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CRISC Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?

A.

Risk management action plans

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

What-if technique

D.

Tabletop exercise results

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Question # 7

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

A.

Repeatable

B.

Automated

C.

Quantitative

D.

Qualitative

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Question # 8

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of aligning generic risk scenarios with business objectives?

A.

It establishes where controls should be implemented.

B.

It ensures relevance to the organization.

C.

It quantifies the materiality of any losses that may occur.

D.

It provides better estimates of the impact of current threats.

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Question # 9

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

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Question # 10

Which of the following is MOST helpful to facilitate the decision of recovery priorities in a disaster situation?

A.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

B.

Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Risk Scenario Analysis

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Question # 11

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Question # 12

An organization is implementing Internet of Things (IoT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

C.

Insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Impact on network performance

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Question # 13

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a control is not meeting agreed-upon performance criteria?

A.

Implement additional controls to further mitigate risk

B.

Review performance results with the control owner

C.

Redefine performance criteria based on control monitoring results

D.

Recommend a tool to meet the performance requirements

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Question # 14

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

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Question # 15

The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:

A.

the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value

B.

there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control

C.

the mitigation measures create compounding effects

D.

the control eliminates the risk

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Question # 16

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

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Question # 17

The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:

A.

facilitate resource availability.

B.

help ensure objectives are met.

C.

safeguard corporate assets.

D.

help prevent operational losses.

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Question # 18

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Question # 19

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

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Question # 20

An automobile manufacturer is considering implementing an Internet of Things (IoT) network to improve customer service by collecting customer and vehicle data. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation?

A.

Establish secure design and coding practices for the IoT network and devices

B.

Conduct a pilot program before implementing the IoT network and devices

C.

Ensure backward compatibility of IoT devices with previous generations of vehicles

D.

Provide a range of IoT device options and configurations for customers

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Question # 21

Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?

A.

The outsourcing of related IT processes

B.

Outcomes of periodic risk assessments

C.

Changes in service level objectives

D.

Findings from continuous monitoring

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Question # 22

The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:

A.

develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy

B.

develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios

C.

identify root causes for relevant events

D.

perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 23

Which of the following BEST helps to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk?

A.

Prioritizing risk responses

B.

Evaluating risk based on frequency and probability

C.

Considering risk factors that can be quantified

D.

Managing the risk by using controls

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Question # 24

To ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) are effective and meaningful, the KRIs should be aligned to:

A.

A control framework

B.

Industry standards

C.

Capability maturity targets

D.

Business processes

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Question # 25

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Question # 26

Which of the following MUST be captured in a risk treatment plan?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk register details

D.

Risk financial impact

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Question # 27

Risk mitigation procedures should include:

A.

buying an insurance policy.

B.

acceptance of exposures

C.

deployment of counter measures.

D.

enterprise architecture implementation.

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Question # 28

Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?

A.

Calculating the cost

B.

Analyzing cost-effectiveness

C.

Determining the stakeholders

D.

Identifying the objectives

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Question # 29

A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner

recommend be done NEXT?

A.

Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.

B.

Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.

C.

Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.

D.

Reduce the risk tolerance level.

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Question # 30

The use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) when applied to an FTP connection is an example of which type of control category?

A.

Compensating

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Corrective

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Question # 31

An organization has implemented immutable backups to prevent successful ransomware attacks. Which of the following is the MOST effective control for the risk practitioner to review?

A.

Data recovery testing of the backups

B.

Physical security of the backups

C.

Configuration of the backup solution

D.

Retention policy for the backups

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Question # 32

A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?

A.

Assessing risk with no controls in place

B.

Showing projected residual risk

C.

Providing peer benchmarking results

D.

Assessing risk with current controls in place

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Question # 33

Which of the following BEST contributes to the implementation of an effective risk response action plan?

A.

An IT tactical plan

B.

Disaster recovery and continuity testing

C.

Assigned roles and responsibilities

D.

A business impact analysis

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Question # 34

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

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Question # 35

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans?

A.

Risk policy review

B.

Business impact analysis (B1A)

C.

Control catalog

D.

Risk register

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Question # 36

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Question # 37

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?

A.

Communicate the new risk profile.

B.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

C.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

D.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Question # 38

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Question # 39

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

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Question # 40

A business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Recommend allowing the new usage based on prior approval.

B.

Request a new third-party review.

C.

Request revalidation of the original use case.

D.

Assess the risk associated with the new use case.

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Question # 41

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to an organization's use of AI technology?

A.

The AI system's contract does not include a right-to-audit clause

B.

The AI system is being used beyond its intended purpose

C.

The AI system is on unsupported infrastructure

D.

The AI system results have not been validated

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Question # 42

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

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Question # 43

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Question # 44

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

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Question # 45

Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?

A.

Conduct penetration testing.

B.

Interview IT operations personnel.

C.

Conduct vulnerability scans.

D.

Review change control board documentation.

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Question # 46

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Question # 47

During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:

A.

compensating controls are in place.

B.

a control mitigation plan is in place.

C.

risk management is effective.

D.

residual risk is accepted.

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Question # 48

Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

A.

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

B.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

C.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

D.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

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Question # 49

Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?

A.

Approval of the control by senior management

B.

Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives

C.

Control owner attestation of control effectiveness

D.

Internal audit review of control design

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Question # 50

The GREATEST concern when maintaining a risk register is that:

A.

impacts are recorded in qualitative terms.

B.

executive management does not perform periodic reviews.

C.

IT risk is not linked with IT assets.

D.

significant changes in risk factors are excluded.

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Question # 51

An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?

A.

IT service desk manager

B.

Sales manager

C.

Customer service manager

D.

Access control manager

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Question # 52

A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.

B.

The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.

C.

The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.

D.

The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.

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Question # 53

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

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Question # 54

External penetration tests MUST include:

A.

use of consultants to ensure completeness.

B.

communications to users of the target systems.

C.

changes to target data to prove the attack was successful.

D.

advance approval from system owners.

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Question # 55

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

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Question # 56

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 57

Which of the following is the MOST important driver of an effective enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

Risk policy

B.

Risk committee

C.

Risk culture

D.

Risk management plan

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Question # 58

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

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Question # 59

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Question # 60

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

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Question # 61

Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?

A.

Providing risk awareness training for business units

B.

Obtaining input from business management

C.

Understanding the business controls currently in place

D.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 62

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:

A.

corporate culture alignment

B.

low risk tolerance

C.

high risk tolerance

D.

corporate culture misalignment.

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Question # 63

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization's risk management processes are mature?

A.

Risk policy is approved and communicated by the risk manager

B.

Annual risk awareness training is conducted by risk owners

C.

Risk principles are embedded within business operations and decisions

D.

The board regularly follows up on risk status and action plans

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Question # 64

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Question # 65

Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?

A.

Automated access revocation

B.

Daily transaction reconciliation

C.

Rule-based data analytics

D.

Role-based user access model

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Question # 66

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

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Question # 67

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Question # 68

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?

A.

Comparing the actual process with the documented process

B.

Reviewing access logs for user activity

C.

Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees

D.

Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy

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Question # 69

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of relying on artificial intelligence (Al) within heuristic security systems?

A.

Al may result in less reliance on human intervention.

B.

Malicious activity may inadvertently be classified as normal during baselining.

C.

Risk assessments of heuristic security systems are more difficult.

D.

Predefined patterns of malicious activity may quickly become outdated.

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Question # 70

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

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Question # 71

What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Ensure compliance.

B.

Identify trends.

C.

Promote a risk-aware culture.

D.

Optimize resources needed for controls

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Question # 72

Before implementing instant messaging within an organization using a public solution, which of the following should be in place to mitigate data leakage risk?

A.

A data extraction tool

B.

An access control list

C.

An intrusion detection system (IDS)

D.

An acceptable usage policy

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Question # 73

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

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Question # 74

Which of the following would be MOST effective in monitoring changes in an organization's IT risk environment?

A.

Lagging indicators

B.

Risk mitigation plans

C.

Industry regulatory reports

D.

Risk inventory

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Question # 75

An organization has implemented a system capable of comprehensive employee monitoring. Which of the following should direct how the system is used?

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Employee code of conduct

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Organizational policy

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Question # 76

The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability assessments is to:

A.

provide clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure.

B.

determine the impact of potential threats.

C.

test intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures.

D.

detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise.

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Question # 77

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

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Question # 78

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?

A.

Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization

B.

Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management

C.

Ensuring senior management's primary focus is on the impact of identified risk

D.

Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers

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Question # 79

Which of the following is the PRIMARY accountability for a control owner?

A.

Communicate risk to senior management.

B.

Own the associated risk the control is mitigating.

C.

Ensure the control operates effectively.

D.

Identify and assess control weaknesses.

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Question # 80

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

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Question # 81

Of the following, whose input is ESSENTIAL when developing risk scenarios for the implementation of a third-party mobile application that stores customer data?

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT vendor manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

IT compliance manager

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Question # 82

What should be the PRIMARY objective of updating a risk awareness program in response to a steady rise in cybersecurity threats across the industry?

A.

To increase familiarity and understanding of potential security incidents

B.

To ensure compliance with risk management policies and procedures

C.

To reduce the risk of insider threats that could compromise security practices

D.

To lower the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels

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Question # 83

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Question # 84

Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced:

A.

with strategic initiatives.

B.

to meet risk appetite.

C.

within resource availability.

D.

below risk appetite.

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Question # 85

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 86

Which of the following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?

A.

Quantified risk triggers

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational goals

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Question # 87

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that risk management is important in project management?

A.

It helps identify and mitigate potential issues that could derail projects.

B.

It helps to ensure project acceptance by end users.

C.

It reduces the risk associated with potential project scope creep.

D.

It facilitates agreement and collaboration on project goals among stakeholders.

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Question # 88

Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?

A.

Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results

B.

Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments

C.

A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed

D.

The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results

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Question # 89

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 90

An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.

C.

Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

D.

Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained

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Question # 91

When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:

A.

insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.

B.

service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.

C.

a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.

D.

accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.

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Question # 92

A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?

A.

Risk manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Control tester

D.

Risk owner

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Question # 93

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

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Question # 94

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

A.

Relative positions on the risk map

B.

Risk treatment options

C.

Capability of enterprise to implement

D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response

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Question # 95

Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?

A.

Audit and compliance management

B.

The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)

C.

Enterprise risk management and business process owners

D.

Executive management and the board of directors

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Question # 96

Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?

A.

A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.

B.

Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

Redundant compensating controls are in place.

D.

Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.

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Question # 97

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

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Question # 98

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk officers

C.

Line management

D.

Senior management

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Question # 99

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

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Question # 100

A risk practitioner is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a breach at a hosted third-party provider. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Include an indemnification clause in the provider's contract.

B.

Monitor provider performance against service level agreements (SLAs).

C.

Purchase cyber insurance to protect against data breaches.

D.

Ensure appropriate security controls are in place through independent audits.

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Question # 101

A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:

A.

management.

B.

tolerance.

C.

culture.

D.

analysis.

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Question # 102

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

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Question # 103

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

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Question # 104

As part of an aggressive new marketing strategy, an organization has decided to implement an emerging technology in a critical business system. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address the risk associated with this new technology?

A.

Update the risk tolerance and appetite

B.

Identify technical solutions

C.

Obtain senior management support

D.

Re-evaluate the risk and existing controls

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Question # 105

A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

A.

Business continuity manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

IT infrastructure manager

D.

Business application owner

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Question # 106

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Question # 107

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

A.

Key procedure control gaps

B.

Business objectives

C.

Senior management's risk appetite

D.

Hypothetical scenarios

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Question # 108

An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:

A.

procedures to monitor the operation of controls.

B.

a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.

C.

real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.

D.

monitoring activities for all critical assets.

E.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 109

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Question # 110

Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?

A.

Data owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

System owner

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Question # 111

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

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Question # 112

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 113

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with using cloud computing for disaster recovery?

A.

Cloud vendor lock-in and dependency

B.

Lack of adequate incident management capabilities

C.

Use of multiple cloud access service brokers (CASBs)

D.

Availability issues with cloud storage solutions

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Question # 114

While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:

A.

control is ineffective and should be strengthened

B.

risk is inefficiently controlled.

C.

risk is efficiently controlled.

D.

control is weak and should be removed.

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Question # 115

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?

A.

User provisioning

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Security log monitoring

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Question # 116

When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:

A.

low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

B.

high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

C.

high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

D.

low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

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Question # 117

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of reviewing security trends reported by a log monitoring system?

A.

Identification of process weaknesses

B.

Assessment of system performance

C.

Confirmation that risk is at acceptable levels

D.

Identification of emerging risk scenarios

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Question # 118

An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:

A.

reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

B.

communicate the consequences for violations.

C.

implement industry best practices.

D.

reduce the organization's risk appetite

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Question # 119

Which of the following is a KEY principle of a Zero Trust architecture?

A.

Only allowing access to systems and data from trusted locations

B.

Mandating the use of complex passwords for access to data systems

C.

Requiring periodic reauthentication of access to systems

D.

Assuming that all systems are malicious

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Question # 120

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

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Question # 121

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to increase the likelihood of identifying risk associated with unethical employee behavior?

A.

Require a signed agreement by employees to comply with ethics policies

B.

Conduct background checks for new employees

C.

Establish a channel to anonymously report unethical behavior

D.

Implement mandatory ethics training for employees

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Question # 122

A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

A.

IT infrastructure manager

B.

Chief Risk Officer (CRO)

C.

Business continuity manager

D.

Business application owner

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Question # 123

Which of the following should be the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset?

A.

Assess risk scenarios.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Evaluate threats.

D.

Assess controls.

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Question # 124

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 125

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

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Question # 126

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?

A.

Skills matrix

B.

Job descriptions

C.

RACI chart

D.

Organizational chart

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Question # 127

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

A.

Testing control design

B.

Accepting residual risk

C.

Establishing business information criteria

D.

Establishing the risk register

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Question # 128

A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Update the KRI threshold.

B.

Recommend additional controls.

C.

Review incident handling procedures.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Question # 129

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

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Question # 130

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

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Question # 131

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

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Question # 132

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Question # 133

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 134

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

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Question # 135

Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?

A.

Risk policy requirements

B.

A risk register

C.

Control self-assessment

D.

Key performance Indicators

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Question # 136

when developing IT risk scenarios associated with a new line of business, which of the following would be MOST helpful to review?

A.

Organizational threats

B.

Resource allocation plan

C.

Competitor analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 137
A.

Develop policies with less restrictive requirements to ensure consistency across the organization.

B.

Develop a global policy to be applied uniformly by each country.

C.

Develop country-specific policies to address local regulations.

D.

Develop a global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements.

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Question # 138

A key performance indicator (KPI) has been established to monitor the number of software changes that fail and must be re-implemented. An increase in the KPI indicates an ineffective:

A.

corrective control.

B.

preventive control.

C.

administrative control.

D.

deterrent control.

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Question # 139

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of involving business owners in risk scenario development?

A.

Business owners have the ability to effectively manage risk.

B.

Business owners have authority to approve control implementation.

C.

Business owners understand the residual risk of competitors.

D.

Business owners are able to assess the impact.

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Question # 140

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

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Question # 141
A.

Conduct frequent internal audits of IT systems.

B.

Review information from threat intelligence sources.

C.

Define a comprehensive set of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Document thorough IT risk scenarios in the risk register.

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Question # 142

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.

B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.

C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.

D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.

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Question # 143

An organization plans to provide specific cloud security training for the IT team to help manage risks associated with cloud technology. This response is considered risk:

A.

Transfer

B.

Mitigation

C.

Acceptance

D.

Deferral

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Question # 144

An external security audit has reported multiple findings related to control noncompliance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management?

A.

A recommendation for internal audit validation

B.

Plans for mitigating the associated risk

C.

Suggestions for improving risk awareness training

D.

The impact to the organization’s risk profile

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Question # 145

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?

A.

Enhance the security awareness program.

B.

Increase the frequency of incident reporting.

C.

Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.

D.

Conduct a control assessment.

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Question # 146

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

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Question # 147

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Question # 148
A.

Implement project status checks to avoid financial risk.

B.

Support the project team in identifying and responding to risk.

C.

Update and publish the project risk register on a regular basis.

D.

Reduce project cost by eliminating risk to the project.

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Question # 149

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

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Question # 150

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 151

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

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Question # 152

Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization's data disposal policy?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data architect

C.

Data owner

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 153

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Question # 154

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

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Question # 155

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

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Question # 156

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

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Question # 157

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to continuously manage after implementing a Zero Trust security model?

A.

Privileged user access reviews

B.

Integration with existing security protocols

C.

Policy enforcement inconsistencies

D.

Network segmentation errors

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Question # 158

Which of the following BEST ensures that the data feeds used by an organization are complete and accurate?

A.

Data is inspected and accepted by owners

B.

Best-in-class data mining technology is used

C.

Sources of data and attributes are known

D.

The project is run by an experienced team

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Question # 159

An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?

A.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.

B.

Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.

D.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).

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Question # 160

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

A.

define the IT risk framework for the organization

B.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting

C.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies

D.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance

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Question # 161

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?

A.

Incident reports

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

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Question # 162

When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:

A.

evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.

C.

address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.

D.

determine which risk factors have high remediation costs

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Question # 163

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 164

Which of the following should be implemented to BEST mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates?

A.

Role-specific technical training

B.

Change management audit

C.

Change control process

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 165

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

A.

Identifying users who have access

B.

Selecting an encryption solution

C.

Defining the data retention period

D.

Determining the value of data

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Question # 166

The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:

A.

operates as intended.

B.

is being monitored.

C.

meets regulatory requirements.

D.

operates efficiently.

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Question # 167

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

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Question # 168

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Including trend analysis of risk metrics

B.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data

D.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

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Question # 169

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?

A.

An antivirus program

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Firewall log monitoring

D.

File integrity monitoring

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Question # 170

A compensating control is MOST appropriate when:

A.

Management wants to increase the number of controls.

B.

A vulnerability is identified.

C.

Existing controls are inadequate.

D.

A key control is already in place and operating effectively.

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Question # 171

Which of the following BEST prevents control gaps in the Zero Trust model when implementing in the environment?

A.

Relying on multiple solutions for Zero Trust

B.

Utilizing rapid development during implementation

C.

Establishing a robust technical architecture

D.

Starting with a large initial scope

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Question # 172

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate risk assessments to senior management?

A.

To ensure actions can be taken to align assessment results to risk appetite

B.

To ensure key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds can be adjusted for tolerance

C.

To ensure awareness of risk and controls is shared with key decision makers

D.

To ensure the maturity of the assessment program can be validated

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Question # 173

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when developing an organization's risk management strategy?

A.

Complexity of technology architecture

B.

Disaster recovery strategy

C.

Business operational requirements

D.

Criteria for assessing risk

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Question # 174

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

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Question # 175

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

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Question # 176

Owners of technical controls should be PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring the controls are:

A.

Mapped to the corresponding business areas.

B.

Aligned with corporate security policies.

C.

Effectively implemented and maintained.

D.

Designed based on standards and frameworks.

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Question # 177

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

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Question # 178

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Question # 179

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 180

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Question # 181

Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?

A.

Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities

B.

Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience

C.

Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite

D.

Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation

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Question # 182

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

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Question # 183

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Question # 184

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

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Question # 185

A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?

A.

Change logs

B.

Change management meeting minutes

C.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 186

Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective?

A.

Independent audit report

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

MOST important to update when an

D.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 187

Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Risk policy requirements

C.

A risk register

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 188

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Question # 189

Upon learning that the number of failed backup attempts continually exceeds

the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

A.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency.

B.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance.

C.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions.

D.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal.

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Question # 190

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data when disposing of storage media?

A.

Physical destruction

B.

Degaussing

C.

Data anonymization

D.

Data deletion

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Question # 191

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

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Question # 192

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Question # 193

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

A.

Unencrypted data

B.

Lack of redundant circuits

C.

Low bandwidth connections

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 194

Which of the following problems is BEST solved by a cloud access security broker (CASB)?

A.

Lack of expertise to implement single sign-on (SSO)

B.

Cloud access security vendor selection

C.

Inadequate key management policies

D.

Inconsistently applied security policies

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Question # 195

A risk practitioner has been asked to advise management on developing a log collection and correlation strategy. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when developing this strategy?

A.

Ensuring time synchronization of log sources.

B.

Ensuring the inclusion of external threat intelligence log sources.

C.

Ensuring the inclusion of all computing resources as log sources.

D.

Ensuring read-write access to all log sources

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Question # 196

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?

A.

The number of threats to the system

B.

The organization's available budget

C.

The number of vulnerabilities to the system

D.

The level of acceptable risk to the organization

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Question # 197

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on ensuring the alignment of the risk profile with business objectives?

A.

An effective enterprise-wide risk awareness program

B.

Senior management approval of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Stage gate reviews throughout the risk management process

D.

Incorporation of industry best practice benchmarks and standards

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Question # 198

The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:

A.

security department.

B.

business unit

C.

vendor.

D.

IT department.

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Question # 199

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

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Question # 200

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?

A.

Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.

B.

Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.

C.

Validate the threat management process.

D.

Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.

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Question # 201

When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

A.

Sharing company information on social media

B.

Sharing personal information on social media

C.

Using social media to maintain contact with business associates

D.

Using social media for personal purposes during working hours

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Question # 202

A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?

A.

The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.

B.

The CSA was not sample-based.

C.

The CSA did not test control effectiveness.

D.

The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.

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Question # 203

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

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Question # 204

Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?

A.

Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders

B.

Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training

C.

Providing regular communication to risk managers

D.

Appointing the risk manager from the business units

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Question # 205

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and documenting control procedures?

A.

To facilitate ongoing audit and control testing

B.

To help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels

C.

To establish and maintain a control inventory

D.

To increase the likelihood of effective control operation

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Question # 206

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

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Question # 207

After the implementation of a blockchain solution, a risk practitioner discovers noncompliance with new industry regulations. Which of the following is the MOST important course of action prior to informing senior management?

A.

Evaluate the design effectiveness of existing controls.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Evaluate the industry response to the new regulations.

D.

Evaluate the potential impact.

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Question # 208

Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Risk trends

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk objectives

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Question # 209

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Question # 210

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?

A.

Improved alignment with business goals.

B.

Reduction of residual risk.

C.

Increased costs due to control implementation.

D.

Decreased overall risk appetite.

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Question # 211

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Threat and vulnerability assessment

C.

Compliance assessments

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 212

A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?

A.

Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports.

B.

Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies.

C.

Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.

D.

Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.

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Question # 213

Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of user passwords being compromised by a man in the middle technique?

A.

Require users to select long passwords.

B.

Implement a passwordless access mechanism.

C.

Require users to change password as frequently as possible.

D.

Block user sessions after short periods of inactivity.

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Question # 214

Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:

A.

time required to restore files.

B.

point of synchronization

C.

priority of restoration.

D.

annual loss expectancy (ALE).

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Question # 215

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

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Question # 216

Which of the following can be affected by the cost of risk mitigation alternatives?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk factors

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Current risk rating

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Question # 217

An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?

A.

Develop new loT risk scenarios.

B.

Implement loT device monitoring software.

C.

Introduce controls to the new threat environment.

D.

Engage external security reviews.

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Question # 218

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

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Question # 219

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Question # 220

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 221

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

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Question # 222

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

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Question # 223

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with insufficient focus on addressing blockchain interoperability in the SDLC?

A.

Limited blockchain adoption and support

B.

Reduced transaction speed and system responsiveness

C.

Reduced network integrity and availability

D.

Limited integration with external systems and blockchains

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Question # 224

A cote data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations. Which of the to" owing would provide the MOST useful information to determine mitigating controls?

A.

Forensic analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BlA)

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Question # 225

When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes

A.

risk exposure in business terms

B.

a detailed view of individual risk exposures

C.

a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.

D.

recommendations by an independent risk assessor.

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Question # 226

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

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Question # 227

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

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Question # 228

Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:

A.

business process owner.

B.

database administrator.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

systems administrator.

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Question # 229

Which of the following MUST be captured in a risk treatment plan?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk register details

D.

Risk financial impact

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Question # 230

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization's risk register?

A.

Limit access to senior management only.

B.

Encrypt the risk register.

C.

Implement role-based access.

D.

Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.

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Question # 231

During an IT department reorganization, the manager of a risk mitigation action plan was replaced. The new manager has begun implementing a new control after identifying a more effective option. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval

B.

Seek approval from the previous action plan manager.

C.

Identify an owner for the new control.

D.

Modify the action plan in the risk register.

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Question # 232

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 233

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

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Question # 234

During an organization's simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?

A.

A high number of participants reporting the email

B.

A high number of participants deleting the email

C.

A low number of participants with questions for the help desk

D.

A low number of participants opening the email

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Question # 235

An organization control environment is MOST effective when:

A.

control designs are reviewed periodically

B.

controls perform as intended.

C.

controls are implemented consistently.

D.

controls operate efficiently

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Question # 236

Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?

A.

Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment

B.

Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access

C.

Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers

D.

Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing

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Question # 237

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

A.

Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.

B.

Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.

C.

Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.

D.

Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.

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Question # 238

When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?

A.

An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events

B.

An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations

C.

A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls

D.

A justification of corrective action taken

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Question # 239

Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application'?

A.

The third-party risk manager

B.

The application vendor

C.

The business process owner

D.

The information security manager

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Question # 240

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

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Question # 241

Which of the following is the BEST control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT)?

A.

Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls

B.

Conducting regular penetration tests

C.

Monitoring social media activities

D.

Implementing automated log monitoring

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Question # 242

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

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Question # 243

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 244

An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Perform an impact assessment.

B.

Perform a penetration test.

C.

Request an external audit.

D.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

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Question # 245

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?

A.

Utilization of a cross-functional team

B.

Participation by IT subject matter experts

C.

Integration of contingency planning

D.

Validation by senior management

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Question # 246

A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?

A.

Reduce retention periods for Pll data.

B.

Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.

C.

Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.

D.

Implement strong encryption for Pll.

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Question # 247

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

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Question # 248

Which of the following BEST enables risk mitigation associated with software licensing noncompliance?

A.

Document IT inventory management procedures.

B.

Conduct annual reviews of license expiration dates.

C.

Perform automated vulnerability scans.

D.

Implement automated IT asset management controls.

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Question # 249

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:

A.

identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring

B.

validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner

C.

update the risk register with the selected risk response

D.

recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

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Question # 250

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

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Question # 251

Which of the following will be MOST effective in helping to ensure control failures are appropriately managed?

A.

Control procedures

B.

Peer review

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Control ownership

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Question # 252

Who should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?

A.

Business process owner

B.

Executive management

C.

Risk management

D.

IT management

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Question # 253

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?

A.

Protecting the organization from negative publicity

B.

Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence

C.

Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers

D.

Preventing further dissemination of customer information

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Question # 254

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

A.

A management-approved risk dashboard

B.

A current control framework

C.

A regularly updated risk register

D.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

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Question # 255

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 256

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 257

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 258

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

A.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.

C.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Developing contingency plans for key processes.

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Question # 259

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

A.

updating the risk register

B.

documenting the risk scenarios.

C.

validating the risk scenarios

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Question # 260

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Question # 261

Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:

A.

trending data is available.

B.

process flowcharts are current.

C.

measurement objectives are defined.

D.

data collection technology is available.

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Question # 262

The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:

A.

financial risk.

B.

data risk.

C.

operational risk.

D.

strategic risk.

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Question # 263

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Question # 264

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?

A.

Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).

B.

Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.

C.

Require independent control assessments.

D.

Obtain vendor references from existing customers.

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Question # 265

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?

A.

Activate the incident response plan.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Develop risk scenarios.

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Question # 266

The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:

A.

network operations.

B.

the cybersecurity function.

C.

application development.

D.

the business function.

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Question # 267

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 268

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

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Question # 269

An organization practices the principle of least privilege. To ensure access remains appropriate, application owners should be required to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining:

A.

business purpose documentation and software license counts

B.

an access control matrix and approval from the user's manager

C.

documentation indicating the intended users of the application

D.

security logs to determine the cause of invalid login attempts

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Question # 270

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

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Question # 271

Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?

A.

The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.

B.

Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.

C.

Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.

D.

The database system may not be scalable in the future.

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Question # 272

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

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Question # 273

Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?

A.

Batch job failure monitoring

B.

Periodic network scanning

C.

Annual penetration testing

D.

Risk assessments

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Question # 274

Which of the following risk scenarios should be considered in a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

A pandemic situation requiring remote work

B.

A ransomware attack affecting critical systems

C.

A vendor failing to notify the organization of a data breach

D.

Hacking activity leading to theft of sensitive data

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Question # 275

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Question # 276

A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

A.

Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.

B.

Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.

C.

Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.

D.

Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.

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Question # 277

What would be a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation when several key performance indicators (KPIs) for a control process fail to meet service level agreements (SLAs)?

A.

Adjust the process KPI threshold.

B.

Develop an IT risk response plan.

C.

Review the organization's IT risk profile.

D.

Review process efficiency.

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Question # 278

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's patch management process?

A.

Average time to implement patches after vendor release

B.

Number of patches tested prior to deployment

C.

Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production

D.

Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe

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Question # 279

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?

A.

Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.

B.

Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.

C.

Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.

D.

Document the risk decision in the project risk register.

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Question # 280

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?

A.

Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape

B.

Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment

C.

Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit

D.

Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors

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Question # 281

Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

A.

Cloud service provider

B.

IT department

C.

Senior management

D.

Business unit owner

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Question # 282

The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:

A.

evaluate how risk conditions are managed.

B.

determine threats and vulnerabilities.

C.

estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.

D.

establish risk response options.

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Question # 283

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 284

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

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Question # 285

A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.

B.

suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.

C.

revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.

D.

evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.

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Question # 286

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?

A.

Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level

B.

Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period

C.

Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period

D.

Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management

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Question # 287

Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?

A.

Re-evaluate current controls.

B.

Revise the current risk action plan.

C.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

D.

Implement additional controls.

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Question # 288

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

A.

updating the risk register.

B.

validating the risk scenarios.

C.

documenting the risk scenarios.

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Question # 289

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud?

A.

Providing oversight of risk management processes

B.

Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud

C.

Ensuring that risk and control assessments consider fraud

D.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate fraud

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Question # 290

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

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Question # 291

Which of the following is the MOST effective way lo ensure professional ethics are maintained as a core organizational value and adhered to by employees?

A.

Include professional ethics in the corporate value statement.

B.

Establish a channel for employees to report unethical behavior.

C.

Include professional ethics criteria as part of performance appraisals.

D.

Establish a code of conduct document for employees to sign.

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Question # 292

An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

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Question # 293

Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) BEST enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization's:

A.

risk classification methods

B.

risk-based capital allocation

C.

risk portfolio

D.

risk culture

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Question # 294

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

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Question # 295

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Understanding and prioritization of critical processes

B.

Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Identification of regulatory consequences

D.

Reduction of security and business continuity threats

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Question # 296

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Question # 297

Following the identification of a risk associated with a major organizational change, which of the following is MOST important to update in the IT risk register?

A.

The risk owner

B.

The person who identified the risk

C.

The control owner

D.

The risk response owner

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Question # 298

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?

A.

Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan

B.

Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level

D.

Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk

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Question # 299

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

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Question # 300

Which of the following statements in an organization's current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?

A.

Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.

B.

New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.

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Question # 301

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

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Question # 302

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk governance charter

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Cross-business representation

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Question # 303

Before selecting a final risk response option for a given risk scenario, management should FIRST:

A.

determine control ownership.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar sized organizations.

C.

evaluate the organization's ability to implement the solution.

D.

determine the remediation timeline.

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Question # 304

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

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Question # 305

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

A.

User authorization

B.

User recertification

C.

Change log review

D.

Access log monitoring

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Question # 306

An organization is developing a plan to address new information security risks emerging from business changes. Which of the following BEST enables stakeholders to make decisions impacting organizational strategy?

A.

The impact of the new risk is clearly presented

B.

Benchmarking information is provided

C.

Technical expertise to address new risk scenarios is available

D.

The cost of implementing the strategy is within budget

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Question # 307

Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?

A.

Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures

B.

Interviewing groups of key stakeholders

C.

Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders

D.

Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues

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Question # 308

An organization's financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?

A.

IT risk manager

B.

IT system owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business owner

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Question # 309

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization's access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?

A.

After the initial design

B.

Before production rollout

C.

After a few weeks in use

D.

Before end-user testing

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Question # 310

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

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Question # 311

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Question # 312

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?

A.

To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors

B.

To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk

C.

To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions

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Question # 313

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?

A.

Increase in the frequency of changes

B.

Percent of unauthorized changes

C.

Increase in the number of emergency changes

D.

Average time to complete changes

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Question # 314

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk

awareness program?

A.

Policies and procedures

B.

Structure and culture

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds

D.

Known threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 315

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

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Question # 316

A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?

A.

Monitor the databases for abnormal activity

B.

Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating

C.

Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities

D.

Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is

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Question # 317

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

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Question # 318

Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Continuous monitoring and alerting

C.

Configuration management

D.

Access controls and active logging

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Question # 319

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

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Question # 320

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when analyzing the risk associated with migrating to a new cloud service provider?

A.

The cloud service provider's control environment

B.

The complexity of the cloud services

C.

The date of the cloud service provider's last risk assessment

D.

Past incidents related to acquired cloud services

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Question # 321

Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?

A.

Data encryption

B.

Continuous log monitoring

C.

Right to audit

D.

Data obfuscation

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Question # 322

An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?

A.

Detective

B.

Directive

C.

Preventive

D.

Compensating

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Question # 323

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 324

A business is conducting a proof of concept on a vendor's Al technology. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for managing risk?

A.

Use of a non-production environment

B.

Adequate vendor support

C.

Third-party management plan

D.

Regular security updates

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Question # 325

An organization uses an automated vulnerability scanner to identify potential vulnerabilities on various enterprise systems. Who is accountable for ensuring the vulnerabilities are mitigated?

A.

Data owners

B.

Information security manager

C.

System administrators

D.

System owners

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Question # 326

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Question # 327
A.

Business information security officer

B.

Service level manager

C.

Business process manager

D.

Data center operations manager

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Question # 328

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

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Question # 329

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining key performance indicators (KPIs) for a process?

A.

Historical trends in process-related incidents

B.

Known problems with the process

C.

Success criteria for the process

D.

Alignment with established industry frameworks

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Question # 330

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 331

A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk reporting

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk identification

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Question # 332

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

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Question # 333

After a business unit implemented an Internet of Things (IoT) solution, the organization became aware of an emerging risk from the interoperability of IoT devices. Which of the following should be done FIRST in response to this situation?

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Update the risk profile.

C.

Re-evaluate the risk tolerance.

D.

Inform executive leadership.

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Question # 334

An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

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Question # 335

Which of the following BEST indicates that a control has been implemented successfully?

A.

The control implementation has been signed off by management.

B.

The residual risk within the organization has been reduced.

C.

The inherent risk is within the organization's risk appetite.

D.

The control has been documented in business process maps.

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Question # 336

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management's action plan?

A.

Survey device owners.

B.

Rescan the user environment.

C.

Require annual end user policy acceptance.

D.

Review awareness training assessment results

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Question # 337

Winch of the following is the BEST evidence of an effective risk treatment plan?

A.

The inherent risk is below the asset residual risk.

B.

Remediation cost is below the asset business value

C.

The risk tolerance threshold s above the asset residual

D.

Remediation is completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 338

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to report on changes or trends related to an organization's IT risk profile?

A.

To benchmark against a risk management framework

B.

To predict external regulatory changes

C.

To adapt to emerging threats

D.

To reduce the cost of performing control activities

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Question # 339

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

A.

The effectiveness of compensating controls

B.

The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss

C.

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

D.

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

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Question # 340

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?

A.

Costs and benefits

B.

Local laws and regulations

C.

Security features and support

D.

Business strategies and needs

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Question # 341

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting risk and control self-assessments?

A.

To better understand inherent and residual risk within the organization

B.

To gain objective insight into the effectiveness and efficiency of controls

C.

To demonstrate compliance with regulatory and legal control requirements

D.

To facilitate timely and accurate updates to the risk register

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Question # 342

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

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Question # 343

Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?

A.

The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident

B.

The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.

C.

The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.

D.

The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.

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Question # 344

Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

System administrator

D.

Human resources (HR) manager

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Question # 345

A risk practitioner has learned that the number of emergency change management tickets without subsequent approval has doubled from the same period of the previous year. Which of the following is the MOST important action for the risk practitioner to take?

A.

Review the cause of the control failure.

B.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

C.

Recommend remedial training.

D.

Initiate a review of the change management process.

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Question # 346

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

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Question # 347

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?

A.

To enable risk-based decision making

B.

To promote awareness of the risk governance function

C.

To clarify fundamental risk management principles

D.

To ensure sufficient resources are available

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Question # 348

A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?

A.

Business analyst

B.

Project sponsor

C.

IT project team

D.

IT project management office (PMO)

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Question # 349

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?

A.

Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.

B.

Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.

C.

Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.

D.

Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.

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Question # 350

From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure when risk management policies are being updated to facilitate the pursuit of new opportunities?

A.

Updates align with strategic business objectives.

B.

Updates will be approved by the risk owners.

C.

Updates align with industry standards and benchmarks.

D.

Updates will be reviewed periodically to ensure compliance.

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Question # 351

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering?

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Multifactor authentication

D.

Employee sanctions

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Question # 352

Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?

A.

Solutions for eradicating emerging threats

B.

Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats

C.

Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)

D.

Source and identity of attackers

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Question # 353

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

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Question # 354

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 355

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

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Question # 356

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:

A.

assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

B.

confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C.

verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

D.

ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

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Question # 357

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

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Question # 358

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

A.

risk appetite.

B.

security policies

C.

process maps.

D.

risk tolerance level

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Question # 359

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

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Question # 360

Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?

A.

Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates

B.

Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions

C.

Number of termination requests processed per reporting period

D.

Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates

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Question # 361

A PRIMARY objective of disaster recovery is to:

A.

Improve infrastructure of physical locations

B.

Restore critical business and IT services

C.

Recover financial data and statements

D.

Maintain operational processes and connectivity

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Question # 362

A risk practitioner is evaluating policies defined by an organization as part of its IT security framework. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?

A.

Lack of alignment with global security standards

B.

Inadequate policy enforcement

C.

Lack of a single repository for security procedures

D.

Increased cost for policy adoption

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Question # 363

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Question # 364

Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?

A.

Obsolete response documentation

B.

Increased stakeholder turnover

C.

Failure to audit third-party providers

D.

Undefined assignment of responsibility

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Question # 365

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing a priority sequence when restoring business processes after a disruption?

A.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

B.

Mean Time to Recover (MTTR)

C.

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

D.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

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Question # 366

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives?

A.

The organization has approved policies that provide operational boundaries.

B.

Organizational controls are in place to effectively manage risk appetite.

C.

Environmental changes that impact risk are continually evaluated.

D.

The organization has an approved enterprise architecture (EA) program.

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Question # 367

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

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Question # 368

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

A.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

B.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

C.

Planned downtime

D.

Unplanned downtime

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Question # 369

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 370

An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Implementation

C.

Initiation

D.

Operation and maintenance

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Question # 371

Which of the following BEST prevents unauthorized access to customer personal data transmitted to third-party service providers?

A.

Reviewing and testing service providers' business continuity plans (BCPs)

B.

Ensuring service providers comply with laws and regulations

C.

Implementing and reviewing data sharing controls

D.

Requiring service providers to report privacy breaches

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Question # 372

Which of the following is the BEST approach to resolve a disagreement between stakeholders regarding the impact of a potential risk scenario?

A.

Modify the risk scenario to address stakeholder concerns.

B.

Calculate the historical impact of risk occurring at industry peers.

C.

Identify data that could be used to help quantify the risk.

D.

Use the highest value of potential impact suggested by the stakeholders.

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Question # 373

What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk likelihood

C.

Risk appropriate

D.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

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Question # 374

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

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Question # 375

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

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Question # 376

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

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Question # 377

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

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Question # 378

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?

A.

Percentage of systems included in recovery processes

B.

Number of key systems hosted

C.

Average response time to resolve system incidents

D.

Percentage of system availability

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Question # 379

Which of the following is MOST important when discussing risk within an organization?

A.

Adopting a common risk taxonomy

B.

Using key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Creating a risk communication policy

D.

Using key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 380

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?

A.

Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes

B.

Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations

C.

Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder

D.

Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior

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Question # 381

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk profile?

A.

It promotes a security-aware culture.

B.

It enables vulnerability analysis.

C.

It enhances internal risk reporting.

D.

It provides risk information to auditors.

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Question # 382

A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?

A.

A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.

B.

A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.

C.

Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.

D.

Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.

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Question # 383

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

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Question # 384

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities?

A.

Temporarily mitigate the OS vulnerabilities

B.

Document and implement a patching process

C.

Evaluate permanent fixes such as patches and upgrades

D.

Identify the vulnerabilities and applicable OS patches

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Question # 385

An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

A.

Recommend rejection of the initiative.

B.

Change the level of risk appetite.

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk.

D.

Initiate a reassessment of the risk.

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Question # 386

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

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Question # 387

Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:

A.

Set performance expectations for controls.

B.

Align with key business objectives.

C.

Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.

D.

Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.

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Question # 388

Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?

A.

Lack of access verification for systems on the internal network

B.

Identification and authentication failures for users

C.

Poorly configured firewall rules introducing security breaches

D.

Ineffective load balancing on network devices

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Question # 389

Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority when developing a response plan for risk assessment results?

A.

Risk that has been untreated

B.

Items with a high inherent risk

C.

Items with the highest likelihood of occurrence

D.

Risk that exceeds risk appetite

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Question # 390

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a recovery point objective (RPO)?

A.

Latency of the alternate site

B.

Amount of acceptable data loss

C.

Time and resources for offsite backups

D.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan (BCP)

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Question # 391

Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:

A.

ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.

B.

provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.

C.

provide a snapshot of the risk profile.

D.

ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.

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Question # 392

Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:

A.

overall effectiveness of risk management

B.

consequences of risk materializing

C.

necessity of developing a risk strategy,

D.

organization s risk threshold.

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Question # 393

Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?

A.

Customized regional training on local laws and regulations

B.

Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions

C.

Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture

D.

Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers

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Question # 394

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?

A.

Stakeholder preferences

B.

Contractual requirements

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Management assertions

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Question # 395

A newly enacted information privacy law significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following will MOST likely outcome for an organization affected by the new law?

A.

Increase in compliance breaches

B.

Increase in loss event impact

C.

Increase in residual risk

D.

Increase in customer complaints

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Question # 396

Which of the following is the MOST essential factor for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment?

A.

Ongoing sharing of information among industry peers

B.

Obtaining support from senior leadership

C.

Adhering to industry-recognized risk management standards

D.

Implementing detection and response measures

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Question # 397

Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?

A.

Percentage of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of severs receiving automata patches

C.

Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities

D.

Number of intrusion attempts

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Question # 398

The MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to communicate the effectiveness of an enterprise IT risk management program is:

A.

The percentage of risk scenarios that are within organizational tolerance

B.

The percentage of IT staff trained in risk management

C.

The number of critical business services covered by a risk assessment

D.

The amount of IT risk realized that impacted the business

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Question # 399

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

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Question # 400

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Question # 401

What would be MOST helpful to ensuring the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program?

A.

Creating metrics to report the number of security incidents

B.

Hiring subject matter experts for the program

C.

Establishing a budget for additional resources

D.

Assigning clear ownership of the program

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Question # 402

A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

A.

Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.

B.

Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.

C.

Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.

D.

Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.

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Question # 403
A.

Conduct targeted risk assessments.

B.

Recommend management accept the low risk scenarios.

C.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

D.

Propose mitigating controls.

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Question # 404

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Question # 405

Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?

A.

Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.

B.

Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.

C.

Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.

D.

Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 406

Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?

A.

Assessing regulatory requirements

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Gaining management consensus

D.

Identifying risk tolerance

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Question # 407

Who is accountable for risk treatment?

A.

Enterprise risk management team

B.

Risk mitigation manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Risk owner

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Question # 408

In a DevOps environment, a container does not pass dynamic application security testing (DAST). How should this situation be categorized?

A.

As a risk event

B.

As a risk scenario

C.

As an incident

D.

As an error

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Question # 409

Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?

A.

Data protection officer

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Information asset custodian

D.

Information asset owner

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Question # 410

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

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Question # 411

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

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Question # 412

Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?

A.

Industry trends in Al

B.

Expected algorithm outputs

C.

Data feeds

D.

Alert functionality

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Question # 413

After the implementation of a remediation plan, an assessment of associated control design and operating effectiveness can determine the level of:

A.

residual risk.

B.

aggregated risk.

C.

audit risk.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 414

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?

A.

Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.

B.

Operational staff perform control self-assessments.

C.

Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit

D.

analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.

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Question # 415

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Question # 416

Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?

A.

Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.

B.

Adjust inherent risk levels upward.

C.

Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.

D.

Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.

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Question # 417

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Question # 418

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

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Question # 419

To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:

A.

continuously monitor the environment.

B.

develop key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

maintain a risk matrix.

D.

maintain a risk register.

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Question # 420

Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?

A.

Average time to grant access privileges

B.

Number of changes in access granted to users

C.

Average number of access privilege exceptions

D.

Number and type of locked obsolete accounts

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Question # 421

The PRIMARY benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

A.

serve as a basis for measuring risk appetite.

B.

align with the organization's risk profile.

C.

provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions.

D.

provide data for updating the risk register.

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Question # 422

Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Code review

C.

Change management

D.

Audit modules

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Question # 423

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

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Question # 424

An updated report from a trusted research organization shows that attacks have increased in the organization's industry segment. What should be done FIRST to integrate this data into risk assessments?

A.

Average the ransomware attack frequencies together

B.

Revise the threat frequency for ransomware attack types

C.

Adjust impact amounts based on the average ransom

D.

Use the new frequency as the maximum value in a Monte Carlo simulation

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Question # 425

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Evaluating risk impact

B.

Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Conducting internal audits

D.

Creating quarterly risk reports

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Question # 426

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

A.

Increase in mitigating control costs

B.

Increase in risk event impact

C.

Increase in risk event likelihood

D.

Increase in cybersecurity premium

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Question # 427

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?

A.

Service level agreements(SLA)

B.

Vendor references

C.

Benchmarking data

D.

Accountability matrix

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Question # 428

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

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Question # 429

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Question # 430

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Question # 431

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership

regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?

A.

Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices

B.

Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies

C.

Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies

D.

Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies

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Question # 432

Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?

A.

Penetration testing

B.

IT general controls audit

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Fault tree analysis

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Question # 433

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

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Question # 434

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?

A.

To reduce the likelihood of insider threat

B.

To eliminate the possibility of insider threat

C.

To enable rapid discovery of insider threat

D.

To reduce the impact of insider threat

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Question # 435

When using a third party to perform penetration testing, which of the following is the MOST important control to minimize operational impact?

A.

Perform a background check on the vendor.

B.

Require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Require the vendor to have liability insurance.

D.

Clearly define the project scope

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Question # 436

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 437

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for a startup organization that has decided to adopt externally-sourced security policies?

A.

Availability of policy updates and support

B.

Stakeholder buy-in of policies

C.

Applicability to business operations

D.

Compliance with local regulations

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Question # 438

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

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Question # 439

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

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Question # 440

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Question # 441

An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:

A.

risk mitigation.

B.

risk evaluation.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk tolerance.

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Question # 442

Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?

A.

Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.

B.

Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.

C.

Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.

D.

Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.

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Question # 443

Which of the following cloud service models is MOST appropriate for client organizations that want to maximize their control over management of the data life cycle?

A.

Data as a Service (DaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 444

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to identify changes in the performance of the control environment?

A.

Evaluate key performance indicators (KPIs).

B.

Perform a control self-assessment (CSA).

C.

Implement continuous monitoring.

D.

Adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Question # 445

Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?

A.

Updating the threat inventory with new threats

B.

Automating log data analysis

C.

Preventing the generation of false alerts

D.

Determining threshold levels

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Question # 446

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

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Question # 447

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

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Question # 448

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information lo a supplier?

A.

Encrypt the data while in transit lo the supplier

B.

Contractually obligate the supplier to follow privacy laws.

C.

Require independent audits of the supplier's control environment

D.

Utilize blockchain during the data transfer

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Question # 449

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

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Question # 450

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

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Question # 451

Which of the following describes the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

A.

Risk appetite is completely independent of risk tolerance.

B.

Risk tolerance is used to determine risk appetite.

C.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance are synonymous.

D.

Risk tolerance may exceed risk appetite.

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Question # 452

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses are effective?

A.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

B.

Risk with low impact is accepted.

C.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

D.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

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Question # 453

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Implement monitoring controls.

D.

Recalculate the risk.

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Question # 454

Which of the following provides the MOST insight regarding an organization's risk culture?

A.

Awareness training participation rate

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Senior management interviews

D.

Risk management framework

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Question # 455

Which of the following would be MOST useful to management when allocating resources to mitigate risk to the organization?

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

C.

Risk-based audits

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 456

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic when designing a key risk indicator (KRI)?

A.

It is linked to a key performance indicator (KPI)

B.

It is linked to a key control indicator (KCI)

C.

It contains an objective alert threshold

D.

It aligns with industry benchmarks

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Question # 457

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?

A.

The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions

B.

The number of servers with local credentials to install patches

C.

The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements

D.

The number of servers running the software patching service

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Question # 458

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

A.

Confidentiality breach

B.

Institutional knowledge loss

C.

Intellectual property loss

D.

Unauthorized access

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Question # 459

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

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Question # 460

What would be the MAIN concern associated with a decentralized IT function maintaining multiple risk registers?

A.

Risk treatment efforts within the IT function may overlap one another.

B.

Duplicate IT risk scenarios may be documented across the organization.

C.

Aggregate risk within the IT function may exceed the organization's appetite.

D.

Related IT risk scenarios in the IT function may be updated at different times.

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Question # 461

Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?

A.

Least privilege access

B.

Inability to edit

C.

Ability to overwrite

D.

Encryption

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Question # 462

Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?

A.

Lack of robust awareness programs

B.

infrequent risk assessments of key controls

C.

Rapid changes in IT procedures

D.

Unavailability of critical IT systems

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Question # 463

In an organization dependent on data analytics to drive decision-making, which of the following would BEST help to minimize the risk associated with inaccurate data?

A.

Establishing an intellectual property agreement

B.

Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities

C.

Periodically reviewing big data strategies

D.

Benchmarking to industry best practice

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Question # 464

An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

A.

Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave

B.

Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member

C.

Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation

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Question # 465

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

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Question # 466

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Question # 467

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?

A.

Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations

B.

Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit

C.

Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value

D.

Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance

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Question # 468

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

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Question # 469

Which of the blowing is MOST important when implementing an organization s security policy?

A.

Obtaining management support

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Assessing compliance requirements

D.

Identifying threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 470

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

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Question # 471

While reviewing an organization's monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

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Question # 472

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

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Question # 473
A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk capacity

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Question # 474

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

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Question # 475

Which of the following risk impacts should be the PRIMARY consideration for determining recovery priorities in a disaster recovery situation?

A.

Data security

B.

Recovery costs

C.

Business disruption

D.

Recovery resource availability

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Question # 476

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Question # 477

Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

A.

Cable lock

B.

Data encryption

C.

Periodic backup

D.

Biometrics access control

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Question # 478

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

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Question # 479

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to change the likelihood rating in the risk register?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Control cost

C.

Control effectiveness

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 480

In which of the following scenarios would a risk practitioner be required to provide the MOST justification for a risk assessment?

A.

Modeling a threat-based risk event

B.

Calculating mean time between failures (MTBF)

C.

Using a semi-quantitative approach

D.

Calculating adjusted loss expectancy (ALE)

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Question # 481

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization's risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

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Question # 482

An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the countrywhere it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?

A.

Analyze data protection methods.

B.

Understand data flows.

C.

Include a right-to-audit clause.

D.

Implement strong access controls.

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Question # 483

How does the identification of risk scenarios contribute to effective IT risk management?

A.

By facilitating post-incident investigations

B.

By enabling proactive risk assessment

C.

By identifying cybersecurity incidents

D.

By creating awareness of risk mitigation strategies

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Question # 484

To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

A.

Operational strategies

B.

Risk governance

C.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 485

When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:

A.

process flow.

B.

business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

service level agreement (SLA).

D.

system architecture.

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Question # 486

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

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Question # 487

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

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Question # 488

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

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Question # 489

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

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Question # 490

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Question # 491

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

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Question # 492

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 493

A risk practitioner has been made aware of a problem in an IT system that was missed during a routine risk assessment. Which of the following is the practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Record the problem as a new issue in the risk management system

B.

Record a new issue but backdate it to the original risk assessment date

C.

Report the vulnerability to the asset owner's manager

D.

Document the issue during the next risk assessment

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Question # 494

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

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Question # 495

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

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Question # 496

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

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Question # 497

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

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Question # 498

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

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Question # 499

Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?

A.

Analyzing cyber intelligence reports

B.

Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants

C.

Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register

D.

Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment

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Question # 500

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The monetary value of the asset

C.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

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Question # 501

Which of the following BEST supports an accurate asset inventory system?

A.

Asset management metrics are aligned to industry benchmarks

B.

Organizational information risk controls are continuously monitored

C.

There are defined processes in place for onboarding assets

D.

The asset management team is involved in the budgetary planning process

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Question # 502

The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:

A.

plan awareness programs for business managers.

B.

evaluate maturity of the risk management process.

C.

assist in the development of a risk profile.

D.

maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.

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Question # 503

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

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Question # 504

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Question # 505

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

A.

Cost of implementation

B.

Implementation of unproven applications

C.

Disruption to business processes

D.

Increase in attack surface area

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Question # 506

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Identifying critical information assets

B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations.

C.

Creating a data classification scheme

D.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results

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Question # 507

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

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Question # 508

A control owner identifies that the organization's shared drive contains personally identifiable information (Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?

A.

Protect sensitive information with access controls.

B.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.

C.

Re-communicate the data protection policy.

D.

Implement a data encryption solution.

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Question # 509

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for analyzing risk scenarios?

A.

Identifying additional risk scenarios

B.

Updating the heat map

C.

Assessing loss expectancy

D.

Establishing a risk appetite

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Question # 510

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Question # 511

Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.

B.

Escalate the situation to risk leadership.

C.

Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.

D.

Review system and process documentation.

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Question # 512

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 513

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

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Question # 514
A.

Internal email communications are not encrypted.

B.

Data transmission within the corporate network is not encrypted.

C.

Internally created documents are not automatically classified.

D.

Data transmission across public networks is not encrypted.

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Question # 515

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

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Question # 516

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

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Question # 517

Which of the following is the MOST important risk management activity during project initiation?

A.

Defining key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Classifying project data

C.

Identifying key risk stakeholders

D.

Establishing a risk mitigation plan

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Question # 518

Which of the following would cause the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner reviewing the IT risk scenarios recorded in an organization’s IT risk register?

A.

Some IT risk scenarios have multi-year risk action plans.

B.

Several IT risk scenarios are missing assigned owners.

C.

Numerous IT risk scenarios have been granted risk acceptances.

D.

Many IT risk scenarios are categorized as avoided.

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Question # 519

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

A.

Risk monitoring

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk aggregation

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 520

A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?

A.

Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues

B.

Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents

C.

Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation

D.

Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business

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Question # 521

Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?

A.

Brainstorming sessions

B.

Control self-assessments

C.

Vulnerability analysis

D.

Monte Carlo analysis

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Question # 522

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

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Question # 523

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Question # 524

A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?

A.

Review the risk profile

B.

Review pokey change history

C.

interview the control owner

D.

Perform control testing

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Question # 525

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a data protection management plan?

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Identify critical data.

C.

Establish a data inventory.

D.

Conduct a risk analysis.

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Question # 526

The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:

A.

Identify threats and vulnerability

B.

Ensure alignment with industry standards

C.

Provide measurable risk reduction

D.

Enforce strong security solutions

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Question # 527

Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?

A.

Determining which departments contribute most to risk

B.

Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners

C.

Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes

D.

Determining resource dependency of assets

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Question # 528

A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?

A.

Negotiating terms of adoption

B.

Understanding the timeframe to implement

C.

Completing a gap analysis

D.

Initiating the conversion

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Question # 529

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

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Question # 530

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

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Question # 531

Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of privacy impact assessments (PIAs)?

A.

To identify threats introduced by business processes

B.

To identify risk when personal information is collected

C.

To ensure senior management has approved the use of personal information

D.

To ensure compliance with data privacy laws and regulations

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Question # 532

Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?

A.

Background checks

B.

Awareness training

C.

User access

D.

Policy management

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Question # 533

Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?

A.

An internal audit

B.

A heat map

C.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

A vulnerability report

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Question # 534

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

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Question # 535

An organization does not have a defined process to revoke IT access of staff members who have changed roles within the organization. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with this deficiency?

A.

Noncompliance with the access management policy

B.

Fraudulent insider activities

C.

Misaligned job duties

D.

Inefficient access review processes

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Question # 536

Which types of controls are BEST used to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability?

A.

Directive

B.

Preventive

C.

Deterrent

D.

Detective

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Question # 537

An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:

A.

reduce the likelihood of future events

B.

restore availability

C.

reduce the impact of future events

D.

address the root cause

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Question # 538

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Question # 539

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

A.

The organization's knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization's culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

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Question # 540

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels?

A.

Qualitative measures for potential loss events

B.

Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes in methods used to calculate probability

D.

Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option

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Question # 541

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Question # 542

An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?

A.

Detective

B.

Deterrent

C.

Preventive

D.

Corrective

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Question # 543

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service

provider during a vendor risk assessment?

A.

Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Independent audit report

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 544

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

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Question # 545

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?

A.

Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks

B.

Number of downtime hours in business critical servers

C.

Number of patches made to anti-malware software

D.

Number of successful attacks by malicious software

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Question # 546

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

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Question # 547

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager to exclude an in-scope system from a risk assessment?

A.

Postpone the risk assessment.

B.

Facilitate the exception process.

C.

Accept the manager's request.

D.

Reject the manager's request.

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Question # 548

Which of the following introduces the GREATEST amount of risk during the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Use of debugging tools

B.

Incorrect firewall configuration

C.

Inability to pass user acceptance tests (UATs)

D.

Untested changes to production

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Question # 549

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Question # 550

An organization is implementing robotic process automation (RPA) to streamline business processes. Given that implementation of this technology is expected to impact existing controls, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Reassess whether mitigating controls address the known risk in the processes.

B.

Update processes to address the new technology.

C.

Update the data governance policy to address the new technology.

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted processes.

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Question # 551

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

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Question # 552

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Question # 553

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

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Question # 554

Which of the following controls will BEST mitigate risk associated with excessive access privileges?

A.

Review of user access logs

B.

Frequent password expiration

C.

Separation of duties

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Question # 555

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Adherence to governing policies

C.

Regular stakeholder briefings

D.

Independent audit results

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Question # 556

How does an organization benefit by purchasing cyber theft insurance?

A.

It decreases the amount of organizational loss if risk events occur.

B.

It justifies the acceptance of risk associated with cyber theft events.

C.

It transfers risk ownership along with associated liabilities to a third party.

D.

It decreases the likelihood of risk events occurring.

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Question # 557

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?

A.

An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk

B.

Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud

C.

Clear accountability for risk management processes

D.

Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations

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Question # 558

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year's budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

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Question # 559

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Question # 560

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

A.

Requiring two-factor authentication

B.

Conducting security awareness training

C.

Implementing phishing simulations

D.

Updating the information security policy

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Question # 561

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

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Question # 562

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 563

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

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Question # 564

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?

A.

Results of risk remediation team interviews

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

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Question # 565

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

A.

Enabling risk-aware decisions

B.

Promoting a risk-aware culture

C.

Improving security governance

D.

Reducing residual risk

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Question # 566

An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

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Question # 567

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

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Question # 568

An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?

A.

Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.

B.

Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.

C.

Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.

D.

Transfer a read-only version of the data.

Full Access