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CRISC Questions and Answers

Question # 6

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

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Question # 7

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk map with stakeholders?

A.

Consolidates risk response options by severity

B.

Aligns risk appetite with business objectives

C.

Correlates risk scenarios to risk appetite

D.

Defines an organizational risk taxonomy

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Question # 8

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

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Question # 9

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Question # 10

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Question # 11

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 12

An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:

A.

identifying risk scenarios.

B.

determining the risk strategy.

C.

calculating impact and likelihood.

D.

completing the controls catalog.

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Question # 13

Which of the following BEST facilitates the process of documenting risk tolerance?

A.

Creating a risk register

B.

Interviewing management

C.

Conducting a risk assessment

D.

Researching industry standards

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Question # 14

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

A.

Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.

B.

Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.

C.

Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.

D.

Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.

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Question # 15

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders ' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

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Question # 16

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?

A.

inadequate resource allocation

B.

Data disruption

C.

Unauthorized access

D.

Inadequate retention schedules

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Question # 17

What is the PRIMARY reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process?

A.

To eliminate risk associated with personnel

B.

To reduce internal threats

C.

To ensure new hires have the required skills

D.

To reduce exposure to vulnerabilities

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Question # 18

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

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Question # 19

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

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Question # 20

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

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Question # 21

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

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Question # 22

A compensating control is MOST appropriate when:

A.

Management wants to increase the number of controls.

B.

A vulnerability is identified.

C.

Existing controls are inadequate.

D.

A key control is already in place and operating effectively.

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Question # 23

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

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Question # 24

Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?

A.

Audit and compliance management

B.

The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)

C.

Enterprise risk management and business process owners

D.

Executive management and the board of directors

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Question # 25

An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?

A.

The organization ' s business process owner

B.

The organization ' s information security manager

C.

The organization ' s vendor management officer

D.

The vendor ' s risk manager

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Question # 26

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Evaluating risk impact

B.

Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Conducting internal audits

D.

Creating quarterly risk reports

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Question # 27

An organization ' s finance team is proposing the adoption of a blockchain technology to provide a secure method for moving funds. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Recommend permissionless blockchain.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Recommend permissioned blockchain.

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Question # 28

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Question # 29

Which of the following is the STRONGEST indication an organization has ethics management issues?

A.

Employees do not report IT risk issues for fear of consequences.

B.

Internal IT auditors report to the chief information security officer (CISO).

C.

Employees face sanctions for not signing the organization ' s acceptable use policy.

D.

The organization has only two lines of defense.

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Question # 30

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?

A.

Project execution phase

B.

Project initiation phase

C.

Project closing phase

D.

Project planning phase

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Question # 31

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud?

A.

Providing oversight of risk management processes

B.

Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud

C.

Ensuring that risk and control assessments consider fraud

D.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate fraud

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Question # 32

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

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Question # 33

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

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Question # 34

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

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Question # 35

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization ' s information security policy.

C.

validate the organization ' s data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Question # 36

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Question # 37

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events

B.

The cost to implement the risk response

C.

Lack of data to measure threat events

D.

Monetary value of the asset

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Question # 38

Which of the following indicators measures the performance of IT configuration management?

A.

Number of devices reviewed for compliance

B.

Number of devices adhering to baseline settings

C.

Number of devices exceeding minimum configuration

D.

Number of devices not reporting configuration data

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Question # 39

Which of the following is the BEST success criterion for control implementation?

A.

Adequate resources are allocated to perform the control.

B.

Responsibilities for control execution are properly defined.

C.

Risk is at an acceptable level after the control is in place.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) for the control are properly defined.

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Question # 40

An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:

A.

mitigation.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

acceptance.

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Question # 41

One of an organization ' s key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation?

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization ' s IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

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Question # 42

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?

A.

To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives

C.

To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures

D.

To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts

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Question # 43

After the review of a risk record, internal audit questioned why the risk was lowered from medium to low. Which of the following is the BEST course of action in responding to this inquiry?

A.

Obtain industry benchmarks related to the specific risk.

B.

Provide justification for the lower risk rating.

C.

Notify the business at the next risk briefing.

D.

Reopen the risk issue and complete a full assessment.

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Question # 44

A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk reporting

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk identification

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Question # 45

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Question # 46

Which of the following provides the MOST important information to facilitate a risk response decision?

A.

Audit findings

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Key risk indicators

D.

Industry best practices

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Question # 47

Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization ' s user access control processes? An increase in the:

A.

ratio of disabled to active user accounts.

B.

percentage of users with multiple user accounts.

C.

average number of access entitlements per user account.

D.

average time between user transfers and access updates.

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Question # 48

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

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Question # 49

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

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Question # 50

When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization ' s risk appetite is through the use of a:

A.

risk map

B.

cause-and-effect diagram

C.

maturity model

D.

technology strategy plan.

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Question # 51

Which of the following BEST indicates how well a web infrastructure protects critical information from an attacker?

A.

Failed login attempts

B.

Simulating a denial of service attack

C.

Absence of IT audit findings

D.

Penetration test

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Question # 52

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Understanding and prioritization of critical processes

B.

Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Identification of regulatory consequences

D.

Reduction of security and business continuity threats

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Question # 53

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when reviewing an organization ' s risk register?

A.

Risk ownership is recorded.

B.

Vulnerabilities have separate entries.

C.

Control ownership is recorded.

D.

Residual risk is less than inherent risk.

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Question # 54

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise ' s brand on Internet sites?

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise ' s use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

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Question # 55

While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.

B.

Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.

C.

Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.

D.

Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.

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Question # 56

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

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Question # 57

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining data security controls?

A.

Data architect.

B.

Data scientist.

C.

Data analyst.

D.

Data custodian.

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Question # 58

Senior management has requested a risk practitioner ' s guidance on whether

a new technical control requested by a business unit is worth the investment.

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration before

providing input?

A.

The cost of the control relative to the value of risk mitigation

B.

The effectiveness of the control at reducing residual risk levels

C.

The likelihood of a successful attack based on current risk

D.

assessments

E.

The availabilitv of budgeted funds for risk mitigationMitination

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Question # 59

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure before using risk reports in decision making?

A.

Root cause analysis is included.

B.

Risk analysis results are validated.

C.

Real-time risk information is provided.

D.

Quantitative risk data is provided.

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Question # 60

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

A.

Key procedure control gaps

B.

Business objectives

C.

Senior management ' s risk appetite

D.

Hypothetical scenarios

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Question # 61

The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:

A.

plan awareness programs for business managers.

B.

evaluate maturity of the risk management process.

C.

assist in the development of a risk profile.

D.

maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.

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Question # 62

Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?

A.

Lack of access verification for systems on the internal network

B.

Identification and authentication failures for users

C.

Poorly configured firewall rules introducing security breaches

D.

Ineffective load balancing on network devices

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Question # 63

An organization wants to develop a strategy to mitigate the risk associated with unethical actions by stakeholders. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Provide incentives for whistleblowers to report unethical actions

B.

Communicate sanctions and penalties for unethical actions

C.

Develop company-wide training on business ethics

D.

Create a policy regarding ethical behavior

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Question # 64

Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?

A.

Application controls are manual.

B.

Application development is outsourced.

C.

Source code is escrowed.

D.

Developers have access to production environment.

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Question # 65

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives?

A.

The organization has approved policies that provide operational boundaries.

B.

Organizational controls are in place to effectively manage risk appetite.

C.

Environmental changes that impact risk are continually evaluated.

D.

The organization has an approved enterprise architecture (EA) program.

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Question # 66

Which of the following is an IT business owner ' s BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?

A.

Evaluating the impact to control objectives

B.

Conducting a root cause analysis

C.

Validating the adequacy of current processes

D.

Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure

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Question # 67

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?

A.

Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.

B.

Operational staff perform control self-assessments.

C.

Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit

D.

analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.

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Question # 68

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Question # 69

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Business manager

C.

Data owner

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 70

When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:

A.

business process objectives have been met.

B.

control adheres to regulatory standards.

C.

residual risk objectives have been achieved.

D.

control process is designed effectively.

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Question # 71

What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?

A.

It reduces the number of audit findings.

B.

It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.

C.

It facilitates risk-aware decision making.

D.

It facilitates communication of threat levels.

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Question # 72

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization ' s adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

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Question # 73

Which of the following BEST facilitates the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states?

A.

Develop a risk treatment plan.

B.

Validate organizational risk appetite.

C.

Review results of prior risk assessments.

D.

Include the current and desired states in the risk register.

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Question # 74

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern related to data privacy when implementing an Internet of Things (loT) solution that collects personally identifiable information (Pll)?

A.

A privacy impact assessment has not been completed.

B.

Data encryption methods apply to a subset of Pll obtained.

C.

The data privacy officer was not consulted.

D.

Insufficient access controls are used on the loT devices.

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Question # 75

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of creating an organizational code of conduct?

A.

Clear expectations for employee behavior

B.

Identification of ethical risk facing the organization

C.

Improvement in workforce productivity

D.

Enhanced integrity of management

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Question # 76

Which element of an organization ' s risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 77

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

A.

Unencrypted data

B.

Lack of redundant circuits

C.

Low bandwidth connections

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 78

Which of the following is the BEST way to estimate the impact of an inherent risk over the next year?

A.

Obtain input from organizational risk stakeholders.

B.

Leverage industry threat intelligence reports.

C.

Model and simulate historical impact.

D.

Review industry and emerging risk trends.

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Question # 79

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization ' s risk management processes are mature?

A.

Risk policy is approved and communicated by the risk manager

B.

Annual risk awareness training is conducted by risk owners

C.

Risk principles are embedded within business operations and decisions

D.

The board regularly follows up on risk status and action plans

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Question # 80

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Question # 81

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

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Question # 82

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

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Question # 83

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 84

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization ' s risk culture?

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Question # 85

Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Code review

C.

Change management

D.

Audit modules

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Question # 86

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

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Question # 87

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Question # 88

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

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Question # 89

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to confirm when reviewing an organization’s information security policies?

A.

Aligned with information security procedures.

B.

Written at a high level to communicate the organization’s intentions.

C.

Frequently updated to address minor technology changes.

D.

Drafted at a technical level to focus on common security industry practices.

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Question # 90

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

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Question # 91

When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:

A.

insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.

B.

service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.

C.

a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.

D.

accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.

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Question # 92

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

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Question # 93

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

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Question # 94

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization that wants to reduce IT operational risk?

A.

Increasing senior management ' s understanding of IT operations

B.

Increasing the frequency of data backups

C.

Minimizing complexity of IT infrastructure

D.

Decentralizing IT infrastructure

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Question # 95

An organization ' s risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?

A.

Analyzing the residual risk components

B.

Performing risk prioritization

C.

Validating the risk appetite level

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 96

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

B.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

C.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.

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Question # 97

An organization mandates the escalation of a service ticket when a key application is offline for 5 minutes or more due to potential risk exposure. The risk practitioner has been asked by management to prepare a report of application offline times using both 3- and 5-minute thresholds. What does the 3-minute threshold represent?

A.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

B.

Key Risk Indicator (KRI)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

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Question # 98

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization ' s risk appetite.

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Question # 99

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

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Question # 100

Which of the following aspects of risk can be transferred to a third party?

A.

Reputation impact

B.

Ownership

C.

Financial impact

D.

Accountability

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Question # 101

Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?

A.

Risk policy

B.

Audit report

C.

Risk map

D.

Maturity model

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Question # 102

Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?

A.

Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.

B.

Adjust inherent risk levels upward.

C.

Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.

D.

Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.

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Question # 103

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 104

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk owner for a payroll application that has recently been outsourced to a cloud software provider?

A.

IT executive.

B.

HR executive.

C.

Vendor management executive.

D.

Cloud service provider’s information security executive.

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Question # 105

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider ' s control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider ' s control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

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Question # 106

A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 107

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for monitoring activities performed in a production database environment?

A.

Ensuring that database changes are correctly applied

B.

Enforcing that changes are authorized

C.

Deterring illicit actions of database administrators

D.

Preventing system developers from accessing production data

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Question # 108

Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?

A.

Brainstorming sessions

B.

Control self-assessments

C.

Vulnerability analysis

D.

Monte Carlo analysis

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Question # 109

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

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Question # 110

A data privacy regulation has been revised to incorporate more stringent requirements for personal data protection. Which of the following provides the MOST important input to help ensure compliance with the revised regulation?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Current control attestation

C.

Risk profile update

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 111

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis?

A.

Quantitative analysis might not be possible.

B.

Risk factors might not be relevant to the organization

C.

Implementation costs might increase.

D.

Inherent risk might not be considered.

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Question # 112

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

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Question # 113
A.

Accept the residual risk due to the low likelihood of occurrence.

B.

Implement additional mitigation measures.

C.

Determine whether residual risk is within risk appetite.

D.

Adopt a new risk assessment method to avoid the residual risk.

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Question # 114

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action when an organization plans to adopt a cloud computing strategy?

A.

Request a budget for implementation

B.

Conduct a threat analysis.

C.

Create a cloud computing policy.

D.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 115

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

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Question # 116

The MOST significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables:

A.

allocation of available resources

B.

clear understanding of risk levels

C.

assignment of risk to the appropriate owners

D.

risk to be expressed in quantifiable terms

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Question # 117

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place to identify unauthorized devices on the network?

A.

A technology review and approval process

B.

An acceptable use policy

C.

An automated network scanning solution

D.

A bring your own device (BYOD) policy

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Question # 118

An organization recently invested in an identity and access management (IAM) solution to manage user activities across corporate mobile devices. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

A.

Inherent risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 119

Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

System administrator

D.

Human resources (HR) manager

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Question # 120

A risk practitioner recently discovered that sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following i the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment

B.

Implement equivalent security in the test environment.

C.

Prevent the use of production data for test purposes

D.

Mask data before being transferred to the test environment.

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Question # 121

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

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Question # 122

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

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Question # 123

An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?

A.

Detective

B.

Directive

C.

Preventive

D.

Compensating

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Question # 124

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Question # 125

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

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Question # 126

Which of the following is a business asset for an organization that runs only in a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud computing environment?

A.

Hosted data

B.

Platforms

C.

Containers

D.

Security logs

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Question # 127

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are BEST utilized to provide a high-level overview of:

A.

control efficiency

B.

cost effectiveness

C.

return on investment (ROI)

D.

changes in risk tolerance

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Question # 128

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Question # 129

A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?

A.

A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.

B.

A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.

C.

Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.

D.

Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.

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Question # 130

An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?

A.

IT service desk manager

B.

Sales manager

C.

Customer service manager

D.

Access control manager

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Question # 131

A newly enacted information privacy law significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following will MOST likely outcome for an organization affected by the new law?

A.

Increase in compliance breaches

B.

Increase in loss event impact

C.

Increase in residual risk

D.

Increase in customer complaints

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Question # 132

Within the system development life cycle (SDLC), controls should be specified during:

A.

project initiation

B.

business case development.

C.

system integration testing.

D.

requirements definition.

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Question # 133

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 134

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST appropriate course of action upon learning that an organization is not compliant with its patch management policy?

A.

Document the concern in an issue tracker.

B.

Strengthen data loss prevention (DLP) controls.

C.

Apply the most recent available patches.

D.

Escalate the issue to the ethics committee.

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Question # 135

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

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Question # 136

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an assessment reveals a control is not operating as intended?

A.

Recommend updates to the control procedures

B.

Determine the root cause of the control issue.

C.

Discuss the status with the control owner.

D.

Recommend compensating controls.

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Question # 137

A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be

disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local

regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s

BEST course of action?

A.

The application code has not been version controlled.

B.

Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.

C.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

D.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

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Question # 138

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Question # 139

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?

A.

To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program

B.

To detect increases in program costs

C.

To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner

D.

To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee

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Question # 140

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

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Question # 141

As part of its risk strategy, an organization decided to transition its financial system from a cloud-based provider to an internally managed system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Reassess whether the risk responses properly address known risks and vulnerabilities

B.

Analyze the risk register to identify potential updates and changes

C.

Evaluate existing control test plans of the system for potential changes

D.

Update the processes within impacted financial control assessments

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Question # 142

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with using cloud computing for disaster recovery?

A.

Cloud vendor lock-in and dependency

B.

Lack of adequate incident management capabilities

C.

Use of multiple cloud access service brokers (CASBs)

D.

Availability issues with cloud storage solutions

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Question # 143

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

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Question # 144

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization ' s secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Question # 145

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic when designing a key risk indicator (KRI)?

A.

It is linked to a key performance indicator (KPI)

B.

It is linked to a key control indicator (KCI)

C.

It contains an objective alert threshold

D.

It aligns with industry benchmarks

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Question # 146

An organization is planning to implement a Zero Trust model. From a cybersecunty perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure successful alignment with the overall inten Zero Trust?

A.

Access policies

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Network compatibility

D.

Encryption algorithms

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Question # 147

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST important action to reduce the likelihood of internal fraud?

A.

Recommend fraud awareness training for staff

B.

Communicate legal consequences for internal fraud.

C.

Update the internal fraud risk likelihood in the risk register.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of separation of duties.

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Question # 148

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team ' s deliverables.

B.

Review the software development life cycle.

C.

Involve the development team in planning.

D.

Assign more developers to the project team.

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Question # 149

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?

A.

To provide data for establishing the risk profile

B.

To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies

C.

To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur

D.

To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness

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Question # 150

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

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Question # 151

Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?

A.

Obsolete response documentation

B.

Increased stakeholder turnover

C.

Failure to audit third-party providers

D.

Undefined assignment of responsibility

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Question # 152

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

A.

Feedback from end users

B.

Results of a benchmark analysis

C.

Recommendations from internal audit

D.

Prioritization from business owners

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Question # 153

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

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Question # 154

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST important course of action when the level of risk has exceeded risk tolerance?

A.

Facilitate a review of risk tolerance levels

B.

Adjust the risk impact and likelihood scale

C.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Introduce the risk treatment process

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Question # 155

Which of the following observations would be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner evaluating an organization ' s risk management practices?

A.

Senior management has approved numerous requests for risk acceptance.

B.

Business leaders provide final approval for information security policies.

C.

Several risk scenarios have action plans spanning multiple years.

D.

Senior management does not set risk tolerance.

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Question # 156

A penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in selecting a risk response?

A.

Correct the vulnerabilities to mitigate potential risk exposure.

B.

Develop a risk response action plan with key stakeholders.

C.

Assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities.

D.

Communicate the vulnerabilities to the risk owner.

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Question # 157

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input to determine risk tolerance?

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Organizational objectives

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk management costs

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Question # 158

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

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Question # 159

What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?

A.

Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.

B.

Redact data where possible.

C.

Limit access to the personal data.

D.

Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.

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Question # 160

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

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Question # 161

IT stakeholders have asked a risk practitioner for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments to allocate resources for risk mitigation. The BEST way to address this request would be to use:

A.

the cost associated with each control.

B.

historical risk assessments.

C.

key risk indicators (KRls).

D.

information from the risk register.

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Question # 162

Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?

A.

Industry trends in Al

B.

Expected algorithm outputs

C.

Data feeds

D.

Alert functionality

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Question # 163

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the first line within the three lines model?

A.

Maintaining effective internal controls

B.

Providing oversight and governance

C.

Conducting independent audits

D.

Establishing the organization’s risk appetite

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Question # 164

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

A.

How severe the vulnerability is across the industry

B.

Whether the affected technology is internet-facing

C.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

D.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

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Question # 165

After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?

A.

A decrease in threats

B.

A change in the risk profile

C.

An increase in reported vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in identified risk scenarios

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Question # 166

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Question # 167

An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

A.

Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.

B.

List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

C.

Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.

D.

Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.

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Question # 168

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

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Question # 169

To effectively address ethical risk within an organization, who MUST ensure the ethics policy is enforced and equally applied to all levels of authority ' ?

A.

Local authorities and regulators

B.

Ethics and compliance team

C.

Senior management

D.

Internal audit team

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Question # 170

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to consolidate the results of risk assessments across multiple operating units?

A.

Implement a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system.

B.

Update departmental risk registers with items from the central risk register.

C.

Aggregate operating unit risk registers to a central risk register.

D.

Perform additional risk assessments and create an enterprise risk matrix.

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Question # 171

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

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Question # 172

A control owner identifies that the organization ' s shared drive contains personally identifiable information (Pll) that can be accessed by all personnel. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk response?

A.

Protect sensitive information with access controls.

B.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) solution.

C.

Re-communicate the data protection policy.

D.

Implement a data encryption solution.

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Question # 173

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk to an organization with a large number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices within its network?

A.

Inadequate network bandwidth

B.

Lack of interoperability between IoT devices

C.

Insufficient IoT policies and procedures

D.

Increased maintenance costs for IoT devices

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Question # 174

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 175

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of a control owner?

A.

To make risk-based decisions and own losses

B.

To ensure implemented controls mitigate risk

C.

To approve deviations from controls

D.

To design controls that will eliminate risk

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Question # 176

Which of the following statements in an organization ' s current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?

A.

Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.

B.

New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.

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Question # 177

Risk mitigation procedures should include:

A.

buying an insurance policy.

B.

acceptance of exposures

C.

deployment of counter measures.

D.

enterprise architecture implementation.

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Question # 178

Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.

B.

Escalate the situation to risk leadership.

C.

Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.

D.

Review system and process documentation.

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Question # 179

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Question # 180

An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated

cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of

action?

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Identify compensating controls

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds.

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Question # 181

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

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Question # 182

A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?

A.

The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.

B.

The CSA was not sample-based.

C.

The CSA did not test control effectiveness.

D.

The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.

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Question # 183

An organization is implementing data warehousing infrastructure. Senior management is concerned about safeguarding client data security in this new environment. Which of the following should the risk practitioner recommend be done NEXT?

A.

Ensure a role-based access control (RBAC) model is implemented.

B.

Perform a gap analysis regarding the organization ' s client data access model.

C.

Ensure an attribute-based access control model is implemented.

D.

Establish new controls addressing a consistently applied data access model.

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Question # 184

It is MOST important to the effectiveness of an IT risk management function that the associated processes are:

A.

aligned to an industry-accepted framework.

B.

reviewed and approved by senior management.

C.

periodically assessed against regulatory requirements.

D.

updated and monitored on a continuous basis.

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Question # 185

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Question # 186

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

A.

Occurrences of specific events

B.

A performance measurement

C.

The risk tolerance level

D.

Risk scenarios

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Question # 187

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Question # 188

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?

A.

Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes

B.

Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations

C.

Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder

D.

Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior

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Question # 189

An organization requires data owners to perform a quarterly review of all privileged users on key financial systems. What type of control does this represent?

A.

Preventive.

B.

Directive.

C.

Corrective.

D.

Detective.

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Question # 190

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i < the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

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Question # 191

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Question # 192

A business unit is unable to fully implement the security policy on a critical business application. Which type of process should be in place to BEST manage the related risk?

A.

Change management

B.

Exception management

C.

Configuration management

D.

Incident management

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Question # 193

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization ' s current risk profile?

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 194

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

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Question # 195

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

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Question # 196

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?

A.

Communicate the new risk profile.

B.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

C.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

D.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Question # 197

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

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Question # 198

The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:

A.

security department.

B.

business unit

C.

vendor.

D.

IT department.

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Question # 199

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization ' s risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

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Question # 200

Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?

A.

Background checks

B.

Awareness training

C.

User access

D.

Policy management

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Question # 201

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

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Question # 202

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

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Question # 203

An organization ' s stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

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Question # 204

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 205

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for identifying risk on a daily basis and ensuring adherence to the organization ' s policies?

A.

Third line of defense

B.

Line of defense subject matter experts

C.

Second line of defense

D.

First line of defense

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Question # 206

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

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Question # 207

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Question # 208

Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization ' s risk appetite?

A.

Comparison against regulations

B.

Maturity of the risk culture

C.

Capacity to withstand loss

D.

Cost of risk mitigation options

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Question # 209

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

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Question # 210

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

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Question # 211

Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?

A.

Information security officer

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Business owner

D.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

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Question # 212

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

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Question # 213

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor ' s control environment?

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor ' s recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

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Question # 214

To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?

A.

Compliance objectives

B.

Risk appetite of the organization

C.

Organizational objectives

D.

Inherent and residual risk

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Question # 215

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

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Question # 216

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization ' s key IT applications in a cloud environment?

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider ' s data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

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Question # 217

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line in the three lines model?

A.

Applying risk treatments

B.

Implementing internal controls

C.

Monitoring risk responses

D.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

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Question # 218

Which of the following BEST mitigates reputational risk associated with disinformation campaigns against an organization?

A.

Monitoring digital platforms that disseminate inaccurate or misleading news stories

B.

Engaging public relations personnel to debunk false stories and publications

C.

Restricting the use of social media on corporate networks during specific hours

D.

Providing awareness training to understand and manage these types of attacks

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Question # 219

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 220

An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?

A.

More time has been allotted for testing.

B.

The project is likely to deliver the product late.

C.

A new project manager is handling the project.

D.

The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.

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Question # 221

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

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Question # 222

How should an organization approach the retention of data that is no longer needed for business operations?

A.

Data should be retained for a reasonable period of time in case of system rollback.

B.

Data should be destroyed or retained on the basis of a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Data should be retained based on regulatory requirements.

D.

Data should be destroyed to avoid any risk exposure.

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Question # 223

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

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Question # 224

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization ' s overall IT control environment?

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Risk heat maps

C.

Internal audit findings

D.

Periodic penetration testing

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Question # 225

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

A.

align IT processes with business objectives.

B.

communicate the enterprise risk management policy.

C.

stay current with existing control status.

D.

understand the organizational risk profile.

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Question # 226

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to continuously manage after implementing a Zero Trust security model?

A.

Privileged user access reviews

B.

Integration with existing security protocols

C.

Policy enforcement inconsistencies

D.

Network segmentation errors

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Question # 227

Senior leadership has set guidelines for the integration of a new acquisition. The guidelines allow for a variation in the level of risk-taking. The variation indicates which of the following risk management concepts?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk sensitivity

D.

Risk velocity

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Question # 228

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

A.

Identifying users who have access

B.

Selecting an encryption solution

C.

Defining the data retention period

D.

Determining the value of data

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Question # 229

An organization wants to develop a strategy to mitigate the risk associated with unethical actions by stakeholders. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Provide incentives for whistleblowers to report unethical actions.

B.

Create a policy regarding ethical behavior.

C.

Communicate sanctions and penalties for unethical actions.

D.

Develop company-wide training on business ethics.

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Question # 230

To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:

A.

require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement

B.

clearly define the project scope.

C.

perform background checks on the vendor.

D.

notify network administrators before testing

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Question # 231

Within risk management, simulations are MOST useful during risk:

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Question # 232

An online retailer has decided to store its customer database with a cloud provider in an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) configuration. During an initial review of preliminary risk scenarios, a risk practitioner identifies instances where sensitive customer information is stored unencrypted. Who is accountable for ensuring this encryption?

A.

The cloud provider

B.

The retailer ' s IT department

C.

The chief information officer (CIO)

D.

The data owner

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Question # 233

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 234

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering?

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Multifactor authentication

D.

Employee sanctions

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Question # 235

Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?

A.

IT compliance and IT audit

B.

Regulators and shareholders

C.

The board and executive management

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

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Question # 236

An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization ' s customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management ' s decision?

A.

Time zone difference of the outsourcing location

B.

Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company

C.

Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country

D.

Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location

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Question # 237

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

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Question # 238

Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities

B.

Determining attack likelihood per business unit

C.

Adjusting business unit risk tolerances

D.

Customizing incident response plans for each business unit

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Question # 239

Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?

A.

Operating controls for risk mitigation

B.

Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls

C.

Providing assurance on risk management processes

D.

Recommending risk treatment options

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Question # 240

Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?

A.

Corrective

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 241

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

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Question # 242

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of a data custodian in the risk management process?

A.

Performing periodic data reviews according to policy

B.

Reporting and escalating data breaches to senior management

C.

Being accountable for control design

D.

Ensuring data is protected according to the classification

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Question # 243

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

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Question # 244

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization ' s risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

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Question # 245

An IT risk practitioner ' s report includes a treatment plan and projected risk ratings if recommendations are implemented. Once corrective actions are taken by the system owner, which of the following types of risk will the projected risk become?

A.

Control

B.

Inherent

C.

Residual

D.

Compliance

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Question # 246

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

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Question # 247

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

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Question # 248

Which of the following functions independently reviews and provides feedback regarding the achievement of organizational objectives?

A.

Risk management

B.

Internal audit

C.

IT governance

D.

Senior leadership

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Question # 249

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization ' s IT asset inventory?

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

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Question # 250

Before selecting a final risk response option for a given risk scenario, management should FIRST:

A.

determine control ownership.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar sized organizations.

C.

evaluate the organization ' s ability to implement the solution.

D.

determine the remediation timeline.

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Question # 251

When evaluating a number of potential controls for treating risk, it is MOST important to consider:

A.

risk appetite and control efficiency.

B.

inherent risk and control effectiveness.

C.

residual risk and cost of control.

D.

risk tolerance and control complexity.

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Question # 252

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Question # 253

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

A.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.

B.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.

D.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.

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Question # 254

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization ' s risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Question # 255

A risk practitioner is conducting a risk assessment after discovering the use of unauthorized cloud software on personal devices to accomplish work-related tasks. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Evaluate the effectiveness of controls to prevent data loss.

B.

Develop a policy standard for conducting business using personal devices.

C.

Recommend blocking downloads of unauthorized software.

D.

Identify the business need for the unauthorized software.

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Question # 256

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?

A.

Evaluate the security architecture maturity.

B.

Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.

C.

Charter a privacy steering committee.

D.

Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

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Question # 257

After the implementation of a blockchain solution, a risk practitioner discovers noncompliance with new industry regulations. Which of the following is the MOST important course of actionpriorto informing senior management?

A.

Evaluate the design effectiveness of existing controls.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Evaluate the industry response to the new regulations.

D.

Evaluate the potential impact.

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Question # 258

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

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Question # 259

Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?

A.

Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle

B.

Implementing loT device software monitoring

C.

Performing periodic risk assessments of loT

D.

Performing secure code reviews

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Question # 260

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

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Question # 261

Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Implementing control activities

B.

Monitoring control effectiveness

C.

Conducting control self-assessments

D.

Owning risk scenarios

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Question # 262

When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss, it is MOST important

A.

revalidate current key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

revise risk management procedures.

C.

review the data classification policy.

D.

revalidate existing risk scenarios.

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Question # 263

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

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Question # 264

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 265

After the implementation of a remediation plan, an assessment of associated control design and operating effectiveness can determine the level of:

A.

residual risk.

B.

aggregated risk.

C.

audit risk.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 266

If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7

A.

Evaluate alternative controls.

B.

Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.

C.

Develop a plan to upgrade technology.

D.

Define a process for monitoring risk.

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Question # 267

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

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Question # 268

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

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Question # 269

Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on

A.

minimum tolerable downtime

B.

minimum tolerable loss of data.

C.

maximum tolerable downtime.

D.

maximum tolerable loss of data

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Question # 270

Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?

A.

Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies

B.

Creation of a cloud access risk management policy

C.

Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution

D.

Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services

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Question # 271

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization ' s risk register?

A.

Limit access to senior management only.

B.

Encrypt the risk register.

C.

Implement role-based access.

D.

Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.

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Question # 272

During an organization ' s simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?

A.

A high number of participants reporting the email

B.

A high number of participants deleting the email

C.

A low number of participants with questions for the help desk

D.

A low number of participants opening the email

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Question # 273

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an organization wants to reduce likelihood in order to reduce a risk level?

A.

Monitor risk controls.

B.

Implement preventive measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Transfer the risk.

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Question # 274

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Question # 275

To ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) are effective and meaningful, the KRIs should be aligned to:

A.

A control framework

B.

Industry standards

C.

Capability maturity targets

D.

Business processes

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Question # 276

An organization has recently updated its disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk if the new plan is not tested?

A.

External resources may need to be involved.

B.

Data privacy regulations may be violated.

C.

Recovery costs may increase significantly.

D.

Service interruptions may be longer than anticipated.

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Question # 277

Reviewing results from which of the following is the BEST way to identify information systems control deficiencies?

A.

Vulnerability and threat analysis

B.

Control remediation planning

C.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 278

The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:

A.

align with audit results.

B.

benchmark with competitor s actions.

C.

reference best practice.

D.

focus on the business drivers

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Question # 279

When assigning control ownership, it is MOST important to verify that the owner has accountability for:

A.

Control effectiveness.

B.

The budget for control implementation.

C.

Assessment of control risk.

D.

Internal control audits.

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Question # 280

Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?

A.

Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders

B.

Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training

C.

Providing regular communication to risk managers

D.

Appointing the risk manager from the business units

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Question # 281

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization ' s patch management process?

A.

Average time to implement patches after vendor release

B.

Number of patches tested prior to deployment

C.

Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production

D.

Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe

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Question # 282

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy?

A.

Evaluating gaps in the on-premise and cloud security profiles

B.

Establishing minimum cloud security requirements

C.

Enforcing compliance with cloud security parameters

D.

Educating IT staff on variances between on premise and cloud security

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Question # 283

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

A.

Perform an in-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

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Question # 284

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate privileged access to database accounts?

A.

Regular reviews of privileged access

B.

Confirmation from users with privileged access

C.

Management approval of access requests

D.

Confirmation from the database administrator (DBA)

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Question # 285

Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Data backups

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 286

Which of the following approaches will BEST help to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training?

A.

Piloting courses with focus groups

B.

Using reputable third-party training programs

C.

Reviewing content with senior management

D.

Creating modules for targeted audiences

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Question # 287

A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?

A.

IT system owner

B.

Chief financial officer

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 288

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when developing an organization ' s risk management strategy?

A.

Complexity of technology architecture

B.

Disaster recovery strategy

C.

Business operational requirements

D.

Criteria for assessing risk

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Question # 289

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Question # 290

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

Full Access
Question # 291

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 292

After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:

Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor ' s control environment?

Question # 292

A.

External audit

B.

Internal audit

C.

Vendor performance scorecard

D.

Regulatory examination

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Question # 293

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining the appropriate data retention period throughout the data management life cycle?

A.

Data storage and collection methods

B.

Data owner preferences

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Choice of encryption algorithms

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Question # 294

Which of the following is accountable for the management of IT risk within an organization?

A.

Senior management

B.

Business process owners

C.

Second line

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 295

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk practitioner to embed risk management within the organization?

A.

Provide risk management feedback to key stakeholders.

B.

Collect and analyze risk data for report generation.

C.

Monitor and prioritize risk data according to the heat map.

D.

Engage key stakeholders in risk management practices.

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Question # 296

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

Full Access
Question # 297

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

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Question # 298

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization ' s risk management methodology?

A.

Business context

B.

Risk tolerance level

C.

Resource requirements

D.

Benchmarking information

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Question # 299

Which of the following introduces the GREATEST amount of risk during the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Use of debugging tools

B.

Incorrect firewall configuration

C.

Inability to pass user acceptance tests (UATs)

D.

Untested changes to production

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Question # 300

In the context of the three lines model, which of the following is responsible for providing assurance to senior management and the governing body through independent and objective reviews?

A.

Internal auditors

B.

Risk owners

C.

Regulators

D.

Risk management functions

Full Access
Question # 301

Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of privacy impact assessments (PIAs)?

A.

To identify threats introduced by business processes

B.

To identify risk when personal information is collected

C.

To ensure senior management has approved the use of personal information

D.

To ensure compliance with data privacy laws and regulations

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Question # 302

Which of the following observations should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner assessing a third-party service provider for privacy risk?

A.

Appropriate privacy training and awareness campaigns are not conducted for employees

B.

The provider subcontracts part of the service to a fourth party

C.

Contractual language for handling personally identifiable information (PII) is not defined.

D.

The roles and responsibilities associated with data governance are not well defined

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Question # 303

An organization plans to provide specific cloud security training for the IT team to help manage risks associated with cloud technology. This response is considered risk:

A.

Transfer

B.

Mitigation

C.

Acceptance

D.

Deferral

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Question # 304

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

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Question # 305

An organization has just recovered from an incident involving a new zero-day exploit that utilizes a unique entry point into its systems. Which of the following should the risk team do NEXT as a result of a post-mortem review?

A.

Revise the risk appetite to account for this zero-day exploit

B.

File a claim against the organization ' s cyber insurance policy

C.

Update the risk events to ensure they cover this new exploit.

D.

Notify customers affected by the attack

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Question # 306

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

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Question # 307

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

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Question # 308

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

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Question # 309

The GREATEST benefit of introducing continuous monitoring to an IT control environment is that it:

A.

Enables the collection of benchmarking data.

B.

Helps to obtain buy-in for future IT investments.

C.

Enables timely detection of emerging risk.

D.

Identifies stakeholders involved in the process.

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Question # 310

A risk practitioner has been tasked with conducting a risk identification workshop with stakeholders to compile an IT risk profile. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in the brainstorming phase of this exercise?

A.

List of issues and events from the risk register.

B.

Internal audit reports with adverse findings.

C.

IT control assessment results and trends.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) outside of appetite.

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Question # 311

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Question # 312

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures?

A.

Relevant risk case studies

B.

Internal audit findings

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Penetration testing results

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Question # 313

When reviewing management ' s IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Assess management ' s risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

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Question # 314

Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?

A.

Reduction in the number of incidents

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Reduction in residual risk

D.

Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities

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Question # 315

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

Full Access
Question # 316

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?

A.

Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).

B.

Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.

C.

Require independent control assessments.

D.

Obtain vendor references from existing customers.

Full Access
Question # 317

Of the following, whose input is ESSENTIAL when developing risk scenarios for the implementation of a third-party mobile application that stores customer data?

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT vendor manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

IT compliance manager

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Question # 318

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

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Question # 319

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of engaging key stakeholders in the IT risk assessment process?

A.

Reducing the time required for risk analysis

B.

Increasing the quality of analysis

C.

Building a risk aware culture

D.

Ensuring proper budget allocation for risk remediation

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Question # 320

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

Question # 320

A.

Relative positions on the risk map

B.

Risk treatment options

C.

Capability of enterprise to implement

D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response

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Question # 321

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Question # 322

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

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Question # 323

A risk practitioner can use an organization ' s problem management process to anticipate potential risk within IT systems by:

A.

conducting regular user satisfaction surveys to gather feedback on system performance.

B.

continuously monitoring system metrics to identify performance issues.

C.

analyzing incident trends to identify underlying issues that could lead to system failures.

D.

implementing security patches and updates to prevent vulnerabilities from being exploited.

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Question # 324

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

Full Access
Question # 325

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

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Question # 326

During which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) should information security requirements for the implementation of a new IT system be defined?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Development

C.

Implementation

D.

Initiation

Full Access
Question # 327

An organization is concerned that its employees may be unintentionally disclosing data through the use of social media sites. Which of the following will MOST effectively mitigate tins risk?

A.

Requiring the use of virtual private networks (VPNs)

B.

Establishing a data classification policy

C.

Conducting user awareness training

D.

Requiring employee agreement of the acceptable use policy

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Question # 328

when developing IT risk scenarios associated with a new line of business, which of the following would be MOST helpful to review?

A.

Organizational threats

B.

Resource allocation plan

C.

Competitor analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 329

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

Full Access
Question # 330

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

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Question # 331

The MAIN purpose of having a documented risk profile is to:

A.

comply with external and internal requirements.

B.

enable well-informed decision making.

C.

prioritize investment projects.

D.

keep the risk register up-to-date.

Full Access
Question # 332

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

A.

Repeatable

B.

Automated

C.

Quantitative

D.

Qualitative

Full Access
Question # 333

When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?

A.

Risk action plans and associated owners

B.

Recent audit and self-assessment results

C.

Potential losses compared to treatment cost

D.

A list of assets exposed to the highest risk

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Question # 334

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to focus on risk factors that could potentially affect the results of an IT initiative?

A.

Prioritizing threats and controls

B.

Assessing trends in quantitative risk analysis results

C.

Measuring and reporting qualitative risk trends

D.

Conducting stakeholder surveys

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Question # 335

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Question # 336

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the second line when an IT risk management framework is adopted?

A.

Overseeing the execution of framework requirements

B.

Implementing the framework requirements

C.

Advising industry standard framework organizations

D.

Auditing the execution of framework requirements

Full Access
Question # 337

When confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, which of the following is MOST important to review?

A.

Results of benchmarking studies

B.

Results of risk assessments

C.

Number of emergency change requests

D.

Maturity model

Full Access
Question # 338

Which of the following would be MOST effective in monitoring changes in an organization ' s IT risk environment?

A.

Lagging indicators

B.

Risk mitigation plans

C.

Industry regulatory reports

D.

Risk inventory

Full Access
Question # 339

Which of the following should be management ' s PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

Full Access
Question # 340

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?

A.

To provide input to the organization ' s risk appetite

B.

To monitor the vendor ' s control effectiveness

C.

To verify the vendor ' s ongoing financial viability

D.

To assess the vendor ' s risk mitigation plans

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Question # 341
A.

Average time to contain security incidents

B.

Percentage of systems being monitored

C.

Number of false positives reported

D.

Number of personnel dedicated to security monitoring

Full Access
Question # 342

The FIRST step for a startup company when developing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be to identify:

A.

Current vulnerabilities

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Critical business processes

D.

A suitable alternate site

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Question # 343

The PRIMARY reason for communicating risk assessment results to data owners is to enable the:

A.

design of appropriate controls.

B.

industry benchmarking of controls.

C.

prioritization of response efforts.

D.

classification of information assets.

Full Access
Question # 344

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Question # 345

An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:

A.

validate control process execution.

B.

determine if controls are effective.

C.

identify key process owners.

D.

conduct a baseline assessment.

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Question # 346

Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?

A.

Approval by senior management

B.

Low cost of development and maintenance

C.

Sensitivity to changes in risk levels

D.

Use of industry risk data sources

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Question # 347

Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?

A.

Data encryption

B.

Continuous log monitoring

C.

Right to audit

D.

Data obfuscation

Full Access
Question # 348

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?

A.

The number of threats to the system

B.

The organization ' s available budget

C.

The number of vulnerabilities to the system

D.

The level of acceptable risk to the organization

Full Access
Question # 349

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

Full Access
Question # 350

While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?

A.

Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key

B.

Engaging a third party to validate operational controls

C.

Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor

D.

Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key

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Question # 351

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

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Question # 352

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 353

A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?

A.

Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.

B.

Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.

C.

Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.

D.

Analyze and update IT control assessments.

Full Access
Question # 354

Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization ' s risk profile?

A.

A risk roadmap

B.

A balanced scorecard

C.

A heat map

D.

The risk register

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Question # 355

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Including trend analysis of risk metrics

B.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data

D.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

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Question # 356

An organization has updated its acceptable use policy to mitigate the risk of employees disclosing confidential information. Which of the following is the BEST way to reinforce the effectiveness of this policy?

A.

Communicate sanctions for policy violations to all staff.

B.

Obtain signed acceptance of the new policy from employees.

C.

Train all staff on relevant information security best practices.

D.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network.

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Question # 357

An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?

A.

Variances in recovery times

B.

Ownership assignment for controls

C.

New potentially disruptive scenarios

D.

Contractual changes with customers

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Question # 358

An organization is reviewing a contract for a Software as a Service (SaaS) sales application with a 99.9% uptime service level agreement (SLA). Which of the following BEST describes ownership of availability risk?

A.

The risk is shared by both organizations.

B.

The liability for the risk is owned by the cloud provider.

C.

The risk is transferred to the cloud provider.

D.

The liability for the risk is owned by the sales department.

Full Access
Question # 359

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization ' s risk profile?

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Full Access
Question # 360

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

Full Access
Question # 361

An organization must make a choice among multiple options to respond to a risk. The stakeholders cannot agree and decide to postpone the decision. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted?

A.

Transfer

B.

Mitigation

C.

Avoidance

D.

Acceptance

Full Access
Question # 362

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

Full Access
Question # 363

An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?

A.

Update firewall configuration

B.

Require strong password complexity

C.

implement a security awareness program

D.

Implement two-factor authentication

Full Access
Question # 364

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 365

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

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Question # 366

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

Full Access
Question # 367

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

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Question # 368

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

Full Access
Question # 369

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

Full Access
Question # 370

When an organization is having new software implemented under contract, which of the following is key to controlling escalating costs?

A.

Risk management

B.

Change management

C.

Problem management

D.

Quality management

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Question # 371

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to an organization when using a public AI system to process credit card transactions?

A.

Potential exposure of sensitive information

B.

Use of financial data to train the AI model

C.

Noncompliance with security standards

D.

AI hallucinations and bias

Full Access
Question # 372

What is the PRIMARY role of the application owner when changes are being introduced into an existing environment?

A.

Determining possible losses due to downtime during the changes

B.

Updating control procedures and documentation

C.

Approving the proposed changes based on impact analysis

D.

Notifying owners of affected systems after the changes are implemented

Full Access
Question # 373

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

Full Access
Question # 374

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

A.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment

B.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

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Question # 375

Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:

A.

ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.

B.

provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.

C.

provide a snapshot of the risk profile.

D.

ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.

Full Access
Question # 376

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

A.

The organization ' s knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization ' s culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

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Question # 377

Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application?

A.

The third-party risk manager

B.

The application vendor

C.

The business process owner

D.

The information security manager

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Question # 378

A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?

A.

Payroll system risk factors

B.

Payroll system risk mitigation plans

C.

Payroll process owner

D.

Payroll administrative controls

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Question # 379

A global organization has implemented an application that does not address all privacy requirements across multiple jurisdictions. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted with regard to privacy requirements?

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk acceptance

Full Access
Question # 380

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY recipient of reports showing the

progress of a current IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Senior management

B.

Project manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

IT risk manager

Full Access
Question # 381

Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Updating multi-factor authentication

B.

Monitoring key access control performance indicators

C.

Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity

D.

Revising the service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 382

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Question # 383

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

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Question # 384

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

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Question # 385

An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:

A.

reduce the likelihood of future events

B.

restore availability

C.

reduce the impact of future events

D.

address the root cause

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Question # 386

Which of the following describes the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

A.

Risk appetite is completely independent of risk tolerance.

B.

Risk tolerance is used to determine risk appetite.

C.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance are synonymous.

D.

Risk tolerance may exceed risk appetite.

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Question # 387

Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?

A.

Average time to grant access privileges

B.

Number of changes in access granted to users

C.

Average number of access privilege exceptions

D.

Number and type of locked obsolete accounts

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Question # 388

An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT security manager

C.

IT system owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 389

Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:

A.

line management.

B.

the IT risk function.

C.

enterprise compliance.

D.

internal audit.

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Question # 390

An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

A.

Security control owners based on control failures

B.

Cyber risk remediation plan owners

C.

Risk owners based on risk impact

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

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Question # 391

Which component of a software inventory BEST enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities?

A.

Software version

B.

Assigned software manager

C.

Software support contract expiration

D.

Software licensing information

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Question # 392

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 393

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization ' s data flow model?

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

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Question # 394

Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?

A.

The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario

B.

The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios

C.

The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios

D.

The average of anticipated residual risk levels

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Question # 395

Changes in which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to adjust the risk impact rating in the risk register?

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Control costs

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 396

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Question # 397

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

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Question # 398
A.

Conduct frequent internal audits of IT systems.

B.

Review information from threat intelligence sources.

C.

Define a comprehensive set of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Document thorough IT risk scenarios in the risk register.

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Question # 399

A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.

B.

identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.

C.

modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.

D.

collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.

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Question # 400

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

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Question # 401

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Question # 402

Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?

A.

Using the risk management process

B.

Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance

C.

Reviewing results of the annual company external audit

D.

Adopting internationally accepted controls

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Question # 403

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

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Question # 404

Which of the following is MOST important for ensuring anonymous reporting of non-compliant activity?

A.

Implementing homomorphic encryption.

B.

Establishing an employee feedback channel.

C.

Establishing a dedicated compliance function.

D.

Implementing an incentive program.

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Question # 405

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Question # 406

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner ' s MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

A.

Implement a replacement control.

B.

Adjust residual risk rating.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Review compensating controls.

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Question # 407

Which of the following BEST helps to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk?

A.

Prioritizing risk responses

B.

Evaluating risk based on frequency and probability

C.

Considering risk factors that can be quantified

D.

Managing the risk by using controls

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Question # 408

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

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Question # 409

Which of the following is the MOST essential factor for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment?

A.

Ongoing sharing of information among industry peers

B.

Obtaining support from senior leadership

C.

Adhering to industry-recognized risk management standards

D.

Implementing detection and response measures

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Question # 410

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 411

Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Audit security awareness training materials.

C.

Administer an end-of-training quiz.

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

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Question # 412

A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?

A.

Monitoring of service costs

B.

Provision of internal audit reports

C.

Notification of sub-contracting arrangements

D.

Confidentiality of customer data

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Question # 413

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

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Question # 414

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Question # 415

An organization is implementing encryption for data at rest to reduce the risk associated with unauthorized access. Which of the following MUST be considered to assess the residual risk?

A.

Data retention requirements

B.

Data destruction requirements

C.

Cloud storage architecture

D.

Key management

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Question # 416

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers ' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

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Question # 417

A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.

B.

Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.

C.

Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.

D.

Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.

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Question # 418

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

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Question # 419

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of relying on artificial intelligence (Al) within heuristic security systems?

A.

Al may result in less reliance on human intervention.

B.

Malicious activity may inadvertently be classified as normal during baselining.

C.

Risk assessments of heuristic security systems are more difficult.

D.

Predefined patterns of malicious activity may quickly become outdated.

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Question # 420

An organization ' s decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Question # 421

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of analyzing control effectiveness during risk analysis?

A.

To enable a control cost-benefit analysis

B.

To evaluate the risk impact

C.

To determine the likelihood of occurrence

D.

To determine the current risk level

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Question # 422

An organization’s expense claim system allows users to split large transactions into smaller ones to bypass limits. What should the risk practitioner do?

A.

Conduct an audit to determine the frequency of occurrence

B.

Update the probability in the risk register

C.

Create a noncompliance risk scenario

D.

Weigh compliance against the cost-benefit

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Question # 423

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?

A.

Cost of risk mitigation

B.

Asset criticality

C.

Acceptable risk level

D.

Business impact assessment

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Question # 424

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

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Question # 425

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

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Question # 426

Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?

A.

Review the business impact analysis.

B.

Create a business continuity plan.

C.

Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.

D.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

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Question # 427

Which of the following is MOST important to review when evaluating the ongoing effectiveness of the IT risk register?

A.

The costs associated with mitigation options

B.

The status of identified risk scenarios

C.

The cost-benefit analysis of each risk response

D.

The timeframes for risk response actions

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Question # 428

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the third line of defense?

A.

Providing assurance of the effectiveness of risk management activities

B.

Providing guidance on the design of effective controls

C.

Providing advisory services on enterprise risk management (ERM)

D.

Providing benchmarking on other organizations ' risk management programs

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Question # 429

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern when changes to firewall rules do not follow change management requirements?

A.

Potential audit findings

B.

Insufficient risk governance

C.

Potential business impact

D.

Inaccurate documentation

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Question # 430

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

A.

minimize senior management ' s risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization ' s risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

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Question # 431

An organization recently implemented an extensive risk awareness program after a cybersecurity incident. Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected by the implementation of the program?

A.

Inherent risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Threat landscape

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 432

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

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Question # 433

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

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Question # 434

A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?

A.

Impact of the change on inherent risk

B.

Approval for the change by the risk owner

C.

Business rationale for the change

D.

Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change

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Question # 435

Which of the following can be affected by the cost of risk mitigation alternatives?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk factors

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Current risk rating

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Question # 436

A business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Recommend allowing the new usage based on prior approval.

B.

Request a new third-party review.

C.

Request revalidation of the original use case.

D.

Assess the risk associated with the new use case.

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Question # 437

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

A.

Conducting security awareness training

B.

Updating the information security policy

C.

Implementing mock phishing exercises

D.

Requiring two-factor authentication

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Question # 438

Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?

A.

Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.

B.

Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.

C.

Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.

D.

Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.

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Question # 439

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

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Question # 440

A risk practitioner is involved in a comprehensive overhaul of the organizational risk management program. Which of the following should be reviewed FIRST to help identify relevant IT risk scenarios?

A.

Technology threats

B.

IT assets

C.

Security vulnerabilities

D.

IT risk register

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Question # 441

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when determining the impact to an organization after the discovery of malware on an endpoint device?

A.

Availability of patches and security updates.

B.

Asset criticality and sensitivity.

C.

Currency of the incident response plan.

D.

Currency of anti-malware signatures.

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Question # 442

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

A.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

B.

Whether the affected technology is Internet-facing

C.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

D.

How pervasive the vulnerability is within the organization

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Question # 443

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Question # 444

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to measure change management performance?

A.

Percentage of changes implemented successfully

B.

Percentage of rejected change requests

C.

Number of after-hours emergency changes

D.

Number of change control requests

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Question # 445

To drive effective risk management, it is MOST important that an organization ' s policy framework is:

A.

Approved by relevant stakeholders.

B.

Aligned to the functional business structure.

C.

Included in employee onboarding materials.

D.

Mapped to an industry-standard framework.

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Question # 446

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

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Question # 447

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

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Question # 448

Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?

A.

Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities

B.

Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience

C.

Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite

D.

Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation

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Question # 449

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a business process owner to enable effective IT risk management?

A.

Delivering risk reports in a timely manner

B.

Escalating risk to senior management

C.

Prioritizing risk for appropriate response

D.

Collecting and analyzing risk data

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Question # 450

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining key performance indicators (KPIs) for a process?

A.

Historical trends in process-related incidents

B.

Known problems with the process

C.

Success criteria for the process

D.

Alignment with established industry frameworks

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Question # 451

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

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Question # 452

An organization ' s internal audit department is considering the implementation of robotics process automation (RPA) to automate certain continuous auditing tasks. Who would own the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots?

A.

Lead auditor

B.

Project manager

C.

Chief audit executive (CAE)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 453

To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:

A.

Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.

B.

Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.

C.

Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.

D.

Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.

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Question # 454

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line of defense in the three lines of defense model?

A.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

B.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

C.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

D.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

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Question # 455

An organization has granted a vendor access to its data in order to analyze customer behavior. Which of the following would be the MOST effective control to mitigate the risk of customer data leakage?

A.

Enforce criminal background checks.

B.

Mask customer data fields.

C.

Require vendor to sign a confidentiality agreement.

D.

Restrict access to customer data on a " need to know ' ' basis.

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Question # 456

Following an acquisition, the acquiring company ' s risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization ' s IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

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Question # 457

An organization is adopting block chain for a new financial system. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner evaluating the system ' s production readiness?

A.

Limited organizational knowledge of the underlying technology

B.

Lack of commercial software support

C.

Varying costs related to implementation and maintenance

D.

Slow adoption of the technology across the financial industry

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Question # 458

What are the MOST important criteria to consider when developing a data classification scheme to facilitate risk assessment and the prioritization of risk mitigation activities?

A.

Mitigation and control value

B.

Volume and scope of data generated daily

C.

Business criticality and sensitivity

D.

Recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 459

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

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Question # 460

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

A.

Control analysis

B.

Vulnerability analysis

C.

Scenario analysis

D.

Heat map analysis

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Question # 461

While reviewing an organization ' s monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

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Question # 462

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

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Question # 463

Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?

A.

Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates

B.

Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions

C.

Number of termination requests processed per reporting period

D.

Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates

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Question # 464

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

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Question # 465

A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:

A.

benchmarks against other organizations

B.

defines a qualitative measure of risk

C.

provides a reference for progress

D.

provides risk metrics.

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Question # 466

Which of the following should be done FIRST upon learning that the organization will be affected by a new regulation in its industry?

A.

Transfer the risk.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Determine risk appetite for the new regulation.

D.

Implement specific monitoring controls.

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Question # 467

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 468

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

A.

Ongoing availability of data

B.

Ability to aggregate data

C.

Ability to predict trends

D.

Availability of automated reporting systems

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Question # 469

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern related to using pseudonymization for the protection of an organization’s processed privacy data?

A.

Authorized users can access personal data.

B.

Updates to privacy data content are not allowed.

C.

Individual data subjects can be re-identified.

D.

Other information about the data subject can be revealed.

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Question # 470

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Question # 471

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

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Question # 472

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

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Question # 473

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

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Question # 474

An organization recently implemented an automated interface for uploading payment files to its banking system to replace manual processing. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST appropriate for the risk practitioner to update to reflect the improved control?

A.

Risk scenarios

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Risk impact

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 475

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of embedding risk management practices into the initiation phase of the project management life cycle?

A.

To deliver projects on time and on budget

B.

To assess inherent risk

C.

To include project risk in the enterprise-wide IT risk profit.

D.

To assess risk throughout the project

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Question # 476

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with insufficient focus on addressing blockchain interoperability in the SDLC?

A.

Limited blockchain adoption and support

B.

Reduced transaction speed and system responsiveness

C.

Reduced network integrity and availability

D.

Limited integration with external systems and blockchains

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Question # 477

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?

A.

Percentage of business users completing risk training

B.

Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed

C.

Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined

D.

Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise ' s response

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Question # 478

The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Insufficient risk tolerance

B.

Optimized control management

C.

Effective risk management

D.

Over-controlled environment

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Question # 479

When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?

A.

Users may share accounts with business system analyst

B.

Application may not capture a complete audit trail.

C.

Users may be able to circumvent application controls.

D.

Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process

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Question # 480

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

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Question # 481

What is the BEST course of action when the business impact of a risk event is rated high, but the likelihood of risk materialization has decreased?

A.

Adjust risk tolerance thresholds.

B.

Adjust the associated key risk indicator (KRI).

C.

Further mitigate the risk.

D.

Accept the risk if within tolerance.

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Question # 482

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization ' s risk appetite?

A.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.

C.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Developing contingency plans for key processes.

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Question # 483

Which of The following is the MOST comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the effects of system downtime?

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results

B.

Recovery lime objective (RTO)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

results Recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 484

Risk mitigation is MOST effective when which of the following is optimized?

A.

Operational risk

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Regulatory risk

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Question # 485

In which of the following scenarios would a risk practitioner be required to provide the MOST justification for a risk assessment?

A.

Modeling a threat-based risk event

B.

Calculating mean time between failures (MTBF)

C.

Using a semi-quantitative approach

D.

Calculating adjusted loss expectancy (ALE)

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Question # 486

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Question # 487

Changes in which of the following are MOST likely to trigger the need to reassess inherent risk?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Industry benchmarks

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Question # 488

Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY accountable for risk associated with business information protection?

A.

Control owner

B.

Data owner

C.

System owner

D.

Application owner

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Question # 489

An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?

A.

Initiate a retest of the full control

B.

Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.

C.

Review the corresponding change control documentation

D.

Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment

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Question # 490

Which of the following would be MOST useful to management when allocating resources to mitigate risk to the organization?

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

C.

Risk-based audits

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 491

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization?

A.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework

B.

Enterprise-wide risk awareness training

C.

Robust risk reporting practices

D.

Risk management policies

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Question # 492

Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:

A.

automation cannot be applied to the control

B.

business benefits exceed the loss exposure.

C.

the end-user license agreement has expired.

D.

the control is difficult to enforce in practice.

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Question # 493

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

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Question # 494

It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:

A.

perform a business impact analysis.

B.

identify potential sources of risk.

C.

establish risk guidelines.

D.

understand control design.

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Question # 495

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an enhanced risk-aware culture?

A.

Users have read and agreed to comply with security policies.

B.

Risk issues are openly discussed within the organization.

C.

Scores have improved on risk awareness quizzes.

D.

There is a decrease in the number of reported incidents.

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Question # 496

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization ' s strategic planning?

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

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Question # 497

Which of the following activities is PRIMARILY the responsibility of senior management?

A.

Bottom-up identification of emerging risks

B.

Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy

C.

Prioritization of risk scenarios based on severity

D.

Review of external loss data

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Question # 498

An IT risk practitioner is evaluating an organization ' s change management controls over the last six months. The GREATEST concern would be an increase in:

A.

rolled back changes below management ' s thresholds.

B.

change-related exceptions per month.

C.

the average implementation time for changes.

D.

number of user stories approved for implementation.

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Question # 499

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

A.

Organization ' s information security manager

B.

Organization ' s risk function

C.

Service provider ' s IT management

D.

Service provider ' s information security manager

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Question # 500

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register?

A.

To ensure IT risk appetite is communicated across the organization

B.

To ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite

C.

To ensure IT risk ownership is assigned at the appropriate organizational level

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are consistently assessed within the organization

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Question # 501

An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?

A.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.

B.

Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.

D.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).

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Question # 502

Deviation from a mitigation action plan ' s completion date should be determined by which of the following?

A.

Change management as determined by a change control board

B.

Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects

C.

Project governance criteria as determined by the project office

D.

The risk owner as determined by risk management processes

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Question # 503

An organization ' s business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Question # 504

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

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Question # 505

An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?

A.

Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement

B.

Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement

C.

Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year

D.

Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control

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Question # 506

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?

A.

Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test

B.

Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time

C.

Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope

D.

Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test

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Question # 507

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

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Question # 508

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

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Question # 509

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to address an organization ' s need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

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Question # 510

When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk ' register?

A.

Leveraging business risk professionals

B.

Relying on generic IT risk scenarios

C.

Describing IT risk in business terms

D.

Using a common risk taxonomy

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Question # 511

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

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Question # 512

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

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Question # 513

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of aligning generic risk scenarios with business objectives?

A.

It establishes where controls should be implemented.

B.

It ensures relevance to the organization.

C.

It quantifies the materiality of any losses that may occur.

D.

It provides better estimates of the impact of current threats.

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Question # 514

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

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Question # 515

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan ' '

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Question # 516

An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?

A.

Data classification schemes

B.

Industry data breach reports

C.

Data storage locations

D.

Data flow documentation

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Question # 517

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified

A.

Estimate the residual risk.

B.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

C.

Design control improvements.

D.

Identify the risk owner.

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Question # 518

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 519

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

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Question # 520

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?

A.

Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software

B.

Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software

C.

Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization

D.

Lack of professional support for open source software

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Question # 521

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 522

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?

A.

Testing in a non-production environment

B.

Performing a security control review

C.

Reviewing the security audit report

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 523

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to regularly assess the design of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Increasing process failures could impact a key objective.

B.

Tolerance levels change as strategies evolve.

C.

System enhancements could bypass the change control process.

D.

Data required for risk reporting changes with industry trends.

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Question # 524

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Question # 525

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

A.

define the IT risk framework for the organization

B.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting

C.

comply with the organization ' s IT risk and information security policies

D.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance

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Question # 526

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?

A.

Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations

B.

Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit

C.

Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value

D.

Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance

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Question # 527

As part of an aggressive new marketing strategy, an organization has decided to implement an emerging technology in a critical business system. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address the risk associated with this new technology?

A.

Update the risk tolerance and appetite

B.

Identify technical solutions

C.

Obtain senior management support

D.

Re-evaluate the risk and existing controls

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Question # 528

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system?

A.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Cyber insurance coverage

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Question # 529

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

A.

Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls ' effectiveness.

B.

Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.

C.

Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.

D.

Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT

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Question # 530

IT management has deployed a major update to reduce the risk of system compromise. What is the BEST way to validate the effectiveness of this control?

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Perform penetration testing.

C.

Run vulnerability scans.

D.

Review mean time to apply critical patches.

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Question # 531

Which of the following should be considered when selecting a risk response?

A.

Risk scenarios analysis

B.

Risk response costs

C.

Risk factor awareness

D.

Risk factor identification

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Question # 532

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

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Question # 533

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use administrative controls in conjunction with technical controls?

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

C.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

D.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

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Question # 534

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

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Question # 535

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

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Question # 536

A risk practitioner has been made aware of a problem in an IT system that was missed during a routine risk assessment. Which of the following is the practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Record the problem as a new issue in the risk management system

B.

Record a new issue but backdate it to the original risk assessment date

C.

Report the vulnerability to the asset owner ' s manager

D.

Document the issue during the next risk assessment

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Question # 537

Which of the following is the MOST important data attribute of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

The data is measurable.

B.

The data is calculated continuously.

C.

The data is relevant.

D.

The data is automatically produced.

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Question # 538

Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent unauthorized access to an organization ' s critical assets?

A.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

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Question # 539

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization ' s IT asset life cycle is poorly managed?

A.

Increased hardware maintenance costs

B.

Sensitive data found on discarded devices

C.

Lack of asset labeling

D.

Inadequate employee training

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Question # 540

Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?

A.

External audit findings

B.

Feedback from focus groups

C.

Self-assessment reports

D.

Changes in senior management

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Question # 541

Following the implementation of an Internet of Things (loT) solution, a risk practitioner identifies new risk factors with impact to existing controls. Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to stakeholders?

A.

Identified vulnerabilities

B.

Business managers ' concerns

C.

Changes to residual risk

D.

Risk strategies of peer organizations

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Question # 542

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

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Question # 543

An organization uses an automated vulnerability scanner to identify potential vulnerabilities on various enterprise systems. Who is accountable for ensuring the vulnerabilities are mitigated?

A.

Data owners

B.

Information security manager

C.

System administrators

D.

System owners

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Question # 544

An organization uses a web application hosted by a cloud service that is populated by data sent to the vendor via email on a monthly basis. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the application?

A.

Whether the service provider ' s data center is located in the same country

B.

Whether the data sent by email has been encrypted

C.

Whether the data has been appropriately classified

D.

Whether the service provider contract allows right of onsite audit

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Question # 545

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

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Question # 546

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Question # 547

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee ' s access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Question # 548

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

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Question # 549

Which of the following is the MOST significant benefit of using quantitative risk analysis instead of qualitative risk analysis?

A.

Minimized time to completion

B.

Decreased structure

C.

Minimized subjectivity

D.

Decreased cost

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Question # 550

An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer data. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 551

Which of the following is MOST helpful in developing key risk indicator (KRl) thresholds?

A.

Loss expectancy information

B.

Control performance predictions

C.

IT service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Remediation activity progress

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Question # 552

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Question # 553

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.

B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.

C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.

D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.

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Question # 554

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Management approval

B.

Annual review

C.

Relevance

D.

Automation

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Question # 555

Which of the following is the BEST risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process?

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are established to track IT strategic initiatives.

B.

The IT strategic plan is reviewed by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM).

C.

The IT strategic plan is developed from the organization-wide risk management plan.

D.

Risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives are identified and assessed.

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Question # 556

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when preparing a summary of current IT risk for senior management review?

A.

Changes in risk mitigation plans

B.

Resolution status of audit findings

C.

Areas of elevated risk

D.

Industry risk management benchmarks

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Question # 557

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Question # 558

The PRIMARY reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure:

A.

risk is treated appropriately

B.

mitigating actions are prioritized

C.

risk entries are regularly updated

D.

risk exposure is minimized.

Full Access
Question # 559

Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?

A.

Review risk governance

B.

Asset identification

C.

Identify risk factors

D.

Inherent risk identification

Full Access
Question # 560

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate risk assessments to senior management?

A.

To ensure actions can be taken to align assessment results to risk appetite

B.

To ensure key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds can be adjusted for tolerance

C.

To ensure awareness of risk and controls is shared with key decision makers

D.

To ensure the maturity of the assessment program can be validated

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Question # 561

The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:

A.

reduce subjectivity in risk management.

B.

comply with regulatory requirements.

C.

demonstrate best industry practice.

D.

improve visibility of overall risk exposure.

Full Access
Question # 562

An organization ' s financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?

A.

IT risk manager

B.

IT system owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business owner

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Question # 563

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

A.

The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

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Question # 564

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

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Question # 565

An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;

A.

mitigated

B.

deferred

C.

accepted.

D.

transferred

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Question # 566

An organization ' s Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

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Question # 567

Which of the following provides the MOST insight regarding an organization ' s risk culture?

A.

Awareness training participation rate

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Senior management interviews

D.

Risk management framework

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Question # 568

Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?

A.

Data protection officer

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Information asset custodian

D.

Information asset owner

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Question # 569

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization ' s risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 570

A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

IT security manager

D.

Control operator

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Question # 571

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department ' s recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise ' s business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Question # 572

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Question # 573

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner ' s approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Question # 574

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.

B.

Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.

C.

Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.

D.

Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.

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Question # 575

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

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Question # 576

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company ' s risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

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Question # 577

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

A.

Organization ' s industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Question # 578

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

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Question # 579

Which of the following would BEST help to determine the inherent risk associated with a cloud service provider?

A.

Cloud access security broker (CASB).

B.

Cloud service configuration.

C.

Cloud service attestation.

D.

Cloud service level agreement (SLA).

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Question # 580

Which of the following risk impacts should be the PRIMARY consideration for determining recovery priorities in a disaster recovery situation?

A.

Data security

B.

Recovery costs

C.

Business disruption

D.

Recovery resource availability

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Question # 581

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

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Question # 582

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

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Question # 583

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization ' s risk profile.

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Question # 584

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

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Question # 585

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

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Question # 586

Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:

A.

it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.

B.

structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.

C.

structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.

D.

technical specifications are defined during this phase.

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Question # 587

A new risk practitioner finds that decisions for implementing risk response plans are not being made. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this situation?

A.

Risk ownership is not being assigned properly.

B.

The organization has a high level of risk appetite.

C.

Risk management procedures are outdated.

D.

The organization ' s risk awareness program is ineffective.

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Question # 588

Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database ' '

A.

Implement role-based access control

B.

Implement a data masking process

C.

Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

D.

Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool

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Question # 589

Which of the following BEST informs decision-makers about the value of a notice and consent control for the collection of personal information?

A.

A comparison of the costs of notice and consent control options

B.

Examples of regulatory fines incurred by industry peers for noncompliance

C.

A report of critical controls showing the importance of notice and consent

D.

A cost-benefit analysis of the control versus probable legal action

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Question # 590

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Results of current and past risk assessments

B.

Organizational strategy and objectives

C.

Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios

D.

Internal and external audit findings

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Question # 591

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Question # 592

Which of the following BEST enables the selection of appropriate risk treatment in the event of a disaster?

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk scenario analysis

C.

Failover procedures

D.

Risk treatment plan

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