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CRISC Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

A.

Cost of implementation

B.

Implementation of unproven applications

C.

Disruption to business processes

D.

Increase in attack surface area

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Question # 7

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

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Question # 8

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

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Question # 9

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

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Question # 10

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

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Question # 11

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

A.

minimize senior management's risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

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Question # 12

The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:

A.

develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy

B.

develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios

C.

identify root causes for relevant events

D.

perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 13

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

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Question # 14

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

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Question # 15

Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?

A.

Brainstorming sessions

B.

Control self-assessments

C.

Vulnerability analysis

D.

Monte Carlo analysis

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Question # 16

Which of the following is MOST important when considering risk in an enterprise risk management (ERM) process?

A.

Financial risk is given a higher priority.

B.

Risk with strategic impact is included.

C.

Security strategy is given a higher priority.

D.

Risk identified by industry benchmarking is included.

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Question # 17

Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?

A.

Batch job failure monitoring

B.

Periodic network scanning

C.

Annual penetration testing

D.

Risk assessments

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Question # 18

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Question # 19

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?

A.

Leading industry frameworks

B.

Business context

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

IT strategy

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Question # 20

An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:

A.

reduce the likelihood of future events

B.

restore availability

C.

reduce the impact of future events

D.

address the root cause

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Question # 21

What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

Flexibility and adaptability

B.

Measurability and consistency

C.

Robustness and resilience

D.

Optimal cost and benefit

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Question # 22

Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?

A.

Cable lock

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Data encryption

D.

Asset tag with GPS

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Question # 23

After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?

A.

A decrease in threats

B.

A change in the risk profile

C.

An increase in reported vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in identified risk scenarios

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Question # 24

Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Critical success factor (CSF)

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 25

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

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Question # 26

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?

A.

Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.

B.

Conduct a compliance check against standards.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Measure the change in inherent risk.

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Question # 27

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?

A.

To enable risk-based decision making

B.

To promote awareness of the risk governance function

C.

To clarify fundamental risk management principles

D.

To ensure sufficient resources are available

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Question # 28

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

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Question # 29

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

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Question # 30

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

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Question # 31

An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following

is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?

A.

Archiving sensitive information

B.

Understanding the incident management process

C.

Identifying social engineering attacks

D.

Understanding the importance of using a secure password

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Question # 32

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

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Question # 33

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?

A.

Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software

B.

Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software

C.

Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization

D.

Lack of professional support for open source software

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Question # 34

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

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Question # 35

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?

A.

Skills matrix

B.

Job descriptions

C.

RACI chart

D.

Organizational chart

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Question # 36

What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

A.

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

B.

Known emerging environmental threats

C.

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

D.

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

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Question # 37

An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'

A.

Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap

B.

Highlight news articles about data breaches

C.

Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss

D.

Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy

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Question # 38

Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?

A.

Risk mitigation budget

B.

Business Impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Return on investment

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Question # 39

Which of the following statements in an organization's current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?

A.

Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.

B.

New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.

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Question # 40

The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:

A.

ensure that the source code is valid and exists.

B.

ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.

C.

review the source code for adequacy of controls.

D.

ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.

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Question # 41

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?

A.

Application monitoring

B.

Separation of duty

C.

Least privilege

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Question # 42

An organization recently implemented a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud. Which of the following is MOST likely to be reassessed as a result of this initiative?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk capacity

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Question # 43

Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?

A.

Background checks

B.

Awareness training

C.

User access

D.

Policy management

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Question # 44

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

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Question # 45

An organization's internal audit department is considering the implementation of robotics process automation (RPA) to automate certain continuous auditing tasks. Who would own the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots?

A.

Lead auditor

B.

Project manager

C.

Chief audit executive (CAE)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 46

Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization's data disposal policy?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data architect

C.

Data owner

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 47

Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?

A.

Control standard operating procedures

B.

Latest security assessment

C.

Current security threat report

D.

Updated risk register

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Question # 48

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register?

A.

To ensure IT risk appetite is communicated across the organization

B.

To ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite

C.

To ensure IT risk ownership is assigned at the appropriate organizational level

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are consistently assessed within the organization

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Question # 49

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?

A.

The risk owner has validated outcomes.

B.

The risk register has been updated.

C.

The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.

D.

The requirements have been achieved.

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Question # 50

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Question # 51

During an organization's simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?

A.

A high number of participants reporting the email

B.

A high number of participants deleting the email

C.

A low number of participants with questions for the help desk

D.

A low number of participants opening the email

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Question # 52

Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk capacity.

D.

residual risk.

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Question # 53

Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?

A.

Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.

B.

Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.

C.

Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.

D.

Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.

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Question # 54

An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?

A.

Managing third-party risk

B.

Developing risk scenarios

C.

Managing the threat landscape

D.

Updating risk appetite

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Question # 55

What is the PRIMARY role of the application owner when changes are being introduced into an existing environment?

A.

Determining possible losses due to downtime during the changes

B.

Updating control procedures and documentation

C.

Approving the proposed changes based on impact analysis

D.

Notifying owners of affected systems after the changes are implemented

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Question # 56

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?

A.

Increased number of controls

B.

Reduced risk level

C.

Increased risk appetite

D.

Stakeholder commitment

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Question # 57

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

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Question # 58

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

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Question # 59

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?

A.

End user

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Data owner

D.

Data custodian

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Question # 60

Senior management has requested a risk practitioner's guidance on whether

a new technical control requested by a business unit is worth the investment.

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration before

providing input?

A.

The cost of the control relative to the value of risk mitigation

B.

The effectiveness of the control at reducing residual risk levels

C.

The likelihood of a successful attack based on current risk

D.

assessments

E.

The availabilitv of budgeted funds for risk mitigationMitination

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Question # 61

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

A.

Organization's industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Question # 62

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

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Question # 63

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 64

Recent penetration testing of an organization's software has identified many different types of security risks. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause for the identified risk?

A.

SIEM software is producing faulty alerts.

B.

Threat modeling was not utilized in the software design process.

C.

The configuration management process is not applied consistently during development.

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) tool has not been properly integrated into the software.

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Question # 65

When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?

A.

An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events

B.

An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations

C.

A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls

D.

A justification of corrective action taken

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Question # 66

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 67

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

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Question # 68

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Question # 69

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.

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Question # 70

The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:

A.

reduce subjectivity in risk management.

B.

comply with regulatory requirements.

C.

demonstrate best industry practice.

D.

improve visibility of overall risk exposure.

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Question # 71

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

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Question # 72

A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?

A.

Impact of the change on inherent risk

B.

Approval for the change by the risk owner

C.

Business rationale for the change

D.

Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change

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Question # 73

A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:

A.

include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,

B.

include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,

C.

include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,

D.

publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.

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Question # 74

The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:

A.

the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.

B.

security controls are tested prior to implementation.

C.

compliance with corporate policies.

D.

the risk response strategy has been decided.

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Question # 75

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?

A.

Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test

B.

Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time

C.

Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope

D.

Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test

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Question # 76

Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?

A.

A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.

B.

Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

Redundant compensating controls are in place.

D.

Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.

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Question # 77

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk mitigation policies

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk analysis techniques

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Question # 78

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Cryptocurrency reserve

C.

Data backups

D.

End user training

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Question # 79

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

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Question # 80

Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?

A.

Implement a release and deployment plan

B.

Conduct comprehensive regression testing.

C.

Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)

D.

Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report

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Question # 81

A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?

A.

Reviewing access control lists

B.

Authorizing user access requests

C.

Performing user access recertification

D.

Terminating inactive user access

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Question # 82

When an organization's business continuity plan (BCP) states that it cannot afford to lose more than three hours of a critical application's data, the three hours is considered the application’s:

A.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO).

B.

Recovery point objective (RPO).

C.

Mean time to restore (MTTR).

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO).

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Question # 83

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

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Question # 84

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?

A.

Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.

B.

Operational staff perform control self-assessments.

C.

Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit

D.

analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.

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Question # 85

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

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Question # 86

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

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Question # 87

A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.

B.

Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.

C.

Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.

D.

Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.

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Question # 88

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.

B.

Review the software development life cycle.

C.

Involve the development team in planning.

D.

Assign more developers to the project team.

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Question # 89

What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?

A.

Use the severity rating to calculate risk.

B.

Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.

C.

Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.

D.

Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.

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Question # 90

An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?

A.

Qualitative method

B.

Industry calibration method

C.

Threat-based method

D.

Quantitative method

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Question # 91

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

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Question # 92

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?

A.

Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes

B.

Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices

C.

Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers

D.

Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application

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Question # 93

Which of the following BEST facilitates the process of documenting risk tolerance?

A.

Creating a risk register

B.

Interviewing management

C.

Conducting a risk assessment

D.

Researching industry standards

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Question # 94

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key control indicator (KCI) to help an organization prevent successful cyber risk events on the external-facing infrastructure?

A.

Increasing number of threat actors

B.

Increasing number of intrusion detection system (IDS) false positive alerts

C.

Increasing percentage of unpatched demilitarized zone (DMZ) servers

D.

Increasing trend of perimeter attacks

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Question # 95

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

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Question # 96

Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?

A.

Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control

B.

Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)

C.

Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register

D.

Completion of the latest internal audit

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Question # 97

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?

A.

inadequate resource allocation

B.

Data disruption

C.

Unauthorized access

D.

Inadequate retention schedules

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Question # 98

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Question # 99

A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?

A.

Negotiating terms of adoption

B.

Understanding the timeframe to implement

C.

Completing a gap analysis

D.

Initiating the conversion

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Question # 100

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis

C.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers

D.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 101

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

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Question # 102

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

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Question # 103

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

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Question # 104

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.

B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.

C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.

D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.

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Question # 105

Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?

A.

Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results

B.

Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments

C.

A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed

D.

The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results

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Question # 106

A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.

B.

Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.

C.

Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.

D.

Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.

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Question # 107

Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

System administrator

D.

Human resources (HR) manager

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Question # 108

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

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Question # 109

A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?

A.

Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues

B.

Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents

C.

Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation

D.

Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business

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Question # 110

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

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Question # 111

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 112

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

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Question # 113

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

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Question # 114

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

A.

The organization's knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization's culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

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Question # 115

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

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Question # 116

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

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Question # 117

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization's risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

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Question # 118

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?

A.

The cloud environment's capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment's risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing

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Question # 119

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

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Question # 120

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 121

When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

A.

Sharing company information on social media

B.

Sharing personal information on social media

C.

Using social media to maintain contact with business associates

D.

Using social media for personal purposes during working hours

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Question # 122

Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY accountable for risk associated with business information protection?

A.

Control owner

B.

Data owner

C.

System owner

D.

Application owner

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Question # 123

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 124

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?

A.

To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives

C.

To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures

D.

To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts

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Question # 125

Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:

A.

ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.

B.

provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.

C.

provide a snapshot of the risk profile.

D.

ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.

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Question # 126

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Adherence to governing policies

C.

Regular stakeholder briefings

D.

Independent audit results

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Question # 127

While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.

B.

Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.

C.

Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.

D.

Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.

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Question # 128

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

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Question # 129

The patch management process is MOST effectively monitored through which of the following key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Number of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame

C.

Number of patches deployed outside of business hours

D.

Percentage of patched systems tested

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Question # 130

Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?

A.

Business management approval of change requests

B.

Separation of development and production environments

C.

Requirement of an implementation rollback plan

D.

IT management review of implemented changes

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Question # 131

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:

A.

corporate culture alignment

B.

low risk tolerance

C.

high risk tolerance

D.

corporate culture misalignment.

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Question # 132

Which of the following would be the GREATEST challenge when implementing a corporate risk framework for a global organization?

A.

Privacy risk controls

B.

Business continuity

C.

Risk taxonomy

D.

Management support

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Question # 133

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

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Question # 134

Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?

A.

Automated access revocation

B.

Daily transaction reconciliation

C.

Rule-based data analytics

D.

Role-based user access model

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Question # 135

For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

A.

before system development begins.

B.

at system development.

C.

at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

during the development of the business case.

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Question # 136

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 137

An organization's risk tolerance should be defined and approved by which of the following?

A.

The chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

The board of directors

C.

The chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 138

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

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Question # 139

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Question # 140

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Question # 141

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 142

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Question # 143

An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

impact on network performance

C.

insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

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Question # 144

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?

A.

Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan

B.

Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level

D.

Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk

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Question # 145

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 146

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

A.

The scenarios are based on industry best practice.

B.

The scenarios focus on current vulnerabilities.

C.

The scenarios are relevant to the organization.

D.

The scenarios include technical consequences.

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Question # 147

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Threat and vulnerability assessment

C.

Compliance assessments

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 148

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting digital signature software?

A.

Availability

B.

Nonrepudiation

C.

Accuracy

D.

Completeness

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Question # 149

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership

regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?

A.

Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices

B.

Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies

C.

Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies

D.

Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies

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Question # 150

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Logs are retained for longer than required.

B.

Logs are reviewed annually.

C.

Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.

D.

Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

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Question # 151

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and enterprise risk management (ERM), it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Risk velocity.

C.

Risk response plans and owners.

D.

Risk impact and likelihood.

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Question # 152

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

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Question # 153

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 154

Which of the following is the PRIMARY accountability for a control owner?

A.

Communicate risk to senior management.

B.

Own the associated risk the control is mitigating.

C.

Ensure the control operates effectively.

D.

Identify and assess control weaknesses.

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Question # 155

A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be

disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local

regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's

BEST course of action?

A.

The application code has not been version controlled.

B.

Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.

C.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

D.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

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Question # 156

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

A.

Occurrences of specific events

B.

A performance measurement

C.

The risk tolerance level

D.

Risk scenarios

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Question # 157

Following a business continuity planning exercise, an organization decides to accept an identified risk associated with a critical business system. Which of the following should be done next?

A.

Document the decision-making process and considerations used

B.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA) to assess the impact of the risk

C.

Develop a disaster recovery plan (DRP) and business continuity plan (BCP) to ensure resiliency

D.

Develop a control to reduce the level of the risk

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Question # 158

Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?

A.

Management has not determined a final implementation date.

B.

Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.

C.

Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.

D.

Management has not begun the implementation.

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Question # 159

When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?

A.

Users may share accounts with business system analyst

B.

Application may not capture a complete audit trail.

C.

Users may be able to circumvent application controls.

D.

Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process

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Question # 160

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

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Question # 161

An organization has contracted with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. Of the following, who should own the associated risk?

A.

The head of enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

The IT risk manager

C.

The information security manager

D.

The product owner

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Question # 162

A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?

A.

Payroll system risk factors

B.

Payroll system risk mitigation plans

C.

Payroll process owner

D.

Payroll administrative controls

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Question # 163

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

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Question # 164

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

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Question # 165

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure an organization's current risk scenarios are relevant?

A.

Adoption of industry best practices

B.

Involvement of stakeholders in risk assessment

C.

Review of risk scenarios by independent parties

D.

Documentation of potential risk in business cases

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Question # 166

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

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Question # 167

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

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Question # 168

A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

reflect the results of risk assessments.

B.

be available to all stakeholders.

C.

effectively support a business maturity model.

D.

be reviewed by the IT steering committee.

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Question # 169

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Question # 170

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.

B.

The KRIs are not automated.

C.

The KRIs are not quantitative.

D.

The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.

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Question # 171

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

identification.

B.

treatment.

C.

communication.

D.

assessment

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Question # 172

Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Implementing control activities

B.

Monitoring control effectiveness

C.

Conducting control self-assessments

D.

Owning risk scenarios

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Question # 173

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 174

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

A.

Risk monitoring

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk aggregation

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 175

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

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Question # 176

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

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Question # 177

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

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Question # 178

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

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Question # 179

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?

A.

Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.

B.

Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.

C.

Validate the threat management process.

D.

Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.

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Question # 180

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

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Question # 181

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?

A.

The type of shared data

B.

The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented

C.

The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified

D.

The impact to affected stakeholders

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Question # 182

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Question # 183

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

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Question # 184

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of employees unintentionally disclosing sensitive information to outside parties?

A.

Regular employee security awareness training

B.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

C.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Question # 185

An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer data. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 186

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Question # 187

Which of the following BEST mitigates reputational risk associated with disinformation campaigns against an organization?

A.

Monitoring digital platforms that disseminate inaccurate or misleading news stories

B.

Engaging public relations personnel to debunk false stories and publications

C.

Restricting the use of social media on corporate networks during specific hours

D.

Providing awareness training to understand and manage these types of attacks

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Question # 188

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

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Question # 189

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Question # 190

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

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Question # 191

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

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Question # 192

An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:

A.

increased inherent risk.

B.

higher risk management cost

C.

decreased residual risk.

D.

lower risk management cost.

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Question # 193

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?

A.

Incident reports

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

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Question # 194

An organization has adopted an emerging technology without following proper processes. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action to address this risk?

A.

Accept the risk because the technology has already been adopted.

B.

Propose a transfer of risk to a third party with subsequent monitoring.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine risk exposure.

D.

Recommend to senior management to decommission the technology.

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Question # 195

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

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Question # 196

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

A.

Testing control design

B.

Accepting residual risk

C.

Establishing business information criteria

D.

Establishing the risk register

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Question # 197

Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?

A.

The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.

B.

Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.

C.

Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.

D.

A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.

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Question # 198

An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.

B.

Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.

C.

Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

D.

Obtain certification to a global information security standard.

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Question # 199

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 200

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization?

A.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework

B.

Enterprise-wide risk awareness training

C.

Robust risk reporting practices

D.

Risk management policies

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Question # 201

Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?

A.

information security manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 202

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 203

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

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Question # 204

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Question # 205

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

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Question # 206

An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:

A.

mitigation.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

acceptance.

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Question # 207

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

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Question # 208

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

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Question # 209

Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?

A.

Updating the threat inventory with new threats

B.

Automating log data analysis

C.

Preventing the generation of false alerts

D.

Determining threshold levels

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Question # 210

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

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Question # 211

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?

A.

Protecting the organization from negative publicity

B.

Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence

C.

Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers

D.

Preventing further dissemination of customer information

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Question # 212

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and ERM, it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

A.

Risk impact and likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Risk response plans and owners

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Question # 213

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 214

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

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Question # 215

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

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Question # 216

When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?

A.

Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR

B.

Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.

C.

Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.

D.

Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.

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Question # 217

An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:

A.

procedures to monitor the operation of controls.

B.

a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.

C.

real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.

D.

monitoring activities for all critical assets.

E.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 218

When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

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Question # 219

Which of the following cloud service models is MOST appropriate for client organizations that want to maximize their control over management of the data life cycle?

A.

Data as a Service (DaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 220

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

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Question # 221

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

A.

Conducting security awareness training

B.

Updating the information security policy

C.

Implementing mock phishing exercises

D.

Requiring two-factor authentication

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Question # 222

The BEST way to validate that a risk treatment plan has been implemented effectively is by reviewing:

A.

results of a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

the original risk response plan.

C.

training program and user awareness documentation.

D.

a post-implementation risk and control self-assessment (RCSA).

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Question # 223

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

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Question # 224

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

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Question # 225

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines?

A.

Configuration validation

B.

Control attestation

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit review

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Question # 226

Which of the following is the MOST essential characteristic of a good IT risk scenario?

A.

The scenario is aligned to business control processes.

B.

The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

The scenario is aligned to a business objective.

D.

The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology.

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Question # 227

Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?

A.

Relevance to the business process

B.

Regulatory compliance requirements

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Comparison against best practice

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Question # 228

Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk magnitude

C.

Risk response

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 229

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing generic risk scenarios?

A.

The organization’s vision and mission

B.

Resources required for risk mitigation

C.

Impact to business objectives

D.

Risk-related trends within the industry

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Question # 230

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

B.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

C.

Date and status of the last project milestone

D.

The individuals assigned ownership of controls

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Question # 231

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

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Question # 232

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

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Question # 233

Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?

A.

Approval of the control by senior management

B.

Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives

C.

Control owner attestation of control effectiveness

D.

Internal audit review of control design

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Question # 234

Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.

B.

Escalate the situation to risk leadership.

C.

Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.

D.

Review system and process documentation.

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Question # 235

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Business manager

C.

Data owner

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 236

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

A.

User authorization

B.

User recertification

C.

Change log review

D.

Access log monitoring

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Question # 237

A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider who should the risk scenario be reassigned to.

A.

Senior management

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Vendor manager

D.

Data owner

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Question # 238

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?

A.

It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.

B.

It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.

C.

It validates the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.

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Question # 239

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

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Question # 240

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Question # 241

A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?

A.

Code review

B.

Penetration test

C.

Gap assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 242

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Probability definition

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Question # 243

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Question # 244

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

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Question # 245

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?

A.

Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations

B.

Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios

C.

Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations

D.

Determining capacity for alternate sites

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Question # 246

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

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Question # 247

Which of the following is MOST important to review when evaluating the ongoing effectiveness of the IT risk register?

A.

The costs associated with mitigation options

B.

The status of identified risk scenarios

C.

The cost-benefit analysis of each risk response

D.

The timeframes for risk response actions

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Question # 248

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:

A.

vendors providing risk assessments on time.

B.

vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.

C.

vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.

D.

vendors that have reported control-related incidents.

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Question # 249

Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database''

A.

Implement role-based access control

B.

Implement a data masking process

C.

Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

D.

Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool

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Question # 250

Which of the following would prompt changes in key risk indicator {KRI) thresholds?

A.

Changes to the risk register

B.

Changes in risk appetite or tolerance

C.

Modification to risk categories

D.

Knowledge of new and emerging threats

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Question # 251

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

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Question # 252

Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?

A.

Corrective

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 253

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to senior management about risk mitigation status?

A.

Risk strategy

B.

Risk register

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 254

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

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Question # 255

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Question # 256

Which of the following should be considered when selecting a risk response?

A.

Risk scenarios analysis

B.

Risk response costs

C.

Risk factor awareness

D.

Risk factor identification

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Question # 257

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Question # 258

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

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Question # 259

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?

A.

An antivirus program

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Firewall log monitoring

D.

File integrity monitoring

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Question # 260

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

A.

Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy

B.

Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices

C.

Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls

D.

Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program

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Question # 261

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

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Question # 262

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

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Question # 263

An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:

A.

validate control process execution.

B.

determine if controls are effective.

C.

identify key process owners.

D.

conduct a baseline assessment.

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Question # 264

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

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Question # 265

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?

A.

Obtaining funding support

B.

Defining the risk assessment scope

C.

Selecting the risk assessment framework

D.

Establishing inherent risk

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Question # 266

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?

A.

To provide data for establishing the risk profile

B.

To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies

C.

To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur

D.

To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness

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Question # 267

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

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Question # 268

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

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Question # 269

A threat intelligence team has identified an indicator of compromise related to an advanced persistent threat (APT) actor. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Review the most recent vulnerability scanning report.

B.

Determine the business criticality of the asset.

C.

Determine the adequacy of existing security controls.

D.

Review prior security incidents related to the asset.

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Question # 270

To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?

A.

The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.

B.

The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.

C.

Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.

D.

The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.

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Question # 271

A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within theorganization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?

A.

IT security managers

B.

IT control owners

C.

IT auditors

D.

IT risk owners

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Question # 272

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

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Question # 273

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Question # 274

Which of the following BEST indicates that security requirements have been incorporated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Comprehensive security training of developers

B.

Validated security requirements and design documents

C.

Completed user acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Compliance with laws and regulatory requirements

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Question # 275

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

A.

Establishing employee awareness training

B.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

C.

Selling target dates to complete actions

D.

Contracting to third parties

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Question # 276

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern upon learning of failures in a data migration activity?

A.

Availability of test data

B.

Integrity of data

C.

Cost overruns

D.

System performance

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Question # 277

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Question # 278

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?

A.

It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.

B.

It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.

C.

It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.

D.

It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure

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Question # 279

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

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Question # 280

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?

A.

Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register

C.

Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls

D.

Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards

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Question # 281

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Question # 282

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

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Question # 283

When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:

A.

evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.

C.

address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.

D.

determine which risk factors have high remediation costs

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Question # 284

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 285

An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?

A.

Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement

B.

Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement

C.

Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year

D.

Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control

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Question # 286

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

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Question # 287

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization?

A.

Conduct a simulated phishing attack.

B.

Update spam filters

C.

Revise the acceptable use policy

D.

Strengthen disciplinary procedures

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Question # 288

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

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Question # 289

An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The risk owner

C.

The control owner

D.

The audit manager

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Question # 290

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

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Question # 291

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

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Question # 292

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Question # 293

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

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Question # 294

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Question # 295

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

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Question # 296

Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?

A.

Data protection officer

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Information asset custodian

D.

Information asset owner

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Question # 297

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?

A.

The impact of the risk

B.

The replacement cost of the business asset

C.

The cost of risk mitigation controls

D.

The classification of the business asset

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Question # 298

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

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Question # 299

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

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Question # 300

When determining risk ownership, the MAIN consideration should be:

A.

who owns the business process.

B.

the amount of residual risk.

C.

who is responsible for risk mitigation.

D.

the total cost of risk treatment.

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Question # 301

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Question # 302

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 303

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

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Question # 304

What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?

A.

Segment the system on its own network.

B.

Ensure regular backups take place.

C.

Virtualize the system in the cloud.

D.

Install antivirus software on the system.

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Question # 305

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

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Question # 306

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

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Question # 307

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?

A.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

B.

An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions

C.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

D.

A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)

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Question # 308

The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:

A.

the organization's risk culture

B.

benchmarking results against similar organizations

C.

industry-specific regulatory requirements

D.

expertise available within the IT department

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Question # 309

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

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Question # 310

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 311

Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?

A.

Operating controls for risk mitigation

B.

Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls

C.

Providing assurance on risk management processes

D.

Recommending risk treatment options

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Question # 312

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

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Question # 313

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?

A.

Ensure compliance with the organization's internal policies

B.

Cultivate long-term behavioral change.

C.

Communicate IT risk policy to the participants.

D.

Demonstrate regulatory compliance.

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Question # 314

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Question # 315

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

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Question # 316

Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?

A.

Lack of technical expertise

B.

Combining incompatible duties

C.

Unauthorized data usage

D.

Denial of service attacks

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Question # 317

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

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Question # 318

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

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Question # 319

Which of the following is MOST helpful in verifying that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended?

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Technical control validation

D.

Control testing results

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Question # 320

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Question # 321

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

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Question # 322

Which of the following controls BEST enables an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory?

A.

Prohibiting the use of personal devices for business

B.

Performing network scanning for unknown devices

C.

Requesting an asset list from business owners

D.

Documenting asset configuration baselines

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Question # 323

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

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Question # 324

A global organization has implemented an application that does not address all privacy requirements across multiple jurisdictions. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted with regard to privacy requirements?

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk acceptance

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Question # 325

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

A.

Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls' effectiveness.

B.

Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.

C.

Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.

D.

Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT

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Question # 326

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Question # 327

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

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Question # 328

A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?

A.

Sensitivity of the data

B.

Readability of test data

C.

Security of the test environment

D.

Availability of data to authorized staff

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Question # 329

Which of the following BEST measures the efficiency of an incident response process?

A.

Number of incidents escalated to management

B.

Average time between changes and updating of escalation matrix

C.

Average gap between actual and agreed response times

D.

Number of incidents lacking responses

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Question # 330

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture?

A.

Reducing the involvement by senior management

B.

Using more risk specialists

C.

Reducing the need for risk policies and guidelines

D.

Discussing and managing risk as a team

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Question # 331

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when periodically reviewing risk response action plans?

A.

The action plans have documented schedules

B.

The action plans treat the corresponding risk

C.

Budget has been allocated for the action plans

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are defined in the action plans

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Question # 332

To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:

A.

Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.

B.

Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.

C.

Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.

D.

Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.

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Question # 333

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

A.

updating the risk register.

B.

validating the risk scenarios.

C.

documenting the risk scenarios.

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Question # 334

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?

A.

Threat landscape

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk register

D.

Risk metrics

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Question # 335

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.

B.

Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.

C.

Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.

D.

Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.

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Question # 336

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Question # 337

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

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Question # 338

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?

A.

User provisioning

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Security log monitoring

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Question # 339

What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?

A.

It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.

B.

It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.

C.

It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.

D.

It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.

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Question # 340

During a risk assessment of a financial institution, a risk practitioner discovers that tellers can initiate and approve transactions of significant value. This team is also responsible for ensuring transactions are recorded and balances are reconciled by the end of the day. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated risk?

A.

Implement continuous monitoring.

B.

Require a second level of approval.

C.

Implement separation of duties.

D.

Require a code of ethics.

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Question # 341

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application?

A.

Objectives are confirmed with the business owner.

B.

Control owners approve control changes.

C.

End-user acceptance testing has been conducted.

D.

Performance information in the log is encrypted.

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Question # 342

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

A.

Confidentiality breach

B.

Institutional knowledge loss

C.

Intellectual property loss

D.

Unauthorized access

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Question # 343

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

A.

To assign control ownership of risk

B.

To provide a centralized view of risk

C.

To identify opportunities to transfer risk

D.

To mitigate organizational risk

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Question # 344

The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Insufficient risk tolerance

B.

Optimized control management

C.

Effective risk management

D.

Over-controlled environment

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Question # 345

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Question # 346

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

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Question # 347

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures?

A.

Relevant risk case studies

B.

Internal audit findings

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Penetration testing results

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Question # 348

Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register?

A.

Risk taxonomy

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk ranking

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Question # 349

Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?

A.

Approval by senior management

B.

Low cost of development and maintenance

C.

Sensitivity to changes in risk levels

D.

Use of industry risk data sources

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Question # 350

Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?

A.

Introducing an approved IT governance framework

B.

Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BlA)

D.

Implementing a risk classification system

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Question # 351

Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?

A.

Customer notification plans

B.

Capacity management

C.

Access management

D.

Impacts on IT project delivery

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Question # 352

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Question # 353

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?

A.

Results of risk remediation team interviews

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

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Question # 354

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

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Question # 355

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

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Question # 356

Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?

A.

Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities

B.

Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience

C.

Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite

D.

Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation

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Question # 357

Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?

A.

Recommend the IT department remove access to the cloud services.

B.

Engage with the business area managers to review controls applied.

C.

Escalate to the risk committee.

D.

Recommend a risk assessment be conducted.

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Question # 358

When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk 'register?

A.

Leveraging business risk professionals

B.

Relying on generic IT risk scenarios

C.

Describing IT risk in business terms

D.

Using a common risk taxonomy

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Question # 359

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

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Question # 360

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

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Question # 361

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 362

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Question # 363

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Question # 364

The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

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Question # 365

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk

awareness program?

A.

Policies and procedures

B.

Structure and culture

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds

D.

Known threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 366

Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?

A.

Assessing regulatory requirements

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Gaining management consensus

D.

Identifying risk tolerance

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Question # 367

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

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Question # 368

To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?

A.

Compliance objectives

B.

Risk appetite of the organization

C.

Organizational objectives

D.

Inherent and residual risk

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Question # 369

In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?

A.

Potential benefits from use of Al solutions

B.

Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions

C.

Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions

D.

Skills required to support Al solutions

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Question # 370

Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Business impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Inherent vulnerabilities

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Question # 371

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 372

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the risk of account compromise?

A.

Enforce password changes.

B.

Enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA).

C.

Enforce role-based authentication.

D.

Enforce password encryption.

Full Access
Question # 373

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Improving risk awareness

B.

Obtaining buy-in from risk owners

C.

Leveraging existing metrics

D.

Optimizing risk treatment decisions

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Question # 374

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization's inventory system?

A.

Poor access control

B.

Unnecessary data storage usage

C.

Data inconsistency

D.

Unnecessary costs of program changes

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Question # 375

A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?

A.

Change logs

B.

Change management meeting minutes

C.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 376

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

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Question # 377

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

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Question # 378

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?

A.

Obtain approval to retire the control.

B.

Update the status of the control as obsolete.

C.

Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.

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Question # 379

When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:

A.

Relevant policies.

B.

Threat landscape.

C.

Awareness program.

D.

Risk heat map.

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Question # 380

An organization recently invested in an identity and access management (IAM) solution to manage user activities across corporate mobile devices. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

A.

Inherent risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 381

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Question # 382

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization's risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Question # 383

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of emerging risk?

A.

Performing scenario-based assessments

B.

Reviewing audit reports annually

C.

Conducting root cause analyses

D.

Engaging a risk-focused audit team

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Question # 384

Which of the following BEST supports the management of identified risk scenarios?

A.

Collecting risk event data

B.

Maintaining a risk register

C.

Using key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Defining risk parameters

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Question # 385

Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?

A.

Digital signature

B.

Edit checks

C.

Encryption

D.

Multifactor authentication

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Question # 386

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?

A.

Establishing policies and procedures

B.

Periodically reviewing control design

C.

Measuring trends in control performance

D.

Obtaining management control attestations

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Question # 387

An organization's IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

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Question # 388

When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?

A.

Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer

B.

Remove risk that management has decided to accept

C.

Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment

D.

Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels

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Question # 389

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

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Question # 390

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

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Question # 391

An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?

A.

Project Charlie

B.

Project Bravo

C.

Project Alpha

D.

Project Delta

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Question # 392

An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?

A.

Number of business change management requests

B.

Number of revisions to security policy

C.

Number of security policy exceptions approved

D.

Number of changes to firewall rules

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Question # 393

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 394

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?

A.

Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape

B.

Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment

C.

Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit

D.

Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors

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Question # 395

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.

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Question # 396

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

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Question # 397

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

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Question # 398

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 399

A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?

A.

Assessing risk with no controls in place

B.

Showing projected residual risk

C.

Providing peer benchmarking results

D.

Assessing risk with current controls in place

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Question # 400

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

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Question # 401

When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?

A.

Demonstration that the control is operating as designed

B.

A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment

C.

Management attestation that the control is operating effectively

D.

Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced

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Question # 402

An organization operates in a jurisdiction where heavy fines are imposed for leakage of customer data. Which of the following provides the BEST input to assess the inherent risk impact?

A.

Number of customer records held

B.

Number of databases that host customer data

C.

Number of encrypted customer databases

D.

Number of staff members having access to customer data

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Question # 403

An information system for a key business operation is being moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor. Which of the following will have the GREATEST impact on the ability to monitor risk?

A.

Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Reduced access to internal audit reports

C.

Dependency on the vendor's key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Dependency on service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 404

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

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Question # 405

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Question # 406

An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:

A.

capacity.

B.

appetite.

C.

management capability.

D.

treatment strategy.

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Question # 407

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

A.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

B.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

C.

Planned downtime

D.

Unplanned downtime

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Question # 408

Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?

A.

Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.

B.

Residual risk is inadequately recorded.

C.

Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.

D.

Residual risk equals current risk.

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Question # 409

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Question # 410

What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?

A.

It reduces the number of audit findings.

B.

It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.

C.

It facilitates risk-aware decision making.

D.

It facilitates communication of threat levels.

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Question # 411

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRis) is that (hey

A.

identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds

B.

assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds

C.

identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite

D.

help with internal control assessments concerning risk appellate

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Question # 412

To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?

A.

business owner

B.

IT department

C.

Risk manager

D.

Third-party provider

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Question # 413

A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?

A.

Business analyst

B.

Project sponsor

C.

IT project team

D.

IT project management office (PMO)

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Question # 414

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Analysis

C.

Identification

D.

Response selection

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Question # 415

An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?

A.

The organization's business process owner

B.

The organization's information security manager

C.

The organization's vendor management officer

D.

The vendor's risk manager

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Question # 416

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

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Question # 417

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?

A.

Improved alignment with business goals.

B.

Reduction of residual risk.

C.

Increased costs due to control implementation.

D.

Decreased overall risk appetite.

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Question # 418

An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?

A.

Initiate a retest of the full control

B.

Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.

C.

Review the corresponding change control documentation

D.

Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment

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Question # 419

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?

A.

a identity conditions that may cause disruptions

B.

Review incident response procedures

C.

Evaluate the probability of risk events

D.

Define metrics for restoring availability

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Question # 420

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Question # 421

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?

A.

A record of incidents is maintained.

B.

Forensic investigations are facilitated.

C.

Security violations can be identified.

D.

Developing threats are detected earlier.

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Question # 422

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 423

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?

A.

Utilization of a cross-functional team

B.

Participation by IT subject matter experts

C.

Integration of contingency planning

D.

Validation by senior management

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Question # 424

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

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Question # 425

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework?

A.

A strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite

B.

A risk-based internal audit plan for the organization

C.

A control function within the risk management team

D.

An organization-wide risk awareness training program

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Question # 426

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?

A.

Lack of a mature records management program

B.

Lack of a dedicated asset management team

C.

Decentralized asset lists

D.

Incomplete asset inventory

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Question # 427

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 428

Which of the following would be MOST beneficial as a key risk indicator (KRI)?

A.

Current capital allocation reserves

B.

Negative security return on investment (ROI)

C.

Project cost variances

D.

Annualized loss projections

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Question # 429

Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?

A.

Business impact assessment (BIA)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Risk profile

D.

Industry benchmark analysis

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Question # 430

Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?

A.

Using the risk management process

B.

Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance

C.

Reviewing results of the annual company external audit

D.

Adopting internationally accepted controls

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Question # 431

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

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Question # 432

A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

A.

Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.

B.

Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.

C.

Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.

D.

Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.

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Question # 433

It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:

A.

perform a business impact analysis.

B.

identify potential sources of risk.

C.

establish risk guidelines.

D.

understand control design.

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Question # 434

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

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Question # 435

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

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Question # 436

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk associated with Internet of Things (IoT) technology?

A.

The inability to monitor via network management solutions

B.

The lack of relevant IoT security frameworks to guide the risk assessment process

C.

The heightened level of IoT threats via the widespread use of smart devices

D.

The lack of updates for vulnerable firmware

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Question # 437

A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk impact

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 438

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

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Question # 439

Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:

A.

ratio of disabled to active user accounts.

B.

percentage of users with multiple user accounts.

C.

average number of access entitlements per user account.

D.

average time between user transfers and access updates.

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Question # 440

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Question # 441

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

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Question # 442

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?

A.

Testing in a non-production environment

B.

Performing a security control review

C.

Reviewing the security audit report

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 443

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

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Question # 444

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk map with stakeholders?

A.

Consolidates risk response options by severity

B.

Aligns risk appetite with business objectives

C.

Correlates risk scenarios to risk appetite

D.

Defines an organizational risk taxonomy

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Question # 445

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

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Question # 446

An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?

A.

Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization

B.

Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture

C.

Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure

D.

Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios

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Question # 447

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Question # 448

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

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Question # 449

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

A.

A management-approved risk dashboard

B.

A current control framework

C.

A regularly updated risk register

D.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

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Question # 450

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

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Question # 451

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

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Question # 452

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Question # 453

A violation of segregation of duties is when the same:

A.

user requests and tests the change prior to production.

B.

user authorizes and monitors the change post-implementation.

C.

programmer requests and tests the change prior to production.

D.

programmer writes and promotes code into production.

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Question # 454

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Question # 455

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

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Question # 456

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

Adherence to legal and compliance requirements

B.

Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase

C.

Establishment of digital forensic architectures

D.

Consistent management of information assets

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Question # 457

A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

IT security manager

D.

Control operator

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Question # 458

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

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Question # 459

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

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Question # 460

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

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Question # 461

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool

C.

Lack of senior management involvement

D.

Use of multiple risk registers

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Question # 462

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service

provider during a vendor risk assessment?

A.

Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Independent audit report

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 463

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?

A.

Business context

B.

Risk tolerance level

C.

Resource requirements

D.

Benchmarking information

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Question # 464

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?

A.

Weak governance structures

B.

Senior management scrutiny

C.

Complex regulatory environment

D.

Unclear reporting relationships

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Question # 465

Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?

A.

Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment

B.

Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access

C.

Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers

D.

Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing

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Question # 466

When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on which of the following risk management activities?

A.

Risk management strategy planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk response planning

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Question # 467

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 468

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified

A.

Estimate the residual risk.

B.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

C.

Design control improvements.

D.

Identify the risk owner.

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Question # 469

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

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Question # 470

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Question # 471

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 472

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

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Question # 473

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

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Question # 474

Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?

A.

RACI matrix

B.

Financial models

C.

Management support

D.

Industry benchmarking

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Question # 475

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization's access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?

A.

After the initial design

B.

Before production rollout

C.

After a few weeks in use

D.

Before end-user testing

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Question # 476

Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?

A.

Application controls are manual.

B.

Application development is outsourced.

C.

Source code is escrowed.

D.

Developers have access to production environment.

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Question # 477

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

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Question # 478

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 479

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

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Question # 480

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

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Question # 481

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider's control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider's control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

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Question # 482

Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?

A.

Likelihood of a threat

B.

Impact of technology risk

C.

Impact of operational risk

D.

Control weakness

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Question # 483

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

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Question # 484

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

A.

Process ownership

B.

Risk appetite statement

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Risk response options

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Question # 485

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 486

Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?

A.

Change management as determined by a change control board

B.

Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects

C.

Project governance criteria as determined by the project office

D.

The risk owner as determined by risk management processes

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Question # 487

A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

A.

Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.

B.

Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.

C.

Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

D.

Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization's risk tolerance.

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Question # 488

A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?

A.

The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.

B.

The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.

C.

The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision-making.

D.

The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.

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Question # 489

The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:

A.

is updated based upon significant events.

B.

documents possible countermeasures.

C.

contains the risk assessment completion date.

D.

is regularly audited.

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Question # 490

Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs)?

A.

Activity logging and monitoring

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Awareness training and background checks

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Question # 491

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

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Question # 492

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

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