational risk associated with the attacks on the web application. The individual in charge of network operations, the cybersecurity function, or application development are all possible candidates for the risk owner, but they are not the best choice, as they may not have the same level of stake and influence in the web application and its business objectives and requirements, and they may have different orconflicting priorities or perspectives on the operational risk and its management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 101
A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?
HR training director
Business process owner
HR recruitment manager
Chief information officer (CIO)
The person who should be accountable for resolving the situation where a root cause analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators is the chief information officer (CIO). The CIO is the senior executive who is responsible for the overall management and governance of the IT function within the organization, including the IT strategy, objectives, policies, processes, and resources. The CIO is also accountable for the performance and value of the IT services and systems, and for ensuring that they meet the needs and expectations of the business and its stakeholders. The CIO should be accountable for resolving the situation, because it involves a major IT service disruption that could affect the organization’s operations and reputation, and because it is related to the IT staff competency and capability, which are under the CIO’s authority and responsibility. The other options are not as accountable as the CIO, although they may have some roles or involvement inthe situation. The HR training director, the business process owner, and the HR recruitment manager are not directly responsible for the IT function or the IT service delivery, and they may not have the authority or the expertise to resolve the situation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 2-3.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:
accountable for the affected processes.
members of senior management.
authorized to select risk mitigation options.
independent from the business operations.
The most important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst is that the reviewers are accountable for the affected processes. This is because the reviewers need to have a clear understanding of the business processes that are exposed to the risks, and the potential impact and consequences of the risk scenarios. The reviewers also need to have the authority and responsibility to implement the risk responses and monitor the risk performance. By involving the stakeholders who are accountable for the affected processes, the risk analyst can ensure that the risk scenarios are realistic, relevant, and comprehensive, and that the risk management process is aligned with the business objectives and expectations. The other options are not as important as the accountability for the affected processes, because they do not guarantee that the reviewers have the necessary knowledge, experience, and involvement in the risk management process, as explained below:
B. Members of senior management are not the most important consideration, because they may not have the detailed or operational knowledge of the business processes that are exposed to the risks, or the technical or practical aspects of the risk scenarios. Senior management may also have different or conflicting priorities or perspectives on the risk management process, which may affect the quality and validity of the review.
C. Authorized to select risk mitigation options are not the most important consideration, because they may not have the direct or regular involvement in the business processes that are exposed to the risks, or the specific or contextual understanding of the risk scenarios. The authority to select risk mitigation options may also depend on other factors, such as the risk appetite, the budget, or the organizational structure, which may limit or influence the review.
D. Independent from the business operations are not the most important consideration, because they may not have the sufficient or relevant knowledge of the business processes that are exposed to the risks, or the potential or actual impact and consequences of the risk scenarios. The independence from the business operations may also create a gap or disconnect between the risk management process and the business objectives and expectations, which may affect the effectiveness and efficiency of the review. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 45. A Stakeholder Approach to Risk Management, Module 2. Project risk management: stakeholders’ risks and the project manager’s role, What Is Risk Management Scenario Analysis?
An organization practices the principle of least privilege. To ensure access remains appropriate, application owners should be required to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining:
business purpose documentation and software license counts
an access control matrix and approval from the user's manager
documentation indicating the intended users of the application
security logs to determine the cause of invalid login attempts
The best way to ensure that access remains appropriate for an organization that practices the principle of least privilege is to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining an access control matrix and approval from the user’s manager. An access control matrix is a table that shows the access rights and permissions of each user or role for each resource or function. An access control matrix helps to verify that the users have the minimum level of access required to perform their duties, and to identify any unauthorized or excessive access rights. Approval from the user’s manager helps to confirm that the user’s access rights are consistent with their current role and responsibilities, and to authorize any changes or exceptions as needed. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 1281
The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:
reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.
identify compensating controls.
minimize residual risk.
reduce risk factors.
The primary objective for selecting risk response options is to reduce risk to an acceptable level. Risk response options are the possible actions that can be taken to address the risks that have been identified and analyzed in the risk management process. Risk response options can be classified into four categories: avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept for negative risks (or threats), and exploit, share, enhance, and accept for positive risks (or opportunities). The selection of the risk response options depends on various factors, such as the risk level, the risk appetite and tolerance, the cost and benefit, and the feasibility and availability of the options. The main goal of selecting the risk response options is to reduce the risk to a level that is acceptable to the organization, which means that the risk exposure is within the boundaries of the risk criteria and the risk appetite. The other options are not the primary objective for selecting risk response options, although they may be related or beneficial. Identifying compensating controls is a technique to implement additional or alternative controls when the existing controls are not effective or sufficient to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. Minimizing residual risk is a result of selecting and implementing the risk response options, but it is not the main purpose. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, and it may or may not be acceptable depending on the risk appetite and tolerance. Reducing risk factors is a method to decrease the likelihood or impact of the risk by addressing the root causes or sources of the risk. However,reducing risk factors does not necessarily mean that the risk is reduced to an acceptable level,as there may be other factors or uncertainties that affect the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 862
Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?
The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.
Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.
Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.
The database system may not be scalable in the future.
The potential scenario that presents the greatest risk to an organization when implementing a new database technology is that data may not be recoverable due to system failures. Data recovery is the process of restoring or retrieving data that has been lost, corrupted, or damaged due to system failures, such as hardware malfunctions, software errors, power outages, or natural disasters. Data recovery is essential for the continuity and integrity of the organization’s operations and information, as data is one of the most valuable and critical assets of the organization. Data recovery is also important for the compliance and accountability of the organization, as data may be subject to legal or regulatory requirements, such as retention, backup, or audit. Data recovery may be challenging or impossible when implementing a new database technology, because the new technology may not be compatible or interoperable with the existing systems, applications, or backups, or because the new technology may nothave adequate or tested recovery mechanisms or procedures. Data recovery may also be costly or time-consuming when implementing a new database technology, because the new technology may require additional or specialized resources, tools, or expertise, or because the new technology may involve large or complex data sets or structures. The other options are not as risky as data recovery, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the new database technology implementation. The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources, application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget, and the database system may not be scalable in the future are all factors that could affect the feasibility and sustainability of the new database technology, but they do not directly affect the continuity and integrity of the organization’s operations and information. References = 2
Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?
Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.
Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.
Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.
Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.
A possible action that a risk practitioner should do next when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified is A. Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis. A threat and vulnerability analysis is a process of identifying and assessing the potential sources and methodsof cyber attacks, as well as the weaknesses and gaps in the organization’s information systems and security controls12 By conducting a threat and vulnerability analysis, a risk practitioner can determine the level of exposure and risk that the organization faces from external cyber attacks, and prioritize the actions and resources needed to mitigate or prevent them3 A threat and vulnerability analysis can also help to update the risk impact rating and the key risk indicator in the risk register, as well as to notify senior management of the new risk scenario, but these are subsequent steps that follow after the analysis is completed. Therefore, the first action that a risk practitioner should do next is to conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.
Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?
Batch job failure monitoring
Periodic network scanning
Annual penetration testing
Risk assessments
The best method for identifying vulnerabilities is periodic network scanning. Network scanning is a process of scanning and probing the network devices, systems, and applications to discover and analyze their security weaknesses, such as configuration errors, outdated software, or open ports. Network scanning can help to identify the vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, compromise data, or disrupt services. Periodic network scanning is the best method, because it can provide a regular and comprehensive view of the network security posture, and it can detect and address the new or emerging vulnerabilities in a timely manner. Periodic network scanning can also help to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements and standards for network security, such as the ISO/IEC 27001, the NIST SP 800-53, or the PCI DSS123. The other options are not the best method, although they may be useful or complementary to periodic network scanning. Batch job failure monitoring is a process of monitoring and reporting the failures or errors that occur during the execution of batch jobs, such as data processing, backup, or synchronization. Batch job failure monitoring can help to identify the operational or technical issues that affect the performance or availability of the network services, but it does not directly identify the security vulnerabilities or the potential threats. Annual penetration testing is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network devices, systems, and applications to evaluate their security defenses and resilience. Penetration testing can help to identify and exploit the vulnerabilities that could be used by attackers to compromise the network security, and to provide recommendations for improvement. However, annual penetration testing is not the best method, because it is not frequent or consistent enough to keep up with the changing and evolving network security landscape, and it may not cover all thenetwork components or scenarios. Risk assessments are a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the network devices, systems, and applications. Risk assessments can help to estimate the probability and impact of the vulnerabilities and the threats, and to prioritize and respond to the risks accordingly. However, risk assessments are not the same as or a substitute for vulnerability identification, as they rely on the vulnerability information as an input, rather than an output. References = Vulnerability Testing: Methods, Tools, and 10 Best Practices, ISO/IEC 27001 Information Security Management, NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5
Which of the following risk scenarios should be considered in a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
A pandemic situation requiring remote work
A ransomware attack affecting critical systems
A vendor failing to notify the organization of a data breach
Hacking activity leading to theft of sensitive data
A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?
The organization's strategic risk management projects
Senior management roles and responsibilities
The organizations risk appetite and tolerance
Senior management allocation of risk management resources
The organization’s risk appetite and tolerance are the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the level of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is prepared to accept. Senior management plays a key role in defining and communicating the risk appetite and tolerance, as well asensuring that they are aligned with the organization’s strategy, culture, and values. By covering these topics in the training session, the risk practitioner can help senior management understand and articulate the risk preferences and boundaries of the organization, as well as monitor andadjust them as needed. The other options are not the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management, although they may be relevant and useful. The organization’s strategic risk management projects are specific initiatives or activities that aim to identify, assess, and treat risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Senior management roles and responsibilities are the duties and expectations that senior management has in relation to risk management, such as providing leadership, oversight, and support. Senior management allocation of risk management resources is the process of assigning and prioritizing the human, financial, and technical resources that are needed to implement and maintain risk management activities. These topics are more operational and tactical than strategic and may vary depending on the context and scope of the risk management function. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 40-411; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 732
A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?
Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.
Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.
Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.
Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.
What would be a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation when several key performance indicators (KPIs) for a control process fail to meet service level agreements (SLAs)?
Adjust the process KPI threshold.
Develop an IT risk response plan.
Review the organization's IT risk profile.
Review process efficiency.
Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's patch management process?
Average time to implement patches after vendor release
Number of patches tested prior to deployment
Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production
Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe
The percent of patches implemented within established timeframe is the best metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization’s patch management process, as it measures how well the organization meets its patching objectives and reduces its exposure to vulnerabilities. This metric reflects the timeliness, completeness, and quality of the patching process, and can be compared against the organization’s patch management policy and standards. A high percent of patches implemented within established timeframe indicates that the organization has a mature and efficient patch management process that minimizes the risk of security breaches or operational disruptions due to unpatched systems.
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?
Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.
Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.
Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.
Document the risk decision in the project risk register.
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite can be expressed in qualitative or quantitative terms, and can vary depending on the context and the stakeholder. Risk appetite should be defined and communicated by the senior management or the board of directors, and should guide the risk management decisions and actions throughout the organization. When a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite, the risk practitioner’s best course of action is to escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review, meaning that the risk practitioner should report the risk acceptance and its rationale to the project sponsor, who is the person or group that provides the resources and support for the project, and is accountable for its success. The project sponsor should review the risk decision and determine whether it is aligned with the organization’s objectives and strategy, and whether it requires any further approval oraction. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, p. 25-26
Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?
Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape
Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment
Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit
Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors
An updatedrisk registerensures that decision-makers have accurate, timely information about current risks, enabling informed, risk-based decisions that align with organizational priorities and changes in the environment.
Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?
Cloud service provider
IT department
Senior management
Business unit owner
The business unit owner is accountable for authorizing application access in a SaaS environment because they are responsible for aligning access controls with business needs. They determine the roles and permissions needed to ensure operational effectiveness while adhering to the principle ofAccess Managementin the CRISC framework.
The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:
evaluate how risk conditions are managed.
determine threats and vulnerabilities.
estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.
establish risk response options.
The primary objective of a risk identification process is to determine threats and vulnerabilities, which are the sources and causes of the risks that may affect the organization’sobjectives. Threats are any events or circumstances that have the potential to harm or exploit the organization’s assets, such as people, information, systems, processes, or infrastructure1. Vulnerabilities are any weaknesses or gaps in the organization’s capabilities, controls, or defenses that may increase the likelihood or impact of the threats2. By determining threats and vulnerabilities, the organization can:
Identify and document all possible risks, regardless of whether they are internal or external, current or emerging, or positive or negative3.
Understand the nature and characteristics of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, and interrelationships4.
Provide the basis for further risk analysis and evaluation, such as assessing the probability and severity of the risks, and prioritizing the risks according to their significance and urgency5.
References =
Threat - CIO Wiki
Vulnerability - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification and Analysis - The National Academies Press
Risk Analysis - CIO Wiki
Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?
Risk magnitude
Incident probability
Risk appetite
Cost-benefit analysis
According to the Risk Assessment and Management: A Complete Guide, risk magnitude is the product of the likelihood and impact of a risk scenario. Risk magnitude is an important factor to consider before choosing risk treatment options, as it indicates the level of exposure andpotential harm that the organization faces from the risk scenario. Risk treatment options should be selected based on the risk magnitude, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. For a scenario with significant impact, the risk magnitude is likely to be high, and therefore the risk treatment options should aim to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of the risk scenario as much as possible, or to transfer or avoid the risk altogether. References = Risk Assessment and Management: A Complete Guide, ISO 27001 Risk Assessment & Risk Treatment: The Complete Guide
Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?
Key stakeholders are enrolled as members
Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management
Committee meets at least quarterly
Functional overlap across the business is minimized
The best way to ensure the effective decision-making of an IT risk management committee is to enroll key stakeholders as members. Key stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the IT risk management process, such as business owners, senior management, IT managers, auditors, regulators, customers, and suppliers. By involving key stakeholders in the IT risk management committee, the committee can benefit from their diverse perspectives, expertise, and experience, and ensure that the IT risk management decisions are aligned with the business objectives, priorities, and expectations. Key stakeholders can also provide valuable input, feedback, and support for the IT risk management activities, and help communicate and implement the IT risk management decisions across the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:
implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.
suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.
revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.
evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.
The best course of action when a risk practitioner finds that the risk level of an emerging IT risk has increased, despite having an action plan to mitigate it, is to evaluate whether the selected controls are still appropriate. This is because the increase in the risk level may indicate that the current controls are not effective or sufficient to reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk, or that the risk environment has changed and new threats or vulnerabilities have emerged. By evaluating the appropriateness of the selected controls, the risk practitioner can identify the gaps or weaknesses in the control design or implementation, and determine the need for corrective actions or improvements. The other options are not the best course of action, because they do not address the root cause of the problem, but rather assume or ignore the effectiveness of the controls, as explained below:
A. Implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk is not the best course of action, because it assumes that the planned controls are adequate and aligned with the organization’s risk appetite, which may not be the case if the risk level has increased. Implementing the planned controls without evaluating their appropriateness may result in wasting resources, exposing the organization to more risk, or missing opportunities to enhance the risk mitigation effectiveness.
B. Suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk is not the best course of action, because it ignores the effectiveness of the current controls, which may still provide some level ofrisk mitigation, even if they are not optimal. Suspending the current action plan may also delay the risk response and increase the risk exposure, especially if the risk is time-sensitive or dynamic. Reassessing the risk without evaluating the appropriateness of the current controls may also lead to inaccurate or incomplete risk information and analysis.
C. Revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls is not the best course of action, because it assumes that the current controls are ineffective or insufficient, which may not be the case if the risk level has increased due to other factors, such as changes in the risk environment or the organization’s objectives. Revising the action plan without evaluating the appropriateness of the current controls may result in overcompensating, duplicating, or conflicting the controls, which may affect the risk mitigation efficiency and performance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130. How to Mitigate Emerging Technology Risk - ISACA, Risk Mitigation Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template), 5 Key Risk Mitigation Strategies (With Examples) | Indeed.com
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?
Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level
Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period
Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period
Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management
A vulnerability management process is a process that identifies, analyzes, prioritizes, and remediates the vulnerabilities in the IT systems and applications. The effectiveness of a vulnerability management process can be measured by the key performance indicators (KPIs) that reflect the achievement of the process objectives and the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. The best KPI to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process is the percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level. This KPI indicates how well the process is able to address the vulnerabilities in a timely and efficient manner, and reduce the exposure and impact of the risks associated with the vulnerabilities. The other options are not as good as the percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level, as they may not reflect the quality or timeliness of the remediation actions, or the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2.1, pp. 171-172.
Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?
Re-evaluate current controls.
Revise the current risk action plan.
Escalate the risk to senior management.
Implement additional controls.
A risk action plan is a document that outlines the actions to be taken to mitigate or avoid a risk. A risk action plan should be revised when the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing, as this indicates that the current plan is not effective or sufficient. Revising the risk action plan can help identify the root causes of the risk increase, evaluate the effectiveness of current controls, and implement additional or alternative controls as needed. Re-evaluatingcurrent controls, escalating the risk to senior management, and implementing additional controls are possible steps in the revision process, but they are not the first course of action. The first course of action should be to update the risk action plan to reflect the current risk situation and the appropriate risk response.
A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:
updating the risk register.
validating the risk scenarios.
documenting the risk scenarios.
identifying risk mitigation controls.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the most important time to involve business stakeholders in the development of bottom-up IT risk scenarios is when validating the risk scenarios, as they can provide valuable input on the relevance, completeness, and accuracy of the scenarios and their impact on the business objectives and processes2
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100001 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 97
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud?
Providing oversight of risk management processes
Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud
Ensuring that risk and control assessments consider fraud
Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate fraud
Computer-enabled fraud is the use of information technology (IT) to commit or conceal fraudulent activities, such as theft, manipulation, or unauthorized access of data, systems, or networks. Computer-enabled fraud can pose significant risks to an organization, such as financial loss, reputational damage, legal liability, or regulatory sanctions. Therefore, an organization should establish a comprehensive and effective framework to prevent, detect, and respond to computer-enabled fraud. The framework should involve three lines of defense, which are theroles and responsibilities of different functions within theorganization to manage and control risks. The first line of defense consists of the business owners, whose role is to identify, assess, and manage risks, including computer-enabled fraud risks. The primary responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud is to implement processes to detect and deter fraud. This means designing and executing controls that can prevent or reduce the occurrence of computer-enabled fraud, such as authentication, authorization, encryption, logging, orsegregation of duties. This also means monitoring and reporting any suspicious or anomalous activities or transactions that may indicate computer-enabled fraud, such as unusual patterns, volumes, or frequencies of data or system access or usage. Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud can help the first line of defense to protect the organization’s assets, data, and reputation from computer-enabled fraud, and to comply with the organization’s policies and regulations. References = Three Lines of Defence, Roles of Three Lines of Defense for Information Security and Governance, THE THREE LINES OF DEFENSE IN EFFECTIVE RISK MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL, The Three Lines of Defense.
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?
Optimize the control environment.
Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.
Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.
Reduce the risk management budget.
The level of risk in the IT risk profile is the aggregate measure of the likelihood and impact of IT-related risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations.
The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its goals. It is usually expressed as a range or a threshold, and it is aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and culture.
If the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management’s risk appetite, it means that the enterprise has more capacity and opportunity to take on additional risks that may offer higher rewards or benefits.
The best recommendation in this situation is to optimize the control environment, which is the set of policies, procedures, standards, and practices that provide the foundation for managing IT risks and controls. Optimizing the control environment means enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of the controls, reducing the costs and complexity of compliance, and aligning the controls with the enterprise’s objectives and values.
Optimizing the control environment can help the enterprise to achieve the optimal balance between risk and return, and to leverage its risk management capabilities to create and protect value.
The other options are not the best recommendations, because they do not address the opportunity to improve the enterprise’s performance and resilience.
Realigning risk appetite to the current risk level may result in missing out on potential gains or advantages that could be obtained by taking more risks within the acceptable range.
Decreasing the number of related risk scenarios may reduce the scope and depth of risk analysis and reporting, and impair the enterprise’s ability to identify and respond to emerging or changing risks.
Reducing the risk management budget may compromise the quality and reliability of the risk management process and activities, and weaken the enterprise’s risk culture and governance. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 29-30, 34-35, 38-39, 44-45
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 145
Which of the following is the MOST effective way lo ensure professional ethics are maintained as a core organizational value and adhered to by employees?
Include professional ethics in the corporate value statement.
Establish a channel for employees to report unethical behavior.
Include professional ethics criteria as part of performance appraisals.
Establish a code of conduct document for employees to sign.
An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:
controls perform as intended.
controls operate efficiently.
controls are implemented consistent
control designs are reviewed periodically
The control environment is the set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the basis for carrying out internal control across the organization. The control environment is most effective when the controls perform as intended, meaning that they achieve their objectives, mitigate the risks, and comply with the policies and regulations. The other options are desirable attributes of the controls, but they do not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of the control environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) BEST enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization's:
risk classification methods
risk-based capital allocation
risk portfolio
risk culture
A risk portfolio is a collection of risks that an organization faces or may face in the future. Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) best enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization’s risk portfolio, as KCIs measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. By analyzing the trends in KCIs, a risk practitioner can assess the current and potential risk exposure of the organization, and identify any changes or emerging risks that may affect the risk portfolio. Analyzing trends in KCIs can also help to evaluate the cost and benefit of the risk controls, and to determine the need for enhancing, modifying, or implementing new controls. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 246. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 246. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?
Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance
Increased monitoring of executive accounts
Subscription to data breach monitoring sites
Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts
Understanding the Question:
The question is about mitigating the impact of social engineering attacks that use AI technology to impersonate senior management personnel.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance:This is the most proactive approach. Educating employees about the risks and signs of social engineering attacks enhances their ability to recognize and respond appropriately to such threats.
B. Increased monitoring of executive accounts:Useful but reactive; it doesn't prevent initial attempts.
C. Subscription to data breach monitoring sites:Helps detect breaches but doesn’t directly mitigate impersonation attacks.
D. Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts:Reactive measure and might not be immediate or comprehensive.
Importance of Training:Employees are often the first line of defense against social engineering attacks. Regular training ensures they are aware of the tactics used in such attacks, including those leveraging AI, and how to respond effectively.
Proactive Measure:Training increases vigilance and the likelihood of early detection, reducing the potential impact of the attack.
Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Understanding and prioritization of critical processes
Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)
Identification of regulatory consequences
Reduction of security and business continuity threats
The most important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA) is understanding and prioritization of critical processes. A BIA is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of disruptions or disasters on the organization’s business functions and processes. A BIA helps to understand the dependencies, interrelationships, and impacts of the business processes, and to prioritize them based on their importance and urgency. A BIA also helps to determine the recovery objectives, strategies, and resources for the business processes, such as the recovery time objective (RTO), the recovery point objective (RPO), and the minimum operating requirements (MOR). The other options are not as important as understanding and prioritization of critical processes, although they may be part of or derived from the BIA. Completion of thebusiness continuity plan (BCP), identification of regulatory consequences, and reduction of security and business continuity threats are all activities or outcomes that can be supported or facilitated by the BIA, but they are not the primary purpose or result of the BIA. References = CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 5-9.
Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?
Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.
A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.
A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.
The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.
The best method to ensure a terminated employee’s access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization is to have the human resources (HR) system automatically revoke system access, which is a process that involves integrating the HR system with the IT system, and triggering the removal of access rights for the employee as soon as the termination is recorded in the HR system12.
This method is the best because it provides the most timely, accurate, and consistent way of revoking access, and reduces the risk of human error, oversight, or delay that may occur in manual or semi-automated processes12.
This method is also the best because it enhances the security and compliance of the organization, and prevents the terminated employee from accessing or compromising the IT systems or data after departure12.
The other options are not the best methods, but rather alternative or supplementary methods that may have some limitations or drawbacks. For example:
Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees is a method that involves monitoring and verifying the login activities of the IT systems, and comparing them with a list of terminated employees to identify and block any unauthorized access attempts34. However, this method is not the best because it is reactive rather than proactive, and may not prevent the terminated employee from accessing the IT systems before the reconciliation is done34.
A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access is a method that involves creating and maintaining a list of terminated employees, and checking it against the current IT access rights to identify and remove any access that is no longer needed34. However, this method is not the best because it is manual and labor-intensive, and may introduce errors or inconsistencies in the list or the access rights34.
A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented is a method that involves conducting an exit interview with the terminated employee, and revoking the employee’s access to the IT systems during or immediately after the interview34. However, this method is not the best because it depends on the availability and cooperation of the terminated employee, and may not cover all the IT systems or access rights that the employee had34. References =
1: IT Involvement in Employee Termination, A Checklist3
2: Best Practices to Ensure Departing Employees Retain No Access5
3: User Termination Best Practices - IT Security - Spiceworks2
4: IT Security for Employee Termination - Policies, Checklists, Templates - Endsight1
Following the identification of a risk associated with a major organizational change, which of the following is MOST important to update in the IT risk register?
The risk owner
The person who identified the risk
The control owner
The risk response owner
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to ISACA CRISC guidance)
The risk register should clearly document who is accountable for managing each risk. CRISC defines the risk owner as the individual (often a business or process owner) who is responsible for ensuring appropriate treatment and monitoring of the risk. When a major organizational change occurs—such as restructuring, mergers, or changes in responsibility—it is critical to update the risk owner so that accountability remains clear and no risk is left unmanaged. The identity of the person who identified the risk is less important; that role is informational and does not drive ongoing accountability. Control owners and risk response owners are important roles, but they typically operate under the direction of the risk owner. Ensuring the correct risk owner is assigned prevents gaps in oversight and aligns the risk with the correct decision-making authority.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?
Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan
Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls
Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level
Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk
The primary focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk is to ensure that the control design reduces the risk to an acceptable level. This means that the risk owner shouldverify that the control objectives, specifications, and implementation are aligned with the risk mitigation plan, and that the control is effective in reducing the risk exposure to within the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner should also ensure that the control design is consistent with the enterprise’s policies, standards, and procedures, and that it complies with any relevant laws, regulations, or contractual obligations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.4, page 185.
A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?
Single sign-on
Audit trail review
Multi-factor authentication
Data encryption at rest
Multi-factor authentication is the most effective way to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access to the system, as it requires the users to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity, such as a password, a token, a biometric feature, etc. This reduces the likelihood of compromising the credentials and ensures that only authorized users can perform maintenance on the system.
Single sign-on is a convenience feature that allows users to access multiple systems with one set of credentials, but it does not address the risk of sharing credentials among multiple users.
Audit trail review is a detective control that can help identify and investigate unauthorized access to the system, but it does not prevent or mitigate the risk of credential compromise.
Data encryption at rest is a security measure that protects the data stored on the system from unauthorized access, but it does not prevent or mitigate the risk of credential compromise. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 107-108.
Which of the following statements in an organization's current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?
Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.
New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.
A risk profile report is a document that summarizes the current status and trends of the risks that an organization faces, as well as the actions taken or planned to manage them1. A risk profile report is a useful tool for senior management to monitor and oversee the organization’s risk management performance and to make informed decisions and adjustments as needed2. One of the key components ofa risk profile report is the key performance indicators (KPIs), which are metrics used to measure andevaluate the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies3. KPIs are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and they have specific targets or benchmarks that indicate the desired level of performance4. Therefore, if the KPIs are outside of targets, it means that the organization is not meeting its objectives and strategies, and that there may be gaps or issues in the risk management process or the risk response actions. This is a cause for further action by senior management, as they need to investigate the root causes of the deviation, assess the impact and implications of the underperformance, and take corrective or preventive measures to improve the situation and bringthe KPIs back to the targets. Incomplete KPI trend data, new KRIs, and lagging KRIs are not the most critical statements in a risk profile report that require further action by senior management, as they do not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Incomplete KPI trend data means that there is missing or insufficient information on the historical or projected changes in the KPIs over time. This may affect the accuracy and reliability of the risk profile report, but it does not necessarily mean that the KPIs are outside of targets or that the objectives and strategies are not met. Senior management may need to request or obtain the complete KPI trend data, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. New KRIs means that there are additional or revised metrics used to measure and monitor the level of risk associated with a particular process, activity, or system within the organization. This may reflect the changes or updates in the risk environment, the risk appetite and tolerance, or the risk assessment methodology. However, new KRIs do not directly indicate a failure or a problem inthe risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Senior management may need to review and approve the new KRIs, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. Lagging KRIs means that there are metrics that measure and monitor the level of risk after a risk event has occurred or a risk response has been implemented. This may provide useful feedback and lessons learned for the risk management process, but it does not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Senior management may need to analyze and evaluate the lagging KRIs, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Risk Reporting, pp. 201-205.
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?
Inability to allocate resources efficiently
Inability to identify the risk owner
Inability to complete the risk register
Inability to identify process experts
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete is the inability to identify the risk owner. The risk owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk or a group of related risks. The risk owner helps to identify, assess, and respond to the risks, and to monitor and report on the risk performance and improvement. The risk owner also helps to communicate and coordinate the risk management activities with the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. The risk owner is usually identified in the process documentation, which describes the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for each process. The inability to identify the risk owner is a major concern for the risk practitioner, because it may affect the accountability, transparency, and effectiveness of the risk management process, and may lead to confusion, conflicts, or gaps in the risk management activities. The other options are not as concerning as the inability to identify the risk owner, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the risk management process. Inability to allocate resources efficiently, inability to complete the risk register, and inability to identify process experts are all factors that could affect the quality and timeliness of the risk management process, but they do not necessarily affect the authority and responsibility of the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-11.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk governance charter
Organizational risk appetite
Cross-business representation
Cross-business representation is most important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring. Here’s a
Importance of Cross-business Representation:
Comprehensive Risk Perspective: Having representatives from different business units ensures that the committee has a comprehensive view of risks across the entire organization. This diverse representation helps in identifying and assessing risks that may impact various parts of the business differently.
Informed Decision-Making: Members from different business areas can provide unique insights and expertise, leading to more informed and balanced decision-making processes.
Improved Communication: Cross-business representation facilitates better communication and collaboration across the organization, ensuring that risk management practices are understood and implemented consistently.
Comparison with Other Options:
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs): While important for monitoring specific risks, KRIs alone do not ensure the effectiveness of the oversight committee without a diverse representation to interpret and act on these indicators.
Risk Governance Charter: A risk governance charter outlines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for risk management, but its effectiveness depends on the active participation of diverse business representatives.
Organizational Risk Appetite: Understanding the organizational risk appetite is crucial, but without cross-business representation, the risk appetite may not be appropriately reflected or acted upon across all business areas.
Best Practices:
Diverse Membership: Ensure that the oversight committee includes members from all key business units and functions to provide a holistic view of organizational risks.
Regular Meetings: Schedule regular meetings to review and discuss risk management activities, KRIs, and emerging risks with input from all representatives.
Clear Communication: Establish clear communication channels between the oversight committee and business units to ensure that risk management practices are effectively implemented and monitored.
Before selecting a final risk response option for a given risk scenario, management should FIRST:
determine control ownership.
evaluate the risk response of similar sized organizations.
evaluate the organization's ability to implement the solution.
determine the remediation timeline.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?
Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.
Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.
Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.
Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.
According to the Section 4: Quiz 40 - Business Continuity Plan Flashcards, the best indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program is the successful performance of business continuity tests and the resolution of any issues that arise. Business continuity tests are exercises that simulate various scenarios of disruption or disaster and evaluate the organization’s ability to recover and resume its critical functions. Business continuity tests can help to validate the assumptions, objectives, and strategies of the business continuity program, as well as to identify and address any gaps, weaknesses, or errors in the business continuity and disaster recovery plans. By performing business continuity tests regularly and effectively, the organization can ensure that its business continuity program is aligned with its needs andexpectations, and that it can cope with any potential crisis. References = Section 4: Quiz 40 - Business Continuity Plan Flashcards
Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?
User authorization
User recertification
Change log review
Access log monitoring
User recertification is the most effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis, as it involves a periodic review and validation of user access rights and privileges by the appropriate authority. User recertification helps to identify and remove any unnecessary, excessive, or obsolete access rights and privileges that may pose a security risk or violate the principle of least privilege. User recertification also helps to ensure that user access rights and privileges are aligned with the current business needs, roles, and responsibilities of the users.
The other options are not the most effective controls to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis. User authorization is the process of granting or denying access rights and privileges to users based on their identity, role, and credentials, but it does not verify or update the existing access rights and privileges of the users. Change log review is the process of examining and analyzing the records of changes made to the system, configuration, or data, but it does not directly address the user access rights and privileges. Access log monitoring is the process of tracking and auditing the user activities and actions on the system or network, but it does not validate or modify the user access rights and privileges. References = What Is the Principle of Least Privilege and Why is it Important?, Principle of Least Privilege: Definition, Methods & Examples, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
An organization is developing a plan to address new information security risks emerging from business changes. Which of the following BEST enables stakeholders to make decisions impacting organizational strategy?
The impact of the new risk is clearly presented
Benchmarking information is provided
Technical expertise to address new risk scenarios is available
The cost of implementing the strategy is within budget
CRISC emphasizes risk communication in decision-making. Stakeholders can only make effective strategic decisions if the business impact of risk is clearly presented.
“The purpose of risk communication is to enable informed decision-making by clearly presenting the potential impact of risk on business objectives.”
Benchmarking and cost data support the discussion but are secondary to understanding impact severity.
Hence, A is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 4 – Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Topic: Risk Communication Principles.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?
Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures
Interviewing groups of key stakeholders
Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders
Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues
The best approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application is to interview groups of key stakeholders, as this allows the risk practitioner to obtain direct and detailed information on the business processes, dependencies, resources, and requirements that are supported by the application. The risk practitioner can also clarify any doubts, address any concerns, and validate any assumptions during the interviews. The BIA is a process of identifying and analyzing the potential effects of disruptive events on the critical business functions and objectives. The BIA helps to determine the recovery priorities, strategies, and targets for the business continuity plan. The other options are not the bestapproaches for performing a BIA, although they may be useful or complementary methods. Reviewing the organization’s policies and procedures can provide some background and context for the BIA, but it may not reflect the current or accurate situation of the business processes and the application. Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders can be a convenient and efficient way to collect some data for the BIA, but it may not capture the complexity and nuances of the business processes and the application. Accepting IT personnel’s view of business issues can be biased and incomplete, as they may not have the full understanding or perspective of the business needs and expectations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 58.
An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?
IT risk manager
IT system owner
Information security manager
Business owner
According to the Data Roles and Responsibilities article, the business owner is the person who has authority over the business process that is supported by the data. The business owner is responsible for defining the access roles to protect the sensitive data within the application, as well as approving the access requests and ensuring the compliance with the data policies andstandards. The business owner may delegate this responsibility to a data steward, who is a person who acts on behalf of the business owner to manage the data quality, security, and usage. Therefore, the answer is D. Business owner. References = Data Roles and Responsibilities
A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization's access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?
After the initial design
Before production rollout
After a few weeks in use
Before end-user testing
Providing opinions on control strength after the initial design is the best time for the risk practitioner, because it helps to ensure that the controls are aligned with the requirements and objectives of the new cloud-based service, and that they are effective and efficient in mitigating the risks associated with the service. A cloud-based service is a service that is delivered over the internet, where the service provider owns and manages the IT infrastructure, platforms, or applications, and the customer pays only for the resources or functions they use. An access management capability is a capability that enables the organization to control and monitor the access to its IT systems or networks, such as authentication, authorization, or auditing. Controls are policies, procedures, or mechanisms that help to reduce or eliminate the risks that may affect the security, reliability, performance, or compliance of the cloud-based service. Providing opinions on control strength after the initial design is the best time, as it allows the risk practitioner to review the design specifications and requirements, and to provide feedback and recommendations on the adequacy and suitability of the controls. Providing opinions on control strength before production rollout, after a few weeks in use, or before end-user testing are all possible times for the risk practitioner, but they are not the best time, as they may be too late or too early to influence the design and implementation of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 183
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?
To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization
To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations
To optimize risk management resources across the organization
To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization
The most important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization is to have a unified approach to risk management across the organization. An ERM function is a centralized and coordinated function that oversees and supports the risk management activities of the organization, such as risk identification, assessment, response, monitoring, and reporting. An ERM function helps to ensure that the risk management process is consistent, comprehensive, and integrated with the organization’s strategy, objectives, and culture. An ERM function also helps to align the risk management activities with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and to provide a holistic view of the organization’s risk profile and exposure. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.1, page 131
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?
Responding promptly to control exceptions
Implementing compensating controls
Testing controls periodically
Automating manual controls
The best way to ensure that information system controls are effective is to test them periodically. Testing controls periodically helps to verify that the controls are operating as intended, and that they are aligned with the enterprise’s objectives, policies, and standards. Testing controls periodically also helps to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or deficiencies in the controls, and to implement corrective actions or improvements. Responding promptly to control exceptions, implementing compensating controls, and automating manual controls are good practices, but they are not the best way to ensure control effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.2, page 1071
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 641.
Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?
To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors
To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk
To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance
To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the main reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk is to ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization’srisk appetite and risk tolerance. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, while the risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures linked to objectives. Continuous monitoring is a process that tracks the security state of an information system on an ongoing basis and maintains the security authorization for the system over time. Continuous monitoring helps to:
Provide ongoing assurance that the implemented security controls are operating effectively and efficiently
Detect changes in the risk profile of the information system and the environment of operation
Identify new or emerging threats and vulnerabilities that may affect the information system
Support risk-based decisions by providing timely and relevant risk information to stakeholders
Facilitate the implementation of corrective actions and risk mitigation strategies
Promote accountability and transparency in the risk management process
Enhance the security awareness and culture within the organization
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 213-2141
Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?
Increase in the frequency of changes
Percent of unauthorized changes
Increase in the number of emergency changes
Average time to complete changes
A change management process is a set of procedures and activities that aim to ensure that changes in an organization’s IT systems and services are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner. The effectiveness of a change management process can be measured by how well it reduces the risks and costs associated with changes, and how well it supports the business objectives and customer expectations. One of the best metrics to demonstrate the effectiveness of a change management process is the percent of unauthorized changes. Unauthorized changes are changes that are made without following the established change management process, such as obtaining approval, documenting the change, testing the change, and communicating the change. Unauthorized changes can introduce errors, defects, security breaches, and disruptions to the IT systems and services, and can negatively affect the business performance and customer satisfaction. Therefore, a low percent of unauthorized changes indicates that the change management process is effective in ensuring that changes are properly planned, approved, executed, and monitored. The other options are not the best metrics to demonstrate the effectiveness of a change management process, as they do not directly reflect the quality and control of the changes. An increase in the frequency of changes may indicate that the organization is agile and responsive to the changing business needs and customer demands, but it does not necessarily mean that the changes are well-managed and beneficial. An increase in the number of emergency changes may indicate that the organization is able to handle urgent and critical situations, but it may also suggest that the organization is reactive and lacks proper planning and analysis of the changes. The average time to complete changes may indicate the efficiency and speed of the change management process, but it does not measure the effectiveness and value of the changes. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 156-1571; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 712
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk
awareness program?
Policies and procedures
Structure and culture
Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds
Known threats and vulnerabilities
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?
Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology
Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet
Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage
Developing training and awareness campaigns
Scanning the Internet for unauthorized usage of the enterprise's brand proactively identifies fraudulent activities and enables timely response. This aligns withBrand Protection and Risk Mitigationstrategies.
A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?
Monitor the databases for abnormal activity
Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating
Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities
Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is
Cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection are two common types of web application attacks that can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems. XSS allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users, while SQL injection allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a database server by manipulating the input parameters of a web application. Both attacks can result in data theft, unauthorized access, defacement, denial of service, and more.
To mitigate these attacks, the best option is to require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities by applying secure coding practices, such as input validation, output encoding, parameterized queries, and HTML sanitization. These techniques can prevent or limit the impact of XSS and SQL injection by ensuring that user input is not interpreted as code or commands by the web browser or the database server. The software vendor should also provide regular updates and patches to fix any known or newly discovered vulnerabilities.
The other options are not effective or acceptable ways to mitigate these attacks. Monitoring the databases for abnormal activity can help detect and respond to SQL injection attacks, but it does not prevent them from happening or address the root cause of the vulnerability. Approving an exception to allow the software to continue operating can expose the organization to unnecessary risks and liabilities, as well as violate compliance requirements and standards. Accepting the risk and letting the vendor run the software as is can also have serious consequences for the organization, as it implies that the potential impact and likelihood of the attacks are low or acceptable, which may not be the case. References =
IT Risk Resources | ISACA
CRISC Certification | Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control | ISACA
Cross Site Scripting Prevention Cheat Sheet - OWASP
A novel technique to prevent SQL injection and cross-site scripting attacks using Knuth-Morris-Pratt string match algorithm | EURASIP Journal on Information Security | Full Text
Difference Between XSS and SQL Injection - GeeksforGeeks
Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Historical data availability
Implementation and reporting effort
Ability to display trends
Sensitivity and reliability
Sensitivity and reliability are the most important criteria for selecting KRIs, as they indicate how well the KRIs reflect the changes in the risk level and how consistent and accurate the KRIs are in measuring the risk.Sensitivity means that the KRIs should respond quickly and proportionally to the variations in the risk exposure, and provide early warning signals of potential risk events. Reliability means that the KRIs should be based on valid and verifiable data sources, and produce consistent and comparable results over time and across different units or functions. Historical data availability, implementation and reporting effort, and ability to display trends are also useful criteria, but they are not as critical as sensitivity and reliability.
Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?
Vulnerability scanning
Continuous monitoring and alerting
Configuration management
Access controls and active logging
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the consistency and integrity of the IT systems and applications throughout their lifecycle. Configuration management involves identifying, documenting, controlling, and auditing the configuration items, such as hardware, software, data, or services, that comprise the IT systems and applications. Configuration management also involves establishing and enforcing the configuration baselines, which are the approved and authorized states of the configuration items. Implementing configuration management will best help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it will enable the enterprise to verify that the systems meet the specified requirements, standards, and policies, and to detect and correct any deviations or discrepancies. The other options are not as effective as configuration management, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the IT systems and applications:
Vulnerability scanning is a process that identifies and analyzes the weaknesses or gaps in the IT systems and applications that could be exploited by threats. Vulnerability scanning helps to assessthe security and compliance of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not cover all the aspects or components of the systems, or may not reflect the latest changes or updates of the systems.
Continuous monitoring and alerting is a process that tracks and reports the performance and status of the IT systems and applications on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring and alerting helps to identify and respond to any issues or incidents that affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not prevent or detect the unauthorized or unintended changes or modifications of the systems, or may not provide sufficient information or evidence to verify the compliance of the systems.
Access controls and active logging are processes that restrict and record the access and activities of the users or entities on the IT systems and applications. Access controls and active logging help to protect and audit the IT systems and applications, but they do not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as they may not address the configuration or quality issues of the systems, or may not be consistent or comprehensive across the systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.
Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?
Regional competitors' policies and standards
Ability to monitor and enforce compliance
Industry-standard templates
Differences in regulatory requirements
Differences in regulatory requirements are the most important factor for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards. This is because different countries or regions may have different laws, regulations, or standards that govern the protection of information and data, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the United States, or the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada. A multinational organization must comply with the applicable regulatoryrequirements in each jurisdiction where it operates, or it may face legal, financial, or reputational risks. Therefore, the organization should develop its security policies and standards in a way that meets or exceeds the minimum regulatory requirements, and also aligns with its business objectives and risk appetite. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key elements of IT governance is to ensure compliance withexternal laws and regulations1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, differences in regulatory requirements is the correct answer to this question2.
Regional competitors’ policies and standards, ability to monitor and enforce compliance, and industry-standard templates are not the most important factors for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards. These factors may be useful or relevant, but they are not as critical or mandatory as the differences in regulatory requirements. Regional competitors’ policies and standards may provide some insights or benchmarks, but theymay not reflect the organization’s specific needs or risks. Ability to monitor and enforce compliance is an important aspect of implementing and maintaining security policies and standards, but it does not determine the content or scope of the policies and standards. Industry-standard templates may offer some guidance or best practices, but they may not cover all the regulatory requirements or the organization’s unique circumstances.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when analyzing the risk associated with migrating to a new cloud service provider?
The cloud service provider's control environment
The complexity of the cloud services
The date of the cloud service provider's last risk assessment
Past incidents related to acquired cloud services
Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?
Data encryption
Continuous log monitoring
Right to audit
Data obfuscation
Data encryption is the best method to protect organizational data within a production cloud environment, as it ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data. Data encryption is the process oftransforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm, so that only authorized parties can access and decrypt the data. Data encryption can protect data at rest (stored in the cloud) and data in transit (transferred over the network) from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion by malicious actors or accidental errors. Data encryption can also help organizations comply with legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements for data protection and privacy, such as GDPR, CCPA, and PCI DSS.
An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?
Detective
Directive
Preventive
Compensating
The type of control that has been applied when an organization provides legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations is directive. A directive control is a control that guides or instructs the users or the staff on the policies, procedures, or standards that they need to follow or comply with when performing their tasks or activities. A directive control can help to prevent or reduce the risk of non-compliance, errors, or violations, by ensuring that the users or the staff are aware and informed of the expectations and requirements of the organization or the system. A directive control can also help to enforce the accountability and responsibility of the users or the staff, and to support the audit and monitoring of their actions and behaviors. Providing legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations is an example of a directive control, as it informs the users of the legal obligations and consequences of using the system, and instructs them on how to protect their privacy and the privacy of others. Detective, preventive, and compensating are not the correct types of control, as they do not match the definition or the purpose of the control that has been applied. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?
The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts
The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk
A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts
The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls1. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient2. Therefore, the most appropriate owner for a newly identified IT risk is the individual who has the authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk, asthey have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The other options are not the most appropriate owners for a newly identified IT risk, as they may not have the authority or the accountability to manage the risk. The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts may have the operational responsibility or the oversight of the risk management activities, but they may not have the authority to allocate the resources or approve the risk response. A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts may have the project management skills or the knowledge of the risk management process, but they may not have the accountability or the ownership of the risk or its outcomes. The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge may have the technical expertise or the understanding of the risk and its causes, but they may not have the decision-making power or the responsibility to manage the risk or its controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 822
A business is conducting a proof of concept on a vendor's Al technology. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for managing risk?
Use of a non-production environment
Adequate vendor support
Third-party management plan
Regular security updates
An organization uses an automated vulnerability scanner to identify potential vulnerabilities on various enterprise systems. Who is accountable for ensuring the vulnerabilities are mitigated?
Data owners
Information security manager
System administrators
System owners
System owners hold ultimate accountability for managing risks associated with their systems, including vulnerability mitigation.
ISACA CRISC defines:
“The system owner is responsible for ensuring that security controls are implemented and that vulnerabilities identified in their systems are addressed.”
System administrators perform mitigation activities, but accountability (oversight and confirmation) remains with the system owner.
A: Data owners focus on data classification.
B: InfoSec managers oversee policy, not execution.
C: Admins implement controls but don’t own the risk.
D is correct because ownership equates to accountability.
CRISC Reference: Domain 1 – IT Risk Governance, Topic: Roles and Responsibilities in Risk Management.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?
A reduction in the number of help desk calls
An increase in the number of identified system flaws
A reduction in the number of user access resets
An increase in the number of incidents reported
A security awareness training program is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches12.
A risk-aware culture is a culture that values and promotes the understanding and management of risks, and encourages the behaviors and actions that support the organization’s risk objectives and strategy34.
The best indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees is an increase in the number of incidents reported, which is the frequency or rate of security incidents that are detected and communicated by the employees to the appropriate authorities or channels56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is the best indication because it shows that the employees have gained the awareness and confidence to recognize and report the security incidents that may affect the organization, and that they have the responsibility and accountability to contribute to the organization’s risk management and security posture56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is also the best indication because it enables the organization to respond and recover from the security incidents more quickly and effectively, and to prevent or reduce the recurrence or escalation of similar incidents in the future56.
The other options are not the best indication, but rather possible outcomes or consequences of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program. For example:
A reduction in the number of help desk calls is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more self-reliant and proficient in solving or preventing the common or minor IT issues or problems . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may be more serious or complex .
An increase in the number of identified system flaws is a consequence of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more vigilant and proactive in finding and reporting the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the IT systems or processes . However, this consequence does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may exploit or leverage the system flaws .
A reduction in the number of user access resets is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more careful and responsible in managing and protecting their user credentials or accounts . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may compromise or misuse the user access . References =
1: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US5
2: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky6
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Security Incident Reporting and Response, University of Toronto, 2017
6: Security Incident Reporting and Response, ISACA, 2019
IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2018
IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Now Blog, February 12, 2018
System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, University of Toronto, 2017
System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, ISACA, 2019
User Access Management and Control, University of Toronto, 2017
User Access Management and Control, ISACA, 2019
Business information security officer
Service level manager
Business process manager
Data center operations manager
The business process manager is best suited to own business continuity controls because they have direct responsibility for the continuity of the business process and understand the criticality of maintaining operations during disruptions. While security officers and operations managers have important roles, the business process manager is accountable for ensuring the process continues to meet business objectives and should lead continuity efforts【5:513, 5:514†CRISC_SentenceinNOTE30.pptx】.
An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:
data aggregation
data privacy
data quality
data validation
The primary concern for an organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider is data privacy. Data privacy is the protection of personal information fromunauthorized or unlawful access, use, disclosure, or transfer. Data privacy is governed by various laws, regulations, and standards that vary across different jurisdictions and sectors. An organization that transfers and stores its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should ensure that the data privacy rights and obligations of the customers, the organization, and the cloud service provider are clearly defined and agreed upon, and that the data is protected according to the applicable data privacy requirements. An organization should also conduct due diligence and risk assessment on the offshore cloud service provider, and monitor and audit its performance and compliance on a regular basis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 127123
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining key performance indicators (KPIs) for a process?
Historical trends in process-related incidents
Known problems with the process
Success criteria for the process
Alignment with established industry frameworks
Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?
Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.
Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.
Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.
Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).
The most important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring is to validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk, as it involves verifying and testing the adequacy and performance of the controls, and identifying any control gaps or deficiencies that may affect the risk level and response. The other options are not the most important courses of action, as they are more related to the evaluation, confirmation, or analysis of the risk profile, compliance, or indicators, respectively, rather than the validation of the control effectiveness. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?
Risk assessment
Risk reporting
Risk mitigation
Risk identification
SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) is used in the riskidentification phase to comprehensively analyze the organization's internal and externalenvironments. By understanding strengths and weaknesses, internal risks can be identified, while opportunities and threats help to identify external risks. This method provides a foundation for proactive risk management.
Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?
Threat to IT
Number of control failures
Impact on business
Risk ownership
Ineffective control implementation can result in increased risk exposure, reduced compliance, and diminished performance for the organization. Therefore, the most relevant information for stakeholders is the impact of ineffective control implementation on the business objectives, processes, and outcomes. The impact on business can include financial losses, reputational damage, operational inefficiencies, customer dissatisfaction, and legal liabilities. The other options are not as relevant as the impact on business, because they do not directly link the control effectiveness to the business value. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 128.
After a business unit implemented an Internet of Things (IoT) solution, the organization became aware of an emerging risk from the interoperability of IoT devices. Which of the following should be done FIRST in response to this situation?
Implement new controls.
Update the risk profile.
Re-evaluate the risk tolerance.
Inform executive leadership.
The first step in response to an identified risk is updating the risk profile to reflect the new exposure. This informs further actions such as treatment planning or tolerance reassessment.
An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.
Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.
Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.
Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.
Assessing the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision is the best recommendation for the risk practitioner, because it helps to balance the benefits and drawbacks of using real data for the proof of concept (POC) of a security tool. A POC is a demonstration or trial of a proposed solution or product to verify its feasibility, functionality, and value. A security tool is a software or hardware device that helps to protect the IT systems or networks from threats or attacks. Using production data for testing purposes can yield the best results, as it reflects the actual data that the security tool will handle in the operational environment. However, using production data for testing also poses risks, such as data leakage, data corruption, data privacy violation, or regulatory non-compliance. Therefore, assessing the risk ofusing production data for testing before making a decision is the best recommendation, as it helps to identify and evaluate the potential risks and issues, and to determine the appropriate controls or mitigating factors to reduce or eliminate them. Accepting the risk of using the production data, benchmarking against what peer organizations are doing, and denying the request are all possible recommendations, but they are not the best recommendation, as they do not consider the risk assessment process and the trade-offs involved in using production data for testing. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 208
Which of the following BEST indicates that a control has been implemented successfully?
The control implementation has been signed off by management.
The residual risk within the organization has been reduced.
The inherent risk is within the organization's risk appetite.
The control has been documented in business process maps.
CRISC defines control success by its ability to reduce residual risk. Management sign-off and documentation indicate administrative completion but do not confirm effectiveness. Inherent risk—risk without controls—cannot be changed by implementation and therefore is not an indicator of success. Only when residual risk decreases (either through reduced impact, reduced likelihood, or both) can a control be confirmed as effective. This aligns with risk treatment goals and risk appetite alignment, making residual risk reduction the definitive measurement of successful control implementation.
Which of the following is the BEST way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management's action plan?
Survey device owners.
Rescan the user environment.
Require annual end user policy acceptance.
Review awareness training assessment results
The best way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management’s action plan is to rescan the user environment, as it provides an objective and reliable way to measure and verify the effectiveness and adequacy of the controls, and to detect any remaining or new vulnerabilities. Surveying device owners, requiring annual end user policy acceptance, and reviewing awareness training assessment results are not the best ways, as they may not provide sufficient assurance, evidence, or timeliness of the control validation, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Winch of the following is the BEST evidence of an effective risk treatment plan?
The inherent risk is below the asset residual risk.
Remediation cost is below the asset business value
The risk tolerance threshold s above the asset residual
Remediation is completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO)
The best evidence of an effective risk treatment plan is that the risk tolerance threshold is above the asset residual risk, because this means that the risk treatment plan has reduced the risk to a level that is acceptable to the enterprise. The risk tolerance threshold is the maximum amount of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept for a given asset or process. The asset residual risk is the remaining risk after applying the risk treatment plan. The risk treatment plan is effective if the asset residual risk is lower than or equal to the risk tolerance threshold. The other options are not the best evidence, although they may also be indicators of an effective risk treatment plan. The inherent risk being below the asset residual risk, the remediation cost being below the asset business value, and the remediation being completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO) are examples of desirable or expected outcomes of the risk treatment plan, but they do not directly measure the effectiveness of the risk treatment plan. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to report on changes or trends related to an organization's IT risk profile?
To benchmark against a risk management framework
To predict external regulatory changes
To adapt to emerging threats
To reduce the cost of performing control activities
As the threat landscape evolves, reporting on IT risk profile trends enables the organization tostay proactive. It helps ensure controls and strategies remain effective againstnew or increasing threats.
Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?
The effectiveness of compensating controls
The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss
The residual risk affected by preventive controls
The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. One of the elements of risk appetite is the enterprise’s capacity to absorb loss, which is the maximum amount of loss that an organization can withstand without jeopardizing its existence or strategic objectives. The effectiveness of compensating controls, the residual risk affected by preventive controls, and the amount of inherent risk considered appropriate are not elements of risk appetite, but rather factors that influence the risk assessment and responseprocesses. References = [CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version)], page 41; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, question 196.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?
Costs and benefits
Local laws and regulations
Security features and support
Business strategies and needs
Local laws and regulations should be the primary consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (IoT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII), because they define the legal and ethical obligations and boundaries for the protection and privacy of PII, and the potential consequences of non-compliance or violation. IoT devices are devices that are connected to the internet and can collect, transmit, or process data, such as smart watches, cameras, sensors, or appliances. PII is information that can be used to identify, locate, or contact an individual, such as name, address, phone number, or email address. PII is considered sensitive and confidential, and may be subject to various laws and regulations that govern how it should be collected, processed, stored, shared, or disposed, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. Therefore, local laws and regulations should be the primary consideration, as they provide the legal and ethical framework and guidance for the use of IoT devices to collect and process PII, and the potential risks and impacts of non-compliance or violation. Costs and benefits, security features and support, and business strategies and needs are all possible considerations when assessing the risk of using IoT devices to collect and process PII, but they are not the primary consideration, as they may vary or conflict depending on the situation or context, and may not override the local laws and regulations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting risk and control self-assessments?
To better understand inherent and residual risk within the organization
To gain objective insight into the effectiveness and efficiency of controls
To demonstrate compliance with regulatory and legal control requirements
To facilitate timely and accurate updates to the risk register
Risk and control self-assessments (RCSAs) are designed to helpbusiness units evaluate their own risks and controls, leading to a deeperunderstanding of inherent and residual riskand more accurate risk profiles.
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?
Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.
Communicate to those who test and promote changes.
Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.
Assess the maturity of the change management process.
A change management process is a set of procedures and activities that ensure that any changes to the IT systems or applications are planned, approved, tested, implemented, and documented in a consistent and controlled manner.
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. This means that the process has been improved or modified to include new or additional steps or methods for verifying and validating the changes before they are deployed to the production environment.
The next course of action after updating the change management process with new testing procedures is to communicate to those who test and promote changes. This means that the change management team or function should inform and educate the people who are involved or affected by the changes, such as the developers, testers, users, customers, etc., about the new testing procedures, their purpose, benefits, requirements, and expectations.
Communicating to those who test and promote changes helps to ensure that the new testing procedures are understood and followed by all the parties, that the changes are tested and promoted in accordance with the process standards and criteria, and that the changes are delivered with the expected quality and performance.
The other options are not the next courses of action after updating the change management process with new testing procedures. They are either secondary or not essential for change management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 27
Information Technology & Security, page 21
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 19
Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?
The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident
The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.
The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.
The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.
The greatest concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization is that the risk profile was last reviewed two years ago. A risk profile is a snapshot of the current risk exposure and appetite of the organization, based on the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the risks that could affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. A risk profile should be reviewed and updated regularly, atleast annually, or whenever there are significant changes in the internal or external environment, such as new projects, strategies, regulations, or incidents. A risk profile that was last reviewed two years ago may not reflect the current risk situation and status of the organization, and may lead to inaccurate or incomplete risk assessment and response. The risk profile not being updated after a recent incident, the risk profile being developed without using industry standards, and the risk profile not containing historical loss data are also concerns, but they are not as critical as the risk profile being outdated. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 48.
Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?
Compliance manager
Data privacy manager
System administrator
Human resources (HR) manager
The data privacy manager is the best person to an application system used to process employee personal data, because they are responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the applicable data protection laws and regulations, and that the personal data of employees are collected, stored, processed, and disposed of in a secure and ethical manner. The data privacy manager is also responsible for establishing and maintaining the data privacy policies, procedures, and controls, and for conducting data privacy impact assessments and audits. The compliance manager, the system administrator, and the human resources (HR) manager are all involved in the of the application system, but they are not the best person to it, as they do not have the primary accountability and expertise for data privacy. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
A risk practitioner has learned that the number of emergency change management tickets without subsequent approval has doubled from the same period of the previous year. Which of the following is the MOST important action for the risk practitioner to take?
Review the cause of the control failure.
Temporarily suspend emergency changes.
Recommend remedial training.
Initiate a review of the change management process.
An increase in emergency changes without proper approval indicates potential weaknesses in the change management process. Initiating a comprehensive review helps identify root causes, assess control effectiveness, and implement necessary improvements to prevent recurrence.
After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:
record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.
validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.
reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.
perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.
According to the LDR514: Security Strategic Planning, Policy, and Leadership Course, after mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the next course of action should be to validate the risk scenarios for business applicability. This is because generic risk scenarios are not specific to the organization’s context, objectives, and environment, and they may not capture the unique threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that the organization faces. Therefore, validating the risk scenarios for business applicability will help to ensure that the risk scenarios are relevant, realistic, and consistent with the organization’s security policies. Validating the risk scenarios will also help to identify any gaps, overlaps, or conflicts between the risk scenarios and the security policies, and to resolve themaccordingly. References = LDR514: Security Strategic Planning, Policy, and Leadership Course, Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?
To enable risk-based decision making
To promote awareness of the risk governance function
To clarify fundamental risk management principles
To ensure sufficient resources are available
The primary objective of a risk awareness training program is to enable risk-based decision making, which means making decisions that take into account the potential risks and opportunities associated with each option. A risk awareness training program should aim to develop a common understanding of risk across multiple functions and business units, achieve a better understanding of risk for competitive advantage, and build safeguards against earnings-related surprises1. A risk awareness training program should also cover the basics of risk management, such as the risk management process, the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders, the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and the tools and techniques for identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks234. A risk awareness training program should also include practical examples and case studies to illustrate how risk management can beapplied in different scenarios and contexts5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.11: Risk Awareness, pp. 34-354
A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?
Business analyst
Project sponsor
IT project team
IT project management office (PMO)
Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?
Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.
Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.
Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.
Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.
•A risk treatment plan is a document that describes the actions and resources needed to implement the chosen risk response strategy for each identified risk1. A risk response strategy is the way an organization decides to address a risk, such as avoiding, accepting, mitigating, or transferring it2.
•Sometimes, a risk treatment plan may not be completed on time due to various reasons, such as delays, resource constraints, technical issues, or changes in the risk environment. In such cases, the best approach is to implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed3.
•Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that provide a similar level of assurance or protection as the original controls, when the latter are not feasible or sufficient3. Compensating controls can help to reduce the residual risk or maintain the risk within the acceptable level until the risk treatment plan is fully executed3.
•For example, if the risk treatment plan involves installing a firewall to protect the network from external threats, but the firewall is not available or compatible with the current system, a compensating control could be to use encryption, authentication, or monitoring tools to secure the network traffic until the firewall is installed3.
•Implementing compensating controls is better than the other options because it allows the organization to continue with the risk treatment plan while maintaining an adequate level of security and compliance. The other options are not advisable for the following reasons:
oReplacing the action owner with a more experienced individual (option A) may not solve the problem if the issue is not related to the action owner’s competence or performance. Moreover, replacing the action owner may cause disruption, confusion, or conflict in the risk management process.
oChanging the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance (option C) may not be possible or desirable if the risk is associated with a critical or beneficial activity or process. Risk avoidance means eliminating the source of the risk or discontinuing the activity that causes the risk2. This may result in losing opportunities, benefits, or value for the organization.
oDeveloping additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed (option D) may not be effective or efficient if the existing KRIs are already sufficient to monitor and measure the risk. KRIs are metrics or data points that provide early warning signals or information about the level or trend of a risk456. Developing additional KRIs may not reduce therisk or improve the risk treatment plan, but may increase the complexity and cost of the risk management process.
References =
•Key Risk Indicators: Examples & Definitions - SolveXia
•Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
•Complete Guide to Key Risk Indicators — RiskOptics
•Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips
•Risk response strategies: mitigation, transfer, avoidance, acceptance - Twproject: project management software,resource management, time tracking, planning, Gantt, kanban
•Risk Response Strategies: A Guide to Navigating Uncertainty - Teamly
•Compensating Controls | Audit and Compliance | Pathlock
From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure when risk management policies are being updated to facilitate the pursuit of new opportunities?
Updates align with strategic business objectives.
Updates will be approved by the risk owners.
Updates align with industry standards and benchmarks.
Updates will be reviewed periodically to ensure compliance.
Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering?
Automated controls
Security awareness training
Multifactor authentication
Employee sanctions
The best control to reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering is security awareness training. Security awareness training is a program that educates and trains employees on the common types, techniques, and indicators of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, baiting, pretexting, and quid pro quo12. Security awareness training also teaches employees how to protect themselves and the organization from social engineering attacks, such as by verifying the identity and legitimacy of the sender or caller, avoiding clicking on suspicious links or attachments, reporting any suspicious or unusual activity, and following the organization’s security policies and procedures. Security awareness training can help to reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering, because it can increase the employees’ knowledge, skills, and confidence in recognizing and responding to social engineering attempts, and it can also foster a culture of security and responsibility among the employees. The other options are not the best control, although they may be useful or complementary to security awareness training. Automated controls are technical or procedural controls that are performed by a system or a device without human intervention, such as firewalls, antivirus software, encryption, and backups. Automated controls can help to protect the network from external or internal threats, but they may not be effective against social engineering attacks, which rely on humaninteraction and manipulation.Multifactor authentication is a security mechanism that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity and access a system or a service, such as a password, a token, a fingerprint, or a facial recognition. Multifactor authentication can help to prevent unauthorized access to the network, but it may not prevent social engineering attacks, which may persuade users to share or compromise their authentication factors. Employee sanctions are disciplinary actions that are taken against employees who violate the organization’s security policies and procedures, such as warnings, fines, suspensions, or terminations. Employee sanctions can help to deter and punish employees who fall victim to or facilitate social engineering attacks, but they may not prevent or reduce the likelihood of social engineering attacks, and they may also create a negative or fearful work environment. References = Avoiding Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks | CISA, What is Social Engineering | Attack Techniques & Prevention Methods …, 10 Types of Social Engineering Attacks - CrowdStrike
Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?
Solutions for eradicating emerging threats
Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats
Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)
Source and identity of attackers
•External sources of emerging threats are sources that provide information about the latest cyberattacks, hacking techniques, malware, and vulnerabilities that can affect an organization’s IT systems and data. Examples of external sources are security blogs, forums, newsletters, reports, and alerts from reputable organizations such as ISACA, Imperva, Aura, and BitSight123.
•The most useful information an organization can obtain from external sources is the indicators for detecting the presence of threats. Indicators are observable signs or patterns that can help identify, prevent, or mitigate cyberattacks. Examples of indicators are IP addresses, domain names, file hashes, network traffic, system logs, and user behavior4.
•Indicators for detecting the presence of threats are more useful than the other options because they can help an organization to:
oMonitor and analyze its IT environment for any suspicious or malicious activity
oRespond quickly and effectively to any potential or actual incidents
oReduce the impact and damage of cyberattacks
oImprove its security posture and resilience
•Solutions for eradicating emerging threats are not the most useful information because they may not be applicable or effective for every organization, depending on its specific context, needs,and resources. Moreover, solutions may not be available or known for some new or sophisticated threats.
•Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats is not the most useful information because it does not help an organization to identify or prevent cyberattacks. Cost is only one factor to consider when deciding how to manage IT risk, and it may not reflect the true value or impact of the threats.
•Source and identity of attackers are not the most useful information because they may not be relevant or accurate for every organization. Source and identity of attackers are often difficult to trace or verify, and they may not affect the organization’s risk level or response strategy.
References =
•Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Identification, pp. 83-84
•Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12 Month Subscription, ISACA, 2020, Question ID: 100000
Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?
Perform a risk assessment.
Perform root cause analysis.
Initiate disciplinary action.
Update the incident response plan.
An incident is an unplanned event that disrupts or degrades the normal operation or performance of an IT service, system, or network1. An incident can cause various negative impacts, such as service outages, data losses, security breaches, or customer dissatisfaction2. An incident can recur if the underlying cause or problem of the incident is not properly identified and resolved3.
The best course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring is to perform root cause analysis. Root cause analysis is a systematic process of finding and eliminating the fundamental cause or problem that led to the incident4. Root cause analysis can help to:
Prevent or minimize the recurrence of the incident by addressing the source of the problem, not just the symptoms or effects
Identify and implement corrective or preventive actions that can effectively resolve or mitigate the problem
Learn from the incident and improve the IT service, system, or network quality and reliability
Enhance the incident management and problem management processes and capabilities5
References = What is an Incident?, Incident Management - Wikipedia, Problem Management - Wikipedia, Root Cause Analysis - Wikipedia, Root Cause Analysis: A Guide for Business Leaders
A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?
Key risk indicators (KRls)
Inherent risk
Residual risk
Risk appetite
Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls to mitigate the inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before considering the controls. Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metricsthat measure the level and impact of risks. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. The failure of the data loss prevention (DLP) system to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data would most impact the residual risk, because it would increase the likelihood and impact of data leakage, data loss, and data exfiltration incidents. These incidents could cause financial, reputational, legal, and regulatory damages to the organization. The failure of the DLP system would also affect the KRIs, as they would show a higher level of risk exposure and a lower level of control effectiveness. However, the KRIs are not the risk itself, but rather the indicators of the risk. The failure of the DLP system would not directly impact the inherent risk or the risk appetite, as they are independent of the controls. The inherent risk would remain the same, as it is based on the nature and value of the data and the threats and vulnerabilities that exist. The risk appetite would also remain the same, as it is based on the organization’s culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Therefore, the most impacted factor would be the residual risk, as it reflects the actual risk level that the organization faces after applying the controls. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:
operational management.
the risk practitioner.
the internal auditor.
executive management.
According to the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with the operational management, which forms the first line of defense. The operational management is the function that owns and manages risk as part of their accountability for achieving objectives. They are responsible for identifying, assessing, mitigating, and reportingon risks and controls within their areas ofoperation. They are also responsible for implementing and maintaining effective internal controls and ensuring compliance with policies, standards, and regulations.
The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:
assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.
confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.
verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.
ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.
The primary objective for requiring an independent review of an organization’s IT risk management process should be to assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategicfocus, as this helps to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the current process, and to provide recommendations for improvement and alignment with the enterprise’s objectives and environment. An independent review is an objective and unbiased evaluation of the IT risk management process by a qualified and competent party that is not involved in the process. An independent review can help to ensure the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of the IT risk management process, as well as to enhance the credibility and confidence of the process. Confirming that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact, verifying implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization, and ensuring IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk are not the primary objectives for requiring an independent review of an organization’s IT risk management process, but rather the expected outcomes or benefits of the independent review. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question219; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 219.
Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?
Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios
IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team
Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.
IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how IT-related events or incidents could adversely affect an organization’s objectives, assets, or operations. IT risk scenarios can help to identify, analyze, and prioritize IT risks, and to develop appropriate responses and controls1.
An enterprise-wide risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant risks that an organization faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. An enterprise-wide risk register can help to provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the organization’s risk profile, and to support the decision making and reporting of the risk management function2.
The best practice that facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register is to develop IT risk scenarios in the context of organizational objectives. This means that IT risk scenarios should be aligned with and derived from the organization’s strategic goals, mission, vision, and values. IT risk scenarios should also consider the interdependenciesand interactions between IT and other business domains, and the potential impact of IT risks on the organization’s performance and reputation3.
By developing IT risk scenarios in the context of organizational objectives, the organization can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are relevant, realistic, and meaningful for the enterprise-wide risk management. The organization can also ensure that the IT risk scenarios are consistent and comparable with other types of risk scenarios, such as financial, operational, or reputational risk scenarios. This can facilitate the integration and consolidation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register, and enable a holistic and balanced assessment and reporting of the organization’s risks4.
The other options are not as effective as developing IT risk scenarios in the context of organizational objectives for incorporating IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register. Developing key risk indicators (KRIs) for key IT risk scenarios can help to monitor and measure the IT risk exposure and performance, but it does not ensure that the IT risk scenarios are aligned with the organizational objectives or integrated with other risk scenarios. Assessing IT risk scenarios by the enterprise risk management team can help to validate and prioritize the IT risk scenarios, but it does not ensure that the IT risk scenarios are derived from the organizational objectives or consistent with other risk scenarios. Approving risk appetites for IT risk scenarios by key business stakeholders can help to establish the acceptable level of IT risk taking andtolerance, but it does not ensure that the IT risk scenarios are based on the organizational objectives or comparable with other risk scenarios. References =
IT Risk Scenario Development - ISACA
Risk Register - ISACA
Identifying Risks and Scenarios Threatening the Organization as an Enterprise - A New Enterprise Risk Identification Framework
Risk Register 2021-2022 - UNECE
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:
risk appetite.
security policies
process maps.
risk tolerance level
When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should first focus on IT risk appetite, which is the amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its IT objectives, before action is deemed necessary to reduce the risk1. IT risk appetite reflects the organization’s IT risk attitude and its willingness to accept risk in specific scenarios, with a governance model in place for IT risk oversight. IT risk appetite helps to guide the organization’s approach to IT risk and IT risk management, and to align its IT risk decisions with its business objectives and context. The other options are not the best answers, as they are either derived from or dependent on the IT risk appetite. IT security policies are the rules and guidelines that define the organization’s IT security objectives, requirements, and responsibilities, and they are based on the IT risk appetite. IT process maps are the graphical representations of the IT processes, activities, and tasks that support the organization’s IT objectives, and they are influenced by the IT risk appetite. IT risk tolerance level is the acceptable variation between the IT risk thresholds and the IT objectives, and it is determined by the IT risk appetite. References = IT Risk Resources | ISACA; RiskAppetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference?; IT Risk Management - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics; IT Risk Management Framework - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:
map findings to objectives.
provide quantified detailed analysis
recommend risk tolerance thresholds.
quantify key risk indicators (KRls).
The best way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to map findings to objectives, because this would help them understand how the identified risks affect theachievement of the organization’s goals and priorities. Mapping findings to objectives would also help senior management evaluate the trade-offs between different risk responses and allocate resources accordingly. By linking risks to objectives, the risk practitioner can communicate the value and impact of risk management in a clear and relevant way. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 17
Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?
Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates
Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions
Number of termination requests processed per reporting period
Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates
The effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process can be measured by the number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates, as this indicates how quickly and completely the organisation can revoke the privileges of former employees and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions is a measure of the efficiency of the IT department, but not the overall process. The number of termination requests processed per reporting period is a measure of the volume of the process, but not the quality or timeliness. The number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates is a measure of the performance of the HR department, but not the entire process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 152.
A PRIMARY objective of disaster recovery is to:
Improve infrastructure of physical locations
Restore critical business and IT services
Recover financial data and statements
Maintain operational processes and connectivity
Disaster Recovery (DR) focuses on restoring IT and business services to support essential operations after a disruption.
ISACA defines:
“The primary objective of disaster recovery is the timely restoration of critical IT systems and services necessary to support business operations.”
Recovery of financial records or facilities are secondary components.
Therefore, B. Restore critical business and IT services is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 3 – Risk Response and Mitigation, Topic: Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning.
A risk practitioner is evaluating policies defined by an organization as part of its IT security framework. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?
Lack of alignment with global security standards
Inadequate policy enforcement
Lack of a single repository for security procedures
Increased cost for policy adoption
CRISC emphasizes that the effectiveness of policies depends on enforcement. Even well-written, standards-aligned policies have no value if they are not consistently followed. Lack of enforcement allows inconsistent behavior, increases control breakdowns, and undermines risk governance. Alignment with global standards is beneficial but not essential for effectiveness. A missing repository creates administrative inefficiencies but does not directly increase risk. Higher cost is a business consideration but not a risk governance concern. Insufficient enforcement is the most critical issue because it directly leads to risk exposure and control failure.
A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:
reduces risk to an acceptable level
quantifies risk impact
aligns with business strategy
advances business objectives.
The primary focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan should be that the risk response reduces risk to an acceptable level. A risk response action plan is a document that describes the actions or measures that are taken or planned to modify the risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk1. Validating a risk response action plan means verifying whether the plan is feasible, effective, and efficient in addressing the risk2. The main objective of validating a risk response action plan is to ensure that the risk response reduces risk to an acceptable level, which is the level of risk that the organization is willing to tolerate or bear, based on its risk appetite and risk criteria3. Reducing risk to an acceptable level means that the risk response actions can lower the likelihood or impact of the risk to a point where the risk does not pose a significant threat or challenge to the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance. Reducing risk to an acceptable level also means that the risk response actions can balance the benefits and costs of the risk response, and that they can provide a reasonable assurance of the risk management effectiveness and efficiency4. The other options are not the primary focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan, as they are either less relevant or less specific than reducing risk to an acceptable level. Quantifying risk impact is a component or element of validating a risk response action plan, notafocus of it. Quantifying risk impact means measuring or estimating the potential effects or consequences of the risk on the organization5. Quantifying risk impact can help to evaluate the severity and priority of the risk, as well as to compare the risk against the risk criteria and the risk appetite. However, quantifying risk impact is not the primary focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan, as it does not address the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the risk response actions, or the level of risk reduction that they can achieve. Aligning with business strategy is a secondary or incidental benefit of validating a risk response action plan, not a primary or essential focus of it. Aligning with business strategy means ensuring that the risk response actions are consistent and coherent with the organization’s goals and values6. Aligning with business strategy can help to integrate the risk response actions with the organization’s culture and governance, as well as to support and enable the achievement of the organization’s mission and vision. However, aligning with business strategy is not the main focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan, as it does not indicate the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the risk response actions, or the level of risk reduction that they can achieve. Advancing business objectives is a tertiary or indirect outcome of validating a risk response action plan, not a primary or direct focus of it. Advancing business objectives means contributing to the improvement and enhancement of the organization’s performance and results7. Advancing business objectives can help to create value and deliver benefits for the organization and its stakeholders, as well as to optimize the use of the organization’s resources and capabilities. However, advancing business objectives is not the main focus of a risk practitioner when validating a risk response action plan, as it does not address the feasibility, effectiveness, or efficiency of the risk response actions, or the level of risk reduction that they can achieve. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?
Obsolete response documentation
Increased stakeholder turnover
Failure to audit third-party providers
Undefined assignment of responsibility
The most significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan is the undefined assignment of responsibility. An incident response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for responding to an incident that could disrupt the normal operations of the organization, or compromise its assets, reputation, or compliance. An incident response plan should clearly assign the responsibility for each task and activity involved in the incident response process, such as detection, containment, analysis, eradication, recovery, and reporting. Undefined assignment of responsibility could lead to confusion, duplication, conflict, or omission among the stakeholders, and impair the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process. Undefined assignment of responsibility could also increase the risk of escalation, recurrence, or impact of the incident, and affect the accountability and performance of the organization. Obsolete response documentation, increased stakeholder turnover, and failure to audit third-party providers are also risks, but they are not as significant as undefined assignment of responsibility, as they do not directly affect the execution and outcome of the incident response process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing a priority sequence when restoring business processes after a disruption?
Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
Mean Time to Recover (MTTR)
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
RTO defines the acceptable downtime for business processes. It helps determine the order in which services must be restored to minimize business impact.
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives?
The organization has approved policies that provide operational boundaries.
Organizational controls are in place to effectively manage risk appetite.
Environmental changes that impact risk are continually evaluated.
The organization has an approved enterprise architecture (EA) program.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, enterprise architecture (EA) is a comprehensive framework that defines the structure and operation of an organization, including its business processes, information systems, technology infrastructure, organizational structure, and strategic objectives2. An EA program is a set of principles, policies, standards, and guidelines that govern the development and implementation of the EA3. By having an approved EA program, an organization can ensure that its risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives, as the EA provides a clear and consistent vision of the desired state and direction of the organization, as well as the means to achieve and measure it4. The EA also helps to identify and prioritize the risks and opportunities that may affect the organization’s performance and resilience. The other options are not as effective or relevant as option D, as they do not directly relate to the alignment of risk management with organizational goals and objectives. Option A, having approved policies that provide operational boundaries, is more related to the governance and compliance of risk management, not its alignment. Option B, having organizational controls to manage risk appetite, is more related to the implementation and monitoring of risk management, not its alignment. Option C, continually evaluating environmental changes that impact risk, is more related to the identification and assessment of risk management, not its alignment.
An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?
The third party's IT operations manager
The organization's process owner
The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)
The organization's risk practitioner
The organization’s process owner should own the risk of exposing the payroll data due to a control weakness at the third party, because the process owner is the person who is responsible for the business process that generates, uses, or transfers the payroll data. The process owner should also ensure that the third party complies with the contractual obligations and service level agreements that define the expected performance and security standards of the payroll data processing. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not the primary owners of the risk, although they may also be involved in the risk management process. The third party’s IT operations manager, the third party’s chief risk officer (CRO), and the organization’s risk practitioner are examples of secondary owners or stakeholders of the risk, who may provide support, guidance, or oversight to the risk owner, but they are not accountable for the risk or the risk response strategy. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?
Mean time between failures (MTBF)
Mean time to recover (MTTR)
Planned downtime
Unplanned downtime
Mean time between failures (MTBF) is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the average time that a system or component operates without interruption or failure. MTBF is a common metric for reliability and availability of IT services. A higher MTBF indicates a lower frequency of failures and a higher ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, MTBF is one of the KPIs for IT service delivery1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, MTBF is the correct answer to this question2.
Mean time to recover (MTTR), planned downtime, and unplanned downtime are not the best KPIs to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services. MTTR measures the average time that it takes to restore a system or component to normal operation after a failure. Planned downtime measures the scheduled time that a system or component is not available for use due to maintenance or upgrades. Unplanned downtime measures the unscheduled time that a system or component is not available for use due to failures or incidents. These KPIs are useful for measuring the impact and duration of service interruptions, but they do not directly reflect the ability to prevent or avoid service interruptions.
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?
Sensitivity analysis
Level of residual risk
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk appetite
The risk practitioner’s primary focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk should be the level of residual risk, because this indicates the amount and type of risk that remains after applying the controls, and whether it is acceptable or not. Residual risk is the risk that is left over after the risk responseactions have been taken, such as implementing or improving controls. Controls are the measures or actions that are designed and performed to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of a risk event, or to exploit the opportunities that a risk event may create. The adequacy of controls to mitigate risk depends on how well they address the root causes or sources of the risk, and how effectively and efficiently they reduce the risk exposure and value. The level of residual risk reflects the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it shows the gap between the inherent risk and the actual risk, and whether it is within the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. The risk practitioner should focus on the level of residual risk when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk, as it helps to evaluate and compare the benefits and costs of the controls, and to decide on the best risk response strategy, such as accepting, avoiding, transferring, or further reducing the risk. The other options are less important or relevant to focus on when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk. Sensitivity analysis is a technique that measures how the risk value changes when one or more input variables are changed, such as the probability, impact, or control effectiveness. Sensitivity analysis can help to identify and prioritize the most influential or critical variables that affect the risk value, and to test the robustness or reliability of the risk assessment. However, sensitivity analysis does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the risk acceptance criteria. Cost-benefit analysis is a technique that compares the expected benefits and costs of a control or a risk response action, and determines whether it is worthwhile or not. Cost-benefit analysis can help to justify and optimize the investment or resource allocation for the control or the risk response action, and to ensure that it is aligned with the organization’s objectives and value. However, cost-benefit analysis does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the risk acceptance criteria. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite can help to define and communicate the organization’s risk preferences and boundaries, and to guide the risk decision-making and behavior. However, risk appetite does not directly indicate the adequacy of controls to mitigate risk, as it does not measure the level of residual risk or the actual risk performance. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?
Acquisition
Implementation
Initiation
Operation and maintenance
The acquisition phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is the phase where the organization decides to purchase a new IT system from an external vendor or develop it internally. During this phase, the identified risks will most likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs, as the organization will have to balance the cost, quality, functionality, security, and performance of the new IT system. The organization will have to evaluate the different options and alternatives available, and select the one that best meets the business needs and the risk appetite. The other phases of the SDLC are not as likely to involve architecture and design trade-offs, as they are more focused on implementing, testing, deploying, and maintaining the new ITsystem. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
Which of the following BEST prevents unauthorized access to customer personal data transmitted to third-party service providers?
Reviewing and testing service providers' business continuity plans (BCPs)
Ensuring service providers comply with laws and regulations
Implementing and reviewing data sharing controls
Requiring service providers to report privacy breaches
Which of the following is the BEST approach to resolve a disagreement between stakeholders regarding the impact of a potential risk scenario?
Modify the risk scenario to address stakeholder concerns.
Calculate the historical impact of risk occurring at industry peers.
Identify data that could be used to help quantify the risk.
Use the highest value of potential impact suggested by the stakeholders.
What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Risk impact
Risk likelihood
Risk appropriate
Control self-assessments (CSAs)
Risk appetite should be the primary driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs), because it reflects the level of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. KRIs should be aligned with the risk appetite and adjusted accordingly when the risk appetite changes due to internal or external factors. The other options are not the primary drivers, although they may also influence the review and adjustment of KRIs. Risk impact, risk likelihood, and control self-assessments (CSAs) are secondary drivers that depend on the risk appetite. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers
Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?
Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.
Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.
Gather scenarios from senior management.
Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.
IT risk scenarios are the descriptions or representations of the possible or hypothetical situations or events that may cause or result in an IT risk for the organization. IT risk scenarios usually consist of three elements: a threat or source of harm, a vulnerability or weakness, and an impact or consequence.
The best approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios is to map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework, which is an established or recognized model or standard that provides the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization’s IT risk management function. Mapping scenarios to a recognized risk management framework can help the organization to create a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios by providing the following benefits:
It can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization’s IT objectives and needs, and that they support the organization’s IT strategy and culture.
It can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are consistent and compatible with the organization’s IT governance, risk management, and control functions, and that they reflect the organization’s IT risk appetite and tolerance.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and communication of the IT risk scenarios, and for the alignment and integration of the IT risk scenarios with the organization’s IT risk policies and standards.
The other options are not the best approaches to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that mapping scenarios to a recognized risk management framework provides, and they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s IT objectives and needs.
Deriving scenarios from IT risk policies and standards means creating or generating the IT risk scenarios based on the rules or guidelines that define and describe the organization’s IT risk management function, and that specify the expectations and requirements for the organization’s IT risk management function. Deriving scenarios from IT risk policies and standards can help the organization to create a consistent and compliant set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant IT risks that may affect the organization, and it may not support the organization’s IT strategy and culture.
Gathering scenarios from senior management means collecting or obtaining the IT risk scenarios from the senior management or executives that oversee or direct the organization’s IT activities or functions. Gathering scenarios from senior management can help the organization to create a high-level and strategic set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not reflect the operational or technical aspects of the IT risks, and it may not involve the input or feedback from the other stakeholders or parties that are involved or responsible for the IT activities or functions.
Benchmarking scenarios against industry peers means comparing and contrasting the IT risk scenarios with those of other organizations or industry standards, and identifying the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, or threats that may affect the organization’s IT objectives oroperations. Benchmarking scenarios against industry peers can help the organization to create a competitive and innovative set of IT risk scenarios, but it is not the best approach, because it may not be relevant or appropriate for the organization’s IT objectives and needs, and it may not comply with the organization’s IT policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 199
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:
the risk register change log.
evidence of risk acceptance.
control effectiveness test results.
control design documentation.
Reviewing the risk register change log is the best way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed, because it helps to track and monitor the changes and updates that have been made to the risk register, and to verify that the risk response activities have been implemented and closed. A risk register is a document that captures, identifies, assesses and tracks risk as part of the risk management process4. A risk register change log is a record that documents the date, description, and reason for each change or update that is made to the risk register. A risk response activity is an action or task that is performed to implement the chosen risk response strategy for a specific risk, such as avoid, transfer, mitigate, or accept. Reviewing the risk register change log is the best way, as it helps to ensure that the risk register is accurate and current, and that the risk response activities have been completed and reported. Reviewing evidence of risk acceptance, control effectiveness test results, and control design documentation are all possible ways to validate whether risk response activities have been completed, but they are not the best way, as they may not cover all the risk response activities, and they may not reflect the changes or updates in the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 101
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?
Key audit findings
Treatment plan status
Performance indicators
Risk scenario results
A treatment plan status is a report that shows the current status and progress of the risk mitigation actions and activities that are implemented to reduce the risk exposure of the organization. A treatment plan status would provide the most useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation, as it can help to monitor and evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the implementation. A treatment plan status can also provide feedback and information to the risk owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 257. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 257. ISACACertified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 257. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?
Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).
Perform a root cause analysis.
Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.
Review the incident response plan.
The risk practitioner’s best recommendation after recovery steps have been completed is B. Perform a root cause analysis. A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and assessing the underlying causes of a problem or an incident. By performing a root cause analysis, the risk practitioner can help the organization to understand how and why the cyber attack happened, what vulnerabilities and gaps were exploited, and what actions and controls can be implemented to prevent or mitigate similar incidents in the future12
A root cause analysis can also help the organization to improve its incident response plan, which is a set of instructions to help IT staff detect, respond to, and recover from network security incidents3 A root cause analysis can provide valuable feedback and lessons learned from the cyber attack, and help the organization to update and test its incident response plan accordingly45
Developing new key risk indicators, recommending the purchase of cyber insurance, and reviewing the incident response plan are all possible actions that the risk practitioner can take after a cyber attack, but they are not the best recommendation. Developing new key risk indicators can help the organization to monitor and measure its risk exposure and performance, but it does not address the root causes of the cyber attack12 Recommending the purchase of cyber insurance can help the organization to hedge against the financial losses caused by cyber incidents, but it does not prevent or solve the underlying issues67 Reviewing the incident response plan can help the organization to evaluate its effectiveness and identify areas for improvement, but it does not explain how and why the cyber attack occurred345
Therefore, the best recommendation is to perform a root cause analysis, as it can help the organization to understand, resolve, and prevent the cyber attack and its consequences12
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?
Percentage of systems included in recovery processes
Number of key systems hosted
Average response time to resolve system incidents
Percentage of system availability
The percentage of system availability is the most important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center. This KPI measures the uptime or reliability of the systems hosted by the data center provider, and reflects the ability of the provider to meet the customer’s expectations and requirements for system performance and accessibility. A high percentage of system availability indicates that the provider is delivering consistent and quality service, while a low percentage of system availability indicates that the provider is experiencing frequent or prolonged system failures or disruptions, which can negatively affect the customer’s business operations and reputation. Therefore, the percentage ofsystem availability is a critical factor for evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the data center provider, and should be clearly defined and monitored in the SLA. The other options are not the most important KPIs to establish in the SLA for an outsourced data center, as they do not directly measure the quality or reliability of the service provided. The percentage of systems included in recovery processes is a measure of the scope or coverage of the disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the data center provider, but it does not indicate how well the provider can execute the DRP or restore the systems in the event of a disaster. The number of key systems hosted is a measure of the capacity or utilization of the data center provider, but it does not indicate how efficiently or securely the provider can manage the systems. The average response time to resolve system incidents is a measure of the responsiveness or agility of the data center provider, but it does not indicate how effectively or proactively the provider can prevent or mitigate system incidents. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3.4, Page 140.
Which of the following is MOST important when discussing risk within an organization?
Adopting a common risk taxonomy
Using key performance indicators (KPIs)
Creating a risk communication policy
Using key risk indicators (KRIs)
A common risk taxonomy is a framework that defines and categorizes the sources, types, and impacts of risks within an organization1. It helps to establish a consistent and shared understanding of risk across the organization, and to facilitate effective risk identification, assessment, reporting, and communication2. A common risk taxonomy also enables comparison and aggregation of risks at different levels and domains, and supports alignment of risk management with business objectives and strategies3. Using key performance indicators (KPIs) and key risk indicators (KRIs) are important for measuring and monitoring risk and performance, but they are not the most important factor when discussing risk within an organization. KPIs and KRIs should be derived from the common risk taxonomy and aligned with theorganization’s riskappetite and tolerance4. Creating a risk communication policy is also important for ensuring that risk information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time and in the right format, but it is not the most important factor either. A risk communication policy should be based on the common risk taxonomy and the risk roles and responsibilities within the organization5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: Risk Taxonomy, pp. 25-29.
Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?
Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes
Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations
Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder
Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior
Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior is the most important factor for managing ethical risk, because it defines the standards and expectations for ethical conduct and decision making within the organization, and provides guidance and direction for employees to act in a responsible and ethical manner. Ethical risk is the risk of violating the moral principles or values that govern the behavior and actions of individuals or organizations, such as honesty, integrity, fairness, or respect. A code of conduct is a document that outlines the ethical principles, values, and rules that the organization and its employees must follow, and the consequences of non-compliance. A code of conduct helps to promote a positive and ethical culture within the organization, and to prevent or mitigate the ethical risks that may arise from conflicts of interest, fraud, corruption, discrimination, or other misconduct. Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes, developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations, and identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder are all useful factors for managing ethical risk, but they are not the most important factor, as they do not directly address the ethical conduct and decision making of employees. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.5.1, page 67
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk profile?
It promotes a security-aware culture.
It enables vulnerability analysis.
It enhances internal risk reporting.
It provides risk information to auditors.
A risk profile consolidates information about risks across the enterprise, enhancing internal reporting and facilitating informed decision-making. This aligns withRisk Governanceobjectives by providing a comprehensive view of risk for management and stakeholders.
A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?
A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.
A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.
Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.
Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.
Independent Assessment:
Objective Evaluation: An assessment by a qualified independent party ensures that the evaluation of the new controls is unbiased and thorough. It provides a credible verification of the control's effectiveness.
Expertise and Standards: Independent assessors bring specialized expertise and follow established standards and best practices, ensuring a comprehensive review of the control implementation.
Validation and Assurance: This assessment provides assurance to stakeholders that the controls are functioning as intended and meet the required security and operational standards.
Comparison with Other Options:
Post-Implementation Review by Key Personnel: While valuable, this review may lack the objectivity and thoroughness of an independent assessment.
Senior Management Sign-Off: Sign-off from senior management is important but does not provide the detailed validation of control effectiveness that an independent assessment offers.
Daily Operation of Robots without Human Interference: This indicates operational stability but does not verify that all controls are functioning as intended.
Best Practices:
Regular Independent Assessments: Schedule regular independent assessments to continuously validate the effectiveness of controls.
Comprehensive Reporting: Ensure that the independent assessment includes comprehensive reporting on findings and recommendations for improvement.
Follow-Up Actions: Implement any recommended actions from the assessment to address identified gaps or weaknesses in the controls.
Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?
Internal and external information security incidents
The risk department's roles and responsibilities
Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process
The organization's information security risk profile
The most important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff is the policy compliance requirements and exceptions process. This topic would help the staff to understandthe enterprise’s risk policies, standards, and procedures, and how they apply to their roles and responsibilities. It would also help the staff to know the process for requesting, approving, and documenting any exceptions to the policies, and the consequences of non-compliance. This topic would enhance the staff’s risk awareness and responsibility, and foster a culture of compliance and accountability within the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 2491
Which of the following would BEST mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities?
Temporarily mitigate the OS vulnerabilities
Document and implement a patching process
Evaluate permanent fixes such as patches and upgrades
Identify the vulnerabilities and applicable OS patches
The best way to mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities is to document and implement a patching process. A patching process is a set of procedures and guidelines that define how to identify, evaluate, test, apply, and monitor patches for the OS. Patches are updates or fixes that address the known vulnerabilities or bugs in the OS. By documenting and implementing a patching process, the organization can ensure that the OS is regularly updated and protected from the potential exploits or attacks that may exploit the vulnerabilities. The other options are not as effective as documenting and implementing a patching process, as they are related to the temporary, partial, or reactive measures to deal with the OS vulnerabilities, not the proactive and continuous measures to prevent or reduce the OS vulnerabilities. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?
Recommend rejection of the initiative.
Change the level of risk appetite.
Document formal acceptance of the risk.
Initiate a reassessment of the risk.
Formal acceptance of the risk is critical when the risk exposure exceeds the risk appetite, as it ensures accountability and acknowledges the decision at the appropriate level. Documenting acceptance involves communicating the potential impacts and obtaining agreement from senior stakeholders. This process aligns with theRisk Response and Reportingdomain in CRISC, emphasizing clear documentation and communication of risks for decision-making.
Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?
Monthly trend of information security-related incidents
Average time to identify critical information security incidents
Frequency of information security incident response plan testing
Percentage of high-risk security incidents
The average time to identify critical information security incidents is the best indicator of effective information security incident management, as it measures how quickly the organization can detect and respond to the most severe threats to its information assets. The faster the organization can identify critical incidents, the lower the potential impact and damage they can cause. The average time to identify critical incidents also reflects the efficiency and accuracy of the monitoring and reporting mechanisms, as well as the awareness and training of the staff and stakeholders. The other options are not the best indicators of effective information security incident management, as they do not directly measure the performance or quality of the incident response process. The monthly trend of information security-related incidents may show the frequency or severity of the incidents, but not how well they are managed. The frequency of information security incident response plan testing may show the preparedness or maturity of the organization, but not the actual effectiveness of the plan. The percentage of high-risk security incidents may show the risk exposure or appetite of the organization, but not the risk mitigationor treatment. References = 7 Types of Information Security Incidents and How to Respond; Annex A.16: Information Security Incident Management - ISMS.online; CISM Isaca Exam Questions and Answers - CertLibrary.com
Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:
Set performance expectations for controls.
Align with key business objectives.
Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.
Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.
KRIs are most effective when they signal that a risk is nearing or exceeding predefined thresholds. This early warning enables organizations to take proactive measures to mitigate risks before they materialize into significant issues.
Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?
Lack of access verification for systems on the internal network
Identification and authentication failures for users
Poorly configured firewall rules introducing security breaches
Ineffective load balancing on network devices
Zero Trustassumes that no system or user is inherently trustworthy—even within the internal network. It addresses theinadequacy of perimeter securityby enforcing continuous verification for every access request.
Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority when developing a response plan for risk assessment results?
Risk that has been untreated
Items with a high inherent risk
Items with the highest likelihood of occurrence
Risk that exceeds risk appetite
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a recovery point objective (RPO)?
Latency of the alternate site
Amount of acceptable data loss
Time and resources for offsite backups
Cost of testing the business continuity plan (BCP)
RPO defines the maximum tolerable data loss in case of a disruption — i.e., how much data the enterprise can afford to lose between the last backup and an incident.
ISACA’s business continuity and CRISC guidance:
“The recovery point objective (RPO) is based on the amount of acceptable data loss determined by business requirements.”
A, C, D are logistical concerns; only B defines the RPO itself.
CRISC Reference: Domain 3 – Risk Response and Mitigation, Topic: Business Continuity Objectives (RTO/RPO).
Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:
ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.
provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.
provide a snapshot of the risk profile.
ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.
Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken, because it helps to detect and measure the changes or trends in the risk level or performance, and to alert the risk owners and stakeholders when the risk exceeds the predefined thresholds or targets. A KRI is a metric or indicator that helps to monitor and evaluate the likelihood or impact of a risk, or the effectiveness or efficiency of a control. A KRI can be quantitative or qualitative, and can be derived from internal or external sources. Continuous monitoring is a process of collecting and analyzing data on a regular or real-time basis, to provide timely and relevant information for decision making or action taking. Continuous monitoring of KRIs will provide an early warning, as it helps to identify and address the risk issues or incidents before they escalate or cause significant damage or disruption. Ensuring that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization, providing a snapshot of the risk profile, and ensuring that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned are all possible outcomes of continuous monitoring of KRIs, but they are not the best answer, as they do not reflect the main purpose and benefit of continuous monitoring of KRIs, which is to provide an early warning. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 97
Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:
overall effectiveness of risk management
consequences of risk materializing
necessity of developing a risk strategy,
organization s risk threshold.
Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the consequences of risk materializing, as it indicates how much impact or loss the organization would suffer if the asset is compromised, damaged, or destroyed by a threat. The value of an asset can be determined by various methods, such as the cost of acquisition, replacement, or restoration, the market value, the income or revenue generated, or the impact on the business objectives or reputation. The other options are not the best description of what quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand, as they are either too broad (overall effectiveness of risk management, necessity of developing a risk strategy) or not directly related to the asset value (organization’s risk threshold). References = IT Asset Valuation, Risk Assessment and Control Implementation Model; How to quantify assets?; Asset Valuation - Definition, Methods, and Importance
Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?
Customized regional training on local laws and regulations
Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions
Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture
Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers
The best practice to mitigate risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization is to provide ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture. A common risk culture is a set of shared values, beliefs, and behaviors that influence how the organization identifies, analyzes, responds to, and monitors risks. Ongoing awareness training can help to promote a common risk culture by educating the employees about the enterprise’s risk management objectives, policies, procedures, roles, and responsibilities, as well as the ethical standards and expectations that apply to their work. Ongoing awareness training can also help to reinforce the benefits of ethical decision making and the consequences of unethical behavior. Customized regional training on local laws and regulations, policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions, and zero-tolerance policies for risk taking bymiddle-level managers are also useful practices, but they are not as effective as ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 37.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?
Stakeholder preferences
Contractual requirements
Regulatory requirements
Management assertions
Regulatory requirements should be the primary basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders, because they define the rules or standards that the organization must comply with to meet the expectations of the regulators, such as government agencies or industry bodies, and to avoid legal or reputational consequences. A risk event is an occurrence or incident that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a human error. An external stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or influence in the organization or its activities, but is not part of the organization, such as customers, suppliers, partners, investors, or regulators. Disclosing information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders is a process of communicating or reporting the relevant facts or details of the risk events to the affected or interested parties. Disclosing information related to risk events may have benefits, such as maintaining trust, transparency, and accountability, but it may also have drawbacks, such as exposing vulnerabilities, losing competitive advantage, or inviting litigation. Therefore, regulatory requirements should be the primary basis for deciding whether to disclose information, as they provide the legal and ethical obligations and boundaries for the disclosure process. Stakeholder preferences, contractual requirements, and management assertions are all possible factors for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events, but they are not the primary basis, as they may vary or conflict depending on the situation or context, and may not override the regulatory requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
A newly enacted information privacy law significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following will MOST likely outcome for an organization affected by the new law?
Increase in compliance breaches
Increase in loss event impact
Increase in residual risk
Increase in customer complaints
A loss event is an occurrence that results in a negative consequence or damage for an organization, such as a data breach, a cyberattack, or a natural disaster. The impact of a loss event is the extent or magnitude of the harm or loss caused by the event, such as financial losses, reputational damage, operational disruptions, or legal liabilities. A newly enacted information privacy law that significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (PII) will most likely increase the impact of a loss event for an organization affected by the new law, because it will increase the potential cost and severity of a data breach involving PII. The other options are not as likely as an increase in loss event impact, because they do not directly result from the new law, but rather depend on other factors, such as the organization’s risk management capabilities, as explained below:
A. Increase in compliance breaches is not a likely outcome, because it assumes that the organization will not comply with the new law, which would expose it to more risks and penalties. A rational organization would try to comply with the new law by implementing appropriate controls and measures to protect PII and prevent data breaches.
C. Increase in residual risk is not a likely outcome, because it assumes that the organization will not adjust its risk response strategies to account for the new law, which would leave it with more risk exposure than desired. A prudent organization would try to reduce its residual risk by enhancing its risk mitigation controls or transferring its risk to a third party, such as an insurance company.
D. Increase in customer complaints is not a likely outcome, because it assumes that the organization will experience more data breaches involving PII, which would affect its customersatisfaction and loyalty. A responsible organization would try to avoid data breaches by improving its security posture and practices, and by communicating transparently and effectively with its customers about the new law and its implications. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 32.
Which of the following is the MOST essential factor for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment?
Ongoing sharing of information among industry peers
Obtaining support from senior leadership
Adhering to industry-recognized risk management standards
Implementing detection and response measures
There is no definitive answer to this question, as different factors may be more or less important depending on the context and the nature of the risk. However, based on some web search results, one possible factor that could be considered essential for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment is D. Implementing detection and response measures.
Detection and response measures are the practices and procedures that enable an organization to identify and mitigate any potential or actual cybersecurity events that could compromise its network, systems, data, or assets. Detection and response measures can help an organization to reduce the impact and duration of a cyberattack, as well as to learn from the incident and improve its security posture and resilience. Detection and response measures can also help an organization to comply with regulatory and legal requirements, as well as to maintain its reputation and trust among its stakeholders.
Some examples of detection and response measures include:
•Using threat intelligence, user behavior analytics, and attacker behavior analytics to monitor and analyze the network activity and identify any anomalies or signs of compromise 12
•Implementing security continuous monitoring, intrusion detection and prevention systems, and antivirus and antimalware software to detect and block malicious traffic and malware 3
•Establishing incident response plans, teams, and tools to contain, eradicate, and recover from a cyberattack, as well as to communicate and coordinate with internal and external parties 45
•Conducting regular audits, assessments, and tests to evaluate the effectiveness of the detection and response measures and to identify any gaps or weaknesses 6
Therefore, implementing detection and response measures could be seen as an essential factor for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment, as it can help an organization to protect its critical assets and functions, and to respond quickly and effectively to any emerging or evolving threats.
Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?
Percentage of legacy servers out of support
Percentage of severs receiving automata patches
Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities
Number of intrusion attempts
The percentage of servers receiving automatic patches is the best key control indicator (KCI) to monitor the effectiveness of patch management, because it measures how well the patch management process is ensuring that the servers are updated with the latest security patches and fixes. A high percentage of servers receiving automatic patches indicates that the patch management process is effective and efficient, and that the servers are protected from known vulnerabilities and threats. The other options are not the best KCIs, because they do not directly measure the effectiveness of patch management. The percentage of legacy servers out of support, the number of unpatched vulnerabilities, and the number of intrusion attempts are examples of risk indicators or consequence indicators that measure the exposure or impact of the lack of patch management, but not the performance or outcome of the patch management process. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers
The MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to communicate the effectiveness of an enterprise IT risk management program is:
The percentage of risk scenarios that are within organizational tolerance
The percentage of IT staff trained in risk management
The number of critical business services covered by a risk assessment
The amount of IT risk realized that impacted the business
The KPI that best measures effectiveness of risk management is one that shows risk alignment with tolerance levels.
CRISC defines:
“Risk management effectiveness is demonstrated when risk scenarios are managed within the organization’s defined tolerance.”
B and C are activity-based, not outcome-based.
D measures realized losses, not ongoing control success.
Hence, A. The percentage of risk scenarios within organizational tolerance directly reflects program effectiveness.
CRISC Reference: Domain 4 – Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Topic: Key Risk and Performance Indicators.
A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Reassess the risk profile.
Modify the risk taxonomy.
Increase the risk tolerance.
Review the risk culture.
Reassessing the risk profile is the first course of action that a risk practitioner should take after a hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. This is because reassessing therisk profile can help identify, analyze, and evaluate the new or changed risks that the new technology may introduce or affect, such as data privacy, security, quality, reliability, or compliance risks. Reassessing the risk profile can also help determine the appropriate risk response and mitigation strategies, as well as monitor and report the risk performance and outcomes. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, reassessing the risk profile is one of the key steps in the IT risk management process1. According to the web search results, reassessing the risk profile is a common and recommended practice for addressing the risks of virtual patient appointments
When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
Percentage of system uptime
Percentage of relevant threats mitigated
Total number of threats identified
Reaction time of the system to threats
The percentage of relevant threats mitigated is the best key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of an intrusion prevention system (IPS), because it measures how well the IPS is performing its intended function of preventing unauthorized access or attacks. The percentageof system uptime is not a good KCI, because it does not reflect the quality or accuracy of the IPS. The total number of threats identified is not a good KCI, because it does not indicate how many of those threats were actually prevented by the IPS. The reaction time of the system to threats is not a good KCI, because it does not measure the impact or severity of the threats that were prevented or not prevented by the IPS. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions2
What would be MOST helpful to ensuring the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program?
Creating metrics to report the number of security incidents
Hiring subject matter experts for the program
Establishing a budget for additional resources
Assigning clear ownership of the program
The most helpful action to ensure the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program is assigning clear ownership of the program. Here's why:
Clear Ownership:
Assigning clear ownership ensures that there is accountability and responsibility for the implementation and success of the program.
The program owner will coordinate activities, allocate resources, and monitor progress to ensure that objectives are met.
Creating Metrics:
While metrics are important for monitoring and reporting, they do not directly ensure the effective implementation of the program.
Hiring Subject Matter Experts:
Subject matter experts are valuable for providing insights and guidance, but without clear ownership, their efforts may not be effectively coordinated or aligned with program goals.
Establishing a Budget:
A budget is necessary for securing resources, but it must be managed and directed by a responsible owner to ensure the effective use of those resources.
A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?
Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.
Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.
Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.
Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a risk action plan is a document that defines the specific actions, resources, responsibilities, and timelines for implementing the risk responses. A risk action plan should be developed after the results of a vulnerability assessment are shared with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business manager, to address the identified vulnerabilities and mitigate the associated risks. Developing a risk action plan is the next step in the risk management process, as it helps to ensure that the risk responses are executed effectively and efficiently, and that the residual risks are within the acceptable levels. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 201.
Conduct targeted risk assessments.
Recommend management accept the low risk scenarios.
Assess management's risk tolerance.
Propose mitigating controls.
Even if the residual risks are low, an ineffective key control warrants proposing additional mitigating controls to strengthen risk management. Accepting the risks without controls may expose the enterprise to unnecessary vulnerabilities. Targeted assessments may follow but addressing control weaknesses is the immediate priority. Risk tolerance is relevant but secondary in this context.
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:
recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.
inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them
inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
A risk assessment of a production system is a process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the performance, quality, or safety of the production system, which is a system that transforms inputs into outputs using various resources, processes, and technologies12.
The most appropriate action for the risk manager to take after undertaking a risk assessment of a production system is to inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them, which is a process of communicating and consulting with the person who is responsible for the design, operation, and improvement of the production system, and suggesting possible risk responses that can prevent, mitigate, transfer, or accept the risks34.
This action is the most appropriate because it ensures the involvement and collaboration of the process owner, who has the authority and accountability to implement and monitor the risk responses, and who can provide feedback and input on the feasibility and effectiveness of the proposed measures34.
This action is also the most appropriate because it supports the risk management process and objectives, which are to identify and address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders34.
The other options are not the most appropriate actions, but rather possible alternatives or supplements that may have some limitations or drawbacks. For example:
Recommending a program that minimizes the concerns of the production system is an action that involves designing and planning a set of coordinated and interrelated activities and tasks that aim to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks34. However, this action is notthe most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the key stakeholder and decision maker for the production system, and who may have different views or preferences on the risk responses34.
Informing the development team of the concerns, and together formulating risk reduction measures is an action that involves communicating and consulting with the group of people who are responsible for creating, testing, and deploying the products or services that are produced by the production system, and jointly developing possible risk responses34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involvethe process owner, who is the primary owner and user of the production system, and who may have different needs or expectations on the risk responses34.
Informing the IT manager of the concerns and proposing measures to reduce them is an action that involves communicating and consulting with the person who is responsible for managing and overseeing the IT resources, processes, and systems that support the production system, and suggesting possible risk responses34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the main stakeholder and beneficiary of the production system, and who may have different requirements or constraints on the risk responses34. References =
1: Risk Assessment for the Production Process1
2: Risk Assessment for Industrial Equipment2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?
Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.
Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.
Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.
Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.
To make well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions, it is most important to determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios. A risk rating is a measure of the severity and priority of a risk, based on the combination of its impact and likelihood. A risk scenario is a description of a potential event or situation that could adversely affect the organization’s objectives, assets, or processes. By determining and understanding the risk rating of scenarios, the organization can identify the most critical and urgent risks, and select the appropriate risk response strategies accordingly. The other options are not as important as determining and understanding the risk rating of scenarios, because they do not provide a clear and comprehensive view of the risk, butrather focus on specific or partial aspects of the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 45.
Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?
Assessing regulatory requirements
Benchmarking against industry standards
Gaining management consensus
Identifying risk tolerance
Who is accountable for risk treatment?
Enterprise risk management team
Risk mitigation manager
Business process owner
Risk owner
Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing the appropriate risk response strategy and actions to address the identified risks. Risk treatment can involve different strategies, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risk. Risk owner is the person or group who has the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response. Risk owner is accountable for risk treatment, as they are responsible for deciding, approving, and executing the risk treatment plan, and for monitoring and reportingthe results and outcomes of the risk treatment. The other options are not accountable for risk treatment, as they have different roles or responsibilities in the risk management process:
Enterprise risk management team is the group of risk managers and practitioners who support the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and stakeholders. Enterprise risk management team may advise or assist the risk owner in risk treatment, but they are not accountable for risk treatment.
Risk mitigation manager is the person who designs, implements, and monitors the risk mitigation actions or measures that reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk to an acceptable level, such as controls, policies, or procedures. Risk mitigation manager may advise or assist the risk owner in risk treatment, but they are not accountable for risk treatment.
Business process owner is the stakeholder who is responsible for the business process that is supported by the IT system or application, such as the CRM system. Business process owner may be affected by or contribute to the risk, and may be involved in the risk treatment, but they are not accountable for risk treatment, unless they are also the risk owner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
In a DevOps environment, a container does not pass dynamic application security testing (DAST). How should this situation be categorized?
As a risk event
As a risk scenario
As an incident
As an error
Failing a security test indicates a security control weakness already realized, qualifying as an incident (a deviation from expected security state).
CRISC guidance:
“When a vulnerability or control deficiency is detected through testing or monitoring, it constitutes an information security incident that must be logged and evaluated.”
A risk event is broader and refers to potential or hypothetical occurrences, not confirmed test failures.
Hence, C. As an incident is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 4 – Risk and Control Monitoring, Topic: Incident Management.
Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?
Data protection officer
Chief information officer (CIO)
Information asset custodian
Information asset owner
The organizational role that should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified is the information asset owner, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the information assets they own, and to manage the risk and controls related to the information assets. The other options are not the correct roles, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to the protection, governance, or maintenance of the information assets, respectively, rather than the classification of the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?
Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.
Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.
Identify the risk appetite of the organization.
Assess the goals and culture of the organization.
According to the Guide to Implementing an IT Risk Management Framework, the first activity that should be performed when establishing IT risk management processes is to assess the goals and culture of the organization. This is because the goals and culture of the organization define the context and scope of the IT risk management process, and influence the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. By assessing the goals and culture of the organization, the IT risk manager can align the IT risk management process with the organization’s strategy, vision, mission, values, and objectives. The IT risk manager can also identify the key stakeholders, roles, and responsibilities involved in the IT risk management process, and ensure that they have the necessary skills, knowledge, and resources to perform their tasks effectively. Additionally, the IT risk manager can establish the communication and reporting mechanisms for the IT risk management process, and ensure that they are consistent with the organization’s culture and expectations. References = Guide to Implementing an IT Risk Management Framework, An Overview of the Risk Management Process
Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Log analysis
Security control reviews
Random sampling checks
Understanding the Question:
The question asks which method best enables timely detection of changes in the security control environment.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Control self-assessment (CSA):Allows for continuous monitoring and quick detection of any changes or deficiencies in controls.
B. Log analysis:Useful for detecting security incidents but not as comprehensive as CSA for overall control environment changes.
C. Security control reviews:Typically periodic and might not be as timely.
D. Random sampling checks:Not as systematic or comprehensive as CSA.
Control Self-Assessment (CSA):CSA involves regular, structured evaluations by internal staff to ensure controls are working effectively. It promotes early detection of issues by those directly responsible for the controls.
Timeliness:CSA is an ongoing process, making it more timely in identifying changes compared to periodic reviews or random checks.
Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?
Industry trends in Al
Expected algorithm outputs
Data feeds
Alert functionality
The most important factor for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (AI) solution is the expected algorithm outputs, as they define the desired outcomes and objectives of the AI solution, and guide the design, testing, and validation of the AI algorithm. The other options are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the research, input, or monitoring of the AI solution, respectively, rather than the output of the AI solution. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
After the implementation of a remediation plan, an assessment of associated control design and operating effectiveness can determine the level of:
residual risk.
aggregated risk.
audit risk.
inherent risk.
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to ISACA CRISC guidance)
Once remediation actions have been implemented, the risk practitioner evaluates whether the new or enhanced controls are designed appropriately and operating effectively. In the CRISC framework, this post-implementation evaluation is used to determine how much risk remains after controls are in place—this is residual risk. Inherent risk is the risk level before considering any controls; therefore it is assessed earlier in the process. Audit risk relates to assurance work, not specifically to the outcome of a remediation plan. Aggregated risk refers to a combined view of multiple risks and is not the direct output of evaluating one specific remediation initiative. By assessing control design (fit for purpose) and operating effectiveness (working as intended), the practitioner can compare the new residual risk level to risk appetite and tolerance, and determine whether additional treatment is needed.
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?
Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.
Operational staff perform control self-assessments.
Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit
analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.
Configuration updates are changes made to the settings, parameters, or components of an IT system or network. Configuration updates can affect the functionality, performance, security, and reliability of the system or network. Therefore, configuration updates should follow formal change control, which is a process that ensures that changes are authorized, documented, tested, and implemented in a controlled manner. Formal change control can help prevent errors, conflicts, disruptions, and vulnerabilities that may arise from configuration updates. Configuration updates that do not follow formal change control should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls, as they can introduce newrisks or compromise existing controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.5: Control Monitoring and Reporting, p. 161-162.
Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?
Developing an ongoing awareness and training program
Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend
Embedding risk management into the organization
Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources
The first consideration when establishing a new risk governance program is embedding risk management into the organization. Embedding risk management means integrating risk management principles and practices into the organization’s culture, values, processes, and decision-making. Embedding risk management helps to ensure that risk management is not seen as a separate or isolated activity, but as a part of the organization’s normal operations and strategic objectives. Embedding risk management also helps to create a risk-aware and risk-responsive organization, where risk management is shared and supported by all stakeholders. The other options are not the first consideration, although they may be important steps or components of the risk governance program. Developing an ongoing awareness and training program, creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend, and completing annual risk assessments on critical resources are all activities that can help to embed risk management into the organization, but they are not the initial or primary consideration. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?
Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.
Adjust inherent risk levels upward.
Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.
Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.
Emerging risk is a risk that is new or evolving, and has the potential to significantly affect the enterprise’s objectives, performance, or reputation. Emerging risk can arise from changes in the internal or external environment, such as technological innovations, regulatory developments, or social trends. The best way to support communication of emerging risk is to include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda. The enterprise risk committee is a group of senior executives who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. By including the emerging risk on the agenda, the risk practitioner can ensure that the enterprise risk committee is aware of the risk, its causes, impacts, and likelihood, and can decide on the appropriate risk response strategy and actions. The other options are not the best way to support communication of emerging risk, as they involve different aspects of the risk management process:
Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact means that the risk practitioner adjusts the risk levels after considering the existing or planned risk responses. This may not befeasible or accurate for emerging risk, as the risk responses may not be defined or implemented yet, or may not be effective for the new or evolving risk.
Adjust inherent risk levels upward means that the risk practitioner increases the risk levels before considering any risk responses. This may not reflect the true nature or magnitude of the emerging risk, as the inherent risk levels are based on the assumptions and estimates of the risk practitioner, and may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the emerging risk.
Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring means that the risk practitioner records and tracks the emerging risk, its causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. This is an important step in the risk management process, but it does not necessarily support communication ofthe emerging risk, as the risk register may not be accessible or visible to all the relevant stakeholders, or may not be updated or reviewed frequently enough to capture the changes in the emerging risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2.2, pp. 21-22.
Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?
Gap analysis
Risk assessment
Heat map
Risk register
The best way to help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite is to use a risk register, which is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses1. A risk register can help to:
Define the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives2. The risk register can include the risk appetite statement, which is a clear and concise expression of the enterprise’s risk preferences and boundaries3.
Communicate the risk appetite, which is the process of sharing and informing the risk appetite to the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, the management, the employees, or the customers4. The risk register can be used as a communication tool, which can provide a consistent and transparent view of the enterprise’s risk profile and performance5.
The other options are not the best ways to help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite, because:
Gap analysis is a technique that compares the current state and the desired state of a process, system, or organization, and identifies the gaps or differences between them6. Gap analysis can help to assess the alignment or misalignment of the enterprise’s risk appetite with its risk level, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
Risk assessment is a process that estimates the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizes the risks based on their significance and urgency. Risk assessment can help to identify andanalyze the risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
Heat map is a graphical representation that uses colors to indicate the level or intensity of a variable, such as risk. Heat map can help to visualize and compare the risks based on their probability and impact, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
References =
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite Statement - CIO Wiki
Risk Communication - CIO Wiki
Risk Reporting - CIO Wiki
Gap Analysis - CIO Wiki
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
[Heat Map - CIO Wiki]
[Risk and Information Systems Control documents and learning resources by ISACA]
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?
Contracting to third parties
Establishing employee awareness training
Setting target dates to complete actions
Assigning accountability to risk owners
Assigning accountability to risk owners is the best way to ensure implementation of corrective action plans, because it clarifies the roles and responsibilities of those who are in charge of managing and mitigating the risks. Contracting to third parties, establishing employee awareness training, and setting target dates tocomplete actions are all helpful measures, but they do not guarantee the implementation of corrective action plans without accountability. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.3, page 105
To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:
continuously monitor the environment.
develop key performance indicators (KPIs).
maintain a risk matrix.
maintain a risk register.
To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should continuously monitor the environment, as it can help to detect and respond to any changes or emerging risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and strategy. Continuous monitoring can also provide timely and relevant feedback and information to the decision-makers and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. Continuous monitoring can also help to ensure that the risk management process is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite andtolerance, and supports the achievement of the organization’s goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC)Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 243. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 243. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 243.
Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?
Average time to grant access privileges
Number of changes in access granted to users
Average number of access privilege exceptions
Number and type of locked obsolete accounts
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the average time to grant access privileges is the best indicator of the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges, because it measures how quickly and effectively the process can respond to the access requests and meet the business needs. The average time to grant access privileges can be calculated by dividing the total time spent on granting access privileges by the number of access requests processed. The other options are not the best indicators of the efficiency of the process, because they measure other aspects of the process, such as the quality, the security, or the maintenance. The number of changes in access granted to users measures the quality of the process, as it indicates how wellthe process can align the access rights with the user roles and functions. The average number of access privilege exceptions measures the security of the process, as it indicates how often theprocess deviates from the established policies and standards. The number and type of locked obsolete accounts measures the maintenance of the process, as it indicates how well the process can remove the unnecessary or outdated accounts. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.2, page 163
The PRIMARY benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:
serve as a basis for measuring risk appetite.
align with the organization's risk profile.
provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions.
provide data for updating the risk register.
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the primary benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions. KRIs are metrics that monitor changes in the level of risk exposure and contribute to the early warning signs that enable organizations to report risks, prevent crises, and mitigate them in time. KRIs help risk managers to identify potential threats, assess their impact and likelihood, and take proactive measures to reduce the risk or seize the opportunity12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?
Segregation of duties
Code review
Change management
Audit modules
Code review could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application, because it is a process that involves examining and verifying the source code of the application for any errors, vulnerabilities, or malicious functions. Code review can help toidentify and remove any unauthorized or harmful code that the developer may have inserted, either intentionally or unintentionally, and to ensure that the application meets the quality andsecurity standards and requirements. The other options are not as effective as code review, because:
Option A: Segregation of duties is a control that involves separating the roles and responsibilities of the developer from those of the tester, the approver, and the deployer, to prevent any conflict of interest or misuse of authority. Segregation of duties can help to reduce the risk of the developer inserting malicious functions into the web-based application, but it does not detect them.
Option C: Change management is a process that involves controlling and documenting any changes to the web-based application, such as new features, enhancements, or bug fixes, to ensure that they are authorized, tested, and approved. Change management can help to track and monitor the changes that the developer may have made to the web-based application, but it does not detect the malicious functions.
Option D: Audit modules are components that are embedded in the web-based application to record and report the activities and transactions that occur within the application, such as user login, data input, or data output. Audit modules can help to audit and review the performance and functionality of the web-based application, but they do not detect the malicious functions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 214.
Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?
Assigning control ownership
Assigning appropriate resources
Assigning a quality control review
Performing regular independent control reviews
Commitment to controls is the degree to which the organization and its stakeholders support and adhere to the controls that are designed and implemented to manage or mitigate the risks1. Commitment to controls is essential for ensuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, as well as the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies2. The best way to promote commitment to controls is to assign control ownership, which is the process ofidentifying and assigning the person or entity that has the authority and accountability for a control and its management3. By assigning control ownership, the organization can ensure that the controls are properly and promptly designed, implemented, monitored, and maintained, and that the issues or gaps in the controls are identified andresolved4. Assigning control ownership also helps to establish and communicate the roles and responsibilities of the control owners and the other stakeholders, and to enforce the accountability and performance of the control owners5. Assigning appropriate resources, assigning a quality control review, and performing regular independent control reviews are not the best ways to promote commitment to controls, as they donot provide the same level of authority and accountability as assigning control ownership. Assigning appropriate resources is the process of allocating and providing the necessary funds, staff, equipment, or technology that are required to support or enable the controls. Assigning appropriate resources can enhance the quality and performance of the controls, but it does not ensure that the controls are managed or maintained by a specific person or entity. Assigning a quality control review is the process of conducting and documenting a systematic and objective examination and evaluation of the controls, to ensure that they meet the established standards and requirements. Assigning a quality control review can improve the reliability and compliance of the controls, but it does not ensure that the controls are owned or operated by a specific person or entity. Performing regular independent control reviews is the process of performing and reporting an independent and impartial assessment and verification of the controls, to provide assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls. Performing regular independent control reviews can provide feedback and recommendations for the controls, but it does notensure that the controls are implemented or improved by a specific person or entity. References = 1: Commitment Controls - IMF2: 17 COSO Principles of Effective Internal Control | Weaver3: [Control Ownership - ISACA] 4: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] 5: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : Resource Allocation - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : Quality Control Review - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : IT Risk Resources | ISACA : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
An updated report from a trusted research organization shows that attacks have increased in the organization's industry segment. What should be done FIRST to integrate this data into risk assessments?
Average the ransomware attack frequencies together
Revise the threat frequency for ransomware attack types
Adjust impact amounts based on the average ransom
Use the new frequency as the maximum value in a Monte Carlo simulation
New threat intelligence primarily impacts the frequency component of risk calculations.
CRISC states:
“When new information about threats is available, it must be incorporated into risk assessment by adjusting threat event frequencies in related scenarios.”
A and D are statistical manipulations, not practical first steps.
C addresses impact, not likelihood.
Hence, B. Revise the threat frequency is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 2 – IT Risk Assessment, Topic: Incorporating Threat Intelligence.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?
Evaluating risk impact
Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Conducting internal audits
Creating quarterly risk reports
The most effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios is to evaluate the risk impact. Risk impact is the extent of the potential consequences or losses that may result from arisk event. Evaluating the risk impact involves considering the stakeholder concerns, expectations, and perspectives, as they may have different views on the value of the assets, the severity of the threats, and the acceptability of the outcomes. Evaluating the risk impact can help to ensure that the risk scenarios reflect the stakeholder interests and priorities, and that the risk responses are aligned with the stakeholder objectives. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs), conducting internal audits, and creating quarterly risk reports are not as effective as evaluating the risk impact, as they are not directly related to the development of risk scenarios, and may not capture the stakeholder concerns adequately. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?
Increase in mitigating control costs
Increase in risk event impact
Increase in risk event likelihood
Increase in cybersecurity premium
The result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor would be an increase in risk event likelihood. The likelihood of a risk event is influenced by the factors of threat, vulnerability, and exposure. The motivation of a threat actor is a key component of the threat factor, as it reflects the intent and capability of the actor to exploit a vulnerability. Therefore, a higher motivation would imply a higher probability of an attack. An increase in mitigating control costs, risk event impact, or cybersecurity premium are possible consequences of a risk event, but they are not directly affected by the motivation of the threat actor. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC)Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 6; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 67.
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?
Service level agreements(SLA)
Vendor references
Benchmarking data
Accountability matrix
Service level agreements (SLA) are contracts that define the expected level of performance and quality of service that an IT service provider will deliver to its customers. SLA are the best indicators that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements, as they specifythe measurable and verifiable criteria that the IT service provider must meet or exceed, such as availability, reliability, security, and responsiveness. SLA also establish the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved, the methods of monitoring and reporting the service performance, and the consequences of non-compliance or breach of the agreement. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 232. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 232. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 232.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?
Apply available security patches.
Schedule a penetration test.
Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)
Perform a vulnerability analysis.
The best recommendation to address an organization’s need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources is to perform a vulnerability analysis. A vulnerability analysis is a process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing the weaknesses or flaws in the systems that could be exploited by threats or risks. A vulnerability analysis helps to determine the level and nature of the exposure and impact of the systems, and to select and implement the appropriate security controls or mitigations. Performing a vulnerability analysis is the best recommendation, as it helps to optimize the use of the limited IT resources, by focusing on the most critical or significant vulnerabilities, and by applying the most effective or efficient security solutions.Performing a vulnerability analysis also helps to improve the security posture and performance of the systems, and to reduce the likelihood and consequences of security incidents or breaches. Applying available security patches, scheduling a penetration test, and conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) are not the best recommendations, as they are either the outputs or the inputs of the vulnerability analysis process, and they do not address the primary need of securing the systems with limited IT resources. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?
A decrease in control layering effectiveness
An increase in inherent risk
An increase in control vulnerabilities
An increase in the level of residual risk
The control environment is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. It includes the organization’s culture, values, ethics, structure, roles, responsibilities, policies, standards, etc.
Uncontrolled changes are changes or modifications to the control environment that are not planned, authorized, documented, or monitored, and that may have unintended or adverse consequences for the organization. Uncontrolled changes may be caused by various drivers or events, such as technological innovations, market trends, regulatory changes, customer preferences, competitor actions, environmental issues, etc.
The greatest concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment is an increase in the level of residual risk, which is the amount and type of risk that remains after the implementation and execution of the risk responses or controls. An increase in the level of residual risk means that the risk responses or controls are not effective or sufficient to mitigate or prevent the risks, and that the organization may face unacceptable or intolerable consequences if the risks materialize.
An increase in the level of residual risk is the greatest concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment, because it indicates that the organization’s risk profile and performance have deteriorated, and that the organization may not be able to achieve its objectives or protect its value. It also indicates that the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance have been violated, and that the organization may need to take corrective or compensating actions to restore the balance between risk and return.
The other options are not the greatest concerns when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment, because they do not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and they may not be relevant or actionable for the organization.
A decrease in control layering effectiveness means a decrease in the extent or degree to which the organization uses multiple or overlapping controls to address the same or related risks, and to provide redundancy or backup in case of failure or compromise of one or more controls. A decrease in control layering effectiveness may indicate a weakness or gap in the organization’s control design or implementation, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact oroutcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the control layering is required or recommended by the organization’s policies or standards.
An increase in inherent risk means an increase in the amount and type of risk that exists in the absence of any risk responses or controls, and that is inherent to the nature or characteristics of the risk source, event, cause, or impact. An increase in inherent risk may indicate a change or variation in the organization’s risk exposure or level, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the inherent risk exceeds the organization’s risk appetite or tolerance.
An increase in control vulnerabilities means an increase in the number or severity of the weaknesses or flaws in the organization’s risk responses or controls that can be exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives or operations. An increase in control vulnerabilities may indicate a weakness or gap in the organization’s control design or implementation, but it does not indicate the actual or potential impact or outcome of the risks, and it may not be relevant or actionable for the organization, unless the control vulnerabilities are exploited or compromised by the threats or sources of harm. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 174
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:
a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.
the likelihood of a given threat.
a function of the likelihood and impact.
the magnitude of an impact.
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as a function of the likelihood and impact, as it helps to measure and quantify the residual risk level and exposure. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or risk treatments. Residual risk can be calculated by multiplying the likelihood and impact of a risk event, where likelihood is the probability or frequency of the risk event occurring, and impact is the consequence or severity of the risk event on the asset or objective. Residual risk can be expressed as:
ResidualRisk=Likelihood×Impact
Expressing the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied as a function of the likelihood and impact helps to provide the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk assessment and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk levels and exposure across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the alignment of risk management and control activities with the organizational strategy and objectives, and helps to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
It helps to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk management and control processes, and guide the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best ways to express the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied. A function of the cost and effectiveness of controls is a measure of the inputs or outputs of therisk management and control processes, but it does not indicate the risk level or exposure. The likelihood of a given threat is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the impact or consequence of the threat. The magnitude of an impact is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the likelihood or probability of the risk event.References=Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative,IT Risk Resources | ISACA,Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management - Video & Lesson …
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership
regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?
Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices
Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies
Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies
Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies
The most important consideration is that the risk framework and policies are adaptable and suitable for emerging technologies. This ensures that the organization's approach to risk management remains effective and relevant as new technologies are adopted, helping to mitigate potential risks associated with these technologies.
Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?
Penetration testing
IT general controls audit
Vulnerability assessment
Fault tree analysis
The most reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application is penetration testing. Penetration testing is a process that simulates an attack on the web application by exploiting its vulnerabilities, using the same tools and techniques as real attackers. Penetration testing helps to evaluate the effectiveness of security controls, because it helps to verify that the security controls can prevent, detect, or mitigate the attack, and to measure the impact and severity of the attack. Penetration testing also helps to identify and address any weaknesses or gaps in the security controls, and to provide recommendations andsolutions for improving the security of the web application. The other options are not as reliable as penetration testing, although they may provide some evidence of the effectiveness of security controls. IT general controls audit, vulnerability assessment, and fault tree analysis are all examples of analytical or evaluative methods, which may help to assess or estimate the effectiveness of security controls, but they do not necessarily test or measure the effectiveness of security controls in a realistic scenario. References = 10
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?
Data duplication processes
Data archival processes
Data anonymization processes
Data protection processes
Data archival processes should be the primary focus of a risk practitioner when ensuring that organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations, because data archival processes ensure that records are stored securely, reliably, and accessibly for as long as they are needed. Data archival processes also help to manage the storage capacity, retention policies, and disposal procedures of records. Data duplication processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for backup and recovery purposes, not for long-term retention. Data anonymization processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for privacy and confidentiality purposes, not for legal compliance. Data protection processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for security and integrity purposes, not for retention requirements. References = Free ISACA CRISC Sample Questions and Study Guide
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?
To reduce the likelihood of insider threat
To eliminate the possibility of insider threat
To enable rapid discovery of insider threat
To reduce the impact of insider threat
The primary reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in is to reduce the likelihood of insider threat, as it informs the users of the policies, rules, andexpectations for the use of the organization’s IT resources, and deters them from engaging in unauthorized or malicious activities. The other options are not the primary reasons, as they are more related to the detection, prevention, or mitigation of insider threat, respectively, rather than the reduction of the likelihood of insider threat. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?
Perform a background check on the vendor.
Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.
Require the vendor to have liability insurance.
Clearly define the project scope
When using a third party to perform penetration testing, the most important control to minimize operational impact is to clearly define the project scope. This means specifying the objectives,boundaries, methods, and deliverables of the testing, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A clear project scope helps to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, and disruptions that could compromise the security, availability, or integrity of the systems undertest. It also helps to ensure that the testing is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and compliance requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3.2, Page 137.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?
Developing contingency plans for key processes
Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register
Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)are metrics used to monitor changes in risk exposure, enabling proactive adjustments to keep risks within appetite. They provide early warnings of potential breaches in risk thresholds.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for a startup organization that has decided to adopt externally-sourced security policies?
Availability of policy updates and support
Stakeholder buy-in of policies
Applicability to business operations
Compliance with local regulations
Externally sourced policies must be relevant and applicable to the organization's specific operations. Without operational applicability, policies offer little control value—even if they're up-to-date or legally compliant per ISACA practice domains.
In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:
Review and evaluate the risk management program.
Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.
Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.
Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.
The second line of defense provides oversight to ensure risks and controls are effectively managed. This includes compliance, risk management policies, and performance monitoring, aligning withRisk Governanceframeworks and enhancing the organization’s risk resilience.
An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?
After user acceptance testing (UAT)
Upon release to production
During backlog scheduling
When reviewing functional requirements
The application risk profile should be updated when reviewing functional requirements. This will help to identify and assess the potential risks that may arise from the changes to the application, and to plan and implement appropriate risk responses. Updating the application risk profile at this stage will also help to ensure that the changes are aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards, and that they meet the stakeholders’ expectations and needs. Updating the application risk profile after user acceptance testing, upon release to production, or during backlog scheduling are not the best points to update the risk profile, as they may be too late or too early to capture the relevant risks and their impacts. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 511
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 655.
Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?
Changes in control design
A decrease in the number of key controls
Changes in control ownership
An increase in residual risk
An IT risk and control self-assessment (RCSA) is a process that helps organizations identify and evaluate operational risks and assess the effectiveness of their control measures12. It is a structured approach that involves identifying, assessing, mitigating, and monitoring risks across all levels of an organization12.
A report to senior management is a document that summarizes and communicates the results and findings of the RCSA, and provides recommendations and action plans for improving the risk management and control processes34.
The most important aspect of an IT risk and control self-assessment to include in a report to senior management is an increase in residual risk, which is the risk remaining after risk treatment, and represents the exposure or potential impact of the risk on the organization’s objectives56.
An increase in residual risk is the most important aspect because it indicates the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or tolerate, and the gap between the current and desired risk profile56.
An increase in residual risk is also the most important aspect because it requires the attention and decision of the senior management, who are responsible for defining the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and criteria, and for ensuring that the residual risk is within the acceptable range56.
The other options are not the most important aspects, but rather possible components or outcomes of an IT risk and control self-assessment that may support or complement the report to senior management. For example:
Changes in control design are components of an IT risk and control self-assessment that involve modifying or updating the control measures to address the changes in the risk environment or the organization’s objectives56. However, changes in control design are not the most importantaspect because they do not measure or reflect the residual risk, which is the ultimate goal of the risk treatment56.
A decrease in the number of key controls is an outcome of an IT risk and control self-assessment that indicates the improvement or optimization of the control processes, and the reduction of the complexity or redundancy of the control measures56. However, a decrease in the number of key controls is not the most important aspect because it does not indicate or imply the residual risk, which may depend on other factors such as the effectiveness or efficiency of the controls56.
Changes in control ownership are components of an IT risk and control self-assessment that involve assigning or reassigning the responsibility and accountability for the control processes to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization56. However,changes in control ownership are not the most important aspect because they do not affect or determine the residual risk, which is independent of the control owners56. References =
1: Risk and control self-assessment - KPMG Global1
2: Control Self Assessments - PwC2
3: How-To Guide: Implementing Risk Control Self-Assessment Steps4
4: RISK MANAGEMENT SELF-ASSESSMENT TEMPLATE - Smartsheet5
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:
risk mitigation.
risk evaluation.
risk appetite.
risk tolerance.
Risk tolerance is the best term to describe the situation where an organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk tolerance defines the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures, such as availability, reliability, or security. Risk tolerance is usually expressed as a range, such as 99% +/- 0.5%. Risk mitigation, risk evaluation, and risk appetite are not the correct terms to describe this situation, because they refer to different aspects of risk management, such as reducing, assessing, or pursuing risk, respectively. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?
Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.
Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.
Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.
Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.
The most concerning factor for a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios is that many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk. Risk action plans are documents that define the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for implementing the risk responses and strategies for the IT risk scenarios. Risk action plans help to reduce, transfer, avoid, or accept the IT risks, and to monitor and report on the IT risk performance and improvement. Discontinuing risk action plans after senior management accepted the risk is a major concern, because it may indicate that the risk acceptance decision was not based on a proper risk analysisor evaluation, or that the risk acceptance decision was not communicated or coordinated with the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. Discontinuing risk action plans after senior management accepted the risk may also create challenges or risks for the organization, such as compliance, legal, reputational, or operational risks, or conflicts or inconsistencies with the organization’s risk appetite, risk objectives, or risk policies. The other options are not as concerning as discontinuing risk action plans after senior management accepted the risk, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the risk management process. Individuals outside IT managing action plans for the risk scenarios, target dates for completion missing from some action plans, and senior management approving multiple changes to several action plans are all factors that could affect the quality and timeliness of the risk management process, but they donot necessarily indicate a lack of risk management accountability or oversight. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-32.
Which of the following cloud service models is MOST appropriate for client organizations that want to maximize their control over management of the data life cycle?
Data as a Service (DaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides organizations with the highest level of control over their IT resources in the cloud. With IaaS, clients manage the operating systems, storage, deployed applications, and possibly limited control of select networking components. This level of control allows organizations to manage the data life cycle comprehensively, including data creation, storage, processing, and disposal. In contrast, PaaS and SaaS models abstract more of these controls, limiting the client's ability to manage the data life cycle directly.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to identify changes in the performance of the control environment?
Evaluate key performance indicators (KPIs).
Perform a control self-assessment (CSA).
Implement continuous monitoring.
Adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).
Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?
Updating the threat inventory with new threats
Automating log data analysis
Preventing the generation of false alerts
Determining threshold levels
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information about the level of exposure to a specific risk or a group of risks.
The most important factor to the effective monitoring of KRIs is determining threshold levels. This means that the acceptable or unacceptable values or ranges of the KRIs are defined and agreed upon by the relevant stakeholders.
Determining threshold levels helps to evaluate the actual performance and impact of the risks, compare them with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, identify any deviations or breaches that may require attention or action, and report them to the appropriate parties for decision making or improvement actions.
The other options are not the most important factors to the effective monitoring of KRIs. They are either secondary or not essential for KRIs.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 15
Information Technology & Security, page 9
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 7
An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?
Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.
Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.
Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.
Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.
The risk practitioner’s BEST course of action is to validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change, because outsourcing the backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider does not eliminate the risk, but rather transfers it to the service provider. The risk practitioner should verify that the service provider has adequate controls and capabilities to handle the backup and recovery procedures, and that the contractual agreement specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties. The risk practitioner should also update the risk register to reflect the new risk owner and the residual risk level. The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Option A: Accepting the risk and documenting contingency plans for data disruption is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still responsible for the risk, even though it has been transferred to the service provider. Contingency plans are also reactive measures, rather than proactive ones.
Option B: Removing the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk has been eliminated, which is not the case. The risk still exists, but it has been transferred to the service provider. The risk register should reflect the current risk status and ownership.
Option C: Mitigating the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still involved in the risk management process, even though the risk has been transferred to the service provider. The risk practitioner should rely on the service provider’s controls and capabilities, andmonitor their performance and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 196.
Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?
Gap analysis
Threat assessment
Resource skills matrix
Data quality assurance plan
The best way to enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing is to perform a gap analysis. A gap analysis is a technique that compares the current state and the desired state of a process, system, or capability, and identifies the gaps or differences between them. A gap analysis can help to evaluate the benefits, costs, risks, and opportunities of using an emerging technology for data processing, and to determine the feasibility, suitability, and readiness of adopting the emerging technology. The other options are not as helpful as a gap analysis, as they are related to the specific aspects or components ofthe data processing, not the overall assessment and comparison of the current and desired state of the data processing. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: IT Risk Identification Methods, page 19.
Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information lo a supplier?
Encrypt the data while in transit lo the supplier
Contractually obligate the supplier to follow privacy laws.
Require independent audits of the supplier's control environment
Utilize blockchain during the data transfer
Contractually obligating the supplier to follow privacy laws is the best way to mitigate the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information to a supplier, because it ensures that the supplier is legally bound to comply with the applicable laws and regulations that protect the privacy and security of the personal information. This also creates a clear accountability andliability for the supplier in case of a privacy breach, and defines the rights and obligations of both parties in relation to the personal information. The other options are not the best ways to mitigate the risk of violating privacy laws, although they may also be helpful in reducing the likelihood or impact of a privacy breach. Encrypting the data while in transit to the supplier, requiring independent audits of the supplier’s control environment, and utilizing blockchain during the data transfer are examples of technical or assurance controls that aim to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the personal information, but they do not address the legal or contractual aspects of the privacy laws. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?
The business case for the use of loT
The loT threat landscape
Policy development for loT
The network that loT devices can access
Risk scenarios: Narratives that describe potential risk events, their causes, consequences, and likelihood1.
Internet of Things (IoT): A network of interconnected devices, software, sensors, and other things that communicate and exchange data without human intervention2.
IoT threat landscape: The range and types of threats and attacks that target IoT devices, systems, and networks3.
The most helpful thing to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of IoT technology in an organization is the IoT threat landscape. The IoT threat landscape provides a comprehensive and current overview of the potential sources, methods, and impacts of cyberattacks on IoT devices, systems, and networks. Reviewing the IoT threat landscape can help an organization to:
Identify the most relevant and prevalent threats and vulnerabilities that affect IoT technology, such as weak passwords, insecure interfaces, insufficient data protection, poor device management, or lack of encryption4.
Assess the likelihood and impact of different types of attacks, such as malware infections, denial-of-service attacks, data breaches, unauthorized access, or sabotage4.
Prioritize the most critical and urgent risks that need to be addressed and mitigated.
Develop realistic and plausible risk scenarios that reflect the actual IoT threat environment and the organization’s specific context and objectives.
The other options are not as helpful as the IoT threat landscape when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of IoT technology in an organization, because they do not provide a comprehensive and current view of the potential threats and attacks that target IoT technology. The business case for the use of IoT, which is the justification and rationale for adopting IoT technology based on the expected benefits, costs, and risks, may help to understand the value and purpose of IoT technology for the organization, but it does not provide detailed information on the specific threats and vulnerabilities that affect IoT technology. Policy development for IoT, which is the process of creating and implementing rules and guidelines for the governance, management, and security of IoT technology, may help to establish the standards and expectations for IoT technology within the organization, but it does not provide an overview of the external threats and attacks that target IoT technology. The network that IoT devices can access, which is the infrastructure and system that enables the connectivity and communicationof IoT devices, may help to identify the potential entry points and attack vectors for IoT threats, but it does not provide a complete picture of the types and impacts of IoT threats.
References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, What is the Internet of Things (IoT)? With Examples | Coursera, Top IoT security issues and challenges (2022) – Thales, 8 Internet of Things Threats and Security Risks - SecurityScorecard
An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?
The balanced scorecard
A cost-benefit analysis
The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning
A cost-benefit analysis is a tool that compares the costs and benefits of different alternatives, such as updating software or continuing to use end-of-life software. A cost-benefit analysis can provide the mosthelpful information to justify investing in updated software, as it can show the potential savings, benefits, and risks of each option, and help the decision-makers choose the best course of action. A cost-benefit analysis can also include qualitative factors, such as security, compliance, performance, and customer satisfaction, that may be affected by the software update. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 231. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 8. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 231. CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question231.
Which of the following describes the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance?
Risk appetite is completely independent of risk tolerance.
Risk tolerance is used to determine risk appetite.
Risk appetite and risk tolerance are synonymous.
Risk tolerance may exceed risk appetite.
Relationship between Risk Appetite and Risk Tolerance:
Risk Appetite: Defined as the amount of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. It is a broad measure that reflects the organization's strategy and goals.
Risk Tolerance: Refers to the acceptable level of variation in performance relative to achieving objectives. It is narrower and can sometimes exceed the risk appetite in specific situations where deviations are permissible.
Contextual Understanding:
Controlled Exceedance: Risk tolerance allows for occasional and controlled exceedance of the risk appetite, typically under specific conditions and for compelling business reasons.
Management Decisions: Decisions to exceed risk appetite should be carefully considered and documented, ensuring they do not threaten the overall risk capacity of the organization.
Comparison with Other Options:
Independent of Each Other: Incorrect, as risk tolerance is related to risk appetite.
Risk Tolerance Determines Risk Appetite: Incorrect, risk appetite is generally broader and set before determining risk tolerance.
Synonymous: Incorrect, they are distinct concepts with risk tolerance providing operational flexibility within the boundaries set by risk appetite.
Best Practices:
Clear Definitions: Clearly define and communicate the organization’s risk appetite and risk tolerance.
Regular Reviews: Regularly review and adjust risk appetite and tolerance to align with changes in business strategy and external environment.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses are effective?
Residual risk is within risk tolerance.
Risk with low impact is accepted.
Risk ownership is identified and assigned.
Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.
Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation from the desired outcome or objective. If the residual risk is within the risk tolerance, it means that the risk response has been effective in reducing the risk to an acceptable level.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1.1: Residual Risk
•Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management - Video & Lesson Transcript | Study.com
•Risk Tolerance - ISACA
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?
Escalate to senior management.
Transfer the risk.
Implement monitoring controls.
Recalculate the risk.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations is to escalate to senior management, as they have the authority and responsibility to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocate the necessary resources. Transferring the risk, implementing monitoring controls, and recalculating the risk are possible risk responses, but they require senior management approval and direction. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, page 19; CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 107.
Which of the following provides the MOST insight regarding an organization's risk culture?
Awareness training participation rate
Risk assessment results
Senior management interviews
Risk management framework
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to ISACA CRISC guidance)
Risk culture reflects how leadership and staff actually perceive, discuss, and act on risk. CRISC emphasizes tone at the top, decision-making behavior, openness to reporting issues, and integration of risk considerations into strategic choices as key indicators of culture. Senior management interviews reveal these aspects directly—how leaders prioritize risk, how they respond to bad news, and whether risk considerations are embedded in planning and performance expectations. Training participation rates show awareness activity but not necessarily attitudes or behavior change. Risk assessment results are more about the organization’s risk profile than underlying culture. A documented risk management framework is a formal structure; it may be well designed but not actually lived. Interviews with senior leadership provide qualitative but rich insight into whether the framework and policies are truly influencing behavior.
Which of the following would be MOST useful to management when allocating resources to mitigate risk to the organization?
Risk assessments
Control self-assessments (CSAs)
Risk-based audits
Vulnerability analysis
Risk assessmentsprovide a prioritized view of potential threats, their likelihood, and impact. This enables management tofocus resourceson high-priority risks, ensuring cost-effective mitigation aligned with organizational goals.
Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic when designing a key risk indicator (KRI)?
It is linked to a key performance indicator (KPI)
It is linked to a key control indicator (KCI)
It contains an objective alert threshold
It aligns with industry benchmarks
For a KRI to be actionable and effective, it must haveobjective thresholds. These thresholds act as triggers for decision-making and allow for timely response before risk materializes.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?
The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions
The number of servers with local credentials to install patches
The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements
The number of servers running the software patching service
This KPI measures how well the server patch management process meets the agreed-upon standards and expectations for timeliness, quality, and security. It reflects the efficiency and effectiveness of the patch deployment and the compliance with the patch policy. It also helps to identify and address any issues or delays that may affect the patching performance.
References
•Patch Management KPI Metrics - Motadata
•KPI Examples for Patch and Vulnerability Management - Heimdal Security
•Measuring the Effectiveness of Your Patch Management Strategy - Automox
An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?
Confidentiality breach
Institutional knowledge loss
Intellectual property loss
Unauthorized access
The type of risk that is most likely to materialize as a result of allowing several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs is institutional knowledge loss, as it represents the loss of valuable information, experience, and expertise that the employees have accumulated over time, and that may not be easily transferred or replaced. Confidentiality breach, intellectual property loss, and unauthorized access are not the most likely types of risk, as they are more related to the security, ownership, or access of information, respectively, rather than the retention or transfer of knowledge. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?
Self-assessments by process owners
Mitigation plan progress reports
Risk owner attestation
Change in the level of residual risk
Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk mitigation plans have been implemented. Residual risk reflects the effectiveness of the risk response in reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk. The best evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively is the change in the level of residual risk. A change in the level of residual risk can be measured by comparing the risk level before and after the risk mitigation plans have been executed. A change in the level of residual risk can also be evaluated by comparing the actual residual risk with the target or acceptable residual risk. A change in the level of residual risk can demonstrate how well the risk mitigation plans have achieved the risk objectives and met the risk criteria. A change in the level of residual risk can also provide feedback and lessons learned for future risk management activities. References = Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management, Residual Risk: What It Is and How to Manage It, Residual Risk: How to Calculate and Manage It.
What would be the MAIN concern associated with a decentralized IT function maintaining multiple risk registers?
Risk treatment efforts within the IT function may overlap one another.
Duplicate IT risk scenarios may be documented across the organization.
Aggregate risk within the IT function may exceed the organization's appetite.
Related IT risk scenarios in the IT function may be updated at different times.
Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?
Least privilege access
Inability to edit
Ability to overwrite
Encryption
A security log is a record of security-related events or activities that occur in an IT system, network, or application, such as user authentication, access control, firewall activity, or intrusion detection1. Security logscan help to monitor and audit the security posture and performance of the IT environment, and to detect and investigate any security incidents, breaches, or anomalies2.
The integrity of a security log refers to the accuracy and completeness of the log data, and the assurance that the log data has not been modified, deleted, or tampered with by unauthorized or malicious parties3. The integrity of a security log is essential for ensuring the reliability and validity of the log analysis and reporting, and for providing evidence and accountability for security incidents and compliance4.
Among the four options given, the most important factor to the integrity of a security log is the inability to edit. This means that the security log data should be protected from any unauthorized or accidental changes or alterations, such as adding, deleting, or modifying log entries, or changing the log format or timestamps5. The inability to edit can be achieved by implementing various controls and measures, such as:
Applying digital signatures or hashes to the log data to verify its authenticity and integrity
Encrypting the log data to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure
Implementing least privilege access to the log data to restrict who can view, modify, or delete the log data
Using write-once media or devices to store the log data, such as CD-ROMs or WORM drives
Sending the log data to a secure and centralized log server or repository, and using syslog or other protocols to ensure secure and reliable log transmission
Performing regular backups and archiving of the log data to prevent data loss or corruption
References = Security Log: Best Practices for Logging and Management, Security Audit Logging Guideline, Confidentiality, Integrity, & Availability: Basics of Information Security, Steps for preserving the integrity of log data, Guide to Computer Security Log Management
Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?
Lack of robust awareness programs
infrequent risk assessments of key controls
Rapid changes in IT procedures
Unavailability of critical IT systems
Unavailability of critical IT systems poses the greatest risk to an organization’s operations during a major IT transformation, because it can disrupt the business continuity, productivity, and performance of the organization. Unavailability of critical IT systems can also cause financial, reputational, or legal damages to the organization, and affect the quality and delivery of products or services to the customers. The other options are not the greatest risks, although they may also pose some challenges or threats to the organization during a major IT transformation. Lack of robust awareness programs, infrequent risk assessments of key controls, and rapid changes in IT procedures are examples of management or process risks that can affect the planning, execution,or monitoring of the IT transformation, but they do not have the same impact or severity as the unavailability of critical IT systems. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
In an organization dependent on data analytics to drive decision-making, which of the following would BEST help to minimize the risk associated with inaccurate data?
Establishing an intellectual property agreement
Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities
Periodically reviewing big data strategies
Benchmarking to industry best practice
Periodically reviewing big data strategies is the best option to minimize the risk of inaccurate data, because it allows the organization to assess the quality, validity, and reliability of the data sources and the analytics methods. It also enables the organization to identify and address any gaps, errors, or inconsistencies in the data and the results. By reviewing the big data strategies, the organization can ensure that the data analytics are aligned with the business objectives and the risk appetite.
Establishing an intellectual property agreement is not relevant to the risk of inaccurate data, as it is a legal measure to protect the ownership and use of the data, not its quality or accuracy.
Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities is a good practice, but it is not sufficient to minimize the risk of inaccurate data, as it only focuses on the security aspect of the data, not the validity or reliability of the data itself.
Benchmarking to industry best practice is a useful way to compare the performance and results of the data analytics, but it does not directly address the risk of inaccurate data, as it assumes that the data and the methods are already valid and reliable. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, ISACA, 2019, page 62-63.
An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?
Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave
Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member
Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation
Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation
The number of suspected malicious activities reported since the policy's implementation directly measures thepolicy's effectiveness in identifying and mitigating insider threats. This aligns withKey Performance Indicators (KPIs)used to evaluate control outcomes.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?
To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities
To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits
To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements
To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective
The primary reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management is to ensure that IT risk is managed within acceptable limits, because it helps to inform and advise the senior management on the current state and direction of IT risk, and to support the risk-based decision making and prioritization. An IT risk profile is a summary of the key IT risks that an organization faces, and their implications for the organization’s objectives and strategy. An IT risk profile may change or evolve over time, due to factors such as newtechnologies, business initiatives, or external events. Reporting changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management is the primary reason, as it helps to ensure that the senior management is aware of and prepared for the IT risk challenges and opportunities, and that the IT risk is managed within the acceptable limits defined by the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities, to ensure the organization complies with legal requirements, and to ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective are all possible reasons for reporting changes and trends in the IT risk profile, but they are not the primary reason, as they are not directly related to the management of IT risk within acceptable limits. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3, page 91
Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?
Maintaining a documented risk register
Establishing a risk awareness program
Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents
Allocating resources for risk remediation
A risk awareness program is a set of activities that aim to educate and inform employees about the organization’s risk culture, policies, and procedures. A risk awareness program can help improve an organization’s risk culture by enhancing the employees’ understanding of risk, their roles and responsibilities in risk management, and the benefits of risk mitigation. A risk awareness program can also foster a culture of openness, trust, and collaboration among employees, managers, and stakeholders, which can improve the organization’s risk performance and resilience.
Maintaining a documented risk register, rewarding employees for reporting security incidents, and allocating resources for risk remediation are also important aspects of risk management, but they do not directly address the organization’s risk culture, which is the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that influence how risk is perceived and handled within the organization.
Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?
Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations
Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit
Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value
Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance
Effective risk reporting to the board of directors requires communication that aligns with the organization's strategic goals and business value. By correlating risk information to corporate objectives, the board can better understand the implications of risks on the organization's performance and make informed decisions. This approach ensures that risk discussions are relevant and meaningful at the executive level.
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to
recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.
The most appropriate action for the risk manager to take after undertaking a risk assessment of a production system is to inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them, as the process owner has the authority and responsibility to manage the production system and its associated risks and controls, and to decide on the optimal risk response. Recommending a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system, informing the IT manager of the concerns and proposing measures to reduce them, and informing the development team of the concerns and together formulating risk reduction measures are not the most appropriate actions, as they may not involve the process owner, who is the key stakeholder and decision maker for the production system and its risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the blowing is MOST important when implementing an organization s security policy?
Obtaining management support
Benchmarking against industry standards
Assessing compliance requirements
Identifying threats and vulnerabilities
The most important thing when implementing an organization’s security policy is to obtain management support. Management support means that the senior management and the board of directors endorse, approve, and fund the security policy and its implementation. Management support also means that the management communicates, promotes, and enforces the security policy across the organization. Management support can help to ensure that the security policy is aligned with the organizational strategy and objectives, and that it is effective, consistent, and sustainable. The other options are not as important as obtaining management support, as they are related to the specific aspects or components of the security policy implementation, not the overall success and acceptance of the security policy implementation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?
Assigning a data owner
Implementing technical control over the assets
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Scheduling periodic audits
Assigning a data owner would best facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements. A data owner is responsible for defining the classification of the data, ensuring that the data is properly labeled, and approving access requests. Implementing technical control over the assets, implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, and scheduling periodic audits are important activities, but they are not as effective as assigning a data owner. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
While reviewing an organization's monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?
Temporarily suspend emergency changes.
Document the control deficiency in the risk register.
Conduct a root cause analysis.
Continue monitoring change management metrics.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, a root cause analysis is a technique that identifies the underlying causes of an event or a problem. It helps to determine the most effective actions to prevent or mitigate the recurrence of the event or problem. A root cause analysis is the best approach for the risk practitioner to take in this scenario, because it will help to understand why the number of emergency changes has increased substantially and what can be done to address the issue. The other options are not the best approaches, because they do not address the underlying causes of the problem. Temporarily suspending emergency changes may disrupt the business operations and create more risks. Documenting the control deficiency in the risk register is a passive action that does not resolve the problem. Continuing monitoring change management metrics is an ongoing activity that does not provide any insight into the problem. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.4, page 130.
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?
Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.
Risk ownership is identified and assigned.
Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.
Residual risk is within risk tolerance.
Risk treatment options are the actions or plans that are implemented to modify or reduce the risk exposure of the organization. Risk treatment options receive adequate funding when the organization allocatessufficient resources and budget to support the risk response actions, and to ensure that the risk controls are effective and efficient. This is the best evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in the organization, as it shows that the organizationprioritizes and values the risk management process, and that it aligns its risk strategy and objectives with its business goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 245. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 245. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 245.
Risk tolerance
Risk velocity
Risk appetite
Risk capacity
Risk capacity refers to the maximum level of risk an organization can absorb or sustain without jeopardizing its viability. It is directly influenced by the organization’s financial resources and largest annualized losses it can bear. Risk appetite and risk tolerance reflect willingness and acceptable variations but are distinct from capacity, which is the hard limit on risk exposure.
During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?
Risk management framework adopted by each company
Risk registers of both companies
IT balanced scorecard of each company
Most recent internal audit findings from both companies
The most useful input to the parent company’s risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase is the risk registers of both companies. The risk register is a document that records the details of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, likelihood, impact, and responses. By reviewing the risk registers of both companies, the risk practitioner can identify the existing and potential risks that may affect the post-acquisition integration, performance, and value. The risk management framework, the IT balancedscorecard, and the most recent internal audit findings are other possible inputs, but they are not as useful as the risk registers. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following risk impacts should be the PRIMARY consideration for determining recovery priorities in a disaster recovery situation?
Data security
Recovery costs
Business disruption
Recovery resource availability
The primary consideration for determining recovery priorities in a disaster recovery situation is the impact of business disruption on the organization’s mission, objectives, and stakeholders. Business disruption can result in loss of revenue, reputation, customer satisfaction, market share, and competitive advantage. Therefore, the recovery priorities should be based on the criticality of the business processes and functions that support the organization’s value proposition and strategic goals. Data security (A), recovery costs (B), and recovery resource availability (D) are important factors, but they are secondary to the impact of business disruption. Data security should be ensured throughout the recovery process, but it does not determine the recovery order. Recovery costs should be balanced with the benefits of restoring the business operations, but they do not reflect the urgency of the recovery. Recovery resource availability should be assessed and allocated according to the recovery priorities, but it does not define the recovery sequence. (Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 5th Edition, page 982)
An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?
Audit reports
Industry benchmarks
Financial forecasts
Annual threat reports
The best input for conducting a review of emerging risk is the annual threat reports. Emerging risk is the risk that arises from new or evolving sources, or from existing sources that have not been previously considered or recognized. Emerging risk may have significant impact on the organization’s objectives, strategies, operations, or reputation, and may require new or different risk responses. Annual threat reports are the reports that provide information and analysis on the current and future trends, developments, and challenges in the threat landscape, such as cyberattacks, natural disasters, geopolitical conflicts, or pandemics. Annual threat reports can help to identify and assess the emerging risk, as they can provide insights into the sources, drivers, indicators, and scenarios of the emerging risk, as well as the potential impact and likelihood of the emerging risk. Annual threat reports can also help to benchmark and compare the organization’s risk exposure and preparedness with the industry and the peers, and to prioritize and respond to the emerging risk. Audit reports, industry benchmarks, and financial forecasts are not as useful as annual threat reports, as they do not focus on the emerging risk, and may not capture the latest or future changes in the threat landscape. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?
Cable lock
Data encryption
Periodic backup
Biometrics access control
The best way to reduce the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information is to use data encryption. Data encryption is a process that transforms the data into an unreadable or unintelligible format, using a secret key or algorithm, to protect the data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Data encryption helps to reduce the risk of data theft, because even if the laptop is stolen, the data on the laptop cannot be accessed or used by the thief without the proper key or algorithm. Data encryption also helps to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts that may require the protection of sensitive data. The other options are not as effective as data encryption, although they may provide some protection for the laptop or the data. A cable lock, a periodic backup, and a biometrics access control are allexamples of physical or logical controls, which may help to prevent or deter the theft of the laptop, or to recover or restore the data on the laptop, but they do not necessarily protect the data from unauthorized access or disclosure if the laptop is stolen. References = 8
Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors
Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting
Frequency and number of new software releases
Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime
Number of IT support staff available after business hours
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing model that provides software applications over the internet, without requiring the users to install or maintain them on their own devices. SaaS vendors are responsible for hosting, managing, and updating the software applications, and providing technical support and security to the users. The key performance indicator (KPI) that would best measure the risk of a service outage when using a SaaS vendor is the frequency and duration of unplanned downtime, which is the amount and length of time that the software applications are unavailable or inaccessible due to unexpected events, such as network failures, server crashes, power outages, cyberattacks, etc. The frequency and duration of unplanned downtime indicate the reliability and availability of the SaaS vendor, and the potential impact of the service outage on the users’ business operations and productivity. References = 3
Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to change the likelihood rating in the risk register?
Risk appetite
Control cost
Control effectiveness
Risk tolerance
The likelihood rating in the risk register is a measure of how probable it is that a risk event will occur, given the current conditions and controls. The risk practitioner should change the likelihood rating if there is a significant change in the effectiveness of the controls that are implemented to prevent or reduce the risk. For example, if a control becomes obsolete, ineffective, or bypassed, the likelihood rating should increase, as the risk event becomes more likely to happen. Conversely, if a control becomes more efficient, reliable, or robust, the likelihood rating should decrease, as the risk event becomes less likely to happen. The other options are not likely to cause a change in the likelihood rating, as they are not directly related to the probability of the risk event. Risk appetite is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Control cost is the amount of resources that are required to implement and maintain a control. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that an organization is willing to allow for a risk to deviate from its desired level or expected outcome. These factors may influence the risk response or the risk acceptance, but not the likelihood rating. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: Risk Register, p. 25-26.
In which of the following scenarios would a risk practitioner be required to provide the MOST justification for a risk assessment?
Modeling a threat-based risk event
Calculating mean time between failures (MTBF)
Using a semi-quantitative approach
Calculating adjusted loss expectancy (ALE)
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to ISACA CRISC guidance)
Threat-based risk event modeling often involves significant expert judgment: choosing plausible threats, estimating their capability, attack paths, and motivations, and modeling multi-step attack scenarios. According to CRISC, such modeling demands strong justification and documented rationale because assumptions and inputs may be challenged by stakeholders and auditors. Semi-quantitative approaches and ALE calculations also require explanation, but they are generally based on standardized scales, historical data, or accepted formulas. MTBF is an engineering reliability metric, usually based on vendor data or operational history, requiring limited justification from a risk perspective. Threat-based modeling, however, drives critical decisions about controls and investment, and because it can be sensitive to subjective inputs, risk practitioners must carefully justify scenario selection, likelihood estimates, and impact assumptions to maintain credibility and enable informed governance decisions.
The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:
help an organization identify emerging threats.
benchmark the organization's risk profile.
identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.
enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk. They enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk by alerting the organization when the risk level exceeds thepredefined threshold or tolerance. By using KRIs, the organization can track the changes in the risk environment and take timely and appropriate actions to mitigate or avoid the risk.
Helping an organization identify emerging threats, benchmarking the organization’s risk profile, and identifying trends in the organization’s vulnerabilities are all possible uses of KRIs, but they are not the primary benefit. The primary benefit is to enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk, which encompasses all these aspects and more. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 27-281
An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the countrywhere it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?
Analyze data protection methods.
Understand data flows.
Include a right-to-audit clause.
Implement strong access controls.
The first step when addressing the situation of moving the payroll system to a SaaS application and complying with the new data privacy regulation is to understand the data flows. This means identifying where the data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred, and who has access to it. Understanding the data flows can help to determine the scope and impact of the regulation, as well as the potential risks and gaps in the current state. It can also help to identify the roles and responsibilities of the organization and the SaaS provider regarding data protection and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1.2, p. 237-238
How does the identification of risk scenarios contribute to effective IT risk management?
By facilitating post-incident investigations
By enabling proactive risk assessment
By identifying cybersecurity incidents
By creating awareness of risk mitigation strategies
Identifying risk scenarios allows organizations to anticipate how threats can materialize, what assets may be affected, and the potential impact. According to CRISC, scenario development is a core component of proactive risk assessment because it enables organizations to evaluate likelihood, impact, and existing controls before incidents occur. It also supports risk quantification and prioritization. Post-incident investigations relate to after-the-fact analysis, whereas scenario analysis occurs beforehand. Identifying incidents is a monitoring activity, not a scenario-building function. Awareness is a secondary outcome, not the primary purpose.
To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?
Operational strategies
Risk governance
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)
Risk appetite
Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the level of risk that the organization is prepared to take to achieve its strategic goals, and provides guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. To define the risk management strategy, which is the plan and approach for managing the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives, the factor that must be set by the board of directors is the risk appetite. The board of directors is the highest governing body of the organization, and has the ultimate responsibility and authority for setting the direction and oversight of the organization. By setting the risk appetite, the board of directors can communicate its expectations and preferences for the risk exposure and performance of the organization, and ensure alignment with the business objectives and strategies. References = 3
When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:
process flow.
business impact analysis (BIA).
service level agreement (SLA).
system architecture.
The most helpful information to review when determining a system’s criticality is the associated business impact analysis (BIA). A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of disruptions to the organization’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA can help to determine the system’s criticality by assessing its impact on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value. Process flow, service level agreement (SLA), and system architecture are other possible information sources, but they are not as helpful as the BIA. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?
Organization's information security manager
Organization's risk function
Service provider's IT management
Service provider's information security manager
The organization’s information security manager is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider. The information security manager is accountable for ensuring that the security policies and standards of the organization are followed by the service provider, and that the security objectives and requirements are met. The information security manager is also responsible for monitoring and evaluating the security performance and compliance of the service provider, and for managing the security risks and incidents that may arise from the outsourcing arrangement. The organization’s risk function, the service provider’s IT management, and the service provider’s information security manager are not responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced, as they have different roles and responsibilities in the outsourcing process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1.2, page 2461
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 651.
An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:
avoided.
accepted.
mitigated.
transferred.
Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the existence and potential impact of a risk, but deciding not to take any action to reduce or eliminate it. Risk acceptance can be appropriate when the cost or effort of implementing a risk response outweighs the benefit, or when there are no feasible or effective risk responses available. An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy, which poses a security risk to the organization. The organization is unsure of the reason for this issue, and has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information, rather than taking any immediate action to resolve the issue. As a result of this decision, the risk has been accepted, as the organization has chosen to tolerate the risk exposure for a certain period of time, and has not implemented any controls or measures to prevent or reduce the risk occurrence or impact. References = Risk Response Strategies: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept, Risk Response Strategies: What They Are and How to Use Them, Risk Response Strategy: Definition, Types, and Examples.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?
It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.
It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.
There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.
Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.
The primary concern for a risk practitioner in adopting innovative big data analytics is the potential re-identification of individuals from previously anonymized data. Advanced analytics techniques can inadvertently combine datasets in ways that reveal personal identities, leading to privacy breaches and regulatory non-compliance. This risk is heightened when data from multiple sources are aggregated, increasing the chance of re-identification.
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?
Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).
Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).
Interview the risk owner.
Conduct a gap analysis
The best way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization is to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. KRIs can help to monitor the changes in risk levels over time, identify emerging risks, and trigger risk response actions when the risk exceeds the acceptable thresholds2. KRIs can also help to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives and context. The other options are not the best ways to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization, as they do not provide the same level of insight and guidance as KRIs. Monitoring key performance indicators (KPIs) may show the results or outcomes of the business processes, but not the risks or uncertainties that affect them. Interviewing the risk owner may provide some subjective or qualitative information on the risk perception or attitude, but not the objective or quantitative data on the risk exposure or impact. Conducting a gap analysis may show the difference between the current and desired state of the organization, but not the causes or sources of the risk. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide
Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?
Align business objectives to the risk profile.
Assess risk against business objectives
Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.
Explain risk details to management.
The best way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response is to assess risk against business objectives. This means comparing the level and nature of the risks with the goals and strategies of the organization, and determining which risks pose the most significant threat or opportunity to the achievement of those objectives. By assessing risk against business objectives, the risk practitioner can help management identify the most critical and relevant risks, and prioritize the risk response actions accordingly. The risk response actions should be aligned with the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to take in order to meet its strategic goals1. The other options are not the best ways for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response, as they are either less effective orless specific than assessing risk against business objectives. Aligning business objectives to the risk profile is a way of ensuring that the organization’s objectives are realistic and achievable, given the current and potential risks that the organization faces. However, this is not the same as prioritizing risk response, as it does not indicate which risks should be addressed first or howtheyshould be managed. Implementing an organization-specific risk taxonomy is a way of creating a common language and classification system for describing and categorizing risks. This can help improve the consistency and clarity of risk communication and reporting across the organization. However, this is not the same as prioritizing risk response, as it does not measure the likelihood and impact of the risks, or their relation to the organization’s objectives. Explaining risk details to management is a way of providing information and insight on the sources, drivers, consequences, and responses of the risks. This can help increase the awareness and understanding of the risks among the decision makers and stakeholders. However, this is not the same as prioritizing risk response, as it does not suggest or recommend the best course of action for managing the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.6, Page 57.
When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.
Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.
Lack of senior management involvement.
Use of multiple risk registers.
Senior management involvement is a critical driver for the success of any risk management program. Without their engagement, there is a lack of strategic oversight, resource allocation, and prioritization of risk management initiatives, directly impacting the organization's ability to meet risk objectives. This is emphasized in theGovernance Principlesof CRISC.
Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?
Risk practitioner
Business manager
Risk owner
Control owner
The risk owner should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels, as they have the authority and responsibility to manage the risk and its associated controls, and to report on the risk status and performance. The risk practitioner, the business manager, and the control owner are not the best choices, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to risk identification, assessment, response, and reporting, but they are not accountable for the risk and its monitoring. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
A risk practitioner has been made aware of a problem in an IT system that was missed during a routine risk assessment. Which of the following is the practitioner's BEST course of action?
Record the problem as a new issue in the risk management system
Record a new issue but backdate it to the original risk assessment date
Report the vulnerability to the asset owner's manager
Document the issue during the next risk assessment
Thebest practiceis torecord the problem immediately as a new issuein the risk management system. ISACA emphasizes maintaining an up-to-date risk register to ensure emerging issues are tracked and addressed in a timely manner.
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The percentage of unpatched systems is a:
threat vector.
critical success factor (CSF).
key performance indicator (KPI).
key risk indicator (KRI).
The percentage of unpatched systems is best classified as a Key Risk Indicator (KRI). KRIs are metrics used by organizations to provide an early signal of increasing risk exposures in various areas of the business. Here’s a
Understanding KRIs:
Definition: KRIs are specific metrics that provide insights into the risk level of an organization. They help in identifying potential risks that could impact the business negatively if not addressed promptly.
Purpose: KRIs are used to monitor the effectiveness of risk management strategies and to provide an early warning system for emerging risks.
Percentage of Unpatched Systems as a KRI:
Indicator of Vulnerability: The percentage of unpatched systems directly indicates how vulnerable an organization is to cyber threats. Unpatched systems are a common entry point for attackers, making this metric critical for assessing the organization's exposure to cyber risks.
Impact on Security Posture: A high percentage of unpatched systems can significantly increase the likelihood of security incidents, making it a valuable metric for risk management.
Proactive Risk Management: By monitoring this KRI, organizations can take proactive measures to address vulnerabilities before they are exploited.
Comparison with Other Options:
Threat Vector: A threat vector refers to the path or means by which a threat can reach and impact an asset. It is not a metric like the percentage of unpatched systems.
Critical Success Factor (CSF): CSFs are essential elements necessary for an organization to achieve its mission. While important, they are not specific metrics used to measure risk.
Key Performance Indicator (KPI): KPIs measure how effectively an organization is achieving its key business objectives. While related, KPIs focus on performance rather than risk exposure.
Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?
Ad hoc control reporting
Control self-assessment
Continuous monitoring
Predictive analytics
Control effectiveness is the degree to which a control achieves its intended objective and mitigates the risk that it is designed to address. It is measured by comparing the actual performance and outcome of the control with the expected or desired performance and outcome.
The best method for assessing control effectiveness is continuous monitoring, which is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and outcome of the controls on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring provides timely and accurate information on the status and results of the controls, and enables the identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Continuous monitoring can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, dashboards, indicators, metrics, logs, audits, reviews, etc. Continuous monitoring can also be integrated with the risk management process, and aligned with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite.
The other options are not the best methods for assessing control effectiveness, because they do not provide the same level of timeliness, accuracy, and completeness of information on the performance and outcome of the controls.
Ad hoc control reporting is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and outcome of the controls on an irregular or occasional basis. Ad hoc control reporting may be triggered by specific events, requests, or incidents, and it may not cover all the relevant or critical controls. Ad hoc control reporting may not provide sufficient or consistentinformation on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Control self-assessment is the process of allowing the control owners or operators to evaluate and report on the performance and outcome of their own controls. Control self-assessment can provide useful insights and feedback from the control owners or operators, and it can enhance their awareness and accountability for the control effectiveness. However, control self-assessment may not be objective, reliable, or independent, and it may not cover all the relevant or critical controls. Control self-assessment may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment.
Predictive analytics is the process of using statistical techniques and models to analyze historical and current data, and to make predictions or forecasts about future events or outcomes. Predictive analytics can provide useful insights and trends on the potential performance and outcome of the controls, and it can support the decision making and planning for the control effectiveness. However, predictive analytics may not be accurate, valid, or reliable, and it may not reflect the actual or current performance and outcome of the controls. Predictive analytics may not provide sufficient or consistent information on the control effectiveness, and it may not enable the timely and proactive identification and correction of any issues or gaps in the control environment. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 150
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?
Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities
Inaccurate reporting of results
Increased number of vulnerabilities
Network performance degradation
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool is the inaccurate reporting of results. A vulnerability scanning tool is a software that scans the network or system for known vulnerabilities and generates a report of the findings. However, the tool may produce false positives (reporting vulnerabilities that do not exist) or false negatives (missing vulnerabilities that do exist). This can lead to incorrect risk assessment, ineffective risk response, and wasted resources. Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities, increased number of vulnerabilities, and network performance degradation are other possible concerns, but they are not as critical as the inaccurate reporting of results. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.
Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.
Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.
Review the organization's data inventory.
Review Assignments of Data Ownership for Key Assets:
Data Ownership: Ensuring that data ownership is clearly assigned helps establish accountability for data protection. Data owners are responsible for the classification, management, and protection of data.
Baseline Understanding: Reviewing data ownership assignments provides a baseline understanding of who is responsible for sensitive data and ensures that the responsibilities are clearly defined and understood.
Compliance and Control: Proper data ownership ensures that controls are in place and that there is compliance with data protection policies and regulations.
Comparison with Other Options:
Identify Staff Who Have Access to Sensitive Data: This is important but should follow the establishment of clear data ownership to ensure that access controls are appropriately applied.
Identify Recent and Historical Incidents Involving Data Loss: Reviewing incidents helps understand past issues but does not address current data ownership and accountability.
Review the Organization's Data Inventory: While important, a data inventory review is part of understanding data ownership and control but should not be the first step.
Best Practices:
Clear Documentation: Ensure that data ownership is clearly documented and communicated across the organization.
Regular Reviews: Conduct regular reviews of data ownership assignments to ensure they remain accurate and up-to-date.
Training and Awareness: Provide training to data owners on their roles and responsibilities regarding data protection and risk management.
Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Verifying that project objectives are met
Identifying project cost overruns
Leveraging an independent review team
Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix
The most important activity when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is to verify that the project objectives are met. The project objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the project aims to achieve. By verifying that the project objectives are met, the post-implementation review can evaluate the success and value of the project, and identify the lessons learned and best practices for future projects. Identifying project cost overruns, leveraging an independent review team, and reviewing the project initiation risk matrix are other possible activities, but they are not as important as verifying that the project objectives are met. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?
Analyzing cyber intelligence reports
Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants
Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register
Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment
The best tool to help prioritize investment efforts in the organization’s cybersecurity program is to review the outcome of the latest security risk assessment. A security risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s information assets and systems. By reviewing the outcome of the security risk assessment, senior management can identify the most critical and urgent risks, and allocate the resources and fundsaccordingly. Analyzing cyber intelligence reports, engaging independent cybersecurity consultants, and increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register are other possible tools, but they are not as effective as reviewing the outcome of the security risk assessment. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?
The criticality of the asset
The monetary value of the asset
The vulnerability profile of the asset
The size of the asset's user base
The criticality of the asset is the most important factor to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process, because it reflects the importance or significance of the asset to the organization’s objectives or functions, and the potential impact or consequence of losing or compromising the asset. An asset is a resource or capability that has value to the organization, such as data, systems, applications, infrastructure, or people. The value of an asset is a measure of the worth or benefit of the asset to the organization, and the cost or loss of the asset to the organization. The risk identification process is a process of systematically identifying the sources and types of risk that an organization faces, and estimating their likelihood and impact. The criticality of the asset is the most important factor, as it helps to prioritize and focus on the assets that have the highest value and impact, and to determine the appropriate level of protection and investment for the assets. The monetary value of the asset, the vulnerability profile of the asset, and the size of the asset’s user base are all possible factors to consider when determining the value of an asset, but they are not the most important factor, as they do not directly reflect the criticality of the asset to the organization’s objectives or functions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 83
Which of the following BEST supports an accurate asset inventory system?
Asset management metrics are aligned to industry benchmarks
Organizational information risk controls are continuously monitored
There are defined processes in place for onboarding assets
The asset management team is involved in the budgetary planning process
Accurate asset inventories depend on havingformal, standardized processes for onboarding new assets. ISACA emphasizes that without proper onboarding and updating procedures, asset data quickly becomes inaccurate and unreliable for risk management.
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The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:
plan awareness programs for business managers.
evaluate maturity of the risk management process.
assist in the development of a risk profile.
maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the primary reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to evaluate the maturity of the risk management process, as it provides an independent and objective assessment of the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management activities and controls. An internal audit report helps to:
Identify and evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of the risk management process and its alignment with the organization’s objectives and strategy
Detect and report any gaps, errors, or deficiencies in the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring processes and controls
Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address the issues or findings in the risk management process
Communicate and coordinate the audit results and recommendations with the relevant stakeholders, such as the risk owners, the senior management, and the board
Enhance the accountability and transparency of the risk management process and its outcomes
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 223-2241
Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:
risk register
risk catalog
risk scenario
RACI matrix
A RACI matrix is a tool that assigns the roles and responsibilities for each risk, such as who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. A RACI matrix helps to clarify the expectations and accountabilities for each risk owner and stakeholder, and to ensure that the risk is managed and monitored effectively and efficiently.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies. A risk register does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the ownership and response.
A risk catalog is a collection of risks that have been identified and categorized based on common attributes, such as source, type, or impact. A risk catalog does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the classification and description.
A risk scenario is a technique that simulates the possible outcomes of different risk events and assesses their impact on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. A risk scenario does not assign the accountability for each risk, but rather the analysis and evaluation.
From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?
The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster
Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.
All business-critical systems are successfully tested.
All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).
A disaster recovery test is a simulation of a disaster scenario that evaluates the effectiveness and readiness of the disaster recovery plan. The main purpose of a disaster recovery test is to ensure that the organization can resume its normal operations as quickly as possible after a disaster, with minimal or no data loss. Therefore, the most important objective of a disaster recovery test from a business perspective is to verify that all critical data can be recovered within the RTOs, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the data and systems after a disaster. If the RTOs are not met, the organization may face significant financial, operational, and reputationallosses. The other options are not the most important objectives of a disaster recovery test, although they may be beneficial outcomes. Gaining assurance that the organization can recover from a disaster is a subjective and qualitative goal, while recovering data within RTOs is a measurable and quantitative goal. Discovering errors in the disaster recovery process is a valuable result of a disaster recovery test, but it is not the primary objective. The objective is to correct the errors and improve the process, not just to find them. Testing all business criticalsystems is a necessary step in a disaster recovery test, but it is not the ultimate goal. The goal is to ensure that the systems can be restored and function properly within the RTOs. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 197-1981; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 572
Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?
Cost of implementation
Implementation of unproven applications
Disruption to business processes
Increase in attack surface area
Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?
Identifying critical information assets
Identifying events impacting continuity of operations.
Creating a data classification scheme
Analyzing previous risk assessment results
The first step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is identifying critical information assets. A BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impacts of disruptive events on the business processes,functions, and resources. A BIA identifies the criticality, dependencies, recovery priorities, and recovery objectives of the business processes, and quantifies the financial and non-financial impacts of disruption. Information assets are the data, information, and knowledge that are essential for the operation and performance of the business processes. Identifying critical information assets is the first step of the BIA, as it helps to determine which information assets are vital for the continuity and recovery of the business processes, and whichinformation assets are most vulnerable or exposed to the disruptive events. Identifying critical information assets also helps to scope and focus the BIA on the most important and relevant information assets, and to avoid unnecessary or redundant analysis. Identifying events impacting continuity of operations, creating a data classification scheme, and analyzing previous risk assessment results are not the first steps of the BIA, as they are either the inputs or the outputs of the BIA, and they depend on the identification of critical information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?
A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance
A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies
A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels
A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance
A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance is the most useful information for senior management when determining an appropriate risk response, as it shows the gap between the actual risk exposure and the desired risk exposure of the enterprise. This gap indicates the need and urgency for risk response actions, and helps senior management to prioritize and allocate resources for risk mitigation. A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance also reflects the effectiveness of the existing risk management process and controls, and enables senior management to monitor and adjust the risk strategy and objectives accordingly. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 234. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 234. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 234.
A control owner identifies that the organization's shared drive contains personally identifiable information (Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?
Protect sensitive information with access controls.
Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.
Re-communicate the data protection policy.
Implement a data encryption solution.
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc1. PII is subject to various laws and regulations that aim to protect the privacy and security of individuals’data1. Organizations that collect, store, process, or transmit PII have a responsibility to safeguard it from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction1.
One of the best practices for protecting PII is to implement access controls, which are mechanisms that restrict access to PII based on the principle of least privilege2. Access controls ensure that only authorized personnel who have a legitimate need to access PII can do so, and that they can only perform the actions that are necessary for their roles and responsibilities2. Access controls can be implemented at different levels, such as network, system, application, or data level, and can use various methods, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, encryption, etc2.
If an organization’s shared drive contains PII that can be accessed by all personnel, this poses a high risk of data breach, theft, loss, or misuse, which could result in legal, financial, reputational, or operational consequences for the organization and the individuals whose data is compromised3. Therefore, the most effective risk response is to protect the sensitive information with access controls, such as:
Classify the PII according to its sensitivity and impact level, and assign appropriate labels and permissions to the data files and folders2.
Restrict access to the shared drive to only those personnel who have a valid business reason to access the PII, and grant them the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks2.
Implement strong authentication and authorization mechanisms, such as multifactor authentication, role-based access control, or attribute-based access control, to verify the identity and privileges of the users who access the shared drive2.
Encrypt the PII stored on the shared drive, and use secure protocols and channels to transmit the data over the network2.
Monitor and audit the access and activities on the shared drive, and generate logs and reports to detect and respond to any unauthorized or anomalous events2.
The other options are not as effective as access controls, because they do not directly address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of access restrictions on the shared drive. Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, which is a tool that monitors and prevents the leakage of sensitive data, may help to detect and block some unauthorized data transfers, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or viewing of the PII on the shared drive4. Re-communicating the data protection policy, which is a document that defines the rules and responsibilities for handling PII, may help to raise awareness and compliance among the personnel, but it does not enforce or verify the actual implementation of the policy. Implementing a data encryption solution, which is a technique that transforms the PII into an unreadable format, may helpto protect the confidentiality of the data, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or modification of the data, and it may introduce additional complexity and overhead to the data management process.
References = Guide to Protecting the Confidentiality of Personally Identifiable Information (PII), Best Practices for Protecting PII, How to Secure Personally Identifiable Information against Loss or Compromise, Data Loss Prevention (DLP) | Microsoft 365 security, [Protecting Personal Information: A Guide for Business], [Encryption - Wikipedia]
Which of the following is the MAIN reason for analyzing risk scenarios?
Identifying additional risk scenarios
Updating the heat map
Assessing loss expectancy
Establishing a risk appetite
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, the main reason for analyzing risk scenarios is to identify additional risk scenarios that may not have been considered in the initial risk identification process. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how, where, and why adverse events can occur. By analyzing risk scenarios, the risk manager can gain a better understanding of the relationships between assets, processes, threats, vulnerabilities, and other factors that may affect the organization’s objectives. Analyzing risk scenarios can also help to evaluate the likelihood and impact of the potential risks, as well as the effectiveness of the existing controls and the need for additional controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, Page 215. How to write good risk scenarios and statements
Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?
Threat event
Inherent risk
Risk event
Security incident
A risk event is an occurrence or situation that has a negative impact on the objectives, operations, or resources of an enterprise. A data breach at the company to be acquired is a risk event for the acquiring organization, because it can affect the value, reputation, or performance of the acquisition. A risk event can also trigger other risks or consequences that may require further actions or responses. The other options are not the correct answers, because they do not describe the situation accurately. A threat event is an occurrence or situation that exploits a vulnerability or causes harm to an asset or process. An inherent risk is the risk that exists before applying any controls or treatments. A security incident is an event that violates the security policies or procedures of an enterprise. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?
Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.
Escalate the situation to risk leadership.
Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.
Review system and process documentation.
The best approach to identify relevant risk scenarios is to engage line management in risk assessment workshops. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how a risk event could occur and what the consequences could be1. Identifying risk scenarios can help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risks, and to design and evaluate the risk responses2. To identify relevant risk scenarios, it is important to involve the people who are responsible for or affected by the risks, such as the line managers. Line managers are the managers who oversee the operational activities and processes of the organization, and whoreport to the senior or executive management3. By engaging line managers in risk assessment workshops, the organization can:
Leverage the line managers’ knowledge and experience of the operational environment, the business objectives, the stakeholder expectations, and the potential threats and opportunities4.
Encourage the line managers’ participation and collaboration in the risk identification and analysis process, and foster a risk-aware culture and mindset5.
Enhance the line managers’ ownership and accountability of the risks and the risk responses, and ensure their alignment and commitment to the risk management strategy and objectives6.
The other options are not the best approaches to identify relevant risk scenarios, because:
Escalating the situation to risk leadership is not an effective or efficient way to identify risk scenarios, as it may bypass or undermine the line managers’ role and responsibility in the risk management process. Risk leadership is the function or role that provides the vision, direction, andguidance for the risk management activities and initiatives of the organization7. Escalating the situation to risk leadership may imply that the line managers are not capable or willing to identify and manage the risks, or that the risk leadership is not aware or involved in the riskmanagement process. This may create confusion, conflict, or distrust among the risk management stakeholders, and reduce the quality and credibility of the risk scenarios.
Engaging internal audit for risk assessment workshops is not a suitable or appropriate way to identify risk scenarios, as it may violate the independence and objectivity of the internal audit function. Internal audit is an independent and objective assurance and consulting activity that evaluates and improves the effectiveness of the organization’s governance, risk management, and control processes8. Engaging internal audit for risk assessment workshops may compromise the internal audit’s role and mandate, as it may create a conflict of interest or a self-review threat. Internal auditshould not be involved in the risk identification and analysis process, but rather provide assurance or advice on the adequacy and reliability of the process.
Reviewing system and process documentation is not a sufficient or comprehensive way to identify risk scenarios, as it may overlook or miss some important or emerging risks. System and process documentation are the records or artifacts that describe the structure, functions, features, and requirements of the organization’s systems and processes. Reviewing system and process documentation can help to identify some risks that are related to the design, implementation, or operation of the systems and processes, but it cannot capture all the risks that may affect the organization. Some risks may arise from external or internal factors that are not reflected or updated in the system and process documentation, such as changes in the market, technology, regulation, or stakeholder expectations.
References =
Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack - ISACA
Line Manager - CIO Wiki
Engaging Line Managers in Risk Management - IRM
Risk Culture - CIO Wiki
Risk Ownership - CIO Wiki
Risk Leadership - CIO Wiki
Internal Audit - CIO Wiki
[System Documentation - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk scenarios
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Threat analysis
Risk scenarios are descriptions of possible events or situations that could cause or affect a risk. Risk scenarios can help a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders, as they can illustrate the causes, consequences, and impacts of the risk in a clear and realistic way. Risk scenarios can also facilitate communication and collaboration among stakeholders, as they can provide a common language and framework for risk identification, analysis, and response. Risk scenarios can also support decision-making and prioritization, as they can show the likelihood and severity of the risk outcomes. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 237.
Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?
Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge
Adding new risk assessment results annually
Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided
Changing risk owners due to employee turnover
Understanding the Question:
The question asks what the most important update for keeping the risk register current is.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge:Reflects significant changes in the organization that impact risk profiles.
B. Adding new risk assessment results annually:Important but periodic.
C. Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided:Necessary but not as impactful as major organizational changes.
D. Changing risk owners due to employee turnover:Important but secondary to major structural changes.
Organizational Changes:When lines of business merge, it can significantly alter the risk landscape, introducing new risks and changing the impact and likelihood of existing ones. Updating the risk register to reflect these changes is crucial for accurate risk management.
Impact on Risk Profiles:Mergers and acquisitions can affect every aspect of an organization, from operational processes to regulatory compliance, making it essential to update the risk register accordingly.
Internal email communications are not encrypted.
Data transmission within the corporate network is not encrypted.
Internally created documents are not automatically classified.
Data transmission across public networks is not encrypted.
Data transmission across public networks is the greatest risk because public networks are inherently insecure and vulnerable to interception. Encryption is critical to protecting data confidentiality during transmission over such networks. Lack of encryption internally is less risky due to controlled environments. Classification helps but does not protect data in transit. Email encryption is important but less critical compared to public network transmission risks.
Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?
A robust risk aggregation tool set
Clearly defined roles and responsibilities
A well-established risk management committee
Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures
The most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization is clearly defined roles and responsibilities. The three lines of defense model is a framework that outlinesthe roles and responsibilities of different functions or groups within the organization in relation to risk management and internal control1. The three lines of defense are:
The first line of defense, which consists of the operational management and staff who own and manage the risks associated with their activities and processes. They are responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks, as well as designing, implementing, and operating the controls.
The second line of defense, which consists of the specialized functions or units that provide oversight, guidance, and support to the first line of defense in managing the risks and controls. They are responsible for developing and maintaining the risk management framework, policies, and standards, as well as monitoring and reporting on the risk and control performance.
The third line of defense, which consists of the internal audit function that provides independent and objective assurance on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management and internal control system. They are responsible for evaluating and testing the design and operation of the risks and controls, as well as reporting and recommending improvements to the seniormanagement and the board. Clearly defined roles and responsibilities are essential for ensuring that the three lines of defense model works effectively and efficiently. They help to avoid confusion, duplication, or gaps in the risk management and internal control activities, as well as to ensure accountability, coordination, and communication among the different functions or groups. They also help to establish the appropriate level of independence, authority, and competence for each line of defense, as well as to align the risk management and internal control objectives and strategies with the organization’s goals and values2. The other options are not the most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization, as they are either less relevant or less specific than clearly defined roles and responsibilities. A robust risk aggregation tool set is a set of methods or techniques that enable the organization to collect, consolidate, and analyze the risk data and information from different sources, levels, or perspectives. A robust risk aggregation tool set can help to enhance the risk identification, assessment, and reporting processes, as well as to support the risk decision making and prioritization. However, a robust risk aggregationtool set is not the most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization, as it does not address the roles and responsibilities of the different functions or groups in relation to risk management and internal control. A well-established risk management committee is a group of senior executives or managers who are responsible for overseeing and directing the risk management activities and performance of the organization. A well-established risk management committee can help to ensure the alignment and integration of the risk management objectives and strategies with the organization’s goals and values, as well as to provide guidance and support to the different functions or groups involved in risk management and internal control. However, a well-established risk management committee is not the most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization, as it does not cover theroles and responsibilities of the operational management and staff, the specialized functions or units, or the internal audit function. Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures are the steps or actions that are taken to report and resolve any issues or incidents that may affect the risk management and internal control activities or performance of the organization. Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures can help to ensure the timely and appropriate response and resolution of the issues or incidents, as well as to inform and involve the relevant stakeholders and authorities. However, well-documented and communicated escalation procedures are not the most important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization, as they do not define the roles and responsibilities of the different functions or groups in relation to risk management and internal control. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, Page 85.
Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:
helping personnel make better-informed decisions
assisting the development of a risk register.
improving the effectiveness of IT controls.
increasing participation in the risk assessment process.
Effective risk communication best benefits an organization by helping personnel make better-informed decisions. Risk communication is the process of exchanging information and opinions among stakeholders about the nature, magnitude, significance, or control of a risk. By communicating risk information clearly and consistently, the organization can enhance the understanding and awareness of the risk, and enable the personnel to make decisions that are aligned with the risk appetite and objectives of the organization. Assisting the development of a risk register, improving the effectiveness of IT controls, and increasing participation in the risk assessment process are other possible benefits, but they are not as important as helping personnel make better-informed decisions. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is the MOST important risk management activity during project initiation?
Defining key risk indicators (KRIs)
Classifying project data
Identifying key risk stakeholders
Establishing a risk mitigation plan
Which of the following would cause the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner reviewing the IT risk scenarios recorded in an organization’s IT risk register?
Some IT risk scenarios have multi-year risk action plans.
Several IT risk scenarios are missing assigned owners.
Numerous IT risk scenarios have been granted risk acceptances.
Many IT risk scenarios are categorized as avoided.
Assigning ownership to each risk scenario is fundamental in risk management. Without designated owners, there is a lack of accountability, which can lead to risks not being adequately managed or mitigated. The absence of assigned owners means that no one is responsible for monitoring, reporting, or addressing the risk, increasing the likelihood of adverse outcomes.
Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?
Risk monitoring
Risk mitigation
Risk aggregation
Risk assessment
Reviewing historical risk events is most useful for the risk assessment process within the risk management life cycle. Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the project or the organization1. Reviewing historical risk events can help to:
Identify the sources, causes, and consequences of past risks and learn from the successes and failures of previous projects or organizations
Analyze the likelihood and impact of potential risks based on historical data and trends, and use statistical methods or models to estimate the probability and severity of risk scenarios
Evaluate the level of risk exposure and compare it with the risk appetite and tolerance of the project or the organization, and prioritize the risks that need further attention or action
Use historical risk events as inputs or examples for risk identification and analysis techniques, such as brainstorming, checklists, interviews, surveys, SWOT analysis, root cause analysis, or Monte Carlo simulation2
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Assessment Process3
A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?
Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues
Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents
Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation
Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business
When prioritizing IT risks, scenarios with thehighest impact on business objectivesshould be the primary focus. ISACA’s CRISC guidance notes that risks should be prioritized by considering both their likelihood and their potential impact on organizational goals. This ensures resources and attention are focused on the most significant threats.
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Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?
Brainstorming sessions
Control self-assessments
Vulnerability analysis
Monte Carlo analysis
Brainstorming sessions would best contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios, as they allow participants to generate and share ideas without being constrained by conventional thinking or assumptions. Brainstorming sessions can help to identify risks that are not obvious, not well understood, or not covered by existing controls. Control self-assessments, vulnerability analysis, and Monte Carlo analysis are useful methods for evaluating and quantifying risks, but they are not designed to identify obscure risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 59.
A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:
ownership of responsibilities.
a business recovery plan.
provision for source code escrow.
the providers financial statements.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a contract associated with a cloud service provider must include ownership of responsibilities, as this defines the roles and obligations of both the cloudprovider and the customer in relation to the cloud services. The contract should specify who is responsible for:
Service delivery and performance
Data security and privacy
Compliance with regulations and standards
Incident management and reporting
Business continuity and disaster recovery
Change management and configuration control
Intellectual property rights and licensing
Termination and data egress
The contract should also include service level agreements (SLAs) that measure and monitor the quality and availability of the cloud services, as well as remedies and penalties for non-compliance. The contract should also address pricing and payment terms, dispute resolution mechanisms, and liability and indemnification clauses.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 173-1741
What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?
Documenting project lessons learned
Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed
Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded
Verifying that the risk level has been lowered
A post-implementation review (PIR) is a process to evaluate whether the objectives of the project were met and whether the project delivered the expected benefits and outcomes1. The primary objective of a risk practitioner performing a PIR of an IT risk mitigation project is to verify that the risk level has been lowered as a result of the project implementation2. This can be done by comparing the actual risk level with theexpected risk level, assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk mitigation controls, and identifying any residual or emergingrisks3. Documenting project lessons learned, validating the project completion, and confirming the project budget are important aspects of a PIR, but they are not the primary objective for a risk practitioner, as they do not directly measure the impact of the project on the risk level4. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.4: Post-Implementation Review, pp. 239-241.
A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?
Review the risk profile
Review pokey change history
interview the control owner
Perform control testing
The best course of action to determine the root cause of the high number of policy exceptions approved by senior management is to interview the control owner. The control owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for designing, implementing, and monitoring the controls that enforce the policy. The control owner can provide insight into the reasons, circumstances, and impacts of the policy exceptions, and the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls. The control owner can also suggest possible improvements or alternatives to the policy or the controls. The other options are not as useful as interviewing the control owner, as they are related to the review, analysis, or testing of the policy or the controls, not the investigation or understanding of the policy exceptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a data protection management plan?
Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
Identify critical data.
Establish a data inventory.
Conduct a risk analysis.
A data protection management plan is a document that outlines how an organization will protect its sensitive data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or loss. A data protection management plan should include the following components1:
The scope and objectives of the data protection management plan, and how it aligns with the organization’s data protection policy and strategy
The roles and responsibilities of the data protection team and other stakeholders, and how they will communicate and coordinate
The data protection risks and threats that the organization faces, and how they will be assessed and prioritized
The data protection controls and measures that the organization will implement and maintain, and how they will be monitored and evaluated
The data protection incidents and breaches that the organization may encounter, and how they will be reported and resolved
The data protection training and awareness programs that the organization will provide and conduct, and how they will be measured and improved
The first step that should be done when developing a data protection management plan is to identify critical data. This means that the organization should:
Define what constitutes sensitive data in the organization, such as personal data, confidential data, or regulated data
Identify and classify the sensitive data that the organization collects, processes, stores, or transfers, and assign appropriate labels or tags
Determine the value and importance of the sensitive data to the organization and its stakeholders, and the potential impacts or consequences of data loss or compromise
Map the data flows and locations of the sensitive data within the organization and across its partners or vendors, and document the data lifecycle stages and activities
By identifying critical data, the organization can:
Establish a clear and consistent understanding of the data protection scope and objectives, and ensure that they are relevant and realistic
Provide a comprehensive and accurate data inventory that can support the data protection risk assessment and control implementation
Identify and prioritize the data protection needs and requirements of the organization and its stakeholders, and align them with the data protection laws and standards
Communicate and report the data protection status and performance to the stakeholders and regulators, and ensure transparency and accountability
References = Guide to Developing a Data Protection Management Programme
The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:
Identify threats and vulnerability
Ensure alignment with industry standards
Provide measurable risk reduction
Enforce strong security solutions
The most important objective of information security controls is to provide measurable risk reduction. Information security controls are the policies, procedures, techniques, or technologies that are implemented to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets. The main purpose of information security controls is to reduce the risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure,modification, or destruction of information assets, and to ensure that the information assets support the enterprise’s objectives and performance. Information security controls should be measurable, meaning that they should have clear and quantifiable criteria for evaluating their effectiveness and efficiency in reducing the risk exposure to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, page 1151
Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?
Determining which departments contribute most to risk
Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners
Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes
Determining resource dependency of assets
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. The owner for each risk scenario is the person or group whohas the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response. The best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register is to map the identified risk factors tospecific business processes. Risk factors are the internal and external variables that influence the occurrence and impact of risks. Business processes are the activities that produce value for the enterprise, such as sales, marketing, production, or delivery. By mapping the risk factors to the business processes, the risk practitioner can determine which business process is affected by or contributes to the risk, and who is responsible for the business process. The owner for each risk scenario should be the person or group who is responsible for the business process that is associated with the risk. The other options are not the best way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as they involve different criteria or methods:
Determining which departments contribute most to risk means that the risk practitioner evaluates the degree of involvement or exposure of each department to the risk. This may not be a reliable or consistent way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the risk may span across multiple departments, or the department may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.
Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners means that the risk practitioner assigns the same level of responsibility to each person or group who owns an asset that is affected by or contributes to the risk. An asset is a resource that has value for the enterprise, such as hardware, software, data, or people. This may not be a fair or effective way to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the asset owners may have different levels of involvement or exposure to the risk, or may not have the authority or accountability to manage the risk.
Determining resource dependency of assets means that the risk practitioner analyzes the relationship and interdependence of the assets that are affected by or contribute to the risk. This may help to identify the potential impact or likelihood of the risk, but it does not directly help to identify the owner for each risk scenario, as the resource dependency may not reflect the authority or accountability to manage the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?
Negotiating terms of adoption
Understanding the timeframe to implement
Completing a gap analysis
Initiating the conversion
Completing a gap analysis identifies discrepancies between current controls and the requirements of the IT control framework, ensuring a focused approach to compliance. This supportsRisk Assessment for Compliance Requirements.
Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?
Delayed removal of employee access
Authorized administrative access to HR files
Corruption of files due to malware
Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a vulnerability is a flaw or weakness in an asset’s design, implementation, or operation and management that could be exploited by a threat. A delayed removal of employee access is a vulnerability, as it allows former employees to retain access to the organization’s IT assets and processes, which could lead to unauthorized disclosure, modification, or destruction of data or resources. A delayed removal of employee access could be caused by poor personnel management, lack of security awareness, or inadequate access control policies and procedures.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 32-331
In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to
understand the risk tolerance
monitor and evaluate IT performance
identify risk management best practices
determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget
To determine if a risk is under-controlled, the risk practitioner will need to understand the risk tolerance. Risk tolerance is the acceptable or allowable level of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcomes or objectives. Risk tolerance reflects the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing and able to take. A risk is under-controlled when the risk exposure exceeds the risk tolerance, meaning that the organization is taking on more risk than it can handle or afford. Therefore, the risk practitioner will need to understand the risk tolerance to compare it with the risk exposure and identify the gap or difference. The other options are not as relevant as understanding the risk tolerance, as they are related to the monitoring, identification, or determination of the risk or the IT performance, not the comparison or evaluation of therisk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of privacy impact assessments (PIAs)?
To identify threats introduced by business processes
To identify risk when personal information is collected
To ensure senior management has approved the use of personal information
To ensure compliance with data privacy laws and regulations
Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?
Background checks
Awareness training
User access
Policy management
Awareness training is the most likely control that failed in this scenario, as it is designed to educate employees on the proper handling and protection of sensitive data, and the consequences of violating the organizational policy. Awareness training can help to prevent or reduce the occurrence of human errors, such as inadvertently removing a file from the premises, that may result in data loss or breach. The other options are not the most likely controls that failed, as they are either not directly related to the scenario or not sufficient to prevent the incident. Background checks are used to verify the identity, qualifications, and trustworthiness of potential or current employees, but they do not ensure that employees will always follow the policy or avoidmistakes. User access is used to restrict the access to information systems or resources based on the identity, role, or credentials of the user, but it does not prevent the user from copying or removing the data once they have access. Policy management is used to create, communicate, and enforce the organizational policy, but it does not ensure that employees will understand orcomply with the policy. References = Sensitive Data Essentials – The Lifecycle Of A Sensitive File; Personal data breach examples | ICO; How do I prevent staff accidentally sending personal information … - GCIT; 10 Ways to Protect Sensitive Employee Information; My personal data has been lost after a breach, what are my rights …
Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?
An internal audit
A heat map
A business impact analysis (BIA)
A vulnerability report
A business impact analysis (BIA) is the most helpful tool to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk. A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of disruptions or incidents on the critical functions and processes of an organization. A BIA helps to estimate the financial, operational, and reputational impacts of risks, as well as the recovery time objectives and recovery point objectives for each function and process. A BIA also helps to prioritize the functions and processes based on their importance and urgency, and to allocate the resources needed to protect, restore,and resume them. A BIA can provide valuable information to management for developing and implementing risk mitigation strategies and plans. The other options are not the most helpful tools to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk, although they may be useful or complementary to the BIA. An internal audit is a process of evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the governance, risk management, and control systems of an organization, but it does not directly estimate the impacts of risks or the resources needed to mitigate them. A heat map is a graphical tool that displays the probability and impact of individual risks in a matrix format, but it does not provide the details of the functions and processes affected by the risks or the resources needed to protect them. A vulnerability report is a document that identifies and assesses the security weaknesses in an information system, but it does not measure the impacts of risks or the resources neededtomitigate them. References = Business Impact Analysis (BIA) | Ready.gov, Business Impact Analysis - ISACA, Business Impact Analysis - Risk Management from MindTools.com
Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:
using the same scales in assessing risk
utilizing industry benchmarks
using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems
including primarily low-level risk factors
Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when using the same scales in assessing risk, because it can help to ensure the consistency and comparability of the risk assessment results across different units, levels, and domains of the organization. Using the same scales in assessing risk can also help to avoid the potential errors or biases that may arise from using different scales, such as overestimating or underestimating the risk exposure, or misaligning the risk appetite and tolerance. The other options are not as important as using the same scales in assessing risk, because:
Option B: Utilizing industry benchmarks is a good way to improve the quality and validity of the risk assessment results, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of combining and consolidating the risk assessment results into a holistic and comprehensive view of the risk profile and exposure of the organization.
Option C: Using reliable qualitative data for risk items is a useful way to capture and describe the risk items, which are the sources and causes of the risks, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of quantifying and measuring the risk items, and their likelihood and impact on the business objectives and processes.
Option D: Including primarily low-level risk factors is a necessary way to identify and assess the risk factors, which are the characteristics and attributes of the risks, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of prioritizing and ranking the risk factors, and their significance and relevance to the organization’s strategy and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 105.
An organization does not have a defined process to revoke IT access of staff members who have changed roles within the organization. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with this deficiency?
Noncompliance with the access management policy
Fraudulent insider activities
Misaligned job duties
Inefficient access review processes
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to ISACA CRISC guidance)
CRISC highlights that inadequate termination or role-change procedures for access rights expose the organization to serious insider threats. When users change roles but retain access not needed for their new responsibilities, the risk of fraudulent insider activities and unauthorized use of systems significantly increases. Excessive privileges can be abused intentionally or misused accidentally, leading to data breaches, financial loss, or regulatory non-compliance. While noncompliance with policy is an issue, it is a secondary, formal concern—the primary risk is actual misuse of privileges. Misaligned job duties and inefficiencies in access review are consequences but not as severe as the potential for fraud, sabotage, or data theft. Therefore, the greatest concern is the exposure to insider risk due to inadequate de-provisioning and access recertification processes.
Which types of controls are BEST used to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability?
Directive
Preventive
Deterrent
Detective
Preventive controls reduce the likelihood of vulnerabilities being exploited by stopping incidents before they occur.
According to ISACA’s control categorization:
“Preventive controls are designed to avoid occurrence of unwanted events by mitigating vulnerabilities and threats proactively.”
Examples include access restrictions, input validation, and patch management.
Directive: set expected behavior (e.g., policies).
Detective: identify after the fact.
Deterrent: discourage but don’t prevent.
Hence, B. Preventive is correct.
CRISC Reference: Domain 3 – Risk Response and Mitigation, Topic: Control Types and Effectiveness.
An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:
reduce the likelihood of future events
restore availability
reduce the impact of future events
address the root cause
Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to reduce the impact of future events, as it will enable the organization to identify and correct the corrupted files before they cause further damage or loss. A file corruption detection tool is a software that scans and verifies the integrity and validity of the files, and alerts the users or administrators of any anomalies or errors. This helps to minimize the disruption and downtime caused by the data corruption incidents, and to preserve the quality and reliability of the data. Implementing a file corruption detection tool will not reduce the likelihood of future events, as it does not prevent or mitigate the causes or sources of the data corruption incidents. It will not restore availability, as it does not recover or restore the corrupted files, but only detects them. It will not address the root cause, as it does not analyze or eliminate the underlying factors that lead to the data corruption incidents. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question215; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 215.
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?
Fewer security incidents have been reported.
The number of audit findings has decreased.
Residual risk is reduced.
inherent risk Is unchanged.
Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses. An effective risk management program should aim to reduce the residual risk to a level that is acceptable by the enterprise, in alignment with its risk appetite and tolerance. The reduction of residual risk indicates that the risk responses are appropriate and effective, and that the enterprise is achieving its objectives while managing its risks. The other options are not necessarily indicative of an effective risk management program, as they may depend on other factors, such as the reporting culture, the audit scope and methodology, and the nature and source of the inherent risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.3.1, pp. 24-25.
Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?
The organization's knowledge
Ease of implementation
The organization's culture
industry-leading security tools
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the organization’s culture is the most critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation, because it influences the behavior, attitude, and perception of the stakeholders towards security. The organization’s culture includes the values, beliefs, norms, and practices that are shared by the members of the organization. A positive and supportive culture can foster the awareness, commitment, and collaboration of the stakeholders in achieving the security objectives and complying with the security policies and standards. The other options are not the most critical elements, as they are less influential or less challenging than the organization’s culture. The organization’s knowledge is the collective understanding and expertise of the organization regardingsecurity, which can be enhanced through training and education. Ease of implementation is the degree of difficulty and complexity of implementing security, which can be reduced by using appropriate methods and tools. Industry-leading security tools are the best-in-class solutions and technologies that can provide effective and efficient security, which can be acquired through market research and evaluation. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, page 32.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels?
Qualitative measures for potential loss events
Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios
Changes in methods used to calculate probability
Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option
Changes in methods used to calculate probability present the greatest challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels, as they may introduce inconsistency and incomparability in the risk assessment results over time. Probability is a key factor in determining the level and priority of IT risks, and different methods may produce different values for the same risk scenario. For example, some methods may use historical data, expert judgment, or simulation techniques to estimate the likelihood of a risk event. If the methods used to calculate probability change frequently or vary across different business units or processes, the IT risk practitioner may face difficulty in aggregating, normalizing, and reporting the risk levels and trends. The other options are not the greatest challenges for reporting on trends in historical IT risk levels, although they may pose some difficulties or limitations. Qualitative measures for potential loss events are subjective and imprecise, but they can stillprovide a relative ranking of risks and their impacts. Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios may affect the accountability and responsibility for managing the risks, but they do not necessarily affect the risk levels or trends. Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option may indicate a high risk appetite ortolerance, but it does not prevent the IT risk practitioner from reporting on the risk levels or trends. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 181.
Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?
Transfer
Accept
Exploit
Mitigate
Accepting risk is the only risk response strategy that could be applied to both positive and negative risk that has been identified. Accepting risk means taking no action to change the likelihood or impact of the risk, but being prepared to deal with the consequences if the risk occurs. Accepting risk is usually chosen when the risk is low, unavoidable, or outweighed by the benefits. For positive risks, accepting risk means taking advantage of the opportunities if they arise. For negative risks, accepting risk means setting aside contingency reserves or plans to copewith the threats. The other risk response strategies are specific to either positive or negative risks. Transfer, exploit, and mitigate are strategies for negative risks, while share, enhance, and avoid are strategies for positive risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?
Detective
Deterrent
Preventive
Corrective
Biometric systems are preventive controls designed to restrict access to authorized personnel only, thereby proactively mitigating unauthorized access risks. This aligns withAccess and Authentication Controlprinciples in risk management.
Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service
provider during a vendor risk assessment?
Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Independent audit report
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
A vendor risk assessment is a process of evaluating and managing the risks associated with outsourcing IT services or functions to a third-party provider, such as a cloud service provider.
One of the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment is an independent audit report. This is a report that provides an objective and reliable assurance on the quality, security, and performance of the cloud service provider’s operations, processes, and controls, based on the standards and criteria established by an independent auditor or a recognized authority, such as ISACA, ISO, NIST, etc.
An independent audit report helps to verify the compliance and effectiveness of the cloud service provider’s risk management practices, identify any gaps or issues that may affect the service delivery or security, and recommend improvements or corrective actions.
The other options are not the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment. They are either secondary or not essential for vendor risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 22
Information Technology & Security, page 16
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 14
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?
It contains vulnerabilities and threats.
The risk methodology is intellectual property.
Contents may be used as auditable findings.
Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.
Restricting access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis is important because it contains vulnerabilities and threats that could expose the organization to potential harm or loss if they are disclosed or exploited by unauthorized parties. The risk register is a tool that captures and documents the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment processes1. The risk register contains sensitive information such as the sources and causes of risk, the potential impacts and consequences of risk, the likelihood and frequency of risk occurrence, and the risk response actions and plans1. If this information is accessed by unauthorized parties, such as competitors, hackers, or malicious insiders, they could use it to launch attacks, sabotageoperations, or gain an unfair advantage over the organization. Therefore, access to the risk register should be limited to those who have a legitimate need and authorization to view, modify, or use the information, such as the risk owners, managers, or practitioners
Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?
Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks
Number of downtime hours in business critical servers
Number of patches made to anti-malware software
Number of successful attacks by malicious software
The effectiveness of anti-malware software is the degree to which it can detect, prevent, and remove malicious software (malware) from the system or network. Malware is any software that is designed to harm, exploit, or compromise the functionality, security, or privacy of the system or network1. Some common types of malware are viruses, worms, Trojans, ransomware, spyware, adware, and rootkits2.
One of the best indicators of the effectiveness of anti-malware software is the number of successful attacks by malicious software, which means the number of times that malware has managed to bypass, evade, or disable the anti-malware software and cause damage or disruption to the system or network. The lower the number of successful attacks, the higher the effectiveness of the anti-malware software. This indicator can measure the ability of the anti-malware software to protect the system or network from known and unknown malware threats, and to respond and recover from malware incidents34.
The other options are not the best indicators of the effectiveness of anti-malware software, because:
Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks is a measure of the impact or consequence of malware attacks on the productivity or performance of the staff. It does not directly reflect the ability of the anti-malware software to detect, prevent, or remove malware, as there may be other factors that affect the staff hours lost, such as the severity of the attack, the availability of backup or recovery systems, or the skills and awareness of the staff5.
Number of downtime hours in business critical servers is a measure of the impact or consequence of malware attacks on the availability or reliability of the servers. It does notdirectly reflect the ability of the anti-malware software to detect, prevent, or remove malware, as there may be other factors that affect the downtime hours, such as the type of the server, the configuration of the network, or the maintenance of the hardware6.
Number of patches made to anti-malware software is a measure of the maintenance or improvement of the anti-malware software. It does not directly reflect the ability of the anti-malware software to detect, prevent, or remove malware, as there may be other factors that affect the number of patches, such as the frequency of the updates, the quality of the software, or the compatibility of the system7.
References =
What is Malware? - Definition from Techopedia
Common Types of Malware and Their Impact - Techopedia
What is Anti-Malware? Everything You Need to Know (2023) - SoftwareLab
The 10 Best Malware Protection Solutions Compared for 2024 - Techopedia
The Cost of Malware Attacks - Security Boulevard
The Impact of Malware on Business - Kaspersky
What is Patch Management? - Definition from Techopedia
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?
Audit engagement letter
Risk profile
IT risk register
Change control documentation
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the IT risks that have been identified and assessed by the risk practitioner. It contains information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk level, the risk response, the risk status, and the risk monitoring and reporting activities. An IT risk register is a dynamic document that needs to be updated regularly to reflect the changes in the IT environment and the risk landscape. When a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective, the risk practitioner should update the IT risk register to indicate the new risk level, the new risk response, and the new risk monitoring and reporting activities. This will ensure that the IT risk register remains accurate, relevant, and useful for IT risk management. Updating the IT risk register is more important than updating the audit engagement letter, the risk profile, or the change control documentation, because the IT risk register is the primary source of information and guidance for managing IT risks. The audit engagement letter is a formal agreement between the auditor and the auditee that defines the scope, objectives, and terms of the audit. The risk profile is a summary of the organization’s risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk exposure. The change control documentation is a record of the changes that have been made to the IT systems and processes. These documents are important for IT risk management, but they are not as critical as the IT risk register for updating when a key controlbecomes ineffective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: Risk Register, pp. 69-711
Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager to exclude an in-scope system from a risk assessment?
Postpone the risk assessment.
Facilitate the exception process.
Accept the manager's request.
Reject the manager's request.
Facilitating the exception process ensures that any deviations from the standard risk assessment procedures are formally documented, reviewed, and approved by appropriate governance bodies. This approach maintains the integrity of the risk management process while addressing the business unit manager's concerns.
Which of the following introduces the GREATEST amount of risk during the software development life cycle (SDLC)?
Use of debugging tools
Incorrect firewall configuration
Inability to pass user acceptance tests (UATs)
Untested changes to production
CRISC emphasizes that untested changes in production represent high operational risk due to potential downtime, integrity issues, or security failures.
Supporting extract:
“Untested changes to production systems introduce the greatest amount of risk because they may disrupt operations or introduce security vulnerabilities.”
UAT failure or debugging pose limited impact confined to pre-production stages.
Hence, D is the correct and verified answer.
CRISC Reference: Domain 2 – IT Risk Assessment, Topic: Risk in the System Development Life Cycle.
Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?
Customizing content for the audience
Providing incentives to participants
Mapping to a recognized standard
Providing metrics for measurement
The most important element of a successful risk awareness training program is customizing content for the audience, because this ensures that the training is relevant, engaging, and effective for the learners. Customizing content for the audience means tailoring the training materials and methods to suit the specific needs, preferences, and characteristics of the target group, such as their roles, responsibilities, knowledge, skills, attitudes, and learning styles. Customizing content for the audience can help to achieve the following benefits:
Increase the motivation and interest of the learners, as they can see the value and applicability of the training to their work and goals.
Enhance the comprehension and retention of the learners, as they can relate the training content to their prior knowledge and experience, and use examples and scenarios that are familiar and realistic to them.
Improve the transfer and application of the learners, as they can practice and apply the training content to their actual work situations and challenges, and receive feedback and support that are relevant and useful to them. References = Implementing risk management training and awareness (part 1) 1
An organization is implementing robotic process automation (RPA) to streamline business processes. Given that implementation of this technology is expected to impact existing controls, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Reassess whether mitigating controls address the known risk in the processes.
Update processes to address the new technology.
Update the data governance policy to address the new technology.
Perform a gap analysis of the impacted processes.
Robotic process automation (RPA) is the use of software robots or artificial intelligence (AI) agents to automate repetitive, rule-based tasks that are normally performed by humans. RPA can improve efficiency, accuracy, and scalability of business processes, but it can also introduce new risks or change the existing risk profile. Therefore, the risk practitioner’s best course of action is to reassess whether the mitigating controls that were designed for the human-performed processes are still effective and adequate for the RPA-enabled processes. This may involve reviewing the control objectives, testing the control performance, identifying the control gaps,and recommending the control enhancements or modifications. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 177.
An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.
Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.
Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.
Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.
The risk practitioner’s first course of action when an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls should be A. Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite1
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk culture, strategy, and values2
When an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls, it means that the controls are not providing the expected level of protection or assurance for the information assets or processes. This may result in increased exposure or vulnerability to threats, or reduced ability to achieve objectives. Therefore, the risk practitioner should first determine whether the impact of the ineffective controls is outside the risk appetite, as this would indicate the need for urgent action or escalation3
The other options are not the first course of action when an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls, because:
•B. Requesting a formal acceptance of risk from senior management may be appropriate if the impact of the ineffective controls is within the risk appetite, and the organization decides to accept the risk as it is. However, this should not be the first course of action, as it may not address the root cause of the ineffective controls, or the potential consequences or opportunities for improvement4
•C. Reporting the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report may be part of the risk communication and reporting process, but it should not be the first course of action, as it may delay the resolution or mitigation of the issue, or the implementation of corrective actions. Moreover, the next audit report may not be timely or relevant for the decision-makers or stakeholders who need to be informed of the ineffective controls5
•D. Deploying a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies may be a possible risk response option, but it should not be the first course of action, as it may require further analysis, evaluation, and approval. Moreover, deploying a compensating control may not be the most effective or efficient solution, as it may introduce additional complexity, cost, or risk.
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100003 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 28 3: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 223 4: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 224 5: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 225 : CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 226
The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:
create an action plan
assign ownership
review progress reports
perform regular audits.
Risk responses are the actions or strategies that are taken to address the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation12.
The most effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to assign ownership, which is the process of identifying and appointing the individuals or groups who are responsible and accountable for the execution and monitoring of the risk responses34.
Assigning ownership is the most effective way because it ensures the clarity and commitment of the roles and responsibilities for the risk responses, and avoids the confusion or ambiguity that may arise from the lack of ownership34.
Assigning ownership is also the most effective way because it enhances the communication and collaboration among the stakeholders involved in the risk responses, and provides the feedback and input that are necessary for the improvement and optimization of the risk responses34.
The other options are not the most effective way, but rather possible steps or tools that may support or complement the assignment of ownership. For example:
Creating an action plan is a step that involves defining and documenting the specific tasks, resources, timelines, and deliverables for the risk responses34. However, this step is not the most effective way because it does not guarantee the implementation of the risk responses, especially if there is no clear or agreed ownership for the action plan34.
Reviewing progress reports is a tool that involves collecting and analyzing the information and data on the status and performance of the risk responses, and identifying the issues or gaps that need to be addressed34. However, this tool is not the most effective way because it does not ensure the implementation of the risk responses, especially if there is no ownership for the progress reports or the corrective actions34.
Performing regular audits is a tool that involves conducting an independent and objective assessment of the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk responses, and providing the findings and recommendations for improvement56. However, this tool is not the most effective way because it does not ensure the implementation of the risk responses,especially if there is no ownership for the audit results or the follow-up actions56. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips1
4: ProjectManagement.com - How to Implement Risk Responses2
5: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
6: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?
Obtaining management sign-off
Demonstrating effective risk mitigation
Justifying return on investment
Providing accurate risk reporting
The main reason for documenting the performance of controls is to provide accurate risk reporting. Risk reporting is a process that communicates and discloses the relevant and reliable information about the risks and their management to the stakeholders and decision makers. Risk reporting is an essential component of the risk management process, as it helps to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring activities, as well as to support and inform the risk governance and oversight functions. Documenting the performance of controls is a technique that records and tracks the results and outcomes of the controls that are implemented to address the risks, such as the control objectives,
Which of the following controls will BEST mitigate risk associated with excessive access privileges?
Review of user access logs
Frequent password expiration
Separation of duties
Entitlement reviews
Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?
Risk assessment results
Adherence to governing policies
Regular stakeholder briefings
Independent audit results
The best evidence of an effective internal control environment is the independent audit results. Independent audit results are the outcomes or findings of an external or independent party that evaluates the design, implementation, and operation of the internal controls. Independent audit results can provide an objective, reliable, and consistent assessment of the internal control environment, and identify the strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or issues of the internal controls. Independent audit results can also provide assurance, recommendations, or improvement opportunities for the internal control environment. The other options are not as good as independent audit results, as they are related to the inputs, processes, oroutputs of the internal control environment, not the evaluation or verification of the internal controlenvironment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
How does an organization benefit by purchasing cyber theft insurance?
It decreases the amount of organizational loss if risk events occur.
It justifies the acceptance of risk associated with cyber theft events.
It transfers risk ownership along with associated liabilities to a third party.
It decreases the likelihood of risk events occurring.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?
An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk
Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud
Clear accountability for risk management processes
Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations
A three lines of defense structure is a model that defines the roles and responsibilities of different functions and levels within an organization for risk management and control. The first line of defense is the operational management, which is responsible for owning and managing the risks. The second line of defense is the risk management and compliance functions, which are responsible for overseeing and supporting the risk management processes. The third line of defense is the internal audit function, which is responsible for providing independent assurance on the effectiveness of the risk management and control systems. The greatest benefit of a three lines of defense structure is that it provides clear accountability for risk management processes, as it clarifies who is responsible for what, and how they interact and communicate with each other. This can help to avoid duplication, confusion, or gaps in the risk management activities, and ensure that the risks are properly identified, assessed, treated, monitored, and reported. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 107.
What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?
Loss event frequency and magnitude
The previous year's budget and actuals
Industry benchmarks and standards
Return on IT security-related investments
The best information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls is the return on IT security-related investments, because this shows the value and benefits of the controls in relation to their costs. Return on IT security-related investments is a metric that measures the effectiveness and efficiency of IT security controls by comparing the amount of money saved or gained from preventing or mitigating IT-related risks with the amount of money spent on implementing and maintaining the controls. By presenting this information, business control owners can see how the controls contribute to the achievement of the business objectives, such as reducing losses, increasing revenues, enhancing customer satisfaction, or improving compliance. This information can also help business control owners to prioritize and allocate resources for the most critical and beneficial controls, and to optimize the balance between risk and return. References = Cost Control: How Businesses Use It to Increase Profits
Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?
Apply data classification policy
Utilize encryption with logical access controls
Require logical separation of company data
Obtain the right to audit
The most effective practice in protecting personally identifiable information (PII) from unauthorized access in a cloud environment is to utilize encryption with logical access controls. Encryption is a technique that transforms the data into an unreadable or unintelligible form, making it inaccessible or unusable by unauthorized parties. Logical access controls are the mechanisms or rules that regulate who can access, view, modify, or delete the data, based on their identity, role, or privilege. By utilizing encryption with logical access controls, the PII can be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, or theft, both in transit and at rest, in a cloud environment. The other options are not as effective as utilizing encryption with logical access controls, as they are related to the classification, separation, or audit of the data, not the protection or security of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?
Requiring two-factor authentication
Conducting security awareness training
Implementing phishing simulations
Updating the information security policy
The keyword in this question is “validate” organizational awareness. We are not just trying to improve awareness but to measure how effective current awareness really is.
CRISC-aligned guidance on awareness and monitoring emphasizes that:
Security awareness programs must be measured for effectiveness (e.g., changes in behavior, reporting, incident statistics).
Simulated social-engineering or phishing campaigns are a direct way to test whether employees recognize and handle actual attack patterns.
The MOST effective way to improve and measure security awareness after phishing incidents is to perform periodic social engineering tests and communicate the results to staff.
Phishing simulations:
Provide objective metrics: click rates, credential submission rates, reporting rates.
Directly test awareness in real-life-like conditions.
Highlight high-risk groups or departments.
Support targeted follow-up training and reporting to management.
Why the other options are less effective for validation:
A. Requiring two-factor authentication improves technical security but does not demonstrate whether users understand broader cyber risk.
B. Conducting security awareness training is an input activity; by itself, it does not show whether staff actually learned or changed behavior.
D. Updating the information security policy provides documented rules but does not validate whether people read, understand, or follow them.
Thus, implementing phishing simulations is the MOST effective method to validate (test and evidence) organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk, consistent with CRISC guidance on using simulated attacks and metrics to assess awareness-program effectiveness.
The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:
determine the risk appetite.
determine the budget.
define key performance indicators (KPIs).
optimize resource utilization.
Optimizing resource utilization is the main reason for prioritizing IT risk responses, as it helps to allocate resources to the most critical and urgent risks. The other options are not the main reasons for prioritizing IT risk responses, although they may be related to the process.
Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
The owner of the financial reporting process
The risk rating of affected financial processes
The list of relevant financial controls
The most important element of an organization’s risk register to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system is the risk rating of affected financial processes. A risk rating is a measure of the level and nature of the risk exposure, based on the impact and likelihood of the risk events. A risk rating can help to prioritize and respond to the risks, and to monitor and report the risk status. A new financial reporting system may introduce new or different risks, or change the existing risks, that could affect the financial processes of the organization, such as data quality, accuracy, timeliness, compliance, or security. Therefore, the risk rating of affected financial processes should be updated to reflect the current risk situation and to ensure that the risk register is accurate and complete. Key risk indicators (KRIs), the owner of the financial reporting process, and the list of relevant financial controls are not asimportant as the risk rating of affected financial processes, as they are not directly affected by the commissioning of a new financial reporting system, and they do not measure the risk exposure and impact of the financial processes. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 48.
Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Perform an audit.
Conduct a risk analysis.
Develop risk scenarios.
Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
Understanding Risk Analysis:
Risk analysis involves identifying potential risks associated with a new application and assessing their likelihood and impact on the organization.
It provides a detailed understanding of the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and consequences, enabling informed decision-making.
Steps in Conducting a Risk Analysis:
Identify Risks:Determine what risks could arise from the new application, including security vulnerabilities, compliance issues, and operational disruptions.
Assess Risks:Evaluate the likelihood and impact of each identified risk. This includes both qualitative and quantitative assessments.
Prioritize Risks:Rank the risks based on their assessed impact and likelihood to focus on the most significant threats first.
Importance of Risk Analysis:
Provides senior management with a comprehensive view of the risks involved, enabling them to make informed decisions about proceeding with the application.
Helps in developing mitigation strategies to address the identified risks.
Comparing Other Options:
Perform an Audit:Audits are useful for evaluating existing controls but are not the first step in assessing risks for a new application.
Develop Risk Scenarios:This is part of the risk analysis process but comes after identifying and assessing risks.
Perform a Cost-Benefit Analysis:Important for decision-making but follows the initial risk analysis to understand potential impacts.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of conducting a risk analysis to understand and manage risks associated with new applications (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.2.1 Conducting Risk Analysis).
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?
Results of risk remediation team interviews
Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes
Vulnerability assessment results
Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios
“Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios is a metric that measures the proportion of risk scenarios that have been reduced or eliminated by the risk responses and actions. However, this metric is not the most useful tool because it does not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk landscape…”
To truly measure progress,an up‑to‑date risk registerprovides the full context and current status of risk treatments—capturing what’s been done and what remains.
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Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?
Enabling risk-aware decisions
Promoting a risk-aware culture
Improving security governance
Reducing residual risk
A risk management program is a systematic and structured approach to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and performance.
The greatest advantage of implementing a risk management program is enabling risk-aware decisions. This means that the organization incorporates the risk information and analysis into its decision making process, such as strategic planning, resource allocation, project management, etc.
Enabling risk-aware decisions helps to optimize the outcomes and benefits of the decisions, balance the opportunities and threats of the decisions, and align the decisions with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the greatest advantages of implementing a risk management program. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 25
Information Technology & Security, page 19
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 17
An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?
Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)
Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Significant changes in management personnel
The most likely cause of the situation where the recovery team does not know what steps to take to recover critical data backups following a major flood is the failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP). A DRP is a document that describes the procedures and resources needed to restore the normal operations of an organization after a disaster. Testing the DRP is essential to ensure that the plan is feasible, effective, and up-to-date. Testing the DRP also helps to train the recovery team members, identify and resolve any issues or gaps, and improve the confidence and readiness of the organization. The lack of a well-documented business impact analysis (BIA), the lack of annual updates to the DRP, and the significant changes in management personnel are also possible factors that could affect the recovery process, butthey are not as likely or as critical as the failure to test the DRP. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, page 5-19.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?
To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management
To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization
To assign a risk owner to manage the risk
To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk
The primary reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results is to communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management, as this enables them to make informed decisions about risk response and allocation of resources. The risk register is a tool for documenting and reporting the current status of risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, and responses. Updating the risk register with risk assessment results ensures that the information is accurate, relevant, and timely. The risk register also helps to monitor and track the progress and effectiveness of risk management activities. The other options are not the primary reasons to update the risk register, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 109.
An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?
Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.
Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.
Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.
Transfer a read-only version of the data.
Using a VPN ensures the secure transmission of sensitive data over a public network by encrypting the communication channel. This mitigates risks such as interception or unauthorized access, aligning withData Protection and Privacy Standards.
TESTED 05 Dec 2025
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