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CRISC Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application?

A.

The third-party risk manager

B.

The application vendor

C.

The business process owner

D.

The information security manager

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Question # 7

When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:

A.

business process objectives have been met.

B.

control adheres to regulatory standards.

C.

residual risk objectives have been achieved.

D.

control process is designed effectively.

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Question # 8

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

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Question # 9

When assigning control ownership, it is MOST important to verify that the owner has accountability for:

A.

Control effectiveness.

B.

The budget for control implementation.

C.

Assessment of control risk.

D.

Internal control audits.

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Question # 10

Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk magnitude

C.

Risk response

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 11

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application?

A.

Objectives are confirmed with the business owner.

B.

Control owners approve control changes.

C.

End-user acceptance testing has been conducted.

D.

Performance information in the log is encrypted.

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Question # 12

An organization’s expense claim system allows users to split large transactions into smaller ones to bypass limits. What should the risk practitioner do?

A.

Conduct an audit to determine the frequency of occurrence

B.

Update the probability in the risk register

C.

Create a noncompliance risk scenario

D.

Weigh compliance against the cost-benefit

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Question # 13

Which of the following approaches to bring your own device (BYOD) service delivery provides the BEST protection from data loss?

A.

Enable data wipe capabilities

B.

Penetration testing and session timeouts

C.

Implement remote monitoring

D.

Enforce strong passwords and data encryption

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Question # 14

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

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Question # 15

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure software engineers test patches before release to the production environment?

A.

To detect incompatibilities that might disrupt the operation

B.

To provide assurance that deployed patches have been properly authorized

C.

To understand how long it will take to deploy the patch

D.

To support availability by authorizing the release of the patch at the appropriate time

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Question # 16

After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager s NEXT step should be to:

A.

determine if the scenarios need 10 be accepted or responded to.

B.

record the scenarios into the risk register.

C.

continue with a qualitative risk analysis.

D.

continue with a quantitative risk analysis.

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Question # 17

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization ' s risk management methodology?

A.

Business context

B.

Risk tolerance level

C.

Resource requirements

D.

Benchmarking information

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Question # 18

Which of the following would MOST likely result in agreement on accountability for risk scenarios?

A.

Using a facilitated risk management workshop

B.

Relying on generic risk scenarios

C.

Relying on external IT risk professionals

D.

Distributing predefined scenarios for review

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Question # 19

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to continuously monitor a critical security transformation program?

A.

To validate the quality of defined deliverables for the program

B.

To detect increases in program costs

C.

To ensure program risk events are mitigated in a timely manner

D.

To provide timely reporting to the governance steering committee

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Question # 20

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

A.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Improving control process efficiency

D.

Complying with functional requirements

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Question # 21

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

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Question # 22

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 23

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Confirming the adequacy of recovery plans.

B.

Improving compliance with control standards.

C.

Providing early detection of control degradation.

D.

Reducing the number of incidents.

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Question # 24

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

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Question # 25

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 26

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

A.

Confidentiality breach

B.

Institutional knowledge loss

C.

Intellectual property loss

D.

Unauthorized access

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Question # 27

What is senior management ' s role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners?

A.

Accountable

B.

Informed

C.

Responsible

D.

Consulted

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Question # 28

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

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Question # 29

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

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Question # 30

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

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Question # 31

Several network user accounts were recently created without the required management approvals. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Conduct a comprehensive compliance review.

B.

Develop incident response procedures for noncompliance.

C.

Investigate the root cause of noncompliance.

D.

Declare a security breach and Inform management.

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Question # 32

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client ' s systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party ' s risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

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Question # 33

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Question # 34

An organization ' s IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

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Question # 35

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for integrating IT risk management practices into enterprise risk management (ERM)?

A.

To reduce conflicts of interest between IT and business units

B.

To align ERM with regulatory requirements

C.

To optimize enterprise-wide resource efficiency

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are reflected in the corporate risk profile

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Question # 36

The PRIMARY benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

A.

serve as a basis for measuring risk appetite.

B.

align with the organization ' s risk profile.

C.

provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions.

D.

provide data for updating the risk register.

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Question # 37

Which of the following is the FIRST step when identifying risk items related to a new IT project?

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Review the IT control environment.

C.

Review the business case.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis.

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Question # 38

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization ' s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

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Question # 39

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

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Question # 40

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization ' s risk profile?

A.

Control identification and mitigation

B.

Adoption of a compliance-based approach

C.

Prevention and detection techniques

D.

Scenario analysis and stress testing

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Question # 41

An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?

A.

Database manager

B.

Public relations manager

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Business manager

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Question # 42

Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?

A.

Determining which departments contribute most to risk

B.

Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners

C.

Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes

D.

Determining resource dependency of assets

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Question # 43

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the confidentiality of data in the event of a data breach within a Software as a Service (SaaS) environment?

A.

Vendor ' s information security officer

B.

Customer ' s data privacy officer

C.

Customer ' s data owner

D.

Vendor ' s application owner

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Question # 44

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

A.

The organization ' s structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

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Question # 45

Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?

A.

Operating controls for risk mitigation

B.

Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls

C.

Providing assurance on risk management processes

D.

Recommending risk treatment options

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Question # 46

Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?

A.

Closed management action plans from the previous audit

B.

Annual risk assessment results

C.

An updated vulnerability management report

D.

A list of identified generic risk scenarios

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Question # 47
A.

Ensure compliance with local legislation because it has a higher priority.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment and develop mitigation options.

C.

Terminate the current cloud contract and migrate to a local cloud provider.

D.

Accept the risk because foreign legislation does not apply to the organization.

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Question # 48

An organization has opened a subsidiary in a foreign country. Which of the following would be the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of the subsidiary ' s IT systems controls?

A.

Implement IT systems in alignment with business objectives.

B.

Review metrics and key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Review design documentation of IT systems.

D.

Evaluate compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

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Question # 49

Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?

A.

Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Review system performance logs

C.

Compare controls to business metrics

D.

Perform independent periodic control testing

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Question # 50

A business impact analysis (BIA) enables an organization to determine appropriate IT risk mitigation actions by:

A.

validating whether critical IT risk has been addressed.

B.

assigning accountability for IT risk to business functions.

C.

identifying IT assets that support key business processes.

D.

defining the requirements for an IT risk-aware culture

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Question # 51

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

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Question # 52

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization ' s user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

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Question # 53

Which of the following has the MOST validity for conducting risk assessments?

A.

Internal control effectiveness measured through inference from external assessment

B.

Control effectiveness determined through subject matter expertise estimation

C.

Inferences of internal control effectiveness from peer reports

D.

Internal control effectiveness measured through direct testing

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Question # 54

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

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Question # 55

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?

A.

To provide data for establishing the risk profile

B.

To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies

C.

To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur

D.

To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness

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Question # 56

An organization recently implemented a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing simul-ation exercises for all employees. What type of control is being utilized?

A.

Deterrent

B.

Preventive

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

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Question # 57

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

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Question # 58

A PRIMARY function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization ' s risk:

A.

strategy.

B.

profile.

C.

process.

D.

map.

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Question # 59

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Question # 60

An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

A.

Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.

B.

List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

C.

Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.

D.

Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.

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Question # 61

Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?

A.

Audit and compliance management

B.

The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)

C.

Enterprise risk management and business process owners

D.

Executive management and the board of directors

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Question # 62

After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:

Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor ' s control environment?

Question # 62

A.

External audit

B.

Internal audit

C.

Vendor performance scorecard

D.

Regulatory examination

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Question # 63

Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?

A.

Brainstorming sessions

B.

Control self-assessments

C.

Vulnerability analysis

D.

Monte Carlo analysis

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Question # 64

Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization ' s security controls?

A.

An internal audit

B.

Security operations center review

C.

Internal penetration testing

D.

A third-party audit

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Question # 65

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Vulnerability analysis

A.

Control analysis

B.

Scenario analysis

C.

Heat map analysis

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Question # 66

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

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Question # 67

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

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Question # 68

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Identify staff members who have access to the organization ' s sensitive data.

B.

Identify locations where the organization ' s sensitive data is stored.

C.

Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.

D.

Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.

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Question # 69

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

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Question # 70

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

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Question # 71

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

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Question # 72

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 73

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk associated with Internet of Things (IoT) technology?

A.

The inability to monitor via network management solutions

B.

The lack of relevant IoT security frameworks to guide the risk assessment process

C.

The heightened level of IoT threats via the widespread use of smart devices

D.

The lack of updates for vulnerable firmware

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Question # 74

Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization ' s operations during a major it transformation?

A.

Lack of robust awareness programs

B.

infrequent risk assessments of key controls

C.

Rapid changes in IT procedures

D.

Unavailability of critical IT systems

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Question # 75

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

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Question # 76

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

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Question # 77

Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management ' s understanding of the results?

A.

Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results

B.

Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments

C.

A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed

D.

The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results

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Question # 78

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk mitigation policies

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk analysis techniques

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Question # 79

A technology company is developing a strategic artificial intelligence (Al)-driven application that has high potential business value. At what point should the enterprise risk profile be updated?

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon approval of the business case

C.

When user stories are developed

D.

During post-implementation review

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Question # 80

A risk owner should be the person accountable for:

A.

the risk management process

B.

managing controls.

C.

implementing actions.

D.

the business process.

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Question # 81

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization ' s cloud computing environment against leading practices?

A.

The cloud environment ' s capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment ' s risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization ' s strategic plans for cloud computing

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Question # 82

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program for all employees of the organization?

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Communication plan

C.

Critical asset inventory

D.

Separation of duties

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Question # 83

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization ' s disaster recovery program?

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 84

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to engage business unit managers in risk management processes ' ?

A.

Improved alignment will technical risk

B.

Better-informed business decisions

C.

Enhanced understanding of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Improved business operations efficiency

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Question # 85

Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?

A.

Industry trends in Al

B.

Expected algorithm outputs

C.

Data feeds

D.

Alert functionality

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Question # 86

Which of the following is the BEST risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process?

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are established to track IT strategic initiatives.

B.

The IT strategic plan is reviewed by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM).

C.

The IT strategic plan is developed from the organization-wide risk management plan.

D.

Risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives are identified and assessed.

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Question # 87

Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:

A.

overall effectiveness of risk management

B.

consequences of risk materializing

C.

necessity of developing a risk strategy,

D.

organization s risk threshold.

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Question # 88

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

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Question # 89

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology?

A.

Risk response plans

B.

Risk and control ownership

C.

Key controls

D.

Impact and likelihood ratings

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Question # 90

Which of the following BEST ensures that the data feeds used by an organization are complete and accurate?

A.

Data is inspected and accepted by owners

B.

Best-in-class data mining technology is used

C.

Sources of data and attributes are known

D.

The project is run by an experienced team

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Question # 91

An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?

Question # 91

A.

Project Charlie

B.

Project Bravo

C.

Project Alpha

D.

Project Delta

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Question # 92

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Results of current and past risk assessments

B.

Organizational strategy and objectives

C.

Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios

D.

Internal and external audit findings

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Question # 93

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Question # 94

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of using IT risk scenarios?

A.

They support compliance with regulations.

B.

They provide evidence of risk assessment.

C.

They facilitate communication of risk.

D.

They enable the use of key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 95

Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?

A.

SWOT analysis

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 96

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

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Question # 97

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization ' s risk profile.

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Question # 98

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Question # 99

An organization has determined that risk is not being adequately tracked and

managed due to a distributed operating model. Which of the following is the

BEST way to address this issue?

A.

Increase the frequency of risk assessments.

B.

Revalidate the organization ' s risk appetite

C.

Create a centralized portfolio of risk scenarios.

D.

Create dashboards for risk metrics.

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Question # 100

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs) '

A.

Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance

B.

Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

C.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements

D.

Providing an early warning to take proactive actions

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Question # 101

An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days ' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

A.

Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave

B.

Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member

C.

Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation

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Question # 102

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

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Question # 103

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Question # 104

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

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Question # 105

Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

A.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

B.

Updating remote desktop software

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

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Question # 106

What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

A.

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

B.

Known emerging environmental threats

C.

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

D.

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

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Question # 107

The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Insufficient risk tolerance

B.

Optimized control management

C.

Effective risk management

D.

Over-controlled environment

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Question # 108

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

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Question # 109

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

A.

A management-approved risk dashboard

B.

A current control framework

C.

A regularly updated risk register

D.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

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Question # 110

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when periodically reviewing risk response action plans?

A.

The action plans have documented schedules

B.

The action plans treat the corresponding risk

C.

Budget has been allocated for the action plans

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are defined in the action plans

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Question # 111

Which of the following indicators measures the performance of IT configuration management?

A.

Number of devices reviewed for compliance

B.

Number of devices adhering to baseline settings

C.

Number of devices exceeding minimum configuration

D.

Number of devices not reporting configuration data

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Question # 112

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization ' s network?

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

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Question # 113

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly?

A.

Time required for backup restoration testing

B.

Change in size of data backed up

C.

Successful completion of backup operations

D.

Percentage of failed restore tests

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Question # 114

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

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Question # 115

It was discovered that a service provider ' s administrator was accessing sensitive information without the approval of the customer in an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model. Which of the following would BEST protect against a future recurrence?

A.

Data encryption

B.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Contractual requirements

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Question # 116

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to minimize the impact associated with the loss of key employees?

A.

Maintain and publish a RACI chart.

B.

Promote incentive programs.

C.

Perform succession planning.

D.

Develop a robust onboarding program.

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Question # 117

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Question # 118

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when determining the impact to an organization after the discovery of malware on an endpoint device?

A.

Availability of patches and security updates.

B.

Asset criticality and sensitivity.

C.

Currency of the incident response plan.

D.

Currency of anti-malware signatures.

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Question # 119

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Question # 120

Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?

A.

Customer notification plans

B.

Capacity management

C.

Access management

D.

Impacts on IT project delivery

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Question # 121

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Question # 122

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?

A.

Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes

B.

Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices

C.

Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers

D.

Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application

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Question # 123

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

A.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) for its operations

B.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall

D.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards

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Question # 124

The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system should be based on:

A.

stakeholder risk tolerance.

B.

benchmarking criteria.

C.

suppliers used by the organization.

D.

the control environment.

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Question # 125

In which of the following scenarios would a risk practitioner be required to provide the MOST justification for a risk assessment?

A.

Modeling a threat-based risk event

B.

Calculating mean time between failures (MTBF)

C.

Using a semi-quantitative approach

D.

Calculating adjusted loss expectancy (ALE)

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Question # 126

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

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Question # 127

An organization ' s IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

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Question # 128

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

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Question # 129

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders ' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

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Question # 130

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

A.

Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

B.

Ensure the alignment of the organization ' s policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C.

Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

D.

Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

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Question # 131

Which of the following is MOST important when considering risk in an enterprise risk management (ERM) process?

A.

Financial risk is given a higher priority.

B.

Risk with strategic impact is included.

C.

Security strategy is given a higher priority.

D.

Risk identified by industry benchmarking is included.

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Question # 132

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Question # 133

An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization ' s customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management ' s decision?

A.

Time zone difference of the outsourcing location

B.

Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company

C.

Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country

D.

Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location

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Question # 134

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

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Question # 135

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

A.

impact due to failure of control

B.

Frequency of failure of control

C.

Contingency plan for residual risk

D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation

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Question # 136

When processing personal information which of the following BEST helps to mitigate privacy risk while still enabling testing?

A.

Data classification

B.

Data sanitization

C.

Data encryption

D.

Data anonymization

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Question # 137

Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Security assessment

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Question # 138

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

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Question # 139

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

A.

Management ' s expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

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Question # 140

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

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Question # 141

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization ' s risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

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Question # 142

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and ERM, it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

A.

Risk impact and likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Risk response plans and owners

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Question # 143

Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?

A.

Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.

B.

Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.

C.

Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.

D.

Key controls are identified and documented.

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Question # 144

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization ' s risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Question # 145

When a risk practitioner is determining a system ' s criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:

A.

process flow.

B.

business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

service level agreement (SLA).

D.

system architecture.

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Question # 146

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Question # 147

An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following

is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?

A.

Archiving sensitive information

B.

Understanding the incident management process

C.

Identifying social engineering attacks

D.

Understanding the importance of using a secure password

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Question # 148

Determining if organizational risk is tolerable requires:

A.

mapping residual risk with cost of controls

B.

comparing against regulatory requirements

C.

comparing industry risk appetite with the organizations.

D.

understanding the organization ' s risk appetite.

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Question # 149

Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

The value at which control effectiveness would fail

B.

Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations

C.

A typical operational value

D.

A value that represents the intended control state

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Question # 150

A risk owner has accepted a high-impact risk because the control was adversely affecting process efficiency. Before updating the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

ensure suitable insurance coverage is purchased.

B.

negotiate with the risk owner on control efficiency.

C.

reassess the risk to confirm the impact.

D.

obtain approval from senior management.

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Question # 151

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to measure change management performance?

A.

Percentage of changes implemented successfully

B.

Percentage of rejected change requests

C.

Number of after-hours emergency changes

D.

Number of change control requests

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Question # 152

To ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) are effective and meaningful, the KRIs should be aligned to:

A.

A control framework

B.

Industry standards

C.

Capability maturity targets

D.

Business processes

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Question # 153

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Question # 154

An organization recently implemented an automated interface for uploading payment files to its banking system to replace manual processing. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST appropriate for the risk practitioner to update to reflect the improved control?

A.

Risk scenarios

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Risk impact

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 155

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

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Question # 156

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Question # 157

An organization allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations. Which of the following is the BEST control?

A.

Implementing an emergency change authorization process

B.

Periodically reviewing operator logs

C.

Limiting the number of super users

D.

Reviewing the programmers ' emergency change reports

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Question # 158

The effectiveness of a control has decreased. What is the MOST likely effect on the associated risk?

A.

The risk impact changes.

B.

The risk classification changes.

C.

The inherent risk changes.

D.

The residual risk changes.

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Question # 159

Which of the following is MOST important to add to the risk register for a remediated risk scenario?

A.

Notification to technical teams of implementation schedules

B.

Sign-off by senior executives

C.

Evidence of successfully implemented controls

D.

Minutes from control design meetings

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Question # 160

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization ' s use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

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Question # 161

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Question # 162

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation ' ?

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 163

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

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Question # 164

A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?

A.

Reviewing access control lists

B.

Authorizing user access requests

C.

Performing user access recertification

D.

Terminating inactive user access

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Question # 165

During the creation of an organization ' s IT risk management program, the BEST time to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) is while:

A.

Interviewing data owners

B.

Reviewing risk response plans with internal audit

C.

Developing a risk monitoring process

D.

Reviewing an external risk assessment

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Question # 166

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

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Question # 167

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful information in identifying risk in an organization?

A.

Risk registers

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

Risk responses

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Question # 168

Which of the following is the BEST approach for a risk practitioner to use for identifying the level of technical debt in an organization?

A.

Review business cases for large organizational projects.

B.

Measure the alignment of technical standards with information security policies.

C.

Analyze trends in technology investments over time.

D.

Compare the current state to the target enterprise architecture (EA).

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Question # 169

External auditors have found that management has not effectively monitored key security technologies that support regulatory objectives. Which type of indicator would BEST enable the organization to identify and correct this situation?

A.

Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

B.

Key Management Indicator (KMI)

C.

Key Risk Indicator (KRI)

D.

Key Control Indicator (KCI)

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Question # 170

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization ' s current risk profile?

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 171

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

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Question # 172

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.

B.

Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.

C.

Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.

D.

Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.

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Question # 173

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting IT?

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Prioritize impact to the business units.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Review the risk tolerance and appetite.

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Question # 174

A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner ' s PRIMARY concern?

A.

Sensitivity of the data

B.

Readability of test data

C.

Security of the test environment

D.

Availability of data to authorized staff

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Question # 175

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:

A.

data classification and labeling.

B.

data logging and monitoring.

C.

data retention and destruction.

D.

data mining and analytics.

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Question # 176

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Question # 177

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization ' s risk appetite?

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 178

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

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Question # 179

The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:

A.

ensure that the source code is valid and exists.

B.

ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.

C.

review the source code for adequacy of controls.

D.

ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.

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Question # 180

An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:

A.

validate control process execution.

B.

determine if controls are effective.

C.

identify key process owners.

D.

conduct a baseline assessment.

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Question # 181

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Question # 182

Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:

A.

the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters

B.

international law and a uniform set of regulations.

C.

the laws and regulations of each individual country

D.

international standard-setting bodies.

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Question # 183

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

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Question # 184

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

A.

updating the risk register

B.

documenting the risk scenarios.

C.

validating the risk scenarios

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Question # 185

Which of the following is accountable for the management of IT risk within an organization?

A.

Senior management

B.

Business process owners

C.

Second line

D.

Internal audit

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Question # 186

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Question # 187

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

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Question # 188

Which of the following situations would cause the GREATEST concern around the integrity of application logs?

A.

Weak privileged access management controls

B.

Lack of a security information and event management (SIEM) system

C.

Lack of data classification policies

D.

Use of hashing algorithms

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Question # 189

The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:

A.

facilitate resource availability.

B.

help ensure objectives are met.

C.

safeguard corporate assets.

D.

help prevent operational losses.

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Question # 190

Which of the following BEST enables risk mitigation associated with software licensing noncompliance?

A.

Document IT inventory management procedures.

B.

Conduct annual reviews of license expiration dates.

C.

Perform automated vulnerability scans.

D.

Implement automated IT asset management controls.

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Question # 191

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

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Question # 192

An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?

A.

Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement

B.

Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement

C.

Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year

D.

Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control

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Question # 193

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

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Question # 194

Which of the following is the BEST control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT)?

A.

Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls

B.

Conducting regular penetration tests

C.

Monitoring social media activities

D.

Implementing automated log monitoring

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Question # 195

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

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Question # 196

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

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Question # 197

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

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Question # 198

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

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Question # 199

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:

A.

resources to monitor backups

B.

restoration monitoring reports

C.

backup recovery requests

D.

recurring restore failures

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Question # 200

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization ' s risk culture?

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Question # 201

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

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Question # 202

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization ' s risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Question # 203

A vendor ' s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

A.

IT infrastructure manager

B.

Chief Risk Officer (CRO)

C.

Business continuity manager

D.

Business application owner

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Question # 204

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

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Question # 205

Management has determined that it will take significant time to remediate exposures in the current IT control environment. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Implement control monitoring.

B.

Improve project management methodology.

C.

Reassess the risk periodically.

D.

Identify compensating controls.

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Question # 206

Which of The following is the MOST comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the effects of system downtime?

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results

B.

Recovery lime objective (RTO)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

results Recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 207

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

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Question # 208

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization ' s IT asset life cycle is poorly managed?

A.

Increased hardware maintenance costs

B.

Sensitive data found on discarded devices

C.

Lack of asset labeling

D.

Inadequate employee training

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Question # 209

Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization ' s risk appetite?

A.

Comparison against regulations

B.

Maturity of the risk culture

C.

Capacity to withstand loss

D.

Cost of risk mitigation options

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Question # 210
A.

In the design phase.

B.

During pre-production testing.

C.

Once in the production environment.

D.

Throughout development.

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Question # 211

The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:

A.

risk scenarios.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk policy.

D.

risk appetite.

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Question # 212

Which of The following should be of GREATEST concern for an organization considering the adoption of a bring your own device (BYOD) initiative?

A.

Device corruption

B.

Data loss

C.

Malicious users

D.

User support

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Question # 213

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities?

A.

Temporarily mitigate the OS vulnerabilities

B.

Document and implement a patching process

C.

Evaluate permanent fixes such as patches and upgrades

D.

Identify the vulnerabilities and applicable OS patches

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Question # 214

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization ' s key IT applications in a cloud environment?

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider ' s data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

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Question # 215

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Question # 216

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?

A.

Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.

B.

Operational staff perform control self-assessments.

C.

Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit

D.

analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.

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Question # 217

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Question # 218

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

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Question # 219

A user has contacted the risk practitioner regarding malware spreading laterally across the organization ' s corporate network. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

A.

Review all log files generated during the period of malicious activity.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Notify the cybersecurity incident response team.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 220

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

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Question # 221

An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner ' s PRIMARY role during the change?

A.

Managing third-party risk

B.

Developing risk scenarios

C.

Managing the threat landscape

D.

Updating risk appetite

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Question # 222

Which of the following BEST mitigates reputational risk associated with disinformation campaigns against an organization?

A.

Monitoring digital platforms that disseminate inaccurate or misleading news stories

B.

Engaging public relations personnel to debunk false stories and publications

C.

Restricting the use of social media on corporate networks during specific hours

D.

Providing awareness training to understand and manage these types of attacks

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Question # 223

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

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Question # 224

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

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Question # 225

A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be

disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local

regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s

BEST course of action?

A.

The application code has not been version controlled.

B.

Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.

C.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

D.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

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Question # 226

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization ' s risk profile?

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

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Question # 227

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

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Question # 228

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Question # 229

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of IT policies? The number of:

A.

IT policy exceptions granted.

B.

Senior management approvals.

C.

Key technology controls covered by IT policies.

D.

Processes covered by IT policies.

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Question # 230

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

A.

Organization ' s industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Question # 231

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 232

Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?

A.

Average time to grant access privileges

B.

Number of changes in access granted to users

C.

Average number of access privilege exceptions

D.

Number and type of locked obsolete accounts

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Question # 233

Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?

A.

Maturity of the enterprise architecture

B.

Cost of control implementation

C.

Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 234

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

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Question # 235

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

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Question # 236

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

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Question # 237

An application runs a scheduled job that compiles financial data from multiple business systems and updates the financial reporting system. If this job runs too long, it can delay financial reporting. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation?

A.

Implement database activity and capacity monitoring.

B.

Ensure the business is aware of the risk.

C.

Ensure the enterprise has a process to detect such situations.

D.

Consider providing additional system resources to this job.

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Question # 238

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

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Question # 239

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 240

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management ' s response?

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

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Question # 241

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 242

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

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Question # 243

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

A.

Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.

B.

Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.

C.

Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.

D.

Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.

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Question # 244

During an internal IT audit, an active network account belonging to a former employee was identified. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Conduct a comprehensive review of access management processes.

B.

Declare a security incident and engage the incident response team.

C.

Conduct a comprehensive awareness session for system administrators.

D.

Evaluate system administrators ' technical skills to identify if training is required.

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Question # 245

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

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Question # 246

A risk practitioner learns of an urgent threat intelligence alert to patch a critical vulnerability identified in the organization ' s operating system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Patch the operating system immediately

B.

Determine whether any active attacks are exploiting the vulnerability

C.

Invoke the organization ' s incident response plan

D.

Evaluate the threat in the context of the organization ' s IT environment

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Question # 247

An organization has recently updated its disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk if the new plan is not tested?

A.

External resources may need to be involved.

B.

Data privacy regulations may be violated.

C.

Recovery costs may increase significantly.

D.

Service interruptions may be longer than anticipated.

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Question # 248

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

A.

Key procedure control gaps

B.

Business objectives

C.

Senior management ' s risk appetite

D.

Hypothetical scenarios

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Question # 249

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

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Question # 250

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Question # 251

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?

A.

Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register

C.

Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls

D.

Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards

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Question # 252

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

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Question # 253

A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.

B.

suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.

C.

revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.

D.

evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.

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Question # 254

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Evaluate the organization ' s existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

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Question # 255

Which of the following observations should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner assessing a third-party service provider for privacy risk?

A.

Appropriate privacy training and awareness campaigns are not conducted for employees

B.

The provider subcontracts part of the service to a fourth party

C.

Contractual language for handling personally identifiable information (PII) is not defined.

D.

The roles and responsibilities associated with data governance are not well defined

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Question # 256

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

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Question # 257

Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?

A.

Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.

B.

Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.

C.

Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.

D.

Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 258

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

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Question # 259

An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

impact on network performance

C.

insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

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Question # 260

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Risk scenario analysis

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Question # 261

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers ' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

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Question # 262

An organization ' s finance team is proposing the adoption of a blockchain technology to provide a secure method for moving funds. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Recommend permissionless blockchain.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Recommend permissioned blockchain.

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Question # 263

An organization ' s business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Question # 264

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

A.

The effectiveness of compensating controls

B.

The enterprise ' s capacity to absorb loss

C.

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

D.

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

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Question # 265

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Question # 266

Where should a risk practitioner document the current state and desired future state of organizational risk?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk action plan

C.

Risk management strategy

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Question # 267

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Question # 268

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

B.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

C.

Date and status of the last project milestone

D.

The individuals assigned ownership of controls

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Question # 269

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Question # 270

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when determining if a specific control should be implemented?

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Attribute analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 271

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

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Question # 272

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

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Question # 273

Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?

A.

Application controls are manual.

B.

Application development is outsourced.

C.

Source code is escrowed.

D.

Developers have access to production environment.

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Question # 274

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line of defense in the three lines of defense model?

A.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

B.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

C.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

D.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

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Question # 275

A vendor’s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

A.

Business application owner

B.

Business continuity manager

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

IT infrastructure manager

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Question # 276

Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Business objectives

C.

The organization ' s risk framework

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 277

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the effectiveness of an organization ' s disaster recovery program?

A.

Percentage of applications subject to disaster recovery tests

B.

Number of personnel dedicated to the disaster recovery program

C.

Number of disaster recovery tests performed per year

D.

Percentage of systems meeting defined recovery objectives

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Question # 278

What would be a risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation when several key performance indicators (KPIs) for a control process fail to meet service level agreements (SLAs)?

A.

Adjust the process KPI threshold.

B.

Develop an IT risk response plan.

C.

Review the organization ' s IT risk profile.

D.

Review process efficiency.

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Question # 279

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate risk assessments to senior management?

A.

To ensure actions can be taken to align assessment results to risk appetite

B.

To ensure key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds can be adjusted for tolerance

C.

To ensure awareness of risk and controls is shared with key decision makers

D.

To ensure the maturity of the assessment program can be validated

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Question # 280

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?

A.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed

B.

Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding

C.

Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities

D.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed

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Question # 281

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?

A.

Threat landscape

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk register

D.

Risk metrics

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Question # 282

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

KRI design must precede definition of KCIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs are independent indicators and do not impact each other.

C.

A decreasing trend of KRI readings will lead to changes to KCIs.

D.

Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk.

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Question # 283

What is the PRIMARY reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process?

A.

To eliminate risk associated with personnel

B.

To reduce internal threats

C.

To ensure new hires have the required skills

D.

To reduce exposure to vulnerabilities

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Question # 284

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure disaster recovery staff members

are able to complete their assigned tasks effectively during a disaster?

A.

Performing parallel disaster recovery testing

B.

Documenting the order of system and application restoration

C.

Involving disaster recovery staff members in risk assessments

D.

Conducting regular tabletop exercises and scenario analysis

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Question # 285

When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?

A.

Demonstration that the control is operating as designed

B.

A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment

C.

Management attestation that the control is operating effectively

D.

Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced

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Question # 286

An organization ' s financial analysis department uses an in-house forecasting application for business projections. Who is responsible for defining access roles to protect the sensitive data within this application?

A.

IT risk manager

B.

IT system owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business owner

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Question # 287

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to integrate IT risk management practices into the enterprise-wide operational risk management framework?

A.

To reduce conflicts of interest between IT and non-IT business units

B.

To align the operational risk management framework with regulatory requirements

C.

To optimize the efficiency of enterprise-wide risk management resources

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are reflected in the corporate risk profile

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Question # 288

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

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Question # 289

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST appropriate course of action upon learning that an organization is not compliant with its patch management policy?

A.

Document the concern in an issue tracker.

B.

Strengthen data loss prevention (DLP) controls.

C.

Apply the most recent available patches.

D.

Escalate the issue to the ethics committee.

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Question # 290

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for monitoring activities performed in a production database environment?

A.

Ensuring that database changes are correctly applied

B.

Enforcing that changes are authorized

C.

Deterring illicit actions of database administrators

D.

Preventing system developers from accessing production data

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Question # 291

Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Implementing control activities

B.

Monitoring control effectiveness

C.

Conducting control self-assessments

D.

Owning risk scenarios

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Question # 292

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Systems log correlation analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts

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Question # 293

An organization is considering modifying its system to enable acceptance of credit card payments. To reduce the risk of data exposure, which of the following should the organization do FIRST?

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Update the security strategy.

C.

Implement additional controls.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 294

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing an initial set of risk scenarios for an organization?

A.

Refer to industry standard scenarios.

B.

Use a top-down approach.

C.

Consider relevant business activities.

D.

Use a bottom-up approach.

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Question # 295

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Question # 296

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

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Question # 297

In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?

A.

Implementation

B.

Development

C.

Design

D.

Feasibility

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Question # 298

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 299

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

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Question # 300

Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?

A.

Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.

B.

Adjust inherent risk levels upward.

C.

Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.

D.

Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.

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Question # 301

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)

B.

Quantum computing

C.

Virtual reality (VR)

D.

Machine learning

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Question # 302

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

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Question # 303

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

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Question # 304

Risk mitigation procedures should include:

A.

buying an insurance policy.

B.

acceptance of exposures

C.

deployment of counter measures.

D.

enterprise architecture implementation.

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Question # 305

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Question # 306

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

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Question # 307

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization ' s access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?

A.

After the initial design

B.

Before production rollout

C.

After a few weeks in use

D.

Before end-user testing

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Question # 308

Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?

A.

Review risk governance

B.

Asset identification

C.

Identify risk factors

D.

Inherent risk identification

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Question # 309

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Question # 310

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization ' s risk appetite?

A.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.

C.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Developing contingency plans for key processes.

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Question # 311

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with users inputting incorrect data into a system?

A.

Sequence check

B.

Tool tips

C.

User training

D.

Allowed values

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Question # 312

When an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP) has a reciprocal agreement, which of the following risk treatment options is being applied?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoidance

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Question # 313

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for communicating an organization’s risk level to senior management?

A.

A list of organizational threats

B.

A high-level risk map

C.

Specialized risk publications

D.

A list of organizational vulnerabilities

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Question # 314

A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?

A.

Business analyst

B.

Project sponsor

C.

IT project team

D.

IT project management office (PMO)

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Question # 315

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization ' s risk appetite.

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Question # 316

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Question # 317

Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?

A.

Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.

B.

Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable

C.

Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.

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Question # 318

An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:

A.

a recognized industry control framework

B.

guidance provided by the external auditor

C.

the service provider ' s existing controls

D.

The organization ' s specific control requirements

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Question # 319

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit when senior management periodically reviews and updates risk appetite and tolerance levels?

A.

It ensures compliance with the risk management framework.

B.

It ensures an effective risk aggregation process.

C.

It ensures decisions are risk-informed.

D.

It ensures a consistent approach for risk assessments.

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Question # 320

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

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Question # 321

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Question # 322

Which of the following controls BEST enables an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory?

A.

Prohibiting the use of personal devices for business

B.

Performing network scanning for unknown devices

C.

Requesting an asset list from business owners

D.

Documenting asset configuration baselines

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Question # 323

A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

A.

Internal audit

B.

Control owner

C.

Senior management

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 324

During a data loss incident, which role in the RACI chart would be aligned to the risk practitioner?

A.

Responsible

B.

Accountable

C.

Informed

D.

Consulted

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Question # 325

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

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Question # 326

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of developing information security metrics?

A.

Raising security awareness

B.

Enabling continuous improvement

C.

Identifying security threats

D.

Ensuring regulatory compliance

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Question # 327

Which of the following BEST indicates whether security awareness training is effective?

A.

User self-assessment

B.

User behavior after training

C.

Course evaluation

D.

Quality of training materials

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Question # 328

An organization has implemented a system capable of comprehensive employee monitoring. Which of the following should direct how the system is used?

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Employee code of conduct

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Organizational policy

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Question # 329

While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:

A.

control is ineffective and should be strengthened

B.

risk is inefficiently controlled.

C.

risk is efficiently controlled.

D.

control is weak and should be removed.

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Question # 330

Which of the following statements in an organization ' s current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?

A.

Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.

B.

New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.

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Question # 331

Which of the following would be MOST effective in monitoring changes in an organization ' s IT risk environment?

A.

Lagging indicators

B.

Risk mitigation plans

C.

Industry regulatory reports

D.

Risk inventory

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Question # 332

Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities

B.

Determining attack likelihood per business unit

C.

Adjusting business unit risk tolerances

D.

Customizing incident response plans for each business unit

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Question # 333

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of analyzing control effectiveness during risk analysis?

A.

To enable a control cost-benefit analysis

B.

To evaluate the risk impact

C.

To determine the likelihood of occurrence

D.

To determine the current risk level

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Question # 334

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

A.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.

B.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.

D.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.

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Question # 335

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

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Question # 336

A risk practitioner has been tasked with conducting a risk identification workshop with stakeholders to compile an IT risk profile. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in the brainstorming phase of this exercise?

A.

List of issues and events from the risk register.

B.

Internal audit reports with adverse findings.

C.

IT control assessment results and trends.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) outside of appetite.

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Question # 337

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

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Question # 338

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor ' s control environment?

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor ' s recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

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Question # 339

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization ' s risk tolerance and appetite?

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Question # 340

Which of the following would be the GREATEST challenge when implementing a corporate risk framework for a global organization?

A.

Privacy risk controls

B.

Business continuity

C.

Risk taxonomy

D.

Management support

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Question # 341

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line in the three lines model?

A.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

B.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

C.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

D.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

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Question # 342

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization ' s account provisioning process?

A.

User provisioning

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Security log monitoring

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Question # 343

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 344

A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?

A.

Monitoring of service costs

B.

Provision of internal audit reports

C.

Notification of sub-contracting arrangements

D.

Confidentiality of customer data

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Question # 345

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk owner when making risk-aware decisions?

A.

Risk exposure expressed in business terms

B.

Recommendations for risk response options

C.

Resource requirements for risk responses

D.

List of business areas affected by the risk

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Question # 346

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Question # 347

Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization ' s risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:

A.

is in charge of information security.

B.

is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

can implement remediation action plans.

D.

is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.

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Question # 348

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Question # 349

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of engaging key stakeholders in the IT risk assessment process?

A.

Reducing the time required for risk analysis

B.

Increasing the quality of analysis

C.

Building a risk aware culture

D.

Ensuring proper budget allocation for risk remediation

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Question # 350

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk map with stakeholders?

A.

Consolidates risk response options by severity

B.

Aligns risk appetite with business objectives

C.

Correlates risk scenarios to risk appetite

D.

Defines an organizational risk taxonomy

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Question # 351

Which of the following is MOST helpful to understand the consequences of an IT risk event?

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Historical trend analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 352

Which of the following should be management ' s PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

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Question # 353

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?

A.

Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization

B.

Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management

C.

Ensuring senior management ' s primary focus is on the impact of identified risk

D.

Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers

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Question # 354

During a risk assessment of a financial institution, a risk practitioner discovers that tellers can initiate and approve transactions of significant value. This team is also responsible for ensuring transactions are recorded and balances are reconciled by the end of the day. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated risk?

A.

Implement continuous monitoring.

B.

Require a second level of approval.

C.

Implement separation of duties.

D.

Require a code of ethics.

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Question # 355

To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:

A.

continuously monitor the environment.

B.

develop key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

maintain a risk matrix.

D.

maintain a risk register.

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Question # 356

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

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Question # 357

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

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Question # 358

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 359

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the first line of defense with respect to information security policies?

A.

Draft the information security policy.

B.

Approve the information security policy.

C.

Audit the implementation of the information security policy.

D.

Implement controls in response to the policy requirements.

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Question # 360

An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?

A.

Develop new loT risk scenarios.

B.

Implement loT device monitoring software.

C.

Introduce controls to the new threat environment.

D.

Engage external security reviews.

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Question # 361

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

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Question # 362

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan ' s implementation?

A.

Increased number of controls

B.

Reduced risk level

C.

Increased risk appetite

D.

Stakeholder commitment

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Question # 363

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

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Question # 364

Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

A.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

B.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

C.

Updating remote desktop software

D.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

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Question # 365

An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

A.

Security control owners based on control failures

B.

Cyber risk remediation plan owners

C.

Risk owners based on risk impact

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

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Question # 366

Which of the following BEST protects an organization against breaches when using a software as a service (SaaS) application?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Security information and event management (SIEM) solutions

C.

Data privacy impact assessment (DPIA)

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP) tools

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Question # 367

When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?

A.

Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR

B.

Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.

C.

Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.

D.

Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.

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Question # 368

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

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Question # 369

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with outsourcing network management to an external vendor who will have access to sensitive information assets?

A.

Prepare a skills matrix to illustrate tasks and required expertise.

B.

Require periodic security assessments of the vendor within the contract.

C.

Perform due diligence to enable holistic assessment of the vendor.

D.

Plan a phased approach for the transition of processes to the vendor.

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Question # 370

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of creating an organizational code of conduct?

A.

Clear expectations for employee behavior

B.

Identification of ethical risk facing the organization

C.

Improvement in workforce productivity

D.

Enhanced integrity of management

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Question # 371

A data privacy regulation has been revised to incorporate more stringent requirements for personal data protection. Which of the following provides the MOST important input to help ensure compliance with the revised regulation?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Current control attestation

C.

Risk profile update

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 372
A.

Conduct targeted risk assessments.

B.

Recommend management accept the low risk scenarios.

C.

Assess management ' s risk tolerance.

D.

Propose mitigating controls.

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Question # 373

Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?

A.

Clear understanding of the risk

B.

Comparable industry risk trends

C.

Appropriate resources

D.

Detailed standards and procedures

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Question # 374

In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?

A.

Potential benefits from use of Al solutions

B.

Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions

C.

Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions

D.

Skills required to support Al solutions

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Question # 375

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 376

Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?

A.

Batch job failure monitoring

B.

Periodic network scanning

C.

Annual penetration testing

D.

Risk assessments

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Question # 377

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk officers

C.

Line management

D.

Senior management

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Question # 378

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

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Question # 379

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

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Question # 380

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Question # 381

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

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Question # 382

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a recovery point objective (RPO)?

A.

Latency of the alternate site

B.

Amount of acceptable data loss

C.

Time and resources for offsite backups

D.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan (BCP)

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Question # 383

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization ' s disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Risk scenarios used for the plan were last tested two years ago.

B.

The IT steering committee determined the application recovery priorities.

C.

The disaster recovery plan (DRP) does not identify a hot site.

D.

The call list in the plan was last updated a year ago.

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Question # 384

Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?

A.

Comparing the remediation cost against budget

B.

Assessing changes in residual risk

C.

Assessing the inherent risk

D.

Monitoring changes of key performance indicators(KPIs)

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Question # 385

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

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Question # 386

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization ' s strategic planning?

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

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Question # 387

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

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Question # 388

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Question # 389

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization ' s disaster recovery plan (DRP) will mitigate the risk of the organization failing to recover from a major service disruption?

A.

An experienced and certified disaster recovery team

B.

A record of quarterly disaster recovery tests

C.

A comprehensive list of critical applications

D.

A defined recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 390

Which of the following BEST measures the efficiency of an incident response process?

A.

Number of incidents escalated to management

B.

Average time between changes and updating of escalation matrix

C.

Average gap between actual and agreed response times

D.

Number of incidents lacking responses

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Question # 391

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?

A.

Perform a penetration test.

B.

Review security logs.

C.

Conduct a threat analysis.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Question # 392

When determining the accuracy of a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the indicator:

A.

is correlated to risk and tracks variances in the risk.

B.

is assigned to IT processes and projects with a low level of risk.

C.

has a high correlation with the process outcome.

D.

triggers response based on risk thresholds.

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Question # 393

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action when an organization plans to adopt a cloud computing strategy?

A.

Request a budget for implementation

B.

Conduct a threat analysis.

C.

Create a cloud computing policy.

D.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 394

A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar:

A.

risk score

B.

risk impact

C.

risk response

D.

risk likelihood.

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Question # 395

Which of the following is MOST important for ensuring anonymous reporting of non-compliant activity?

A.

Implementing homomorphic encryption.

B.

Establishing an employee feedback channel.

C.

Establishing a dedicated compliance function.

D.

Implementing an incentive program.

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Question # 396

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?

A.

Costs and benefits

B.

Local laws and regulations

C.

Security features and support

D.

Business strategies and needs

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Question # 397

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

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Question # 398

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to link an effective key control indicator (KCI) to relevant key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

To monitor changes in the risk environment

B.

To provide input to management for the adjustment of risk appetite

C.

To monitor the accuracy of threshold levels in metrics

D.

To obtain business buy-in for investment in risk mitigation measures

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Question # 399

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Question # 400

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to determine if a risk factor exceeds risk tolerance?

A.

Review the risk profile.

B.

Conduct a gap analysis.

C.

Monitor changes in external risk factors.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 401

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of a well-defined risk event?

A.

Forensic investigations include chain-of-custody requirements

B.

Impact analyses include annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Incident response plans include recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Critical systems include key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 402

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increased volume of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Hot backup site

B.

Transaction limits

C.

Scalable infrastructure

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Question # 403

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization ' s cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization ' s systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization ' s board.

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Question # 404

Avoiding a business activity removes the need to determine:

A.

systemic risk

B.

residual risk

C.

inherent risk

D.

control risk

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Question # 405

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Question # 406

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

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Question # 407

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner ' s MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

A.

Implement a replacement control.

B.

Adjust residual risk rating.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Review compensating controls.

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Question # 408

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization ' s risk appetite?

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

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Question # 409

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

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Question # 410
A.

Business information security officer

B.

Service level manager

C.

Business process manager

D.

Data center operations manager

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Question # 411

A key risk indicator (KRI) indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Determine changes in the risk level.

B.

Outsource the vulnerability management process.

C.

Review the patch management process.

D.

Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting.

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Question # 412

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 413

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

A.

Ongoing availability of data

B.

Ability to aggregate data

C.

Ability to predict trends

D.

Availability of automated reporting systems

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Question # 414

When reviewing management ' s IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Assess management ' s risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

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Question # 415

Which of the following is MOST important when creating a program to reduce ethical risk?

A.

Defining strict policies

B.

Developing an organizational communication plan

C.

Conducting a gap analysis

D.

Obtaining senior management commitment

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Question # 416

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

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Question # 417

Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?

A.

Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls

B.

Considering risk that can be shared with a third party

C.

Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios

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Question # 418

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to an organization when using a public AI system to process credit card transactions?

A.

Potential exposure of sensitive information

B.

Use of financial data to train the AI model

C.

Noncompliance with security standards

D.

AI hallucinations and bias

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Question # 419

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 420

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

A.

Enabling risk-aware decisions

B.

Promoting a risk-aware culture

C.

Improving security governance

D.

Reducing residual risk

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Question # 421

The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:

A.

is updated based upon significant events.

B.

documents possible countermeasures.

C.

contains the risk assessment completion date.

D.

is regularly audited.

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Question # 422

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

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Question # 423

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

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Question # 424

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

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Question # 425

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the third line of defense?

A.

Providing assurance of the effectiveness of risk management activities

B.

Providing guidance on the design of effective controls

C.

Providing advisory services on enterprise risk management (ERM)

D.

Providing benchmarking on other organizations ' risk management programs

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Question # 426

An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT security manager

C.

IT system owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 427

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

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Question # 428

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 429

An organization is planning to outsource its payroll function to an external service provider Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when selecting the provider?

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP) of the system

B.

Right to audit the provider

C.

Internal controls to ensure data privacy

D.

Transparency of key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 430

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise ' s requirements?

A.

involve IT leadership in the policy development process

B.

Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises

C.

involve business owners in the pokey development process

D.

Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority

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Question # 431

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

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Question # 432

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

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Question # 433

Which of the following situations reflects residual risk?

A.

Risk that is present before risk acceptance has been finalized

B.

Risk that is removed after a risk acceptance has been finalized

C.

Risk that is present before mitigation controls have been applied

D.

Risk that remains after mitigation controls have been applied

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Question # 434

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

A.

How severe the vulnerability is across the industry

B.

Whether the affected technology is internet-facing

C.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

D.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

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Question # 435

Which of the following is a detective control?

A.

Limit check

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Access control software

D.

Rerun procedures

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Question # 436

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization ' s risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

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Question # 437

A compensating control is MOST appropriate when:

A.

Management wants to increase the number of controls.

B.

A vulnerability is identified.

C.

Existing controls are inadequate.

D.

A key control is already in place and operating effectively.

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Question # 438

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Question # 439

Technical controls affecting access permissions for systems should be implemented according to:

A.

Integration testing requirements.

B.

Separation of duties.

C.

Configuration baselines.

D.

Contingency scenarios.

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Question # 440

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when preparing a summary of current IT risk for senior management review?

A.

Changes in risk mitigation plans

B.

Resolution status of audit findings

C.

Areas of elevated risk

D.

Industry risk management benchmarks

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Question # 441

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization ' s inventory system?

A.

Poor access control

B.

Unnecessary data storage usage

C.

Data inconsistency

D.

Unnecessary costs of program changes

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Question # 442

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

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Question # 443

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 444

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

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Question # 445

A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?

A.

Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology

B.

Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.

C.

Establish IT-specific compliance objectives

D.

Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers

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Question # 446

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

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Question # 447

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization ' s overall IT control environment?

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Risk heat maps

C.

Internal audit findings

D.

Periodic penetration testing

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Question # 448

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Question # 449

A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be

used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?

A.

The business owner

B.

The ERP administrator

C.

The project steering committee

D.

The IT project manager

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Question # 450

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis

C.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers

D.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 451

A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization ' s risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?

A.

Re-evaluate the organization ' s risk appetite.

B.

Outsource the cybersecurity function.

C.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

D.

Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.

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Question # 452

Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?

A.

Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies

B.

Creation of a cloud access risk management policy

C.

Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution

D.

Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services

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Question # 453

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

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Question # 454

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

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Question # 455

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization ' s end-user devices?

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Question # 456

A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?

A.

Code review

B.

Penetration test

C.

Gap assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 457

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization ' s technical environment?

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

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Question # 458

Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:

A.

Set performance expectations for controls.

B.

Align with key business objectives.

C.

Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.

D.

Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.

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Question # 459

A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?

A.

IT system owner

B.

Chief financial officer

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 460

An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?

A.

Transborder data transfer restrictions

B.

Differences in regional standards

C.

Lack of monitoring over vendor activities

D.

Lack of after-hours incident management support

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Question # 461

A vendor ' s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

A.

Business continuity manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

IT infrastructure manager

D.

Business application owner

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Question # 462

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?

A.

End user

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Data owner

D.

Data custodian

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Question # 463

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.

B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.

C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.

D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.

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Question # 464

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

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Question # 465

Which of the following functions independently reviews and provides feedback regarding the achievement of organizational objectives?

A.

Risk management

B.

Internal audit

C.

IT governance

D.

Senior leadership

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Question # 466

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

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Question # 467

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 468

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization ' s risk appetite changes?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk reporting methodology

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk taxonomy

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Question # 469

An organization ' s risk tolerance should be defined and approved by which of the following?

A.

The chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

The board of directors

C.

The chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 470

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to compare the business impact analysis (BIA) against the organization ' s business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

The results of the BIA quantify the BCP objectives and supporting technology for each operational area.

B.

The BCP provides detailed information on alternative facilities to use in case of business interruptions.

C.

The results of the BIA quantify the cost of the technology environment needed to restart each operational area.

D.

The BCP provides the backup and restoration procedures to follow in case of business interruptions.

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Question # 471

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

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Question # 472

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

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Question # 473

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when reporting changes to an organization ' s risk profile to executive management?

A.

Risk management resources

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Cyberattack threats

D.

Risk trends

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Question # 474

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

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Question # 475

Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

A.

Cloud service provider

B.

IT department

C.

Senior management

D.

Business unit owner

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Question # 476

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

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Question # 477

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

A.

Avoidance

B.

Acceptance

C.

Mitigation

D.

Transfer

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Question # 478

Which of the following describes the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

A.

Risk appetite is completely independent of risk tolerance.

B.

Risk tolerance is used to determine risk appetite.

C.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance are synonymous.

D.

Risk tolerance may exceed risk appetite.

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Question # 479

An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Policy violation

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Question # 480

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

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Question # 481

Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?

A.

Control standard operating procedures

B.

Latest security assessment

C.

Current security threat report

D.

Updated risk register

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Question # 482

The BEST way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to:

A.

conduct an audit of files stored offsite.

B.

interview employees to compare actual with expected procedures.

C.

inspect a selection of audit trails and backup logs.

D.

demonstrate a successful recovery from backup files.

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Question # 483

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

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Question # 484

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization’s software testing program?

A.

Average time to complete software test cases

B.

Percentage of applications with defined business cases

C.

Number of incidents resulting from software changes

D.

Percentage of staff completing software development training

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Question # 485

Which of the following is MOST helpful in reducing the likelihood of inaccurate risk assessment results?

A.

Involving relevant stakeholders in the risk assessment process

B.

Updating organizational risk tolerance levels

C.

Reviewing the applicable risk assessment methodologies

D.

Having internal audit validate control effectiveness

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Question # 486

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

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Question # 487

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

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Question # 488

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

A.

Risk and control ownership

B.

Senior management participation

C.

Business unit support

D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy

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Question # 489

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?

A.

Utilization of a cross-functional team

B.

Participation by IT subject matter experts

C.

Integration of contingency planning

D.

Validation by senior management

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Question # 490

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations.

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis.

C.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers.

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Question # 491

A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:

A.

develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client ' s decision

B.

make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation

C.

insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers

D.

ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider

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Question # 492

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 493

Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?

A.

Review the business impact analysis.

B.

Create a business continuity plan.

C.

Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.

D.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

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Question # 494

A risk practitioner ' s BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

Aligned with risk management capabilities.

B.

Based on industry trends.

C.

Related to probable events.

D.

Mapped to incident response plans.

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Question # 495

An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?

A.

Number of business change management requests

B.

Number of revisions to security policy

C.

Number of security policy exceptions approved

D.

Number of changes to firewall rules

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Question # 496

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Question # 497

Following the implementation of an Internet of Things (loT) solution, a risk practitioner identifies new risk factors with impact to existing controls. Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to stakeholders?

A.

Identified vulnerabilities

B.

Business managers ' concerns

C.

Changes to residual risk

D.

Risk strategies of peer organizations

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Question # 498

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Question # 499

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

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Question # 500

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining the appropriate data retention period throughout the data management life cycle?

A.

Data storage and collection methods

B.

Data owner preferences

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Choice of encryption algorithms

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Question # 501

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

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Question # 502

An organization uses a web application hosted by a cloud service that is populated by data sent to the vendor via email on a monthly basis. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the application?

A.

Whether the service provider ' s data center is located in the same country

B.

Whether the data sent by email has been encrypted

C.

Whether the data has been appropriately classified

D.

Whether the service provider contract allows right of onsite audit

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Question # 503

Which of the following should be done FIRST upon learning that the organization will be affected by a new regulation in its industry?

A.

Transfer the risk.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Determine risk appetite for the new regulation.

D.

Implement specific monitoring controls.

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Question # 504

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

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Question # 505

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Question # 506

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to obtain independent reviews of risk assessment and response mechanisms?

A.

To ensure risk thresholds are properly defined

B.

To minimize the subjectivity of risk assessment results

C.

To correct errors in the risk assessment process

D.

To validate impact and probability ratings

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Question # 507

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

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Question # 508

A new software package that could help mitigate risk in an organization has become available. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

A.

Review risk governance policies

B.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Review industry best practices

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 509

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors ' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Question # 510

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

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Question # 511

Identifying which of the following would BEST help an organization define an IT asset ' s criticality?

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Number of business users

C.

The asset ' s end of life status

D.

Business processes

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Question # 512

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

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Question # 513

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

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Question # 514

Which of the following aspects of risk can be transferred to a third party?

A.

Reputation impact

B.

Ownership

C.

Financial impact

D.

Accountability

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Question # 515

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Question # 516

When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:

A.

evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.

C.

address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.

D.

determine which risk factors have high remediation costs

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Question # 517

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 518

A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:

A.

mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.

B.

this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.

C.

the current level of risk is within tolerance.

D.

an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.

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Question # 519

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

A.

It guides management in determining risk appetite.

B.

It provides management with a risk inventory.

C.

It aligns risk scenarios to business objectives.

D.

It monitors the performance of risk and control owners.

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Question # 520

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

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Question # 521

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

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Question # 522

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization ' s risk register?

A.

Limit access to senior management only.

B.

Encrypt the risk register.

C.

Implement role-based access.

D.

Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.

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Question # 523

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

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Question # 524

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?

A.

To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk

B.

To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms

C.

To evaluate threats to the organization ' s operations and strategy

D.

To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy

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Question # 525

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

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Question # 526

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?

A.

Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations

B.

Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios

C.

Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations

D.

Determining capacity for alternate sites

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Question # 527

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Question # 528

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of a control owner?

A.

To make risk-based decisions and own losses

B.

To ensure implemented controls mitigate risk

C.

To approve deviations from controls

D.

To design controls that will eliminate risk

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Question # 529

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

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Question # 530

A risk practitioner ' s BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 531

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Question # 532

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to senior management about risk mitigation status?

A.

Risk strategy

B.

Risk register

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 533

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

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Question # 534

The GREATEST concern when maintaining a risk register is that:

A.

impacts are recorded in qualitative terms.

B.

executive management does not perform periodic reviews.

C.

IT risk is not linked with IT assets.

D.

significant changes in risk factors are excluded.

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Question # 535

An organization does not have a defined process to revoke IT access of staff members who have changed roles within the organization. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with this deficiency?

A.

Noncompliance with the access management policy

B.

Fraudulent insider activities

C.

Misaligned job duties

D.

Inefficient access review processes

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Question # 536

Which of the following provides the BEST protection for Internet of Things (loT) devices that are accessed within an organization?

A.

Identity and access management (IAM)

B.

Comprehensive patching program

C.

Source code reviews

D.

Adoption of a defense-in-depth strategy

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Question # 537

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Question # 538

The BEST reason to classify IT assets during a risk assessment is to determine the:

A.

priority in the risk register.

B.

business process owner.

C.

enterprise risk profile.

D.

appropriate level of protection.

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Question # 539

An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the countrywhere it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?

A.

Analyze data protection methods.

B.

Understand data flows.

C.

Include a right-to-audit clause.

D.

Implement strong access controls.

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Question # 540

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Question # 541

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios?

A.

A change in the risk management policy

B.

A major security incident

C.

A change in the regulatory environment

D.

An increase in intrusion attempts

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Question # 542

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

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Question # 543

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 544

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management ' s risk appetite?

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

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Question # 545

Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?

A.

Inability to access key information

B.

Complex security administration

C.

User resistance to single sign-on

D.

Single point of failure

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Question # 546

Which of the following introduces the GREATEST amount of risk during the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Use of debugging tools

B.

Incorrect firewall configuration

C.

Inability to pass user acceptance tests (UATs)

D.

Untested changes to production

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Question # 547

Which of the following should be reported periodically to the risk committee?

A.

System risk and control matrix

B.

Emerging IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes to risk assessment methodology

D.

Audit committee charter

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Question # 548

An IT manager insists on accepting an IT risk associated with a key business process due to the limited resources available to mitigate. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s MOST important action?

A.

Seek additional resources for risk mitigation.

B.

Document the business rationale for risk acceptance.

C.

Validate the decision with the process owner

D.

Conduct a follow-up business process analysis.

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Question # 549

The BEST indication that risk management is effective is when risk has been reduced to meet:

A.

risk levels.

B.

risk budgets.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk capacity.

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Question # 550

A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?

A.

The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.

B.

The CSA was not sample-based.

C.

The CSA did not test control effectiveness.

D.

The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.

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Question # 551

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

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Question # 552

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

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Question # 553

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

A.

The third party ' s IT operations manager

B.

The organization ' s process owner

C.

The third party ' s chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization ' s risk practitioner

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Question # 554

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?

A.

Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed

B.

Number of successful recovery plan tests

C.

Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection

D.

Percentage of employees who can work remotely

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Question # 555

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for managing emerging risk?

A.

The organization is likely to become prone to continuous disruptive events.

B.

Risk assessment methodologies cannot be applied to emerging risk.

C.

Assumptions about the future state are likely to become invalid.

D.

The number of risk scenarios may become uncontrollably high.

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Question # 556

While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?

A.

Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key

B.

Engaging a third party to validate operational controls

C.

Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor

D.

Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key

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Question # 557

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to aggregate risk assessment results from different business units?

A.

To improve communication of risk to senior management

B.

To compare risk profiles across the business units

C.

To allocate budget for risk management resources

D.

To determine overall impact to the organization

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Question # 558

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization?

A.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework

B.

Enterprise-wide risk awareness training

C.

Robust risk reporting practices

D.

Risk management policies

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Question # 559

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Question # 560

A risk practitioner observes that the fraud detection controls in an online payment system do not perform as expected. Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result?

A.

Impact

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 561

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

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Question # 562

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Question # 563

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

A.

The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

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Question # 564

An IT risk practitioner ' s report includes a treatment plan and projected risk ratings if recommendations are implemented. Once corrective actions are taken by the system owner, which of the following types of risk will the projected risk become?

A.

Control

B.

Inherent

C.

Residual

D.

Compliance

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Question # 565

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?

A.

Stakeholder preferences

B.

Contractual requirements

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Management assertions

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Question # 566

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when identifying and assigning ownership of IT-related risk?

A.

Accountability for control operation

B.

Ability to design controls to mitigate the risk

C.

Accountability for losses due to impact

D.

Span of control within the organization

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Question # 567

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Question # 568

A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

A.

Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.

B.

Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.

C.

Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.

D.

Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.

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Question # 569

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

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Question # 570

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

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Question # 571

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 572

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

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Question # 573

Before selecting a final risk response option for a given risk scenario, management should FIRST:

A.

determine control ownership.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar sized organizations.

C.

evaluate the organization ' s ability to implement the solution.

D.

determine the remediation timeline.

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Question # 574

Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?

A.

Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle

B.

Implementing loT device software monitoring

C.

Performing periodic risk assessments of loT

D.

Performing secure code reviews

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Question # 575

Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?

A.

Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment

B.

Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access

C.

Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers

D.

Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing

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Question # 576

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Cryptocurrency reserve

C.

Data backups

D.

End user training

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Question # 577

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance

B.

Risk framework and methodology

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Risk communication plan

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Question # 578

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

A.

align IT processes with business objectives.

B.

communicate the enterprise risk management policy.

C.

stay current with existing control status.

D.

understand the organizational risk profile.

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Question # 579

Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?

A.

KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.

C.

KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.

D.

KCIs provide input for KRIs

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Question # 580

The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:

A.

document the risk universe of the organization.

B.

promote an understanding of risk across the organization.

C.

enable well-informed risk management decisions.

D.

identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.

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Question # 581

Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?

A.

IT compliance and IT audit

B.

Regulators and shareholders

C.

The board and executive management

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

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Question # 582

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Question # 583

An engineer has been assigned to conduct data restoration after a server storage failure. However, the procedure was not successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of this situation?

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Failure to prepare a business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Insufficient data captured in the business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Insufficient definition of the recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 584

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization ' s secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Question # 585

An organization is implementing Internet of Things (IoT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

C.

Insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Impact on network performance

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Question # 586

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider ' s control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider ' s control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

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Question # 587

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?

A.

Cost of risk mitigation

B.

Asset criticality

C.

Acceptable risk level

D.

Business impact assessment

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Question # 588

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

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