Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?
Cost of implementation
Implementation of unproven applications
Disruption to business processes
Increase in attack surface area
An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:
guidance of the risk practitioner.
competence of the staff involved.
approval of senior management.
maturity of its risk culture.
The factor that primarily influences an organization’s capability to implement a risk management framework is the maturity of its risk culture, as it reflects the degree of awareness, understanding, and commitment of the organization’s stakeholders towards the risk management objectives, values, and practices, and affects the adoption and integration of the risk management framework across the organization. The other options are not the primary factors, as they are more related to the guidance, competence, or approval of the risk management framework, respectively, rather than the influence of the risk management framework. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 99.
An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:
immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops
centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled
report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.
procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.
An IT license audit is a process that verifies the compliance of the IT software and hardware assets with the licensing agreements and regulations. An IT license audit can reveal the existence of unlicensed copies of software, which can expose the enterprise to legal, financial, and reputational risks. The best course of action in such a situation is to report the issue to management so that appropriate action can be taken. Management can then decide on the most suitable risk response strategy, such as procuring the necessary licenses, uninstalling the unlicensed software, or negotiating with the software vendor. Reporting the issue to managementcan also help to prevent further violations, identify the root causes, and implement corrective and preventive measures. The other options are not the best course of action, as they may not address the issue effectively, efficiently, or ethically. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?
Proportion of end users having more than one account
Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)
Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts
Percentage of accounts that have not been activated
User Access Management:
Effective user access management ensures that accounts are properly created, managed, and disabled to prevent unauthorized access.
Monitoring the percentage of accounts disabled within the SLA helps ensure that the organization responds promptly to changes in user status, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
Importance of KPI:
This KPI measures the efficiency and effectiveness of the user access management process by tracking how quickly accounts are disabled when no longer needed.
A high percentage indicates timely action, reducing the risk of orphaned accounts being exploited.
Comparing Other KPIs:
Proportion of End Users Having More Than One Account:Useful but not directly related to the timeliness of disabling accounts.
Proportion of Privileged to Non-Privileged Accounts:Important for monitoring privilege distribution but does not measure process efficiency.
Percentage of Accounts Not Activated:Indicates potential inefficiencies but does not address the risk of active accounts.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the importance of timely account management to mitigate access risks (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3 User Access Management).
An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?
The controls may not be properly tested
The vendor will not ensure against control failure
The vendor will not achieve best practices
Lack of a risk-based approach to access control
The greatest concern for the risk practitioner when the potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly self-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits is that the controls may not be properly tested. Self-audits are audits that are performed by the vendor itself, without the involvement of an external or independent party. Self-audits may not be reliable, objective, or consistent, as the vendor may have biases, conflicts of interest, or lack of expertise in auditing its own controls. Self-audits may also not follow the same standards, criteria, or methodologies as independent audits, and may not provide sufficient assurance or evidence of the effectiveness of the controls. The other options are not as concerning as the possibility of improper testing of the controls, as they are related to the outcomes, expectations, or approaches of the controls, not the quality or validity of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 6
An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:
minimize senior management's risk tolerance.
manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.
reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).
are cost-effective to implement
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), an effective control environment is best indicated by controls that manage risk within the organization’s risk appetite, as this reflects the alignment of thecontrol objectives and activities with the organization’s strategic goals and risk preferences. The risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Managing risk within the organization’s risk appetite helps to:
Balance the potential benefits and costs of risk-taking and risk response
Optimize the use of the organization’s resources and capabilities
Enhance the value and performance of the organization
Foster a risk-aware culture that supports the organization’s vision and mission
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Risk Assessment Process, pp. 93-941
The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:
develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy
develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios
identify root causes for relevant events
perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis
Low-probability, high-impact events are those that have a low chance of occurring but would cause significant harm if they do. These events are often difficult to predict and quantify, but they can have a major impact on the organization’s objectives, reputation, or operations. By including these events in a risk assessment, the organization can develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios that reflect the potential consequences of different outcomes1. This can help the organization to prioritize its risk management activities and allocate its resources accordingly.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Assessment Process
A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r
Prepare a business case for the response options.
Identify resources for implementing responses.
Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.
Update the risk register with the results.
The risk practitioner’s next step after identifying risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios in a recent risk workshop is to update the risk register with the results, as it involves documenting and communicating the risk information and decisions, and maintaining the accuracy and completeness of the risk register. Preparing a business case for the response options, identifying resources for implementing responses, and developing a mechanism for monitoring residual risk are possible steps, but they are not the next step, as they require the prior update of the risk register with the new risk information and decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?
User access may be restricted by additional security.
Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.
Security administration may become more complex.
User privilege changes may not be recorded.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, single sign-on (SSO) is a method of authentication that allows a user to access multiple systems or applications with a single set of credentials. SSO can improve user convenience and productivity, but it also introduces some security risks. The greatest concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation is that unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems, as this can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and resources stored on those systems. If an attacker obtains the SSO credentials of a user, either by phishing, malware, or other means, they can Laccess all the systems or applications that the user is authorized for, without any additional authentication or verification. This can expose the organization to various threats, such as data leakage, theft, loss, corruption, manipulation, or misuse2345. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240, 253.
Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?
Brainstorming sessions
Control self-assessments
Vulnerability analysis
Monte Carlo analysis
Brainstorming sessions would best contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios, as they allow participants to generate and share ideas without being constrained by conventional thinking or assumptions. Brainstorming sessions can help to identify risks that are not obvious, not well understood, or not covered by existing controls. Control self-assessments, vulnerability analysis, and Monte Carlo analysis are useful methods for evaluating and quantifying risks, but they are not designed to identify obscure risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 59.
Which of the following is MOST important when considering risk in an enterprise risk management (ERM) process?
Financial risk is given a higher priority.
Risk with strategic impact is included.
Security strategy is given a higher priority.
Risk identified by industry benchmarking is included.
According to the ISACA CRISC Review Manual, an enterprise risk management (ERM) process is a holistic approach to identifying, analyzing, responding to, and monitoring all types of risk that affect the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives. The ERM process should consider all types of risk, including strategic, operational, financial, compliance, and reputational risks. Among these, strategic risks are the most important, as they have the potential to affect the enterprise’s mission, vision, and goals. Therefore, risk with strategic impact should be includedin the ERM process. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 17.
Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?
Batch job failure monitoring
Periodic network scanning
Annual penetration testing
Risk assessments
The best method for identifying vulnerabilities is periodic network scanning. Network scanning is a process of scanning and probing the network devices, systems, and applications to discover and analyze their security weaknesses, such as configuration errors, outdated software, or open ports. Network scanning can help to identify the vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, compromise data, or disrupt services. Periodic network scanning is the best method, because it can provide a regular and comprehensive view of the network security posture, and it can detect and address the new or emerging vulnerabilities in a timely manner. Periodic network scanning can also help to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements and standards for network security, such as the ISO/IEC 27001, the NIST SP 800-53, or the PCI DSS123. The other options are not the best method, although they may be useful or complementary to periodic network scanning. Batch job failure monitoring is a process of monitoring and reporting the failures or errors that occur during the execution of batch jobs, such as data processing, backup, or synchronization. Batch job failure monitoring can help to identify the operational or technical issues that affect the performance or availability of the network services, but it does not directly identify the security vulnerabilities or the potential threats. Annual penetration testing is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network devices, systems, and applications to evaluate their security defenses and resilience. Penetration testing can help to identify and exploit the vulnerabilities that could be used by attackers to compromise the network security, and to provide recommendations for improvement. However, annual penetration testing is not the best method, because it is not frequent or consistent enough to keep up with the changing and evolving network security landscape, and it may not cover all thenetwork components or scenarios. Risk assessments are a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the network devices, systems, and applications. Risk assessments can help to estimate the probability and impact of the vulnerabilities and the threats, and to prioritize and respond to the risks accordingly. However, risk assessments are not the same as or a substitute for vulnerability identification, as they rely on the vulnerability information as an input, rather than an output. References = Vulnerability Testing: Methods, Tools, and 10 Best Practices, ISO/IEC 27001 Information Security Management, NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5
Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?
Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.
Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.
Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.
Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract
Specifying cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract is the most effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud, because it establishes the roles and responsibilities of the cloud service provider and the customer in case of a data breach, and defines the compensation or remediation measures that the cloud service provider should provide. This control also creates an incentive for the cloud service provider to implement adequate security measures to protect the customer’s data and comply with the relevant laws and regulations. The other options are not the most effective controls, although they may also be helpful in reducing the risk of data privacy breaches. Establishing baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider, requiring the cloud service provider to disclose past data privacy breaches, and ensuring the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment are examples of preventive or detective controls that aim to reduce the likelihood or impact of a data breach, but they do not address the accountability or liability of the cloud service provider in case of a data breach. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?
Leading industry frameworks
Business context
Regulatory requirements
IT strategy
A risk taxonomy is a classification or categorization system that defines and organizes the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It includes the risk domains, categories, subcategories, elements, attributes, etc., and the relationships and dependenciesamong them. A risk taxonomy can help the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, and communicate the risks, and to align them with the organization’s strategy and culture.
The most important consideration when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy is the business context, which is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization’s objectives, operations, and performance. It includes the organization’s vision, mission, values, goals, stakeholders, resources, capabilities, processes, systems, etc., as well as the market, industry, regulatory, social, environmental, etc., factors and conditions that affect the organization.
Considering the business context when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy ensures that the risk taxonomy is relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization’s needs and expectations, and that it supports the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to ensure that the risk taxonomy is consistent and compatible with the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions, and that it reflects the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the most important considerations when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the risk taxonomy is suitable and acceptable for the organization.
Leading industry frameworks are the established or recognized models or standards that provide the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. Leading industry frameworks can provide useful references and benchmarks when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s business context, and they may not reflect the organization’s objectives and values.
Regulatory requirements are the rules or obligations that the organization must comply with, as imposed or enforced by the relevant authorities or regulators. Regulatory requirements can provide important inputs and constraints when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be comprehensive or sufficient for the organization’s business context, and they may not support the organization’s objectives and values.
IT strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its IT objectives and to align its IT resources and capabilities with its business objectives and needs. IT strategy canprovide important inputs and alignment when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but it is not the most important consideration, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant risks that may affect the organization’s business context, and it may not reflect the organization’s objectives and values. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 175
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:
reduce the likelihood of future events
restore availability
reduce the impact of future events
address the root cause
Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to reduce the impact of future events, as it will enable the organization to identify and correct the corrupted files before they cause further damage or loss. A file corruption detection tool is a software that scans and verifies the integrity and validity of the files, and alerts the users or administrators of any anomalies or errors. This helps to minimize the disruption and downtime caused by the data corruption incidents, and to preserve the quality and reliability of the data. Implementing a file corruption detection tool will not reduce the likelihood of future events, as it does not prevent or mitigate the causes or sources of the data corruption incidents. It will not restore availability, as it does not recover or restore the corrupted files, but only detects them. It will not address the root cause, as it does not analyze or eliminate the underlying factors that lead to the data corruption incidents. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question215; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 215.
What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?
Flexibility and adaptability
Measurability and consistency
Robustness and resilience
Optimal cost and benefit
Measurability and consistency are the most essential attributes of an effective key control indicator (KCI), because they ensure that the KCI can be quantified, compared, and reported over time. A KCI should be able to measure the performance or effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk and provide consistent results across different periods, sources, and methods. The other options are not the most essential attributes, although they may also be desirable for a KCI. Flexibility and adaptability are not the most essential attributes, because they may compromise the reliability and comparability of the KCI. Robustness and resilience are not the most essential attributes, because they are more relevant for the control itself, not the KCI. Optimal cost and benefit are not the most essential attributes, because they are more related to the value and feasibility of the KCI, not the quality and accuracy of the KCI. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers
Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?
Cable lock
Acceptable use policy
Data encryption
Asset tag with GPS
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a cable lock is a physical security device that attaches a laptop to a fixed object, such as a desk or a wall, to prevent unauthorized removal or theft. A cable lock is the best option to reduce the probability of laptop theft, as it acts as a deterrent and a barrier for potential thieves. A cable lock also helps to protect the confidentiality, integrity, andavailability of the data stored on the laptop, as well as the laptop itself. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 253.
After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?
A decrease in threats
A change in the risk profile
An increase in reported vulnerabilities
An increase in identified risk scenarios
A change in the risk profile would be the most important information to communicate to stakeholders after an annual risk assessment is completed, as it indicates how the risk landscape of the organization has changed over time, and how it affects the achievement of the business goals and objectives. A decrease in threats, an increase in reported vulnerabilities, and an increase in identified risk scenarios are also important information, but they are not the most important, as they are specific aspects of the risk profile, and do not provide a holistic view of the risk exposure and appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?
Service level agreement (SLA)
Critical success factor (CSF)
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Key performance indicator (KPI)
Monitoring the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings during the month-end close process aligns with the definition of a Key Performance Indicator (KPI).
Understanding KPIs:
Performance Measurement:KPIs are used to measure how effectively a company is achieving its key business objectives. Monitoring the average time to complete tasks during the month-end close process provides a performance metric.
Tracking Efficiency:By reporting these findings monthly, management can track the efficiency and performance of the system load capabilities.
Specific Measure:
Task Completion Time:The average time to complete tasks is a specific, measurable indicator of performance. It helps in understanding how well the system handles load and identifies areas for improvement.
Continuous Improvement:Regular monitoring and reporting encourage continuous improvement, which is a core aspect of using KPIs.
Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?
Risk tolerance is decreased.
Residual risk is increased.
Inherent risk is increased.
Risk appetite is decreased
A critical patch is a software update that fixes a security vulnerability or a bug that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of a system or a network. A critical patch implementation is a process that applies the software update to the system or network in a timely and effective manner. The failure of a critical patch implementation is a situation where the software update is not applied or not applied correctly, which may expose the system or networkto various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. The failure of a critical patch implementation would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile by increasing the residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, which means the risk that is not avoided, transferred, or mitigated by the existing controls or measures. The failure of a critical patch implementation would increase the residual risk, as it would reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the existing controls or measures that are supposed to address the security vulnerability or the bug. The failure of a critical patch implementation would also increase the likelihood or impact of the potential threats, as well as the exposure or consequences of the system or network. The other options are not the correct changes that would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation, although they may be affected or related. Risk tolerance is the degree of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is not willing to accept. Risk tolerance may be decreased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become more cautious or conservative in accepting the risk, but it is not a direct or immediate change in the risk profile. Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of any controls or measures, which means the risk that is inherent to the system or network or the environment. Inherent risk may be increased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the system or network may become more vulnerable or susceptible to the threats, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile considers the existing controls or measures. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite may be decreasedby the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become less willing orable to accept the risk, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile reflects the actual or current risk level, not the desired or expected risk level. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 972; What is a Critical Patch? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia4
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?
Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.
Conduct a compliance check against standards.
Perform a vulnerability assessment.
Measure the change in inherent risk.
A business system is a set of interconnected processes, functions, or activities that support the operations and objectives of a business1. A security gap is a weakness or flaw in a business system that can be exploited by a threat to cause harm or gain unauthorized access2. A control is a measure or mechanism that reduces the likelihood or impact of a security gap or threat3.
The best way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system is to perform a vulnerability assessment. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the security gaps and threats in a business system, and testing the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls that are implemented to address them. A vulnerability assessment can help to:
Measure and compare the current and desired state of the security posture and performance of the business system
Detect and prioritize the most critical and urgent security gaps and threats that may compromise the business system or its objectives
Validate and validate the adequacy and reliability of the new controls and their ability to prevent, detect, or respond to security incidents or breaches
Provide feedback and recommendations for improving the security of the business system and enhancing the security awareness and culture of the organization
References = What is a Business System?, What is a Security Gap?, What is a Control?, [What is a Vulnerability Assessment?], [Vulnerability Assessment: A Guide for Business Leaders]
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?
To enable risk-based decision making
To promote awareness of the risk governance function
To clarify fundamental risk management principles
To ensure sufficient resources are available
The primary objective of a risk awareness training program is to enable risk-based decision making, which means making decisions that take into account the potential risks and opportunities associated with each option. A risk awareness training program should aim to develop a common understanding of risk across multiple functions and business units, achieve a better understanding of risk for competitive advantage, and build safeguards against earnings-related surprises1. A risk awareness training program should also cover the basics of risk management, such as the risk management process, the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders, the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and the tools and techniques for identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating risks234. A risk awareness training program should also include practical examples and case studies to illustrate how risk management can beapplied in different scenarios and contexts5. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.11: Risk Awareness, pp. 34-354
Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Verifying that project objectives are met
Identifying project cost overruns
Leveraging an independent review team
Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix
The most important activity when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is to verify that the project objectives are met. The project objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the project aims to achieve. By verifying that the project objectives are met, the post-implementation review can evaluate the success and value of the project, and identify the lessons learned and best practices for future projects. Identifying project cost overruns, leveraging an independent review team, and reviewing the project initiation risk matrix are other possible activities, but they are not as important as verifying that the project objectives are met. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?
Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives
Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics
Regular organization-wide risk awareness training
A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan
A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan provides a structured approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating IT risks. Integrating this plan into the organization's strategic planning ensures that IT risk considerations are aligned with business objectives and are factored into decision-making processes at the strategic level.
A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?
Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives
Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner
Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners
Assessing noncompliance with control best practices
A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. This indicates that there is a risk of ineffective or inefficient implementation or operation of the control, which may expose the organization to potential threats or losses.
The best way to assist in making a recommendation to management is to assess the degree to which the control hinders business objectives. This means that the risk practitioner should analyze the impact of the control on the performance, productivity, quality, or customer satisfaction of the business processes or functions that are affected by the control.
Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives helps to identify the root causes of noncompliance, the costs and benefits of compliance, and the potential alternatives or improvements for the control. It also helps to communicate the value and importance of the control to the management and the stakeholders, and to obtain their support and commitment for the control compliance.
The other options are not the best ways to assist in making a recommendation to management. They are either secondary or not essential for control compliance.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 19
Information Technology & Security, page 13
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 11
An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following
is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?
Archiving sensitive information
Understanding the incident management process
Identifying social engineering attacks
Understanding the importance of using a secure password
Social engineering attacks are attempts to manipulate or deceive people into revealing confidential or personal information, such as passwords, account numbers, or security codes. Customer service representatives are often targeted by social engineering attacks, as they have access to sensitive customer data and may be pressured to provide quick and satisfactory service. Therefore, it is most important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department how to identify and prevent social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, or impersonation.
References
•The role of customer service in cybersecurity - Security Intelligence
•How to Improve Risk Awareness in the Workplace [+ Template] - AlertMedia
•Top 4 Risks For Customer Service Teams | Resolver
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?
Assign ownership of the risk response plan
Provide awareness in early detection of risk.
Perform periodic audits on identified risk.
areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.
A risk response plan is a document that outlines the actions to be taken to address the identified risk scenarios. A risk response plan should include the objectives, scope, roles and responsibilities, resources, timelines, and metrics for each risk response. Assigning ownership of the risk response plan is the most effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios, as it ensures accountability, clarity, and communication among the stakeholders involved in the risk management process. Assigning ownership also helps to monitor and evaluate the progress and effectiveness of the risk response plan, and to make adjustments as needed. References =Riskand Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Risk Response Plan, p. 152-155.
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?
Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software
Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software
Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization
Lack of professional support for open source software
Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software should be the greatest concern for an organization that uses open source software applications, as it may expose the organization to legal, security, and operational risks. Open source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone, subject to certain conditions and licenses. An organizational policy regarding open source software should define the criteria and procedures for selecting, acquiring, using, and maintaining open source software, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders involved. Lack of reliability, lack of monitoring, and lack of professional support are not the greatest concerns, as they can be addressed by implementing quality assurance, configuration management, and community engagement practices for open source software. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 214; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 214.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?
To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)
To protect information assets
To facilitate risk assessments
To manage information asset licensing
An information asset inventory is a list of all the information assets that an organization owns or uses. It includes information such as the asset name, description, owner, location, classification,value, and dependencies. The primary objective of maintaining an information asset inventory is to provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs), which are used to identify the criticality and recovery priorities of information assets in the event of a disruption. By having an updated and accurate information asset inventory, an organization can ensure that the BIAs reflect the current state and needs of the business processes that rely on the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 74.
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?
Skills matrix
Job descriptions
RACI chart
Organizational chart
A RACI chart is a matrix that defines the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders in relation to the IT risk management process. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI chart would be most helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process, as it clarifies who is responsible for performing the tasks, who is accountable for the outcomes, who is consulted for input and feedback, and who is informed of the progress and results. A RACI chart can help to avoid confusion, duplication, and conflict among the stakeholders, and to ensure that the IT risk management process is executed effectively and efficiently. A skills matrix, job descriptions, and an organizational chart are not as helpful as a RACI chart, as they do not specify the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders in relation to the IT risk management process, and may not reflect the actual involvement and contribution of the stakeholders. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 35.
What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?
Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset
Known emerging environmental threats
Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer
Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services
The potential loss to the business due to non-performance of the asset is the most helpful information for asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment, because it reflects the value and criticality of the asset to the business objectives and processes. The potential loss can be measured in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal impacts.The known emerging environmental threats are not relevant for asset classification, because they are external factors that affect the risk level, not the asset value. The known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer are not relevant for asset classification, because they are internal factors that affect the risk level, not the asset value. The cost of replacing theasset with a new asset providing similar services is not relevant for asset classification, because it does not reflect the business impact of losing the asset functionality or availability. References = CRISC Sample Questions 2024
An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'
Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap
Highlight news articles about data breaches
Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss
Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy
A risk is the possibility of an event that may have a negative impact on the achievement of an organization’s objectives. A risk can be measured by the probability and impact of the event, which indicate the likelihood and consequence of the event. A risk manager is a person who is responsible for performing risk management activities, such as identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and communicating risks. When an organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention, the risk manager’s best response to the business owner who challenges whether the situation is worth remediating is to evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss, which means to estimate thepotential harm or damage that may result from the non-compliance with the policy. By evaluating the risk as a measure of probable loss, the risk manager can provide the business owner with the rationale and justification for the risk remediation, and help the business owner to understand the cost-benefit analysis of the risk response. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 63.
Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?
Risk mitigation budget
Business Impact analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Return on investment
A cost-benefit analysis is the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan. A risk treatment plan is a document that describes the actions or measures that are taken or planned to modifythe risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk1. Selecting an appropriate risk treatmentplan means choosing the most suitable and effective option foraddressing the risk, based on the organization’s objectives, strategies, and risk criteria2. A cost-benefit analysis is a method of comparing the benefits and costs of different alternatives or options, and selecting the one that maximizes the net benefit or value3. A cost-benefit analysis is the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, because it helps to:
Evaluate the feasibility, effectiveness, and efficiency of the risk treatment options, and compare them against the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance;
Balance the benefits and costs of the risk treatment options, and consider both the quantitative and qualitative aspects of the risk and the risk response;
Optimize the use of the organization’s resources and capabilities, and ensure that the risk treatment options are aligned and integrated with the organization’s goals and values;
Support the risk decision making and prioritization, and provide a rational and transparent basis for selecting the best risk treatment option. The other options are not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than a cost-benefit analysis. A risk mitigation budget is a document that allocates the financial resources for implementing and maintaining the risk mitigation actions or measures4. A risk mitigation budget can help to ensure the availability and adequacy of the funds for the risk treatment options, as well as to monitor and control the risk treatment expenditures. However, a risk mitigation budget is not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the benefits or value of the risk treatment options, or the suitability or effectiveness of the risk treatment options. A business impact analysis is a method of estimating the potential effects or consequences of a risk on the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance5. A business impact analysis can help to assess the severity and priority of the risk, as well as to identify the critical assets and resources that are involved or impacted by the risk. However, a business impact analysis is not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the costs or feasibility of the risk treatment options, or the alternatives or options for the risk treatment. A return on investment is a metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment, project, or activity, by comparing the benefits and costs of the investment, project, or activity6. A return on investment can help to evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk treatment options, as well as to compare the risk treatment options with other investments, projects, or activities. However, a return on investmentis not the best guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan, as it does not address the qualitative or intangible aspects of the risk and the risk response, or the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
Which of the following statements in an organization's current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?
Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.
New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.
A risk profile report is a document that summarizes the current status and trends of the risks that an organization faces, as well as the actions taken or planned to manage them1. A risk profile report is a useful tool for senior management to monitor and oversee the organization’s risk management performance and to make informed decisions and adjustments as needed2. One of the key components ofa risk profile report is the key performance indicators (KPIs), which are metrics used to measure andevaluate the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies3. KPIs are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and they have specific targets or benchmarks that indicate the desired level of performance4. Therefore, if the KPIs are outside of targets, it means that the organization is not meeting its objectives and strategies, and that there may be gaps or issues in the risk management process or the risk response actions. This is a cause for further action by senior management, as they need to investigate the root causes of the deviation, assess the impact and implications of the underperformance, and take corrective or preventive measures to improve the situation and bringthe KPIs back to the targets. Incomplete KPI trend data, new KRIs, and lagging KRIs are not the most critical statements in a risk profile report that require further action by senior management, as they do not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Incomplete KPI trend data means that there is missing or insufficient information on the historical or projected changes in the KPIs over time. This may affect the accuracy and reliability of the risk profile report, but it does not necessarily mean that the KPIs are outside of targets or that the objectives and strategies are not met. Senior management may need to request or obtain the complete KPI trend data, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. New KRIs means that there are additional or revised metrics used to measure and monitor the level of risk associated with a particular process, activity, or system within the organization. This may reflect the changes or updates in the risk environment, the risk appetite and tolerance, or the risk assessment methodology. However, new KRIs do not directly indicate a failure or a problem inthe risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Senior management may need to review and approve the new KRIs, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. Lagging KRIs means that there are metrics that measure and monitor the level of risk after a risk event has occurred or a risk response has been implemented. This may provide useful feedback and lessons learned for the risk management process, but it does not directly indicate a failure or a problem in the risk management performance or the achievement of the objectives and strategies. Senior management may need to analyze and evaluate the lagging KRIs, but this is not as urgent or important as addressing the KPIs that are outside of targets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Risk Reporting, pp. 201-205.
The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:
ensure that the source code is valid and exists.
ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.
review the source code for adequacy of controls.
ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.
According to the How Important Is Source Code Escrow - ISACA article, the purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to ensure that the source code isavailable if the vendor ceases to exist. Source code escrow is the deposit of the source code of software with a third-party escrow agent, who releases it to the licensee only if certain conditions are met, such as the bankruptcy, merger, or acquisition of the licensor. This arrangement protects the licensee from losing access to the software support and maintenance, and allows them to continue using and modifying the software as needed. Therefore, the answer is B. ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist. References = How Important Is Source Code Escrow - ISACA
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?
Application monitoring
Separation of duty
Least privilege
Nonrepudiation
Least privilege is the best way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement, because it limits the access and permissions of the individual to the minimum level that is required to perform their role or function, and prevents the individual from accessing or modifying the resources or data that are not relevant or authorized. An entitlement is a right or privilege that grants an individual the ability to access or use a resource or data, such as a file, a system, or an application. An unnecessary entitlement is an entitlement that is not needed or justified for the individual’s role or function, and may pose a risk of unauthorized or inappropriate access or use of the resource or data. A potentially harmful action is an action that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a data breach, a fraud, or a sabotage. Least privilege is thebest way, as it helps to minimize the exposure and impact of the unnecessary entitlement, and to reduce the likelihood and severity of the potentially harmful action. Application monitoring, separation of duty, and nonrepudiation are all possible ways to reduce the likelihoodof an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement, but they are not the best way, as they do not directly address the unnecessary entitlement, and may not prevent the potentially harmful action. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 200
An organization recently implemented a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud. Which of the following is MOST likely to be reassessed as a result of this initiative?
Risk likelihood
Risk culture
Risk appetite
Risk capacity
Risk likelihood is most likely to be reassessed as a result of implementing a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud, as it may change the probability of fraud occurrence or detection, and affect the risk assessment and response. Risk culture, risk appetite, and risk capacity are not the most likely to be reassessed, as they are more stable and strategic aspects of risk management, and are not directlyinfluenced by the implementation of a specific solution. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?
Background checks
Awareness training
User access
Policy management
Awareness training is the most likely control that failed in this scenario, as it is designed to educate employees on the proper handling and protection of sensitive data, and the consequences of violating the organizational policy. Awareness training can help to prevent or reduce the occurrence of human errors, such as inadvertently removing a file from the premises, that may result in data loss or breach. The other options are not the most likely controls that failed, as they are either not directly related to the scenario or not sufficient to prevent the incident. Background checks are used to verify the identity, qualifications, and trustworthiness of potential or current employees, but they do not ensure that employees will always follow the policy or avoidmistakes. User access is used to restrict the access to information systems or resources based on the identity, role, or credentials of the user, but it does not prevent the user from copying or removing the data once they have access. Policy management is used to create, communicate, and enforce the organizational policy, but it does not ensure that employees will understand orcomply with the policy. References = Sensitive Data Essentials – The Lifecycle Of A Sensitive File; Personal data breach examples | ICO; How do I prevent staff accidentally sending personal information … - GCIT; 10 Ways to Protect Sensitive Employee Information; My personal data has been lost after a breach, what are my rights …
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?
Change testing schedule
Impact assessment of the change
Change communication plan
User acceptance testing (UAT)
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, impact assessment is the process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of changes to IT services on the organization’s business objectives, processes, resources, and risks. Impact assessment is essential for ensuring that the changes are aligned with the organization’s strategy, goals, and risk appetite, and that the benefits of the changes outweigh the costs and risks. Impact assessment also helps to prioritize, plan, and implement the changes effectively and efficiently, and to monitor and measure the outcomes of the changes. Therefore, the most important factor for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services is the impact assessment of the change. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 224.
An organization's internal audit department is considering the implementation of robotics process automation (RPA) to automate certain continuous auditing tasks. Who would own the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots?
Lead auditor
Project manager
Chief audit executive (CAE)
Chief information officer (CIO)
Robotics process automation (RPA) is the use of software robots to perform repetitive, rules-based tasks that interact with multiple applications. RPA can help internal audit departments automate certain continuous auditing tasks, such as data extraction, validation, analysis, and reporting. RPA can improve the efficiency, quality, and coverage of internal audit activities, and provide greater insight and value to the business. However, RPA also involves certain risks, such as errors, failures, security breaches, or compliance issues, that need to be identified, assessed, and managed. The risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots is the possibility and impact of the bots not functioning as intended, or producing inaccurate or unreliable results. The risk owner of this risk is the person or entity who has the authority and responsibility for managing the risk. The risk owner should be able to define the risk appetite, assess the risk level, select and implement the risk response, monitor and report the risk status, and ensure the risk alignment with the project objectives and strategy. The risk owner of the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots is the project manager, who is the person in charge of planning, executing, monitoring, and closing the RPA project. The project manager understands the project scope, requirements, budget, timeline, and deliverables, and the potential consequences of ineffective design of the software bots. The project manager also has the resources and incentives to address the risk effectively and efficiently. Therefore, the project manager is the most appropriate risk owner of the risk associated with ineffective design of thesoftware bots. References = Robotic Process Automation for Internal Audit, p. 3-4, Adopting robotic process automation in Internal Audit, Robotic Process Automation (RPA) – Internal Audit Use and Risks.
Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization's data disposal policy?
Compliance manager
Data architect
Data owner
Chief information officer (CIO)
The data owner should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization’s data disposal policy, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the data they own. The compliance manager, the data architect, and the chief information officer (CIO) are not the best choices, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to data governance, design, and strategy, respectively, but they do not own the data. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?
Control standard operating procedures
Latest security assessment
Current security threat report
Updated risk register
Thelatest security assessmentprovides a detailed evaluation of the control’s performance and identifies gaps or weaknesses. This is critical for determining the effectiveness of a system security control in mitigating threats.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register?
To ensure IT risk appetite is communicated across the organization
To ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite
To ensure IT risk ownership is assigned at the appropriate organizational level
To ensure IT risk scenarios are consistently assessed within the organization
The primary objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register is to ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite, as it enables the organization to measure and evaluate the overall level and exposure of the IT risk, and to align and prioritize the IT risk response and strategy with the organizational objectives and regulations. The other options are not the primary objectives, as they are more related to the communication, assignment, or assessment of the IT risk scenarios, respectively, rather than the aggregation or reflection of the IT risk scenarios. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?
The risk owner has validated outcomes.
The risk register has been updated.
The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.
The requirements have been achieved.
The most important thing for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed is that the risk owner has validated the outcomes, as this means that the risk owner has confirmed that the risk response has been implemented and that the risk level has been reduced to an acceptable level. The risk owner is the person or entity with the authority and responsibility to manage a particular risk, and they should evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk action plan, and report any issues or changes. The risk action plan is a document that outlines the specific actions, resources, responsibilities, and timelines for implementing a risk response. The other options are not the most important things for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed, although they may be useful or necessary steps. Updating the risk register is a good practice, but it should be done after the risk owner hasvalidated the outcomes and with the consent of the risk owner. Mapping the control objectives to the risk objectives is a part of the risk response design, but it does not measure the actual achievement of the risk objectives. Achieving the requirements is a desired result, but it does not guarantee that the risk owner has validated the outcomes or that the risk level has been reduced to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 146.
Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?
Gap analysis
Risk assessment
Heat map
Risk register
The best way to help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite is to use a risk register, which is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses1. A risk register can help to:
Define the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives2. The risk register can include the risk appetite statement, which is a clear and concise expression of the enterprise’s risk preferences and boundaries3.
Communicate the risk appetite, which is the process of sharing and informing the risk appetite to the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, the management, the employees, or the customers4. The risk register can be used as a communication tool, which can provide a consistent and transparent view of the enterprise’s risk profile and performance5.
The other options are not the best ways to help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite, because:
Gap analysis is a technique that compares the current state and the desired state of a process, system, or organization, and identifies the gaps or differences between them6. Gap analysis can help to assess the alignment or misalignment of the enterprise’s risk appetite with its risk level, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
Risk assessment is a process that estimates the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizes the risks based on their significance and urgency. Risk assessment can help to identify andanalyze the risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
Heat map is a graphical representation that uses colors to indicate the level or intensity of a variable, such as risk. Heat map can help to visualize and compare the risks based on their probability and impact, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
References =
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite Statement - CIO Wiki
Risk Communication - CIO Wiki
Risk Reporting - CIO Wiki
Gap Analysis - CIO Wiki
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
[Heat Map - CIO Wiki]
[Risk and Information Systems Control documents and learning resources by ISACA]
During an organization's simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?
A high number of participants reporting the email
A high number of participants deleting the email
A low number of participants with questions for the help desk
A low number of participants opening the email
A mature program is indicated by employees recognizing phishing and actively reporting it—not just deleting it. ISACA guidance states that awareness programs should foster “threat identification and escalation actions,” not just passive compliance.
Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:
inherent risk.
risk tolerance.
risk capacity.
residual risk.
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk attitude and its willingness to take on risk in specific scenarios. Risk appetite is usually expressed in a qualitative statement approved by the board of directors1.
Risk capacity is the maximum amount of risk that an organization can responsibly take on without jeopardizing its financial stability or other key objectives. Risk capacity is determined by objective factors like income, assets, liabilities, debts, insurance coverage, dependents, and time horizon. Risk capacity is usually expressed in a quantitative measure that sets the limit of how much risk the organization can handle2.
Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed risk capacity, because this would mean that the organization is taking on more risk than it can afford or sustain. If the risk appetiteis higher than the risk capacity, the organization may face serious consequences such as insolvency, bankruptcy, reputational damage, legal liability, or regulatory sanctions. Therefore, the organization should align its risk appetite with its risk capacity, and ensure that its risk exposure is within its risk tolerance3.
The other options are not correct. Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists in the absence of controls or mitigations. It is the natural level of risk inherent in a process or activity. Residual risk is the level of riskthat remains after the controls or mitigations have been applied. It is the remaining risk after the risk response has been implemented. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. It is the range of risk exposure that the organization is prepared to accept4. None of these concepts are directly comparable torisk appetite, and none of them represent the limit of how much risk the organization can take on. References =
Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference? - ISACA
What Is the Difference Between Risk Tolerance and Risk Capacity? - Investopedia
Risk Management: Understanding Risk Capacity, Appetite, and Tolerance - Consulting Edge
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?
Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.
Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.
Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.
Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.
The best representation of the desired risk posture for an organization is when the residual risk is lower than the risk tolerance. Residual risk is the remaining risk after the implementation of risk responses or controls. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of risk that the organization is willing to take or bear. Thedesired risk posture is when the organization has reduced the residual risk to a level that is equal to or lower than the risk tolerance, which means that the organization has achieved its risk objectives and is comfortable with the remaining risk exposure. The other options are not the best representation of the desired risk posture, as they indicate that the organization has not effectively managed its risk. Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance means that the organization has not identified or assessed its risk properly, as inherent risk is the risk before any controls or responses are applied. Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance means that the organization has not implemented or monitored its risk responses or controls adequately, as operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes,people, and systems. Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance means that the organization has not aligned its risk appetite and risk tolerance, as accepted risk is the risk that the organization chooses to retain or take without any further action. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 2-23.
An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?
Managing third-party risk
Developing risk scenarios
Managing the threat landscape
Updating risk appetite
The risk practitioner’s primary role during the change is to manage the third-party risk, as this involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks associated with outsourcing the business operations for the emerging technology. The risk practitioner should ensure that the third-party provider has the necessary capabilities, security, and compliance to deliver the expected outcomes and meet the contractual obligations. The risk practitioner should also monitor the performance and service levels of the third-party provider and report any issues or incidents. Developing risk scenarios, managing the threat landscape, and updating risk appetite are all important activities for the risk practitioner, but they are not the primary role during the change. Developing risk scenarios is a technique for identifying and analyzing potential risk events and their impacts. Managing the threat landscape is a process of identifying and responding to the external and internal threats that may affect the organization. Updating risk appetite is a decision that reflects the organization’s willingness to accept or avoid risk in pursuit of its objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 48.
What is the PRIMARY role of the application owner when changes are being introduced into an existing environment?
Determining possible losses due to downtime during the changes
Updating control procedures and documentation
Approving the proposed changes based on impact analysis
Notifying owners of affected systems after the changes are implemented
The application owner must formally approve changes after reviewing impact—per ISACA's change management and governance frameworks that assign control over operational fallouts to functional owners .
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?
Increased number of controls
Reduced risk level
Increased risk appetite
Stakeholder commitment
The effectiveness of a control action plan’s implementation can be measured by the extent to which it achieves the desired risk reduction. A control action plan is a set of actions that are designed to address the root causes of a risk and mitigate its impact or likelihood. The best indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan’s implementation is the reduced risk level, which means that the risk is either eliminated or brought within the acceptable range. The otheroptions are not the best indicators, because they do not directly reflect the risk reduction. Increased number of controls may not necessarily reduce the risk level, especially if the controls are not aligned with the risk causes, objectives, and priorities. Increased risk appetite may indicate a higher tolerance for risk, but it does not mean that the risk level has been reduced. Stakeholder commitment may facilitate the implementation of the control action plan, but it does not guarantee the effectiveness of the plan. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.2: Control Action Plan, p. 170-171.
Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?
Defining risk taxonomy
Identifying vulnerabilities
Conducting an impact analysis
Defining risk response options
Defining risk response options is performed after a risk assessment is completed. A risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations. After a risk assessment is completed, the enterprise needs to define the risk response options, which are the actions that can be taken to address the risks.The risk response options include accepting, avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or exploiting the risks. Defining risk response options helps to select the most appropriate and effective strategy to manage the risks. Defining risk taxonomy, identifying vulnerabilities, and conducting an impact analysis are performed before or during a risk assessment, not after. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.4, page 541
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 644.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?
Testing the transmission of credit card numbers
Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers
Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers
Testing the DLP rule change control process
A data loss prevention (DLP) control is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches, or data leakage incidents, in an organization. A DLP control is used to prevent sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, from being disclosed to an unauthorized person, whether it is deliberate or accidental1. The best way to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data is to test the transmission of credit card numbers. This is a technique to verify that the DLP control can successfully identify and block the credit card data when it is sent or received through various channels, such as email, messaging, or file transfers. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers can help to evaluate the accuracy and reliability of the DLP control, as well as to identify and correct any false positives or false negatives. The other options are not the best ways to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data, although they may be helpful and complementary. Reviewing logs forunauthorized data transfers is a technique to monitor and analyze the DLP control activities and incidents, such as who, what, when, where, and how the data was transferred. However, reviewing logs is a reactive and passive approach, while testing the transmission is a proactive and active approach. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers is a technique to set up the DLP control rules and policies, such as defining the data patterns, the detection methods, and the response actions. However, configuring the DLP control is a prerequisite and a preparation step, while testing the transmission is a validation and a verification step. Testing the DLP rule change control process is a technique to ensure that the DLP control rules and policies are updated and maintained in a controlled and coordinated manner, such as obtaining approval, documenting the changes, testing the changes, and communicating the changes. However, testing the DLP rule change control process is a quality and governance step, while testing the transmission is a performance and functionality step. References = What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)? | Digital Guardian1; CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1652; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 833
Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?
End user
Internal auditor
Data owner
Data custodian
The data custodian is the person who is responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls to protect the data entrusted to them by the data owner. The data custodian is typically a system administrator or a security systems administrator who has the technical skills and access rights to manage the security systems and processes that safeguard the data. The data custodian’s responsibilities include, but are not limited to: Installing, configuring, and updating security systems such as firewalls, anti-virus software, encryption tools, etc. Monitoring network trafficand system logs to detect and respond to security incidents. Conducting regular security assessments and audits to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. Implementing backup and recovery procedures to ensure data availability and integrity. The data custodian works under the direction and guidance of the data owner, who is the person who has the authority and accountability for the data and its use. The data owner defines the data classification, the data retention period, and the data access rights and privileges. The data owner also approves any changes to the security controls or the data itself. The data owner is typically a senior manager or a business unit leader who has the business knowledge and responsibility for the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: Data Classification, pp. 11-131
Senior management has requested a risk practitioner's guidance on whether
a new technical control requested by a business unit is worth the investment.
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration before
providing input?
The cost of the control relative to the value of risk mitigation
The effectiveness of the control at reducing residual risk levels
The likelihood of a successful attack based on current risk
assessments
The availabilitv of budgeted funds for risk mitigationMitination
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?
Organization's industry sector
Long-term organizational goals
Concerns of the business process owners
History of risk events
Risk strategies are the plans and actions that an organization adopts to manage its risks and to achieve its objectives. Risk strategies should be aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, values, and culture, as well as its internal and external environment. The most important consideration when developing risk strategies is the long-term organizational goals, meaning that the risk strategies should support and enable the organization to pursue and attain its desired future state and outcomes. The long-term organizational goals should guide the risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring processes, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance levels. The long-term organizational goals should also be communicated and cascaded throughout the organization to ensure the risk awareness and engagement of all stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, p. 27-28
Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?
Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.
Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.
Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.
Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.
According to the CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards, the first thing that a risk practitioner should do when an organization decides to use a cloud service is to review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria. This is because the vendor selection process and vetting criteria are essential steps to ensure that the cloud service provider meets the organization’s requirements and expectations, and that the risks associated with the cloud service are identified and managed. By reviewing the vendor selection process and vetting criteria, the risk practitioner can evaluate the quality, reliability, security, and compliance of the cloud service provider, and determine if the cloud service is suitable and beneficial for the organization. The risk practitioner can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the vendor selection process and vetting criteria, and recommend improvements or alternatives accordingly. References = CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards
Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?
The scenarios are based on past incidents.
The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.
The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.
The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.
Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe potential events or actions that could affect the achievement of enterprise objectives. The design of relevant risk scenarios should consider the following factors: the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, the key risk indicators and risk drivers, the potential impact and likelihood of the scenarios, and the alignment with the risk management capabilities of the enterprise. The scenarios should be realistic, plausible, and consistent with the enterprise’s context and objectives. The scenarios should also be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect changes in the internal and external environment. The alignment with the risk management capabilities is the most critical factor, as it ensures that the scenarios are relevant for the decision making and risk response processes of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.2, pp. 67-69.
Recent penetration testing of an organization's software has identified many different types of security risks. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause for the identified risk?
SIEM software is producing faulty alerts.
Threat modeling was not utilized in the software design process.
The configuration management process is not applied consistently during development.
An identity and access management (IAM) tool has not been properly integrated into the software.
Failure to utilize threat modeling during the design phase results in overlooked vulnerabilities. This highlights the importance ofProactive Threat Identificationin secure software development practices.
When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?
An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events
An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations
A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls
A justification of corrective action taken
An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events is the most important information for the person responsible for managing the incident, as it can help to identify the source, scope, and impact of the security breach, and to determine the appropriate response actions. An analysis of the security logs can also provide evidence for forensic investigation and legal action, and help to prevent or mitigate future incidents by identifying the root causes and vulnerabilities. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 235. CRISC by Isaca Actual FreeExam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 235. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 235.
A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:
based on industry trends.
mapped to incident response plans.
related to probable events.
aligned with risk management capabilities.
Understanding the Question:
The question asks for the best guidance for developing relevant risk scenarios.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Based on industry trends:Important but may not always be directly relevant to the specific organization.
B. Mapped to incident response plans:Useful but secondary to ensuring the scenarios are probable.
C. Related to probable events:Ensures the scenarios are realistic and likely, making them more relevant and actionable.
D. Aligned with risk management capabilities:Important for managing risks but not as critical as ensuring scenarios are probable.
Probable Events:Developing risk scenarios that are based on probable events ensures that the organization is prepared for the most likely risks. This makes risk management efforts more practical and focused on real threats.
Relevance:By focusing on probable events, the scenarios will be more relevant to the organization's actual risk environment, making it easier to allocate resources and plan responses effectively.
The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:
ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.
assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.
benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.
facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.
IT control status reporting is the process of collecting and analyzing data about the effectiveness and efficiency of IT controls. IT controls are the policies, procedures, and practices that ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and information. IT control status reporting helps to monitor the performance of IT controls against the predefined objectives and criteria, and to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. IT control status reporting also provides information to the stakeholders about the current status and progress of IT control implementation and improvement.
The primary purpose of IT control status reporting is to facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states of IT controls. This means that IT control status reporting helps to evaluate the gap between the actual and expected performance of IT controls, and to determine the actions and resources needed to close the gap. IT control status reporting also helps to align the IT controls with the business goals and strategies, and to ensure that the IT controls are delivering value to the organization. By comparing the current and desired states of IT controls, IT control status reporting enables continuous improvement and optimization of IT control processes and outcomes.
The other options are not the primary purpose of IT control status reporting, but rather some of the benefits or outcomes of it. IT control status reporting can help to ensure compliance with IT governance strategy,but it is not the main reason for doing it. IT governance is the framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and relationships among the stakeholders involved in ITdecision making and oversight. IT control status reporting can support IT governance by providing relevant and reliable information to the stakeholders, and by demonstrating the accountability and transparency of IT control activities. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as IT governance, and it is not the only way to ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.
IT control status reporting can also assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts, but it is not the main objective of it. Internal audit is an independent and objective assurance and consulting activity that evaluates the adequacy and effectiveness of IT controls, and provides recommendations for improvement. IT control status reporting can provide input and evidence to the internal audit process, and help to identify the areas of IT control that need further review or testing. IT control status reporting can also help to monitor and track the implementation of the audit findings and recommendations, and to verify the results of the remediation efforts. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as internal audit, and it is not the only source of information for internal audit.
Finally, IT control status reporting can benchmark IT controls with industry standards, but it is not the main goal of it. Industry standards are the best practices or guidelines that define the minimum requirements or expectations for IT control performance and quality. IT control status reporting can help to compare the IT controls with the industry standards, and to identify the areas of IT control that need to be enhanced or updated. IT control status reporting can also help to demonstrate the compliance or conformance of IT controls with the industry standards, and to provide assurance to the external parties or regulators. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as industry standards, and it is not the only way to benchmark IT controls. References =
Service Reporting in ITIL: Process, Objectives and Examples - KnowledgeHut
Anatomy of an effective status report - Project Management Institute
How to Create a Project Status Report [Template & Examples]
Communicating Document Control Progress on a Project
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?
Reduction in data complexity
Reduction in processing times
Identification of appropriate ownership
Identification of appropriate controls
A data classification program helpsidentify appropriate controlsby categorizing data based on sensitivity and criticality. This ensures that data protection measures are aligned with its value and risk level, improving overall security posture.
Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?
The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.
The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.
The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.
The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.
The policy has not been approved by the organization’s board should be of most concern, as it indicates a lack of governance and oversight for the organization’s cybersecurity posture. The board is ultimately responsible for setting the strategic direction, objectives, and risk appetite of the organization, and for ensuring that the cybersecurity policy aligns with them. Without the board’s approval, the policy may not reflect the organization’s vision, mission, values, and culture, and may not be communicated, implemented, or enforced effectively. The board’s approval also demonstrates the commitment and support of the senior management for the cybersecurity program, and enhances the accountability and responsibility of the stakeholders involved.
The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:
reduce subjectivity in risk management.
comply with regulatory requirements.
demonstrate best industry practice.
improve visibility of overall risk exposure.
The primary reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to reduce subjectivity in risk management, as it provides a common and consistent language and structure for identifying, classifying, and reporting risks, and facilitates the comparison and aggregation of risks across the organization. The other options are not the primary reasons, as they are more related to the outcomes, benefits, or drivers of risk management, respectively, rather than the reason for risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?
Frequency of anti-virus software updates
Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software
Number of false positives detected over a period of time
Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions
An anti-virus program is a software that detects and removes malicious software, such as viruses, worms, or ransomware, from the IT assets, such as computers, servers, or networks. The effectiveness of an anti-virus program can be measured by the key performance indicators (KPIs) that reflect the achievement of the program objectives and the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. The best KPI to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program is the percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions. Malware definitions are the files or databases that contain the signatures or patterns of the known malicious software, and they are used by the anti-virus program to scan and identify the malware. The percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions indicates how well the anti-virus program is able to protect the IT assets from the latest or emerging threats, and reduce the exposure and impact of the risks associated with the malware. The other options are not as good as the percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions, as they may not reflect the quality or timeliness of the protection, or the alignment with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2.1, pp. 171-172.
A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?
Impact of the change on inherent risk
Approval for the change by the risk owner
Business rationale for the change
Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change
Risk owner approval ensures accountability and alignment of the changes with the enterprise’s risk management strategy. It reflects adherence to the principles ofRisk Ownership and Governance, critical for maintaining control over mitigation activities.
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:
include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,
include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,
include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,
publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment, such as new or emerging risks, changes in risk levels, risk responses, or control effectiveness. The best way to engage stakeholder attention is to include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs, meaning that the report should highlight the key points and findings that are relevant and important for the stakeholder’s role, responsibility, and interest. The summary should also explain how the information affects the stakeholder’s objectives, expectations, and decisions. The summary should be concise, clear, and compelling, and should capture the stakeholder’s attention and interest. The report can also include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks, a roadmap to achieve operational excellence, or an option to publish the report on-demand for stakeholders, but these are not the best ways to engage stakeholder attention, as they may not be directly related to the stakeholder’s needs or may overwhelm the stakeholder with too much information. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, p. 124-125
The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:
the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.
security controls are tested prior to implementation.
compliance with corporate policies.
the risk response strategy has been decided.
The primary reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure that the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled, as this can help to reduce the risk exposure of the organization and to achieve the desired risk objectives. Tracking the status of risk mitigation plans can also help to monitor and evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the implementation.Tracking the status of risk mitigation plans can also provide feedback and information to the risk owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 251. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 251. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 251. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?
Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test
Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time
Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope
Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test
The most important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes is the percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test. The RTO is the maximum acceptable time that a system orprocess can be unavailable after a disruption. The disaster recovery test is a simulation of a disaster scenario to evaluate the readiness and capability of the organization to restore its critical functions and systems. By measuring the percentage ofIT systems meeting the RTO during the test, the organization can assess how well the disaster recovery processes meet the predefined objectives and standards. Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR), percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time, and percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope are other possible KPIs, but they are not as important as the percentage of IT systems meeting the RTO. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?
A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.
Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.
Redundant compensating controls are in place.
Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.
The issue of greatest concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment is the presence of successive assessments with the same recurring vulnerabilities. This indicates that the controls are ineffective or inadequate in addressing the identified risks, and that the risk management process is not functioning properly. Recurring vulnerabilities expose the enterprise to potential losses, breaches, or incidents that could harm its objectives, reputation, or compliance. Therefore, it is essential to identify the root causes of the recurring vulnerabilities, implement corrective actions, and monitor the effectiveness ofthe controls on a regular basis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2, page 183.
Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?
Risk management budget
Risk mitigation policies
Risk appetite
Risk analysis techniques
Risk appetite is the most important factor to consider first when creating a comprehensive IT risk register, as it defines the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and guides the identification, assessment, response, and monitoring of the IT risks. The other options are not the most important factors, as they are more related to theresources, actions, or methods of the IT risk management, respectively, rather than the strategy or direction of the IT risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?
Cyber insurance
Cryptocurrency reserve
Data backups
End user training
The most effective way to limit the impact of a ransomware attack is to have data backups. Data backups are copies of the data that are stored in a separate location or device, and can be used to restore the data in case of a loss or corruption. Data backups can help to recover the data that is encrypted or deleted by the ransomware, and to avoid paying the ransom to the attackers. Data backups also help to reduce the downtime and disruption caused by the ransomware attack, and to maintain the business continuity and availability of the data. Cyber insurance, cryptocurrency reserve, and end user training are not the most effective ways to limit the impact of a ransomware attack, as they may not prevent or recover the data loss, and may incur additional costs or risks for the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.1.1.1, page 2281
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 657.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?
Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.
Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.
Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.
Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.
According to the Section 4: Quiz 40 - Business Continuity Plan Flashcards, the best indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program is the successful performance of business continuity tests and the resolution of any issues that arise. Business continuity tests are exercises that simulate various scenarios of disruption or disaster and evaluate the organization’s ability to recover and resume its critical functions. Business continuity tests can help to validate the assumptions, objectives, and strategies of the business continuity program, as well as to identify and address any gaps, weaknesses, or errors in the business continuity and disaster recovery plans. By performing business continuity tests regularly and effectively, the organization can ensure that its business continuity program is aligned with its needs andexpectations, and that it can cope with any potential crisis. References = Section 4: Quiz 40 - Business Continuity Plan Flashcards
Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?
Implement a release and deployment plan
Conduct comprehensive regression testing.
Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)
Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report
The best way to increase the chances of a successful delivery of a new application and to assure the business management that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues is to include business management on a weekly risk and issues report. A risk and issues report is a document that summarizes the current status, progress, and challenges of the IT project, as well as the actions and resources needed to address them. A risk and issues report helps to communicate and align the expectations and objectives of the IT and business stakeholders, and to facilitate timely and effective decision-making and problem-solving. A risk and issues report also helps to monitor and control the project scope, schedule, budget, and quality, and to ensure that the project delivers the desired value and benefits to the organization. The other options are not as effective as including business management on a weekly risk and issues report, althoughthey may be part of the IT project management process or outcomes. Implementing a release and deployment plan, conducting comprehensive regression testing, and developing enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRIs) are all activities that can help to ensure the quality and reliability of the new application, but they do not necessarily involve the business management or provide assurance for the early identification of potential issues. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?
Reviewing access control lists
Authorizing user access requests
Performing user access recertification
Terminating inactive user access
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, authorizing user access requests is the process of granting or denying access to IT resources based on the user’s role, responsibilities, and business needs. Authorizing user access requests is a key control accountability that should be retained within the organization, as it helps to ensure that the principle of least privilege is applied, and that the access rights are aligned with the organization’s policies, standards, and risk appetite. Authorizing user access requests also helps to prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, fraud, and other potential risks associated with user access provisioning and termination. Therefore, the best control accountability to retain within the organizationwhen a third-party vendor offers to perform user access provisioning and termination is authorizing user access requests. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 240.
When an organization's business continuity plan (BCP) states that it cannot afford to lose more than three hours of a critical application's data, the three hours is considered the application’s:
Maximum tolerable outage (MTO).
Recovery point objective (RPO).
Mean time to restore (MTTR).
Recovery time objective (RTO).
TheRecovery Point Objective (RPO)specifies the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost due to an incident. In this case, the organization is indicating that it cannot afford to lose more than three hours of data, defining its RPO.
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?
Inability to allocate resources efficiently
Inability to identify the risk owner
Inability to complete the risk register
Inability to identify process experts
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete is the inability to identify the risk owner. The risk owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk or a group of related risks. The risk owner helps to identify, assess, and respond to the risks, and to monitor and report on the risk performance and improvement. The risk owner also helps to communicate and coordinate the risk management activities with the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. The risk owner is usually identified in the process documentation, which describes the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for each process. The inability to identify the risk owner is a major concern for the risk practitioner, because it may affect the accountability, transparency, and effectiveness of the risk management process, and may lead to confusion, conflicts, or gaps in the risk management activities. The other options are not as concerning as the inability to identify the risk owner, although they may also pose some difficulties or limitations for the risk management process. Inability to allocate resources efficiently, inability to complete the risk register, and inability to identify process experts are all factors that could affect the quality and timeliness of the risk management process, but they do not necessarily affect the authority and responsibility of the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-11.
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?
Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.
Operational staff perform control self-assessments.
Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit
analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.
Configuration updates are changes made to the settings, parameters, or components of an IT system or network. Configuration updates can affect the functionality, performance, security, and reliability of the system or network. Therefore, configuration updates should follow formal change control, which is a process that ensures that changes are authorized, documented, tested, and implemented in a controlled manner. Formal change control can help prevent errors, conflicts, disruptions, and vulnerabilities that may arise from configuration updates. Configuration updates that do not follow formal change control should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls, as they can introduce newrisks or compromise existing controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.5: Control Monitoring and Reporting, p. 161-162.
Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?
Prioritize risk response options
Reduce likelihood.
Address more than one risk response
Reduce impact
The most important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization is to address more than one risk response. Aggregated risk responses are risk responses that can affect multiple risks or objectives simultaneously. By addressing more than one risk response, the organization can achieve cost efficiency and effectiveness in risk management. Prioritizing risk response options, reducing likelihood, and reducing impact are other possible objectives, but they are not as important from a cost perspective as addressing more than one risk response. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:
a threat.
a vulnerability.
an impact
a control.
A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw that can be exploited by a threat to cause harm or damage to an asset. Employees holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges, is a behavior that best represents a vulnerability, as itbypasses the security control of the ID badge system, and allows unauthorized or unauthenticated access to the premises. This behavior can increase the risk of physical or logical security breaches, such as theft, vandalism, sabotage, or espionage. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 258. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 258. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.
Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.
Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.
Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action is to review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, because this will help to evaluate the suitability, effectiveness, and reliability of the model as a control measure. A machine learning model is a type of artificial intelligence that can learn from data and make predictions or decisions based on the data. A machine learning model can be used to automate or enhance the access management process, such as by identifying excessive access privileges, detecting unauthorized access, or recommending access rights. However, a machine learning model also introduces new risks and challenges, such as data quality, model accuracy, model bias, model explainability, model security, and model governance. Therefore, the risk practitioner should review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, which are the specific goals or outcomes that the control is intended to achieve. The control objectives can be derived from the IT riskmanagement strategy, the IT governance framework, the IT policies and standards, and the regulatory requirements. The review of the machine learning model should cover the following aspects: - The data sources and inputs: The risk practitioner should verify that the data used to train and test the machine learning model is relevant, complete, accurate, consistent, and representative of the access management process and the access rights. The risk practitioner should also check that the data is collected, stored, processed, and transmitted in a secure and compliant manner, and that the data privacy and confidentiality are protected. - The model algorithms and outputs: The risk practitioner should validate that the model algorithms are appropriate, robust, and transparent for the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner should also evaluate that the model outputs are accurate, reliable, and interpretable, and that they provide meaningful and actionable insights orrecommendations for the access management process and the control objectives. - The model performance and monitoring: The riskpractitioner should measure and monitor the model performance and effectiveness against the control objectives and the predefined metrics and indicators. The risk practitioner should also ensure that the model is updated and maintained regularly to reflect the changes in the access management process and the access rights, and that the model is audited and reviewed periodically to ensure its compliance and quality. By reviewing the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, the risk practitioner can ensure that the model is fit for purpose and adds value to the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner can also identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues that may arise from the use of the machine learning model as a control measure. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Control Design and Implementation, pp. 124-1271, Manage roles in your workspace - Azure Machine Learning2, Dataset Inference: Ownership Resolution in Machine Learning3
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?
Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.
Review the software development life cycle.
Involve the development team in planning.
Assign more developers to the project team.
Involve the development team in planning is the best recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project. This is because involving the development team in planning can help ensure that the project scope, requirements, resources, and timeline are realistic, feasible, and agreed upon by all stakeholders. It can also help improve the communication, collaboration, and commitment of the development team, as well as identify and mitigate potential risks and issues early in the project life cycle. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk identification techniques for IT projects is to involve the project team and other relevant parties in the risk assessment process1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, involving the development team in planning is the correct answer to this question2.
Implementing a tool to track the development team’s deliverables, reviewing the software development life cycle, and assigning more developers to the project team are not the best recommendations to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns. These are possible actions that can be taken during or after the planning phase, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of involvement of the development team in planning. Implementing a tool to track the development team’s deliverables can help monitor the project progress and performance, but it does not guarantee that the deliverables are aligned with the project objectives and expectations. Reviewing the software development life cycle can help ensure that the project follows a structured and standardized process, but it does not account for the specific needs and challenges of the project. Assigning more developers to the project team can help increase the project capacity and productivity, but it can also introduce new risks such as coordination, communication, and quality issues.
What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?
Use the severity rating to calculate risk.
Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.
Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.
Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.
When likelihood is unknown, range-based estimates from subject-matter experts provideinformed and realistic insights into potential risk exposure. This approach helps approximate the inherent risk based on experience and expertise, supporting effective decision-making.
An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?
Qualitative method
Industry calibration method
Threat-based method
Quantitative method
Implementing an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact is best served by a quantitative risk assessment methodology. This approach provides a numeric value to the risk levels, which is crucial for accurately tiering assets.
Quantitative Risk Assessment:
Numeric Values:Quantitative methods assign numerical values to the probability and impact of risks, which allows for precise calculations of risk levels. This precision is essential when establishing tiers for assets based on their impact levels.
Data-Driven Decisions:These methods use statistical data and models to predict potential losses and the probability of various risk events, leading to more informed decision-making.
Asset Tiering Model:
Impact Assessment:Quantitative methods allow for detailed impact assessments. By using numeric values, it is easier to compare the potential impacts of different assets and categorize them into appropriate tiers.
Resource Allocation:Precise risk calculations help in the effective allocation of resources. Higher-tier assets (those with higher impact) can be allocated more resources for protection.
During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Report the infraction.
Perform a risk assessment.
Conduct risk awareness training.
Discontinue the process.
Perform a Risk Assessment:
Immediate Action: The first step when discovering a non-compliant implementation is to understand the potential risks it poses to the organization. This involves identifying threats, vulnerabilities, and potential impacts of the non-fungible token (NFT) asset program.
Risk Identification and Evaluation: Assess the new program’s impact on the organization’s risk profile. Determine if it introduces significant security, compliance, or operational risks.
Documentation and Reporting: Document the findings and present them to senior management along with recommendations for mitigation or further action.
Comparison with Other Options:
Report the Infraction: Reporting is necessary but should follow the risk assessment to provide a clear understanding of the implications and necessary mitigations.
Conduct Risk Awareness Training: Training is preventive and should be part of a long-term strategy, not the immediate response to a specific incident.
Discontinue the Process: Discontinuing the process may be a necessary step after assessing the risk, but the assessment must come first to justify such an action.
Best Practices:
Comprehensive Risk Assessment: Ensure that the risk assessment covers all aspects, including financial, reputational, and regulatory risks.
Stakeholder Involvement: Involve relevant stakeholders in the assessment process to gather diverse perspectives and ensure a thorough evaluation.
Actionable Recommendations: Provide clear, actionable recommendations based on the risk assessment findings.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?
Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes
Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices
Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers
Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application
The most important consideration for protecting data assets in a business application system is to ensure that the application controls are aligned with the data classification rules. Data classification rules define the level of sensitivity, confidentiality, and criticality of the data, andthe corresponding security requirements and controls. Application controls are the policies, procedures, and technical measures that are implemented at the application level to ensure the security, integrity, and availability of the data. Application controls should be designed and configured to match the data classification rules, so that the data is protected according to its value and risk. For example, if the data is classified as highly confidential, the application controls should enforce strong authentication, encryption, access control, logging, and auditing mechanisms. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 214.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the process of documenting risk tolerance?
Creating a risk register
Interviewing management
Conducting a risk assessment
Researching industry standards
Interviewing managementis key because risk tolerance reflects leadership’s perspective on acceptable risk levels. ISACA stresses that understanding risk tolerance requires direct input from those responsible for risk decisions and strategic direction.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key control indicator (KCI) to help an organization prevent successful cyber risk events on the external-facing infrastructure?
Increasing number of threat actors
Increasing number of intrusion detection system (IDS) false positive alerts
Increasing percentage of unpatched demilitarized zone (DMZ) servers
Increasing trend of perimeter attacks
The percentage of unpatched DMZ servers is a critical KCI for preventing cyber risk events on external-facing infrastructure. Unpatched servers are vulnerable to exploitation, and monitoring this indicator helps ensure timely application of security updates, reducing the risk of successful attacks.
Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?
Periodic assessments
Change management
Awareness training
Policy updates
Continuous risk management process improvement is the practice of evaluating and enhancing the risk management process on a regular basis, to ensure that it is effective, efficient, and aligned with the business objectives and strategy. Continuous risk management processimprovement can help identify and address the gaps, weaknesses, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and ensure that the process is responsive and adaptable to the changing risk environment. The most effective method for continuous risk management process improvement is periodic assessments, which are systematic and objective evaluations of the risk management process, performed at predefined intervals or after significant events. Periodic assessments can help measure and monitor the performance and maturity of the risk management process, using criteria such as the risk management framework, standards, policies, procedures, methods, tools, roles, responsibilities, and results. Periodic assessments can also help identify and analyze the strengths, weaknesses, threats, and opportunities of the risk management process, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement. Periodic assessments can also help communicate and report the status and progress of the risk management process to the stakeholders, and obtain their input and support for improvement actions. References = Continuous Risk Management Guidebook, p. 7-8, ISO 31000: riskmanagement and its continuous improvement, How Continuous Monitoring Drives Risk Management.
Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?
Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control
Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)
Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register
Completion of the latest internal audit
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified IT risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies. It is a living document that needs to be updated regularly to reflect the current risk profile of the organization. One of the situations that would require updates to the IT risk register is the discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control, as this would increase the likelihood or impact of the related IT risk. Management review of key risk indicators (KRIs), changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register, and completion of the latest internal audit are not reasons to update the IT risk register, as they do not affect the identified IT risks or their mitigation strategies. References = [CRISC Review Manual (DigitalVersion)], page 97; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 198.
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?
inadequate resource allocation
Data disruption
Unauthorized access
Inadequate retention schedules
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the greatest risk associated with the misclassification of data is unauthorized access, because it can result in the loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data. Data classification is the process of assigning categories to data based on its sensitivity and value to the organization. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data. If the data is misclassified, it may not receive the adequate level of security controls, and it may be accessed by unauthorized or inappropriate users. The other options are not the greatest risks associated with the misclassification of data, as they are less likely or less severe than unauthorized access. Inadequate resource allocation is the risk of not allocating sufficient resources to protect the data, which may affect its availability and performance. Data disruption is the risk of losing or corrupting the data, which may affect its integrity and availability. Inadequate retention schedules is the risk of not retaining the data forthe required period of time, which may affect its compliance and usability. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1, page 161.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''
To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle
To ensure controls arc operating effectively
To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level
To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits
The most important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan is to ensure that the residual risk is at an acceptable level. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying a risk response. The risk response plan is the document thatdescribes the actions and resources needed to address the risk. Validating the risk response execution is the process of verifying that the risk response actions have been performed as planned, and that they have achieved the desired results. Validating the risk response execution helps to measure and monitor the residual risk, and to ensure that it is within the risk tolerance of the organization and its stakeholders. The other reasons are not as important as ensuring that the residual risk is at an acceptable level, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of validating the risk response execution. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?
Negotiating terms of adoption
Understanding the timeframe to implement
Completing a gap analysis
Initiating the conversion
Completing a gap analysis identifies discrepancies between current controls and the requirements of the IT control framework, ensuring a focused approach to compliance. This supportsRisk Assessment for Compliance Requirements.
A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations
Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis
Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers
Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)
The risk practitioner shouldfirst review the methodology of the BIAbecause the BIA identifies critical processes and the impacts of disruptions. This ensures that any identified risks are grounded in reliable, updated business impact data.
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The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:
reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.
identify compensating controls.
minimize residual risk.
reduce risk factors.
The primary objective for selecting risk response options is to reduce risk to an acceptable level. Risk response options are the possible actions that can be taken to address the risks that have been identified and analyzed in the risk management process. Risk response options can be classified into four categories: avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept for negative risks (or threats), and exploit, share, enhance, and accept for positive risks (or opportunities). The selection of the risk response options depends on various factors, such as the risk level, the risk appetite and tolerance, the cost and benefit, and the feasibility and availability of the options. The main goal of selecting the risk response options is to reduce the risk to a level that is acceptable to the organization, which means that the risk exposure is within the boundaries of the risk criteria and the risk appetite. The other options are not the primary objective for selecting risk response options, although they may be related or beneficial. Identifying compensating controls is a technique to implement additional or alternative controls when the existing controls are not effective or sufficient to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. Minimizing residual risk is a result of selecting and implementing the risk response options, but it is not the main purpose. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, and it may or may not be acceptable depending on the risk appetite and tolerance. Reducing risk factors is a method to decrease the likelihood or impact of the risk by addressing the root causes or sources of the risk. However,reducing risk factors does not necessarily mean that the risk is reduced to an acceptable level,as there may be other factors or uncertainties that affect the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 862
A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?
Single sign-on
Audit trail review
Multi-factor authentication
Data encryption at rest
Multi-factor authentication is the most effective way to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access to the system, as it requires the users to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity, such as a password, a token, a biometric feature, etc. This reduces the likelihood of compromising the credentials and ensures that only authorized users can perform maintenance on the system.
Single sign-on is a convenience feature that allows users to access multiple systems with one set of credentials, but it does not address the risk of sharing credentials among multiple users.
Audit trail review is a detective control that can help identify and investigate unauthorized access to the system, but it does not prevent or mitigate the risk of credential compromise.
Data encryption at rest is a security measure that protects the data stored on the system from unauthorized access, but it does not prevent or mitigate the risk of credential compromise. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 107-108.
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?
Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities
Inaccurate reporting of results
Increased number of vulnerabilities
Network performance degradation
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool is the inaccurate reporting of results. A vulnerability scanning tool is a software that scans the network or system for known vulnerabilities and generates a report of the findings. However, the tool may produce false positives (reporting vulnerabilities that do not exist) or false negatives (missing vulnerabilities that do exist). This can lead to incorrect risk assessment, ineffective risk response, and wasted resources. Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities, increased number of vulnerabilities, and network performance degradation are other possible concerns, but they are not as critical as the inaccurate reporting of results. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?
Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.
Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.
Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.
Qualitative measures are easier to update.
Qualitative measures are methods of expressing risk levels using descriptive terms, such as high, medium, or low, based on subjective criteria, such as likelihood, impact, or severity. Qualitative measures are often used to identify and prioritize risks, and to communicate risk information to stakeholders1.
Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, and the need for further action or monitoring2.
Emerging threats are new or evolving sources or causes of risk that have the potential to adversely affect the organization’s objectives, assets, or operations. Emerging threats are oftencharacterized by uncertainty, complexity, and ambiguity, and may require innovative or adaptive risk responses3.
The best reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats is that qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment. Expert judgment is the opinion or advice of a person or a group of people who have specialized knowledge, skills, or experience in a particular domain or field. Expert judgment can help to:
Provide insights and perspectives on the nature and characteristics of the emerging threats, and their possible causes and consequences
Assess the likelihood and impact of the emerging threats, and their interactions and dependencies with other risks
Evaluate the suitability and effectiveness of the risk responses, and their alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
Identify and recommend the best practices and lessons learned for managing the emerging threats, and for improving the risk management process45
Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment than quantitative measures, which are methods of expressing risk levels using numerical or measurable values, such as percentages, probabilities, or monetary amounts. Quantitative measures are often used to estimate and analyze risks, and to support risk decision making1. However, quantitative measures may not be suitable or feasible for expressing residual risk levels related to emerging threats, because:
Quantitative measures require reliable and sufficient data and information, which may not be available or accessible for the emerging threats
Quantitative measures rely on mathematical models and techniques, which may not be able to capture or reflect the complexity and uncertainty of the emerging threats
Quantitative measures may create a false sense of precision or accuracy, which may not be justified or warranted for the emerging threats
Quantitative measures may be influenced or manipulated by biases or assumptions, which may not be valid or appropriate for the emerging threats67
Therefore, qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment, which can enhance the understanding and management of the residual risk levels related to emerging threats.
The other options are not the best reasons to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats, but rather some of the advantages or disadvantages of qualitative measures. Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring than quantitative measures, because they are simpler and easier to apply and update. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can eliminate or reduce the need for monitoring, which is an essential part of the risk management process. Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements than quantitative measures, because they are more consistent and comparable across different domains and contexts. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can satisfy or comply with all the regulatory requirements, which may vary depending on theindustry or sector. Qualitative measures are easier to update than quantitative measures, because they do not depend on complex calculations or formulas. However, this does not mean that qualitative measures can always reflect the current or accurate risk levels, which may change over time or due to external factors. References =
Qualitative Risk Analysis vs. Quantitative Risk Analysis - ISACA
Residual Risk - ISACA
Emerging Threats - ISACA
Expert Judgment - ISACA
Expert Judgment in Project Management: Narrowing the Theory-Practice Gap
Quantitative Risk Analysis - ISACA
Quantitative Risk Analysis: A Critical Review
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?
Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results
Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments
A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed
The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the level of risk for each risk area based on the impact and likelihood of occurrence. It also provides a summary of the risk assessment results, such as the number and severity of risks, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk response strategies. A risk heat map can help senior management to understand the risk profile of the organization, prioritize the risks that need attention, and allocate resources accordingly. A risk heat map is more effective than the other options because it can communicate complex information in a simple and visual way, and it can highlight the key risk areas and trends. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 97.
A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.
Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.
Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.
Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.
The FIRST thing that should be done when a KRI has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time is to recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI, because it may indicate that the trigger point is set too high or too low, or that the KRI is not relevant or effective in measuring the risk exposure. A re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI may result in adjusting the trigger point, changing the KRI, or removing the KRI. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, because:
Option B: Notifying management that KRIs are being effectively managed is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not reflect the true risk status and performance. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not be a valid or reliable indicator of the risk exposure, and it may not capture the changes or trends in the risk environment.
Option C: Updating the risk rating associated with the KRI in the risk register is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be accurate or consistent. A risk rating is based on the likelihood and impact of the risk, and it should be derived from a comprehensive risk analysis, not just from a single KRI. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not reflect the actual likelihood and impact of the risk, and it may not be aligned with the other risk indicators and assessments.
Option D: Updating the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI is not the first thing that should be done, because it may not be appropriate or feasible. Risk tolerance and risk appetite are the acceptable level of risk exposure and variation that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and they are determined by the executive management and the board of directors, based on the enterprise’s strategy and goals. A KRI that remains below its trigger point for a long time may not represent the desired or optimal level of risk exposure and variation, and it may not be aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 121.
Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?
Compliance manager
Data privacy manager
System administrator
Human resources (HR) manager
The data privacy manager is the best person to an application system used to process employee personal data, because they are responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the applicable data protection laws and regulations, and that the personal data of employees are collected, stored, processed, and disposed of in a secure and ethical manner. The data privacy manager is also responsible for establishing and maintaining the data privacy policies, procedures, and controls, and for conducting data privacy impact assessments and audits. The compliance manager, the system administrator, and the human resources (HR) manager are all involved in the of the application system, but they are not the best person to it, as they do not have the primary accountability and expertise for data privacy. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?
Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.
Risk ownership is identified and assigned.
Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.
Residual risk is within risk tolerance.
Risk treatment options are the actions or plans that are implemented to modify or reduce the risk exposure of the organization. Risk treatment options receive adequate funding when the organization allocatessufficient resources and budget to support the risk response actions, and to ensure that the risk controls are effective and efficient. This is the best evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in the organization, as it shows that the organizationprioritizes and values the risk management process, and that it aligns its risk strategy and objectives with its business goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 245. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 245. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 245.
A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?
Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues
Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents
Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation
Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business
When prioritizing IT risks, scenarios with thehighest impact on business objectivesshould be the primary focus. ISACA’s CRISC guidance notes that risks should be prioritized by considering both their likelihood and their potential impact on organizational goals. This ensures resources and attention are focused on the most significant threats.
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Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?
To create a complete repository of risk to the organization
To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization
To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios
To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization
The most important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program is to create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization, as it enables the organization to identify, assess, and prioritize the key risks that may affect its objectives and strategy, and to implement appropriate risk responses and controls. A comprehensive view of critical risk also helps the organization to align its risk appetite and tolerance with its business goals and value creation, and to enhance its risk culture and governance. A comprehensive view of critical risk can be achieved by integrating risk management across all levels and functions of the organization, and by using consistent and reliable risk information and reporting. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 242. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 242. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 242.
Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?
Vulnerability assessment
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Penetration testing
Root cause analysis
A vulnerability assessment is a process that identifies and quantifies vulnerabilities in a system. It is the most effective process to determine the relevance of threats for risk scenarios as it helps in identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities, quantifying the seriousness of each, and prioritizing techniques to mitigate attack and protect IT resources1.
References
2Identifying and Estimating Cybersecurity Risk for Enterprise Risk Management
3Threat Modeling Process | OWASP Foundation
1Threat modeling explained: A process for anticipating cyber attacks
4Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment: A Guide - SafetyCulture
5How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA
A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?
Applying risk appetite
Applying risk factors
Referencing risk event data
Understanding risk culture
Applying risk appetite is the most important topic to cover in a training session to communicate risk assessment methodologies. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. It is a key element of the risk management framework and influences the risk assessment process. Applying risk appetite helps to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization by providing a common basis for evaluating and prioritizing risks, aligning risk responses with business goals, and communicating risk information to stakeholders. The other options are not the most important topics to cover in a training session to communicate risk assessment methodologies, although they may be relevant and useful. Applying risk factors is a technique to quantify or qualify the likelihood and impact of risks based on predefined criteria or scales. Referencing risk event data is a source of information to identify and analyze risks based on historical or current incidents. Understanding risk culture is a factor that affectsthe risk behavior and attitude of the organization and its people. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 40-411; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 612
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?
KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.
KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.
KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization
KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.
The main benefit of using key risk indicators (KRIs) for an organization is that they provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs also help to trigger timely and appropriate risk responses, before the risk becomes unmanageable or unacceptable. The other options are not the main benefit of using KRIs, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?
The organization's knowledge
Ease of implementation
The organization's culture
industry-leading security tools
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the organization’s culture is the most critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation, because it influences the behavior, attitude, and perception of the stakeholders towards security. The organization’s culture includes the values, beliefs, norms, and practices that are shared by the members of the organization. A positive and supportive culture can foster the awareness, commitment, and collaboration of the stakeholders in achieving the security objectives and complying with the security policies and standards. The other options are not the most critical elements, as they are less influential or less challenging than the organization’s culture. The organization’s knowledge is the collective understanding and expertise of the organization regardingsecurity, which can be enhanced through training and education. Ease of implementation is the degree of difficulty and complexity of implementing security, which can be reduced by using appropriate methods and tools. Industry-leading security tools are the best-in-class solutions and technologies that can provide effective and efficient security, which can be acquired through market research and evaluation. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, page 32.
A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?
Enable data encryption in the test environment.
Prevent the use of production data in the test environment
De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.
Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.
The best recommendation to address the situation where personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments is to de-identify data before being transferred to the test environment. De-identification is the process of removing or modifying any personally identifiable information (PII) or other sensitive data from the data sets, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc., so that the data cannot be traced back to specific individuals. De-identification protects the privacy and confidentiality of the data, while still allowing for testing, analysis, or training purposes. Enabling data encryption, preventing the use of production data, and enforcing multi-factor authentication are also useful measures, but they do not eliminate the risk of data breaches or unauthorized access to PII. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:
inherent risk.
residual risk.
risk appetite
risk tolerance
Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls to mitigate the inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before considering the controls. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation from the risk appetite. Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will most likely result in an update to the residual risk, because they will reduce the likelihood and impact of the risk event, and therefore lower the risk exposure and value. By improving the design and implementation of a control, the organization can enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of the control, and ensure that it is aligned with the risk objectives, expectations, and outcomes. The improvement can also address any gaps, overlaps, redundancies, or conflicts among the controls, and any changes or enhancements that are needed to optimize the controls. The other options are less likely to be updated due to improvements in the design and implementation of a control. The inherent risk will not change, as it is based on the nature and value of the asset and the threats and vulnerabilities that exist. The risk appetite and the risk tolerance will also not change, as they are based on the organization’s culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Therefore, the most likely factor to be updated is the residual risk, as it reflects the actual risk level that the organization faces after applying the controls. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?
Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.
Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.
Revise the organization's risk and control policy.
Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.
The first course of action for the risk practitioner when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas is to identify any new business objectives with stakeholders. Business objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the organization aims to accomplish through its products and services. Stakeholders are the parties who have an interest or influence in the organization and its products and services, such as customers, employees, shareholders, suppliers, regulators, or competitors. Identifying any new business objectives with stakeholders is the first course of action, because it helps to understand and define the purpose, scope, and criteria of the new product areas, and to align them with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy. Identifying any new business objectives with stakeholders also helps to establish the expectations, needs, and requirements of the stakeholders, and to ensure their engagement and support for the new product areas. Identifying any newbusiness objectives with stakeholders is the basis for the subsequent risk management activities, such as identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and responding to the risks associated with the new product areas. The other options are not the first course of action, although they may be related or subsequent steps in the risk management process. Presenting a business case for new controls to stakeholders is a part of the risk response process, which involves selecting and executing the appropriate actions to reduce, avoid, share, or exploit the risks associated with the new product areas. Presenting a business case for new controls to stakeholders can help to justify and communicate the value and impact of the new controls, and to obtain the approval and resources for implementing them. However, this is not the first course of action, as it depends on the identification and prioritization of the business objectives and the risks. Revising the organization’s risk and control policy is a part of the risk governance process, which involves defining and updating the rules and guidelines for managing the risks and the controls associatedwith the new product areas. Revising the organization’s risk and control policy can help to ensure the consistency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to comply with the relevant laws and regulations. However, this is not the first course of action, as it follows the identification and assessment of the business objectives and the risks. Reviewing existing risk scenarios with stakeholders is a part of the risk monitoring and review process, which involves evaluating and improving the performance and outcomes of the risk management process for the new product areas. Reviewing existing risk scenarios with stakeholders can help to identify and address any changes or issues in the risk levels or the risk responses, and to provide feedback and learning for the risk management process. However, this is not the first course of action, as it requires the identification and analysis of the business objectives and the risks. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA, The Role of Executive Management in ERM - Corporate Compliance Insights
Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?
The cloud environment's capability maturity model
The cloud environment's risk register
The cloud computing architecture
The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing
Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction. The cloud computing architecture is the structure and design of the cloud environment, which includes the components, services, interfaces, standards, and configurations. The cloud computing architecture should be used as the primary basis for evaluating the state of an organization’s cloud computing environment against leading practices, as it determines the performance, security, reliability, scalability, and interoperability of the cloud services. By comparing the cloud computing architecture with the best practices and benchmarks in the industry, an organization can identify the gaps and weaknesses in the cloud environment and implement the necessary improvements and controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 156.
Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?
Encrypted storage of data
Links to source data
Audit trails for updates and deletions
Check totals on data records and data fields
Check totals are IT controls that verify the accuracy and completeness of data by comparing the sum or count of data records or data fields with a predetermined or expected value. Check totals can help detect and prevent errors, omissions, or alterations in data entry, processing, or transmission. Check totals can also help identify and correct data discrepancies or anomalies. Therefore, check totals are the most useful IT controls in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data. The other options are not the best answers because they do not directly address the risk of inaccurate data. Encrypted storage of data is an IT control that protects the confidentiality and integrity of data by preventing unauthorized access or modification. However, encryption does not ensure the accuracy or validity of the data itself. Links to source data are IT controls that provide traceability and transparency of data by allowing users to access or view the original data from which the derived or aggregated data is obtained. However, links to source data do not verify or correct the data quality or consistency. Audit trails for updates and deletions are IT controls that record thehistory and changes of data by capturing the date, time, user, and action performed on the data. Audit trails can help monitor and review the data activities and transactions, but they do not prevent or detect the data errors or inaccuracies. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 722
An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?
Risk profile
Risk culture
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
A risk profile is a summary of the nature and level of risk that an organization faces. It includes information such as the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. A risk profile is influenced by various factors, such as the organization’s objectives, strategies, activities, processes, resources, capabilities, culture, etc. When an organization configures a new business division, the factor that is most likely to be affected is the risk profile, as the new business division may introduce new or change existing risks, opportunities, and uncertainties that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. Therefore, the organization should update its risk profile to reflect the currentand potential risks associated withthe new business division, and implement the appropriate risk management actions to optimize the risk exposure and performance. References = 4
When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?
Sharing company information on social media
Sharing personal information on social media
Using social media to maintain contact with business associates
Using social media for personal purposes during working hours
The most important concern to address when formulating a social media policy to address information leakage is sharing company information on social media. Information leakage is the unauthorized or unintentional disclosure of confidential or sensitive information to unauthorized parties. Social media is a platform that enables the users to create and share content, such as text, images, videos, or links, with other users or the public. Sharing company information on social media is the most important concern, as it could expose the company’s trade secrets, intellectual property, customer data, financial data, or strategic plans to competitors, hackers, or regulators. Sharing company information on social media could also damage the company’s reputation, trust, or credibility, and result in legal or regulatory penalties, fines, or lawsuits. Therefore, a social media policy should clearly define what constitutes company information, and what are the rules and guidelines for sharing or not sharing company information on social media. A social media policy should also specify the roles and responsibilities of the employees, managers, and the social media team, and the consequences and sanctions for violating the policy. Sharing personal information on social media, using social media to maintain contact with business associates, and using social media for personal purposes during working hours are not as important as sharing company information on social media, as they do not directly involve the leakage of company information, and they may not have significant impact or risk on the company. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217
Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY accountable for risk associated with business information protection?
Control owner
Data owner
System owner
Application owner
The data owner is responsible for ensuring that information is appropriately classified and protected. They are accountable for defining access controls and ensuring compliance with data protection policies, making them primarily accountable for risks associated with business information protection.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?
Risk appetite
Inherent risk
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Risk tolerance
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, inherent risk is the risk that exists before any controls or mitigating factors are considered. Inherent risk is influenced by the nature and complexity of the business activities, the environment, and the technology involved. A new policy that allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization’s IT systems via personal or public computers is likely to increase the inherent risk of the organization, as it introduces new threats and vulnerabilities that may compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the IT systems and data. For example, personal or public computers may not have adequate security measures, such as antivirus software, firewalls, encryption, or authentication, and may expose the organization to malware, hacking, data leakage, or unauthorized access. Therefore, the answer is B. Inherent risk. References = Riskand Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, Page 97. Remote Work: How to Secure Your Data
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?
To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels
To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives
To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures
To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts
Ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program is primarily to define effective enterprise IT risk appetite andtolerance levels. This understanding is essential for setting the boundaries within which the organization is willing to operate regarding IT risks.
Defining Effective IT Risk Appetite and Tolerance Levels (Answer A):
Purpose: Senior management needs to understand the range and nature of IT risks to set appropriate risk appetite and tolerance levels.
Impact: This enables the organization to make informed decisions about which risks to accept, mitigate, transfer, or avoid.
Alignment: It ensures that the IT risk management strategy is aligned with the overall business objectives and risk posture of the organization.
Comparison with Other Options:
B. To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives:
Purpose: While important, it follows the definition of risk appetite and tolerance.
Limitation: Without understanding the risk universe, execution may be misaligned.
C. To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures:
Purpose: Structural alignment is crucial but secondary to setting risk appetite and tolerance.
D. To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts:
Purpose: This is part of the ongoing process but not the primary purpose of understanding the risk universe.
Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:
ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.
provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.
provide a snapshot of the risk profile.
ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.
Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken, because it helps to detect and measure the changes or trends in the risk level or performance, and to alert the risk owners and stakeholders when the risk exceeds the predefined thresholds or targets. A KRI is a metric or indicator that helps to monitor and evaluate the likelihood or impact of a risk, or the effectiveness or efficiency of a control. A KRI can be quantitative or qualitative, and can be derived from internal or external sources. Continuous monitoring is a process of collecting and analyzing data on a regular or real-time basis, to provide timely and relevant information for decision making or action taking. Continuous monitoring of KRIs will provide an early warning, as it helps to identify and address the risk issues or incidents before they escalate or cause significant damage or disruption. Ensuring that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization, providing a snapshot of the risk profile, and ensuring that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned are all possible outcomes of continuous monitoring of KRIs, but they are not the best answer, as they do not reflect the main purpose and benefit of continuous monitoring of KRIs, which is to provide an early warning. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 97
Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?
Risk assessment results
Adherence to governing policies
Regular stakeholder briefings
Independent audit results
The best evidence of an effective internal control environment is the independent audit results. Independent audit results are the outcomes or findings of an external or independent party that evaluates the design, implementation, and operation of the internal controls. Independent audit results can provide an objective, reliable, and consistent assessment of the internal control environment, and identify the strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or issues of the internal controls. Independent audit results can also provide assurance, recommendations, or improvement opportunities for the internal control environment. The other options are not as good as independent audit results, as they are related to the inputs, processes, oroutputs of the internal control environment, not the evaluation or verification of the internal controlenvironment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.
Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.
Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.
Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.
The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. It is a useful tool for monitoring and controlling the risks throughout the project lifecycle. However, the risk register is not a static document and it should be updated regularly to reflect the changes in the risk environment and the project status. Therefore, when reviewing therisk register, a risk practitioner should not only look at the risk ratings, but also the assumptions and the rationale behind them. Different business units may have different perspectives, contexts, and data sources for the same risk scenario, which can result in significant variances in inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk level before considering the existing controls or responses. Therefore, the best course of action is to review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable or not. This can help to identify any errors, inconsistencies, or biases in the risk assessment process, and to ensure that the risk register reflects the current and accurate state of the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, p. 106-107
Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?
Technical event
Threat event
Vulnerability event
Loss event
The result of a realized risk scenario is a loss event. A loss event is an occurrence that causes harm or damage to the organization’s assets, resources, or reputation. A loss event is also known as an incident or a breach. A loss event is the outcome of a risk scenario, which is a description of a possible situation or event that could affect the organization’s objectives or operations. A risk scenario consists of three elements: a threat, a vulnerability, and an impact. A threat is a potential source of harm or damage. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw that could be exploited by a threat. An impact is the consequence or effect of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. A risk scenario is realized when a threat exploits a vulnerability and causes an impact, which results in a loss event. The other options are not the result of a realized risk scenario, although they may be part of a risk scenario. A technical event, a threat event, and a vulnerability event are all types of events that could occur in a risk scenario, but they are not the final outcome or result of a risk scenario. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
The patch management process is MOST effectively monitored through which of the following key control indicators (KCIs)?
Number of legacy servers out of support
Percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame
Number of patches deployed outside of business hours
Percentage of patched systems tested
Monitoring the percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame is a critical key control indicator for the patch management process. It reflects the organization's ability to apply necessary updates promptly, reducing exposure to known vulnerabilities. Timely patch deployment is essential for maintaining system security and compliance with organizational policies.
Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?
Business management approval of change requests
Separation of development and production environments
Requirement of an implementation rollback plan
IT management review of implemented changes
The most essential factor for an effective change control environment is the separation of development and production environments. This ensures that changes are tested and verified in a controlled environment before being implemented in the live environment, reducing the risk of errors, failures, and unauthorized modifications. Business management approval of change requests, requirement of an implementation rollback plan, and IT management review of implemented changes are important elements of change control, but they are not as essential as the separation of environments. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1.2, page 123.
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:
corporate culture alignment
low risk tolerance
high risk tolerance
corporate culture misalignment.
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure most likely demonstrates corporate culture misalignment, as it indicates that the organization is not following the principles and values of effective risk management, and that there is a lack of communication and coordination among the risk owners and stakeholders. Corporate culture misalignment can also result in inefficient and wasteful use of resources, and reduced risk-return trade-off. The organization should align its corporate culture with its risk appetite and tolerance, and ensure that the control costs are proportional and justified by the risk exposure and the expected benefits. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 255. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 255. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following would be the GREATEST challenge when implementing a corporate risk framework for a global organization?
Privacy risk controls
Business continuity
Risk taxonomy
Management support
The greatest challenge when implementing a corporate risk framework for a global organization is the management support. A corporate risk framework is a set of principles, policies, standards, and processes that guide and govern the risk management activities across the organization. Acorporate risk framework helps to establish a consistent and integrated approach to risk management, and to align the risk management objectives and strategies with the business goals and values. Implementing a corporate risk framework for a global organization requires the management support, which is the commitment, involvement, and endorsement of the senior management and the board. Management support is essential for providing the vision, direction, and resources for the risk management initiatives, and for ensuring the accountability, responsibility, and ownership of the risk management roles and functions. Management support is also critical for creating and sustaining a risk-aware culture, and for promoting the risk management awareness and communication among the stakeholders. Management support can be challenging to obtain and maintain, especially for a global organization, as it may face various barriers, such as different expectations, priorities, preferences, or perspectives of the management, lack of trust or confidence in the risk management value or performance, resistance to change or innovation, or competing interests or agendas. Privacy risk controls, business continuity, and risk taxonomy are not as challenging as management support, as they are thecomponents or outcomes of the corporate risk framework, andthey can be addressed or improved by applying the appropriate methods, techniques, or tools. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 35.
Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?
Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios
IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team
Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.
IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how IT-related events or incidents could adversely affect an organization’s objectives, assets, or operations. IT risk scenarios can help to identify, analyze, and prioritize IT risks, and to develop appropriate responses and controls1.
An enterprise-wide risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant risks that an organization faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. An enterprise-wide risk register can help to provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the organization’s risk profile, and to support the decision making and reporting of the risk management function2.
The best practice that facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register is to develop IT risk scenarios in the context of organizational objectives. This means that IT risk scenarios should be aligned with and derived from the organization’s strategic goals, mission, vision, and values. IT risk scenarios should also consider the interdependenciesand interactions between IT and other business domains, and the potential impact of IT risks on the organization’s performance and reputation3.
By developing IT risk scenarios in the context of organizational objectives, the organization can ensure that the IT risk scenarios are relevant, realistic, and meaningful for the enterprise-wide risk management. The organization can also ensure that the IT risk scenarios are consistent and comparable with other types of risk scenarios, such as financial, operational, or reputational risk scenarios. This can facilitate the integration and consolidation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register, and enable a holistic and balanced assessment and reporting of the organization’s risks4.
The other options are not as effective as developing IT risk scenarios in the context of organizational objectives for incorporating IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register. Developing key risk indicators (KRIs) for key IT risk scenarios can help to monitor and measure the IT risk exposure and performance, but it does not ensure that the IT risk scenarios are aligned with the organizational objectives or integrated with other risk scenarios. Assessing IT risk scenarios by the enterprise risk management team can help to validate and prioritize the IT risk scenarios, but it does not ensure that the IT risk scenarios are derived from the organizational objectives or consistent with other risk scenarios. Approving risk appetites for IT risk scenarios by key business stakeholders can help to establish the acceptable level of IT risk taking andtolerance, but it does not ensure that the IT risk scenarios are based on the organizational objectives or comparable with other risk scenarios. References =
IT Risk Scenario Development - ISACA
Risk Register - ISACA
Identifying Risks and Scenarios Threatening the Organization as an Enterprise - A New Enterprise Risk Identification Framework
Risk Register 2021-2022 - UNECE
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?
Automated access revocation
Daily transaction reconciliation
Rule-based data analytics
Role-based user access model
A role-based user access model is a type of technology control that assigns access rights and permissions to users based on their roles and responsibilities within the organization. A role-based user access model can reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally, because it can help to:
Enforce the principle of least privilege, which means that users only have the minimum level of access required to perform their duties
Implement segregation of duties, which means that users cannot perform conflicting or incompatible functions, such as initiating and approving payments
Prevent unauthorized or inappropriate access to sensitive data or systems, such as payment information or applications
Detect and deter fraud attempts by creating audit trails and logs of user activities and transactions
Simplify and streamline the management and maintenance of user access rights and permissions, such as adding, modifying, or deleting users or roles12
The other options are not as important as a role-based user access model for reducing the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally. Automated access revocation is a technology control that automatically revokes or suspends user access rights and permissions when certain conditions are met, such as termination of employment, change of role, or expiration of password. Automated access revocation can help to prevent fraud by former or inactive users, but it does not address the risk of fraud by current oractive users3. Daily transaction reconciliation is a technology control that compares and verifies the transactions recorded in different systems or sources, such as bank statements and accounting records. Daily transaction reconciliation can help to detect fraud by identifying discrepancies or anomalies in the transactions, but it does not prevent fraud from occurring in the first place4. Rule-based data analytics is a technology control that applies predefined rules or criteria to analyze data and identify patterns, trends, or outliers. Rule-based data analytics can help to monitor fraud by generating alerts or reports of suspicious or unusual transactions, but it does not prevent fraud from happening or being attempted5. References =
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) - ISACA
Role-Based Access Control: What It Is and How It Works
Automated Access Revocation - ISACA
Reconciliation - ISACA
Rule-Based Data Analytics - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:
before system development begins.
at system development.
at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).
during the development of the business case.
Risk assessments are most effective when performed at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a framework that defines the phases and activities of developing, implementing, and maintaining a system. The SDLC typically consists of the following stages: initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, testing, implementation, and maintenance. Performing risk assessments at each stage of the SDLC helps to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks that could affect the system objectives, requirements, functionality, quality, or performance. Performing risk assessments at each stage of the SDLC also helps to select and implement the appropriate risk responses, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risks. Performing risk assessments at each stage of the SDLC also helps to monitor and report the risk status and performance, and to update and adjust the risk assessment and response as the system changes or evolves. Performing risk assessments before system development begins, at system development, or during the development of the business case are not as effective as performing risk assessments at each stage of the SDLC, as they are either too early or too late, and they do not capture the full scope and complexity of the system risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?
Perform annual risk assessments.
Interview process owners.
Review the risk register.
Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).
Control processes are the procedures and activities that aim to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s operations, the reliability of its information, and the compliance with its policies and regulations12.
The ongoing efficiency of control processes is the degree to which the control processes achieve their intended results with minimum resources, costs, or waste34.
The best way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes is to analyze key performance indicators (KPIs), which are quantifiable measures of progress toward an intended result, such as a strategic objective or a desired outcome56.
Analyzing KPIs is the best way because it provides a systematic and consistent method of evaluating the performance of the control processes, and identifying the areas of improvement or optimization56.
Analyzing KPIs is also the best way because it enables the organization to monitor and report the efficiency of the control processes to the relevant stakeholders, and to take corrective or preventive actions when necessary56.
The other options are not the best way, but rather possible sources of information or inputs that may support or complement the analysis of KPIs. For example:
Performing annual risk assessments is a way to identify and evaluate the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, and to determine the adequacy and effectiveness ofthe control processes in mitigating those risks12. However, this way is not the best because it is periodic rather than continuous, and may not capture the changes or trends in the efficiency of the control processes12.
Interviewing process owners is a way to collect and verify the information and feedback from the people who are responsible for designing, implementing, and operating the control processes12. However, this way is not the best because it is subjective and qualitative, and may not provide reliable or comparable data on the efficiency of the control processes12.
Reviewing the risk register is a way to examine and update the documentation and status of the risks and the control processes that are associated with them12. However, this way is not the best because it is descriptive rather than analytical, and may not measure or evaluate the efficiency of the control processes12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: The Control Process | Principles of Management4
4: Control Management: What it is + Why It’s Essential | Adobe Workfront5
5: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? Guide & Examples - Qlik1
6: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? - KPI.org2
An organization's risk tolerance should be defined and approved by which of the following?
The chief risk officer (CRO)
The board of directors
The chief executive officer (CEO)
The chief information officer (CIO)
The organization’s risk tolerance should be defined and approved by the board of directors, as they are the highest governing body of the organization and have the ultimate responsibility and accountability for the strategic direction and oversight of the risk management process. The board of directors should establish and communicate the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and ensure that they are aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, values, and goals. The board of directors should also monitor and review the risk management performance and outcomes, and provide guidance and support to the management and staff. The other options are not the correct answers, as they do not have the authority or responsibility to define and approve the organization’s risk tolerance, although they may have some roles or involvement in the risk management process. The chief risk officer (CRO) is the senior executive who leads and coordinates the risk management activities across the organization, and reports to the board of directors and the chief executive officer (CEO). The CRO should advise and assist the board of directors in defining and approving the risk tolerance, but they cannot do it on their own. The chief executive officer (CEO) is thehighest-ranking manager of the organization and has the responsibility and accountability for the execution and implementation of the risk management process. The CEO should support and communicate the risk tolerance defined and approved by the board of directors, but they cannot do it on their own. The chief information officer (CIO) is the senior executive who oversees and manages the information and technology functions and resources of the organization. The CIO should ensure that the IT risks and controls are aligned with the risk tolerance defined and approved by the board of directors, but they cannot do it on their own. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, page 24.
Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?
Recording changes to configuration files
Implementing automated vulnerability scanning
Restricting access to configuration documentation
Monitoring against the configuration standard
According to the CRISC Review Manual, monitoring against the configuration standard is the most effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files, because it ensures that any unauthorized or unintended changes are detected and corrected. Monitoring against the configuration standard involves comparing the actual configuration of the system with the approved baseline and identifying any deviations or discrepancies. The other options are not the most effective controls, because they do not ensure the integrity of the system configuration files. Recording changes to configuration files is a good practice, but it does not prevent unauthorized or unintended changes from occurring. Implementing automated vulnerability scanning is a preventive control that helps to identify and remediate potential weaknesses in the system, but it does not verify the integrity of the configuration files. Restricting access to configuration documentation is a security measure that limits the exposure of sensitive information, but it does not prevent unauthorized or unintended changes to the configuration files. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3, page 184.
An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?
Data controllers
Data processors
Data custodians
Data owners
Data processing is the activity of collecting, organizing, transforming, and analyzing data to produce useful information for decision making or other purposes12.
The role of the internal IT team in this situation is data processors, which are the people or entities that process data on behalf of the data controllers, who are the people or entities that determine the purposes and means of the data processing34.
Data processors are the role of the internal IT team because they are responsible for managing information through the applications that are used by the organization, and they act under the instructions and authority of the organization, which is the data controller34.
Data processors are also the role of the internal IT team because they have to comply with the data protection laws and regulations that apply to the data processing, and they have to ensure the security and confidentiality of the data34.
The other options are not the role of the internal IT team, but rather possible roles or terms that are related to data processing. For example:
Data custodians are the people or entities that have physical or logical control over the data, and they are responsible for implementing and maintaining the technical and administrative safeguards to protect the data56. However, this role is not the role of theinternal IT team because it is a subset or function of the data processor role, and it does not reflect the full scope of the data processing activities that the internal IT team performs56.
Data owners are the people or entities that have legal rights or authority over the data, and they are responsible for defining and enforcing the policies and rules for the data access, use, and quality . However, this role is not the role of the internal IT team because it is a different or separate role from the data processor role, and it does not reflect the relationship or agreement between the organization and the internal IT team . References =
1: Data Processing - Wikipedia1
2: Data Processing: Definition, Steps, and Types2
3: Data Controller vs Data Processor: What’s the Difference?3
4: Data controller vs data processor: What are the differences and responsibilities?4
5: Data Custodian - Wikipedia5
6: Data Custodian: Definition, Role & Responsibilities6
Data Owner - Wikipedia
Data Owner: Definition, Role & Responsibilities
An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?
Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place
Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process
Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.
Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.
The best course of action to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor is to ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process. This can help to avoid ambiguity, confusion, or disputes over the ownership, responsibility, and liability of the data and the data transfer process. Meeting with the business leaders, collecting requirements, and working with the information security officer are important activities, but they are not as effective as ensuring the contractual agreement is clear and enforceable. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?
Mean time to recover (MTTR)
IT system criticality classification
Incident management service level agreement (SLA)
Recovery time objective (RTO)
The best indicator of the risk appetite and tolerance level for the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures is the recovery time objective (RTO). The RTO is the maximum acceptable time or duration that a business process or an IT system can be disrupted or interrupted before it causes unacceptable impact or harm to the business. The RTO reflects the risk appetite and tolerance level for thebusiness interruption risk, as it indicates how much disruption or interruption the business can tolerate or accept, and how quickly the business needs to resume or recover the business process or the IT system. The RTO also helps to determine the priorities and requirements for the business continuity and recovery planning, and to select and implement the appropriate continuity and recovery strategies and solutions. Mean time to recover(MTTR), IT system criticality classification, and incident management service level agreement (SLA) are not the best indicators of the risk appetite and tolerance level for the business interruption risk, as they are either the measures or the outcomes of the business continuity and recovery performance, and they do not directly indicate how much disruption or interruption the business can tolerate or accept. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?
High percentage of lagging indicators
Nonexistent benchmark analysis
Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring
Ineffective methods to assess risk
The greatest concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) is using ineffective methods to assess risk. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. To establish effective KRIs, the risk assessment methods should be reliable, valid, consistent, and timely. Ineffective methods to assess risk could lead to inaccurate or misleading KRIs, which could result in poor risk management decisions and outcomes. The other options are not as significant as using ineffective methods to assess risk, although they may also affect the quality and usefulness of KRIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?
Insufficient network isolation
impact on network performance
insecure data transmission protocols
Lack of interoperability between sensors
Insecure data transmission protocols should be of greatest concern when an organization is implementing internet of Things (IoT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters, because they can expose the IoT devices and data to unauthorized access,interception, or manipulation. Insecure data transmission protocols can also compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the IoT system and the information it collects and transmits. The other options are not the greatest concerns, although they may also pose some challenges or risks to the IoT implementation. Insufficient network isolation, impact on networkperformance, and lack of interoperability between sensors are examples of technical or operational issues that can affect the functionality, efficiency, or compatibility of the IoT system, but they do not have the same severity or impact as insecure data transmission protocols. References = CRISC Sample Questions 2024
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?
Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan
Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls
Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level
Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk
The primary focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk is to ensure that the control design reduces the risk to an acceptable level. This means that the risk owner shouldverify that the control objectives, specifications, and implementation are aligned with the risk mitigation plan, and that the control is effective in reducing the risk exposure to within the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner should also ensure that the control design is consistent with the enterprise’s policies, standards, and procedures, and that it complies with any relevant laws, regulations, or contractual obligations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.4, page 185.
The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:
detected incidents.
residual risk.
vulnerabilities.
inherent risk.
Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying risk responses, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance. It represents the level of exposure that the organisation is willing to tolerate or assume. Residual risk should be aligned with the organisation’s risk appetite and risk tolerance, which are determined by senior management. Therefore, the best way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in residual risk that the control would achieve. This would demonstrate how the control would help the organisation meet its riskobjectives and reduce the likelihood or impact of adverse events. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 25.
Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?
The scenarios are based on industry best practice.
The scenarios focus on current vulnerabilities.
The scenarios are relevant to the organization.
The scenarios include technical consequences.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the potential causes, impacts, and responses of a risk event. Risk scenarios are useful tools for identifying, analyzing, and communicating risks in a clear and understandable way. The most important factor when developing risk scenarios is to ensure that they are relevant to the organization, as this helps to capture the specific context, objectives, processes, and resources of the organization, and to reflect the actual risk exposure and appetite of the organization. Relevant risk scenarios also help to engage and involve the stakeholders, and to facilitate risk-based decision making and action planning. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 206.
Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?
Balanced scorecard
Threat and vulnerability assessment
Compliance assessments
Business impact analysis (BIA)
A threat and vulnerability assessment is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential sources and impacts of risk events on an organization’s assets, processes, and objectives. It also estimates the probability of occurrence and the severity of consequences for each risk event. A threat and vulnerability assessment is the best way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization, as it provides a numerical or qualitative measure of the risk exposure and the level of uncertainty associated with the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, p. 68-69
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting digital signature software?
Availability
Nonrepudiation
Accuracy
Completeness
Digital Signature Software:
Digital signatures are used to verify the authenticity and integrity of a message, document, or software. They provide cryptographic proof that the information has not been altered and that it comes from a verified source.
Importance of Nonrepudiation:
Nonrepudiation ensures that the sender of the message cannot deny having sent the message and the recipient cannot deny having received it. This is critical for legal and security purposes, as it provides undeniable proof of the origin and integrity of the information.
Selecting Digital Signature Software:
When selecting digital signature software, the most important consideration is that it provides strong nonrepudiation capabilities. This ensures that all parties involved can trust the authenticity and integrity of the signed data.
Comparing Other Considerations:
Availability:Ensures the software is accessible when needed but does not directly impact the trustworthiness of the signatures.
Accuracy:Important but generally inherent in properly functioning digital signature software.
Completeness:Ensures all required information is included but nonrepudiation is the critical factor for security and legal purposes.
References:
The CISSP Study Guide emphasizes the importance of nonrepudiation in digital signature technology to ensure authenticity and accountability (Sybex CISSP Study Guide, Chapter 7: PKI and Cryptographic Applications).
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership
regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?
Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices
Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies
Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies
Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies
The most important consideration is that the risk framework and policies are adaptable and suitable for emerging technologies. This ensures that the organization's approach to risk management remains effective and relevant as new technologies are adopted, helping to mitigate potential risks associated with these technologies.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Logs are retained for longer than required.
Logs are reviewed annually.
Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.
Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.
Log modification undermines data integrity, which is critical for accurate risk monitoring. Ensuring log integrity supports reliable KRI assessments, a key focus within theRisk Monitoring and Reportingframework.
To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and enterprise risk management (ERM), it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:
Key risk indicators (KRIs).
Risk velocity.
Risk response plans and owners.
Risk impact and likelihood.
A consistent approach to reporting risk impact and likelihood is crucial for integrating IT risk scenarios into the broader enterprise risk management framework. Standardizing these metrics ensures that risks are assessed and compared uniformly across the organization, facilitating informed decision-making and prioritization of risk responses.
Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?
Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios
Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution
Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans
Prioritization for implementing the action plans
The management’s primary consideration when approving risk response action plans should be the changes in residual risk after implementing the plans. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. It indicates the degree of exposure or uncertainty that the organization still faces, and the potential impact or consequences of the risk events. The management should evaluate the effectiveness and adequacy of the risk responses, and decide whether the residual risk is acceptable or not2. The management should also compare the residual risk with the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives3. The management should ensure that the residual risk is aligned with the risk appetite, and that the risk responses are consistent and proportional to the risk level4.
The other options are not the primary consideration when approving risk response action plans, because:
Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios is a desirable but not essential criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how a risk event could occur and what the consequences could be5. They can help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risks, and to design and evaluate the risk responses6. However, not all risk scenarios are equally likely or relevant, and some risk scenarios may be too complex or improbable to address. Therefore, the ability of the action plansto address multiple risk scenarios is not the primary consideration, but rather a secondary or supplementary one.
Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution is a practical but not critical criterion for approving risk response action plans. Risk treatment is the process of selecting and applying appropriate measures to modify the risk7. It can involve different strategies, such as avoid, reduce, transfer, or accept the risk8. The ease of implementing the risk treatment solution depends on various factors, such as the availability of resources, the feasibility of the solution, or the cooperation of the stakeholders. However, the ease of implementation is not the primary consideration, but rather a supporting or facilitating one.
Prioritization for implementing the action plans is a useful but not vital criterion for approving risk response action plans. Prioritization is the process of ranking the action plans according to their importance, urgency, or impact. It can help to allocate the resources, schedule the activities, and monitor the progress of the action plans. However, prioritization is not the primary consideration, but rather a subsequent or follow-up one.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack - ISACA
Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
[Prioritization - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?
Impact analysis
Control analysis
Root cause analysis
Threat analysis
The best tool to enable risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP) is an impact analysis. An impact analysis is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of an interruption or disruption of business operations on the organization’scritical functions, processes, and resources. An impact analysis can help to determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies forthe BCP. Control analysis, root cause analysis, and threat analysis are other possible tools, but they are not as effective as an impact analysis. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY accountability for a control owner?
Communicate risk to senior management.
Own the associated risk the control is mitigating.
Ensure the control operates effectively.
Identify and assess control weaknesses.
The primary accountability for a control owner is to ensure the control operates effectively, as they have the authority and responsibility to design, implement, monitor, and report on the performance and adequacy of the control, and to identify and address any control gaps or deficiencies. Communicating risk to senior management, owning the associated risk the control is mitigating, and identifying and assessing control weaknesses are not the primaryaccountabilities, as they are more related to the roles and responsibilities of the risk owner, the risk practitioner, or the auditor, respectively, rather than the control owner. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be
disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local
regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's
BEST course of action?
The application code has not been version controlled.
Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.
An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.
Controls are not applied to the applications.
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?
Occurrences of specific events
A performance measurement
The risk tolerance level
Risk scenarios
Occurrences of specific events are the most likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds, as they represent the actual or potential realization of the risk. A KRI is a metric that measures the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and it has predefined thresholds that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable risk status. When a specific event occurs that affects the risk, such as a security breach, a system failure, or a compliance violation, the KRI value may change and exceed the thresholds, triggering an alert or an action. A performance measurement, the risk tolerance level, and risk scenarios are not the most likely to cause a KRI to exceed thresholds, as they do not reflect the actual or potential occurrence of the risk, but rather the expected or desired outcome, limit, or simulation of the risk. References = [CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version)], page 121; CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 217.
Following a business continuity planning exercise, an organization decides to accept an identified risk associated with a critical business system. Which of the following should be done next?
Document the decision-making process and considerations used
Perform a business impact analysis (BIA) to assess the impact of the risk
Develop a disaster recovery plan (DRP) and business continuity plan (BCP) to ensure resiliency
Develop a control to reduce the level of the risk
When a risk is accepted, it must be documented in the risk register—including rationale, alternatives evaluated, decision-makers, and contextual factors. This aligns with governance and audit accountability requirements in ISACA guidance.
Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?
Management has not determined a final implementation date.
Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.
Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.
Management has not begun the implementation.
The observation that would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans is that management has not begun the implementation, because it indicates that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored, and that the risks are not being addressed or mitigated. The lack of implementation may also imply that the management action plans are not realistic, feasible, or aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and objectives. The other options are not as concerning as the lack of implementation, because:
Option A: Management has not determined a final implementation date is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may affect the timely completion and delivery of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored.
Option B: Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may indicate a delay or deviation in the progress and performance of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored.
Option C: Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may affect the quality and effectiveness of the management actionplans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 123.
When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?
Users may share accounts with business system analyst
Application may not capture a complete audit trail.
Users may be able to circumvent application controls.
Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process
The risk of users circumventing application controls is the most significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database. This is because users may have direct access to the data and bypass the validation, authorization, and logging mechanisms that are implemented at the application level. Users may also be able to modify or delete data without proper authorization or audit trail. The other options are less significant exposures, as they do not directly affect the integrity or confidentiality of the data. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009, page 35; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 214.
A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.
Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.
Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.
Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the contracts department is responsible for drafting, reviewing, and negotiating contracts with vendors and other third parties. The contracts department should ensure that the contracts include adequate clauses and terms to address the risks and controls related to the vendor services and activities. Therefore, the best course of action for the risk practitioner when finding a missing clause to control privileged access to the organization’s systems by vendor employees is to report this concern to the contracts department for further action. The contracts department can then revise the contract to include the necessary clause, or seek alternative solutions to mitigate the risk of unauthorized or inappropriate access by vendor employees. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 229.
An organization has contracted with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. Of the following, who should own the associated risk?
The head of enterprise architecture (EA)
The IT risk manager
The information security manager
The product owner
The product owner should own the associated risk when contracting with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. The product owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for defining the product vision, requirements, and priorities. The product owner also has the accountability for the business value and outcomes of the product. Therefore, the product owner should be the one who identifies, assesses, and manages the risks related to the cloud service provider, such as security, compliance, performance, and quality. The product owner should also collaborate with the other stakeholders, such as the head of EA, the IT risk manager, and the information security manager, to ensure that the cloud service provider meets the organization’s standards and expectations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: IT Risk Mitigation, Section 5.3: IT Risk Mitigation Strategies and Approaches, Page 254; Best Practices to Manage Risks in the Cloud - ISACA.
A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?
Payroll system risk factors
Payroll system risk mitigation plans
Payroll process owner
Payroll administrative controls
Payroll system risk mitigation plans are the actions that are taken to reduce or eliminate the risk associated with payroll processing. When a migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing, the first part of the risk register that should be updated is the payroll system risk mitigation plans. This is because the migration may introduce new risks or change the existing risks, and the risk mitigation plans may need to be revised or replaced accordingly. Updating the payroll system risk mitigation plans can help ensure that the risk level is acceptable and the payroll process is secure and reliable. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk treatment techniques is to update the risk action plan, which is a document that outlines the risk mitigation plans1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, updating the risk mitigation plans is the correct answer to this question2.
Payroll system risk factors, payroll process owner, and payroll administrative controls are not the first part of the risk register that should be updated when a migration is affecting a key risk scenario. Payroll system risk factors are the sources or causes of risk, such as threats, vulnerabilities, or uncertainties. Payroll process owner is the person who is responsible for the payroll process and its outcomes. Payroll administrative controls are the policies, procedures, or guidelines that govern the payroll process. These parts of the risk register may also need to be updated, but they are not as urgent or critical as the risk mitigation plans. Updating the risk factors, process owner, and administrative controls can help identify, assess, and monitor the risk, but they do not directly address the risk response. The risk response is the most important part of the risk management process, as it determines how the risk is handled and controlled.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?
To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles
To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets
To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets
To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets
Understanding vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets is the primary reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization’s IT asset inventory, as it helps to identify and assess the potential threats and risks to the assets. The other options are not the primary reasons for a risk practitioner to review an organization’s IT asset inventory, although they may be related to the process.
The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:
inconsistencies between security policies and procedures
possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure
leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)
unknown threats to undermine existing access controls
The primary benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure. Continuous monitoring of access controls is a process that involves collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance and effectiveness of the access controls on a regular basis. Continuous monitoring of access controls helps to detect and prevent any unauthorized or inappropriate access to information assets, and to ensure that the access controls arealigned with the enterprise’s security policies and standards. Continuous monitoring of access controls also helps to identify possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure, such as data leakage, data theft, data tampering, or data breach. By identifying these activities, the enterprise can take timely and appropriate actions to mitigate the risk and protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 1411
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure an organization's current risk scenarios are relevant?
Adoption of industry best practices
Involvement of stakeholders in risk assessment
Review of risk scenarios by independent parties
Documentation of potential risk in business cases
The MOST effective way to help ensure an organization’s current risk scenarios are relevant is to involve the stakeholders in the risk assessment process, because they are the ones who have the knowledge, experience, and interest in the risk scenarios that affect their domains and objectives. The involvement of stakeholders can help to identify and validate the risk scenarios, to provide input and feedback on the risk analysis and evaluation, and to ensure the alignment andintegration of the risk scenarios with the business processes and goals. The other options are not as effective as the involvement of stakeholders, because:
Option A: Adoption of industry best practices is a good way to improve the quality and consistency of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s specific context and environment. Industry best practices are general and standardized guidelines that may not reflect the organization’s unique risks and needs.
Option C: Review of risk scenarios by independent parties is a useful way to verify and enhance the accuracy and reliability of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s internal and external stakeholders. Independent parties are objective and impartial reviewers who may not have the same knowledge, experience, and interest as the stakeholders.
Option D: Documentation of potential risk in business cases is a helpful way to communicate and justify the importance and value of the risk scenarios, but it does not ensure their relevance to the organization’s current and future state. Business cases are concise and persuasive documents that may not capture all the aspects and dimensions of the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 104.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in
to implement additional IT controls?
List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.
Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.
Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.
Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.
Presenting the impact of IT risks on organizational processes in monetary terms is effective for obtaining management buy-in because it directly relates to the organization's financial health and decision-making. It provides a clear and tangible understanding of the potential financialimplications of risks, making it easier for management to appreciate the need for additional controls.
The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:
highlight trends of developing risk.
ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.
take appropriate actions in a timely manner.
set different triggers for each stakeholder.
The primary reason for establishing various threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to take appropriate actions in a timely manner. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk or the effectiveness of the controls in place. Threshold levels are predefined values that indicate when the risk level is acceptable, tolerable, or unacceptable. By establishing various threshold levels for a set of KRIs, the enterprise can monitor the risk situation and trigger the necessary responses before the risk becomes too severe or costly to mitigate. The other options are not the primary reasons for establishing various threshold levels, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 189.
A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
reflect the results of risk assessments.
be available to all stakeholders.
effectively support a business maturity model.
be reviewed by the IT steering committee.
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?
Fewer security incidents have been reported.
The number of audit findings has decreased.
Residual risk is reduced.
inherent risk Is unchanged.
Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses. An effective risk management program should aim to reduce the residual risk to a level that is acceptable by the enterprise, in alignment with its risk appetite and tolerance. The reduction of residual risk indicates that the risk responses are appropriate and effective, and that the enterprise is achieving its objectives while managing its risks. The other options are not necessarily indicative of an effective risk management program, as they may depend on other factors, such as the reporting culture, the audit scope and methodology, and the nature and source of the inherent risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.3.1, pp. 24-25.
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?
The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.
The KRIs are not automated.
The KRIs are not quantitative.
The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs) is that the KRIs’ source data lacks integrity, as this means that the data is inaccurate, incomplete, inconsistent, or outdated, and therefore cannot provide reliable and valid information on the risk level and performance. The KRIs are metrics that measure and monitor the changes in the risk exposure and the effectiveness of the risk response over time. The KRIs’ source data should be collected and verified from credible and relevant sources, and should be updated and maintained regularly. The KRIs’ source data should also be aligned and integrated with the enterprise’s data governance and quality standards. The other options are not the greatest concerns for a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs), although they may pose some challenges or limitations. The KRIs are not automated is a concern for the efficiency and timeliness of the KRI reporting and analysis, but it does not affect the integrity of the KRI sourcedata. The KRIs are not quantitative is a concern for the objectivity and comparability of the KRI measurement and prioritization, but it does not affect the integrity of the KRI source data. The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis is a concern for the usefulness and relevance of the KRI communication and decision making, but it does not affect the integrity of the KRI source data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 183.
A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:
identification.
treatment.
communication.
assessment
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the results of a risk analysis in a matrix format, using colors and symbols to indicate the level and priority of the risks. A risk heat map can show the distribution and comparison of the risks based on various criteria, such as likelihood, impact, category, source, etc.
A risk heat map is most commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk assessment, which is the process of determining the significance and urgency of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk assessment involves measuring and comparing the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their magnitude and importance.
A risk heat map can help to facilitate risk assessment by providing a visual and intuitive representation of the risk profile, and highlighting the most critical and relevant risks that need to be addressed or monitored. A risk heat map can also help to communicate and report the riskanalysis results to different stakeholders, and to support the decision making and planning for the risk response and treatment.
The other options are not the most common uses of a risk heat map as part of an IT risk analysis, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of a risk heat map, which is to facilitate risk assessment.
Risk identification is the process of finding and describing the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk identification involves defining the risk sources, events, causes, and impacts, and documenting them in a risk register. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk identification, because it does not provide the detailed and comprehensive information that is needed to identify and describe the risks, and it may not cover all the relevant or potential risks that may exist or emerge.
Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing the appropriate actions or plans to address the risks that have been identified, analyzed, and evaluated. Risk treatment involves choosing one of the following types of risk responses: mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk treatment, because it does not provide the specific and feasible information that is needed to select and implement the risk responses, and it may not reflect the cost-benefit or feasibility analysis of the risk responses.
Risk communication is the process of exchanging and sharing the information and knowledge about the risks and their responses among the relevant stakeholders. Risk communication involves informing, consulting, and involving the stakeholders in the risk management process, and ensuring that they understand and agree on the risk objectives, criteria, and outcomes. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk communication, because it does not provide the complete and accurate information that is needed to communicate and share the risks and their responses, and it may not address the different needs, expectations, and perspectives of the stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 169
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?
Implementing control activities
Monitoring control effectiveness
Conducting control self-assessments
Owning risk scenarios
The second line of defense is a group of functions that provide oversight, guidance, and monitoring of the risk management activities of the first line of defense. The second line of defense includes risk management, compliance, and internal control departments. Their key responsibility is to monitor the effectiveness of the control activities implemented by the first line of defense, and to report any issues or gaps to senior management and the board. The second line of defense also supports the first line of defense by providing frameworks, policies, tools,and techniques to identify, measure, and manage risks. The other options are not the key responsibility of the second line of defense, as explained below:
A. Implementing control activities is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which consists of the business units and process owners that own and manage the risks associated with their daily operations.
C. Conducting control self-assessments is a technique used by the first line of defense to evaluate the design and operation of their own controls, and to identify and report any deficiencies or improvement opportunities.
D. Owning risk scenarios is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which is accountable for the risks inherent in their business activities, and for developing and executing risk response strategies. References = Modernizing The Three Lines of Defense Model | Deloitte US, The second line of defence: fit for purpose, not an uncomfortable fit | Knowledge | Linklaters, COSO’s Take on the Three Lines of Defense | ERM - Enterprise Risk Management, Three Lines of Defense | Risk Management - Schneider Downs CPAs, What is the Three Lines of Defense Approach to Risk Management?
An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?
The service provider
Vendor risk manager
Legal counsel
Business process owner
The business process owner should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider, as they have the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of the business process. The business process owner is also accountable for the risks and controls associated with their process, and they can provide valuable input and feedback on the likelihood and impact of customer data leakage on the process outcomes and objectives.
The other options are not the best choices for owning the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider. The service provider is responsible for delivering and supporting the billing function and ensuring the security and privacy of the customer data, but they may not have the full visibility or understanding of the business process and objectives. The vendor risk manager is responsible for managing and monitoring the vendor relationship and performance, but they may not have the direct involvement or influence on the business process and its risks and controls. The legal counsel is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance on the contractual and regulatory obligations and implications of the outsourcing arrangement, but they may not have the detailed knowledge or experience of the business process and its risks andcontrols. References = Guide to Vendor Risk Assessment | Smartsheet, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Data Ownership: Considerations for Risk Management - ISACA
Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?
Risk monitoring
Risk mitigation
Risk aggregation
Risk assessment
Reviewing historical risk events is most useful for the risk assessment process within the risk management life cycle. Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the project or the organization1. Reviewing historical risk events can help to:
Identify the sources, causes, and consequences of past risks and learn from the successes and failures of previous projects or organizations
Analyze the likelihood and impact of potential risks based on historical data and trends, and use statistical methods or models to estimate the probability and severity of risk scenarios
Evaluate the level of risk exposure and compare it with the risk appetite and tolerance of the project or the organization, and prioritize the risks that need further attention or action
Use historical risk events as inputs or examples for risk identification and analysis techniques, such as brainstorming, checklists, interviews, surveys, SWOT analysis, root cause analysis, or Monte Carlo simulation2
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Assessment Process3
When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?
List of recent incidents affecting industry peers
Results of external attacks and related compensating controls
Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment
Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry
The best thing to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile is the gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment, as this shows the stakeholders the extent and impact of the changes, and the actions and resources needed to address them. The control environment is the set of policies, processes, and systems that provide reasonableassurance that the IT risks are identified, assessed, and treated effectively and efficiently. The current state of the control environment reflects the existing level and performance of the controls, and the residual risk that remains after the controls are applied. The desired state of the control environment reflects the target level and performance of the controls, and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment indicate the areas of improvement or enhancement for the IT risk management process, and the priorities and strategies for risk response. The other options are not the best things to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile, although they may be useful or relevant information. A list of recent incidents affecting industry peers can provide some context and comparison for the IT risk profile, but it does not measure or explain the changes in the IT risk level or the control environment. Results of external attacks and related compensating controls can demonstrate the security and resilience of the IT systems and networks, but they do not cover the entire scope or spectrum of the IT risk profile or the control environment. A review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry can provide some insights and benchmarks for the IT risk management process, but it does not reflect thespecific situation or needs of the organization or the stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 181.
During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?
Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.
Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.
Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.
Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment
A new risk scenario without controls means that there is a potential threat or event that could adversely affect the organization’s objectives, and there are no existing measures to prevent or reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment, so that the risk practitioner can analyze therisk, evaluate its severity and priority, and recommend suitable controls to mitigate the risk. By including the new risk scenario in the current riskassessment, the risk practitioner can ensure that the risk register is updated and reflects the current risk profile of the organization. The other options are not appropriate because they either ignore the new risk scenario, delay the risk assessment process, or remove valuable information from the risk register. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 95.
The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:
gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization
gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization
adjust the controls prior to an external audit
reduce the dependency on external audits
A control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that allows managers and work teams directly involved in business units, functions, or processes to participate in assessing the organization’s risk management and control processes. The main purpose of conducting a CSA is to gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization, which means how well the controls are designed, implemented, and operated to achieve the desired outcomes and mitigate the risks. A CSA can help to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the existing controls, as well as the gaps and opportunities for improvement. A CSA can also help to enhance the awareness, ownership, and accountability of the control environment among the managers and staff. The other options are not the main purpose of conducting a CSA, although they may be related or beneficial. Gaining a better understanding of the risk in the organization is a result of conducting a CSA, but it is not the primary goal. The primary goal is to evaluate the controls that address the risks, not the risks themselves. Adjusting the controls prior to an external audit is a possible action that may follow a CSA, but it is not the reason for conducting a CSA. The reasonfor conducting a CSA is to improve the control effectiveness, not to prepare for an audit. Reducing the dependency on external audits is a potential benefit of conducting a CSA, but it is not the objective of conducting a CSA. The objective of conducting a CSA is to enhance the internal control assurance, not to replace the external audit assurance. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 153-1541; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 802
Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?
Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)
Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)
Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage
Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements
The most helpful way to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives is to include key stakeholders in the review of user requirements, because this ensures that the application is designed and developed according to the needs and expectations of the end users and the business owners. Including key stakeholders in the review of user requirements also helps to avoid scope creep, requirement changes, or miscommunication that may affect the quality, functionality, or usability of the application. The other options are not the most helpful ways to mitigate the risk, although they may also be useful in reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk. Identifying threats that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA), including diverse business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT), and performing risk assessments during the business case development stage are examples of preventive or detective controls that aim to identify and address the potential issues or problems that may arise during the application development process, but they do not address the alignment of the applicationwith the business objectives. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?
Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.
Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.
Validate the threat management process.
Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.
The risk management process is the systematic and continuous process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or assets1. The risk management process should be aligned with the organization’s overall risk management framework and strategy, and support the organization’s value creation and protection2.
Having the risk management process reviewed by a third party is a good practice that can provide various benefits for the organization, such as:
Enhancing the credibility and reliability of the risk management process and outcomes
Identifying and addressing any weaknesses, gaps, or errors in the risk management process and controls
Providing independent and objective feedback and recommendations for improving the risk management process and performance
Ensuring compliance with the relevant laws, regulations, and standards for risk management3
Among the four options given, the primary reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party is to obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors. This means that the third party can help to:
Assess the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management process and its alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
Detect and report any inconsistencies, inefficiencies, or inaccuracies in the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, or treatment activities
Identify and prioritize the root causes and consequences of the process gaps and systemic errors, and their impact on the organization’s risk exposure and acceptance
Suggest and implement corrective or preventive actions that can resolve or mitigate the process gaps and systemic errors, and prevent their recurrence
References = Risk Management Process - ISO 31000, Enterprise Risk Management - Wikipedia, How to Select a Third-Party Risk Management Framework
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?
An email from the user accepting the account
Notification from human resources that the account is active
User privileges matching the request form
Formal approval of the account by the user's manager
According to the CRISC Review Manual, formal approval of the account by the user’s manager is the best evidence that a user account has been properly authorized, because it ensures that the user’s role and access rights are consistent with the business needs and the principle of least privilege. The user’s manager is responsible for verifying the user’s identity, job function, and access requirements, and for approving or rejecting the account request. The other options are not the best evidence of proper authorization, because they do not involve the user’s manager’s approval. An email from the user accepting the account is a confirmation of the account creation, but it does not indicate that the account was authorized by the user’s manager. Notification from human resources that the account is active is an administrative process that does not verify the user’s access rights and role. User privileges matching the request form is a verification of the account configuration, but it does not ensure that the request form was approved by the user’s manager. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.2, page 163.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?
The type of shared data
The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented
The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified
The impact to affected stakeholders
The impact to affected stakeholdersis the most critical factor when considering risks tied to re-identification. ISACA notes that risk is ultimately measured by how it affects stakeholders—including customers, partners, and regulators—particularly when personal data is involved.
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Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?
Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system
Frequency of business impact
Cost of the Information control system
Residual risk is the risk that remains after security controls have been implemented on a system. Residual risk can be accepted, transferred, avoided, or further mitigated. The most important consideration when deciding whether to accept residual risk is the cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls. This means comparing the potential impact of the residual risk with the cost and effectiveness of implementing more controls to reduce it. If the cost of additional controls outweighs the benefit of reducing the residual risk, then it may be acceptableto accept the residual risk. However, if the benefit of additional controls exceeds the cost, then it may be advisable to implement more controls to lower the residual risk to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.4: Risk Response Selection, p. 156-157.
An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?
Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives
Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.
Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.
Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.
Data leakage is the unauthorized or accidental disclosure of sensitive or confidential data to unauthorized parties. Data leakage can cause serious damages or losses to the organization, such as data breaches, fines, lawsuits, reputational harm, or loss of customer trust. Data leakage can occur due to various reasons, such as human errors, malicious attacks, or inadequate controls1.
An organization that uses a vendor to destroy hard drives faces a risk of data leakage, as the vendor may not properly or securely destroy the hard drives, or may access or misuse the data stored on them. The best way to reduce this risk is to use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives, because it means that the vendor:
Has been certified or verified by a reputable or recognized authority or organization, such as ISACA, NAID, or R2, to provide hard drive destruction services
Follows the industry standards and best practices for hard drive destruction, such as NIST 800-88 or DoD 5220.22-M, and ensures the compliance with the legal and regulatory requirements, such as HIPAA, PCI DSS, or GDPR
Provides a secure and transparent process for hard drive destruction, such as using a specialized shredder, issuing a certificate of destruction, or allowing the customer to witness the destruction
Maintains a high level of professionalism and integrity, and does not compromise the confidentiality or security of the customer’s data234
The other options are not the best ways to reduce the risk of data leakage, but rather some of the steps or aspects of hard drive destruction. Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives is a step that can help to erase the data on the hard drives by using a strong magnetic field. However,degaussing may not be effective or reliable for some types of hard drives, such as solid state drives (SSDs), and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the data before degaussing5. Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives is an aspect that can help to protect the data on the hard drives by using a cryptographic algorithm to make it unreadable without a key. However, encryption may not be sufficient or applicable for some types of data, such as metadata, and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the key or the encrypted data6. Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager is a step that can help to verify that the hard drives have been destroyed by the vendor, and to document the process and the outcome. However, confirmation of destruction may not be accurate or authentic, and it may not prevent the vendor from accessing or misusing the data before destruction7. References =
Data Leakage - ISACA
Hard Drive Shredding Services | Hard Drive Destruction & Disposal
Hard Drive Shredding and Destruction Service | CompuCycle
Electronic Destruction & Recycling | Shred Nations
Degaussing - ISACA
Encryption - ISACA
Certificate of Destruction - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of employees unintentionally disclosing sensitive information to outside parties?
Regular employee security awareness training
Sensitive information classification and handling policies
Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices
An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)
Regular security awareness training educates employees about the importance of data protection and the potential consequences of unintentional disclosures. By increasing awareness, employees are more likely to recognize and avoid actions that could lead to data breaches, such as phishing attacks or mishandling sensitive information.
An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer data. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?
Risk likelihood
Inherent risk
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
The risk likelihood is the element of the risk register that should be updated to reflect the change of implementing encryption on all databases that host customer data. The risk likelihood is the probability or frequency of a risk event occurring, and it is one of the factors that determine the risk level and priority. By implementing encryption, the organization reduces the risk likelihood of unauthorized access, disclosure, or breach of the customer data, as encryption protects the data from being read or modified by anyone who does not have the decryption key. Therefore, the risk likelihood should be updated to reflect the lower probability of the risk event after applying the encryption control. The other options are not the elements that should be updated, as they are either not affected by or not related to the change of implementing encryption. The inherent risk is the level of risk before applying any controls or mitigation measures, and it does not change after implementing encryption. The risk appetite is the amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and it is not influenced by the change ofimplementing encryption. The risk tolerance is the acceptable variation between the risk thresholds and thebusiness objectives, and it is not determined by the change of implementing encryption. References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana; Risk Assessment in Project Management | PMI; Risk Assessment Process: Definition, Steps, and Examples; Risk Assessment - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?
Residual risk is reduced.
Staff costs are reduced.
Operational costs are reduced.
Inherent risk is reduced.
From a risk management perspective, the primary benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools is that they reduce the inherent risk, which is the risk that exists before any controls are applied. Automated system configuration validation tools can help to ensure that the system settings are consistent, compliant, and secure, and that they match the predefined standards and policies. This can reduce the likelihood and impact of errors, misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, or deviations that may compromise the system’s functionality, performance, or integrity. The other options are not the primary benefits of using automated system configuration validation tools, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the controls are applied, and it may not be directly affected by the automated system configuration validation tools. Staff costs and operational costs are related to the efficiency and economy of the system configuration process, but they are not the main risk management objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 150.
Which of the following BEST mitigates reputational risk associated with disinformation campaigns against an organization?
Monitoring digital platforms that disseminate inaccurate or misleading news stories
Engaging public relations personnel to debunk false stories and publications
Restricting the use of social media on corporate networks during specific hours
Providing awareness training to understand and manage these types of attacks
Understanding Reputational Risk:
Reputational risk arises from negative public perception, which can be fueled by disinformation campaigns. These campaigns spread false or misleading information about an organization, potentially damaging its reputation.
Mitigating Reputational Risk:
The best way to mitigate this risk is to actively counteract false information and restore public trust. This involves debunking false stories and correcting misinformation promptly and effectively.
Role of Public Relations:
Engaging public relations (PR) personnel is crucial in managing the organization's reputation. PR professionals are skilled in crafting messages, dealing with media, and using communication strategies to address and correct false narratives.
PR personnel can issue press releases, organize press conferences, and leverage social media to reach a wide audience, ensuring the correct information is disseminated.
Monitoring and Awareness Training:
While monitoring digital platforms and providing awareness training are important, they are more preventive measures. Monitoring helps in early detection, and training aids in internalmanagement of such risks. However, they do not actively counteract the false information once it is in the public domain.
Restricting Social Media:
Restricting social media usage on corporate networks does not address the core issue of disinformation campaigns. It may reduce internal risks but does not mitigate external reputational damage.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual discusses strategies for managing reputational risk and highlights the importance of proactive communication and public relations efforts (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.3.4 The Value of Risk Communication).
A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?
The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.
The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.
The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.
The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.
A contingency plan is a set of actions and procedures that aim to ensure the continuity of critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. An alternate processing site is a location where the organization can resume its information systems operations in case the primary site is unavailable or damaged. The most important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site for a company located on a moderate earthquake fault is to ensure that the alternative site does not reside on the same fault, no matter how far apart they are. This is because an earthquake can affect a large area along the fault line, and potentially damage both the primary and the alternative site, rendering them unusable. By choosing an alternative site that is not on the same fault, the company can reduce the risk of losing both sites, and increase the likelihood of restoring its operations quickly and effectively. The other options are not as important as the alternative site location, because they do not address the main threat of an earthquake, but rather focus on specific or partial aspects of the contingency plan, as explained below:
A. The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately is a consideration that relates to the availability and readiness of the alternative site, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. A hot site is a type of alternative site that has the necessary hardware, software, and network components to resume the information systems operations with minimal or no downtime. However, if the hot site is on the same fault asthe primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the data stored on them.
B. The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site is a consideration that relates to the integrity and recoverability of the data, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. Backup media are devices or systems that store copies of the data and information that are essential for the organization’s operations. Taking backup media to the alternative site can help the company to restore its data and resume its operations in case the primary site is damaged or destroyed. However, if the alternative site is on the same fault as the primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the backup media.
C. The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site is a consideration that relates to the performance and reliability of the alternative site, but it does not ensure that the site is safe and secure from an earthquake. A shared cold site is a type of alternative site that has the necessary space and infrastructure to accommodate the information systems operations, but does not have the hardware, software, or network components installed. A shared cold site is shared by multiple organizations, and may not be available or suitable for the company’s high priority applications, which require more resources and customization. However, if the alternative site is on the same fault as the primary site, it may not be accessible or functional after an earthquake, and the company may lose both sites and the ability to resume its high priority applications. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. How to conduct a contingency planning process - IFRC, CP-4(2): Alternate Processing Site - CSF Tools - Identity Digital, Information System Contingency Planning Guidance - ISACA
When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
Percentage of system uptime
Percentage of relevant threats mitigated
Total number of threats identified
Reaction time of the system to threats
The percentage of relevant threats mitigated is the best key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of an intrusion prevention system (IPS), because it measures how well the IPS is performing its intended function of preventing unauthorized access or attacks. The percentageof system uptime is not a good KCI, because it does not reflect the quality or accuracy of the IPS. The total number of threats identified is not a good KCI, because it does not indicate how many of those threats were actually prevented by the IPS. The reaction time of the system to threats is not a good KCI, because it does not measure the impact or severity of the threats that were prevented or not prevented by the IPS. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions2
Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?
A risk and control self-assessment
Senior management's attestation
A system-generated testing report
detailed process walk-through
The most reliable evidence of a control’s effectiveness is a system-generated testing report. A system-generated testing report is a document that shows the results of automated tests performed by the system to verify that the control is functioning as intended and producing the expected outcomes. A system-generated testing report is reliable, because it is objective, consistent, accurate, and timely, and because it can provide a high level of assurance and confidence in the control’s effectiveness. The other options are not as reliable as a system-generated testing report, although they may provide some evidence of the control’s effectiveness. A risk and control self-assessment, senior management’s attestation, and a detailed process walk-through are all examples of manual or subjective evidence, which may be prone to errors, biases, or inconsistencies, and which may provide a lower level of assurance and confidence in the control’s effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 3-32.
Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?
Results of the latest risk assessment
Results of a risk forecasting analysis
A review of compliance regulations
Findings of the most recent audit
A risk register is a document that is used as a risk management tool to identify and track risks that may affect a project or an organization1. A risk register should be updated regularly to reflect the current status and changes of the risks, as well as the actions taken to mitigate or resolve them2. The most comprehensive information for updating a risk register would come from the results of the latest risk assessment, which is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and their potential impacts3. A risk assessment provides a detailed and systematic overview of the risks, theirsources, causes, likelihood, severity, and consequences, as well as the existing and planned controls andresponses4. A risk assessment also helps to prioritize the risks based on their level of exposure and urgency, and to align them with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance5. Therefore, the results of the latest risk assessment would provide the most relevant and complete information for updating a risk register and ensuring that it reflects the current risk profile and situation of the project or the organization. Results of a risk forecasting analysis are not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as they do not provide a complete picture of the risks and their impacts. A risk forecasting analysis is a technique that uses historical data, trends, and scenarios to estimate the potential outcomes and impacts of future events that may affect the organization’s objectives and performance6. A risk forecasting analysis can help to anticipate and prepare for the risks, but it does not provide specific information on the sources, causes, likelihood, severity, and consequences of the risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. A review ofcompliance regulations is not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as it does not cover all the aspects and dimensions of risk management. A review of compliance regulations is a process that involves checking and verifying that the organization’s activities, processes, and systems are in accordance with the applicable laws, rules, and standards7. A review of compliance regulations can help to identify and mitigate the risks related to legal or regulatory violations, but it does not provide specific information on the other types and sources of risks, such as operational, strategic, financial, or reputational risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. Findings of the most recent audit are not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as they do not provide a current and holistic view of the risks and their impacts. An audit is an independent examination and evaluation of the organization’s activities, processes, and systems, to provide assurance and advice on their adequacy and effectiveness. An audit can help to identify and report the issues or gaps in the organization’s risk management, but it does not provide specific information on the current status and changes of the risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:
increased inherent risk.
higher risk management cost
decreased residual risk.
lower risk management cost.
The risk appetite of an organization is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives1. Technology risk is the risk related to the use of information and technology in theorganization2. If an organization has raised its risk appetite for technology risk, it means that it is willing to accept more risk in exchange for more potential benefits from technology initiatives. This would likely result in lower risk management cost, as the organization would spend less on implementing and maintaining controls to mitigate technology risk. The other options are not the most likely results of raising the risk appetite for technology risk. Increased inherent risk is the risk before considering the effect of controls3, and it is not directly affected by the risk appetite. Higher risk management cost would be the opposite of the expected outcome, as the organization would reduce its risk management efforts. Decreased residual risk is the risk after considering the effect of controls3, and it would also be the opposite of the expected outcome, as the organization would accept more risk exposure. References = Organisations must define their IT risk appetite and tolerance; IT Risk Resources; CRISC | What Accurate CRISC Free Download Is
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?
Incident reports
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk tolerance
Control objectives
Risk tolerance is the most useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses, as it defines the acceptable level of risk for the organization and guides the selection of the optimal risk response. Incident reports, cost-benefit analysis, and control objectives are also useful inputs, but they are not the most useful, as they provide information on the actual or potential impact, cost, and effectiveness of the risk responses, but not the desired level of risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
An organization has adopted an emerging technology without following proper processes. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action to address this risk?
Accept the risk because the technology has already been adopted.
Propose a transfer of risk to a third party with subsequent monitoring.
Conduct a risk assessment to determine risk exposure.
Recommend to senior management to decommission the technology.
Conducting a risk assessment allows the organization to evaluate the exposure created by adopting the technology. This step ensures informed decision-making and aligns with the principles ofRisk Identification and Assessmentfor managing emerging risks effectively.
Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?
To support regulatory requirements
To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment
To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario
To track historical risk assessment results
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and status. A risk register can help manage and communicate risks throughout the risk management process. A risk register should be updated regularly to reflect the current state of risks and their responses. Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario may no longer require mitigation, as the risk level may have decreased or the risk may have been eliminated. However, the risk should remain in the risk register, as the most important reason is to monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario. This means keeping track of the internal and external factors that may affect the risk scenario, such as new threats, vulnerabilities, opportunities, or controls. Monitoring for potential changes to the risk scenario can help identify and respond to any emerging or reoccurring risks, and ensure that therisk register is accurate and complete. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: Risk Register, p. 41-43.
Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?
Testing control design
Accepting residual risk
Establishing business information criteria
Establishing the risk register
Accepting residual risk is the most important responsibility of a risk owner, as it implies that the risk owner is accountable for the risk and its impact on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls, and it should be aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner is responsible for implementing the risk response strategies and monitoring the risk status and outcomes, as well as for reporting and escalating the risk issues and incidents. Testing control design, establishing business information criteria, and establishing the risk register are not the most important responsibilities of a risk owner, but rather the tasks or activities that the risk owner may performor delegate as part of the risk management process. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question218; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 218.
Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?
The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.
Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.
Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.
A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.
The programming project leader solely reviewing test results before approving the transfer to production would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries, because it violates the principle of segregation of duties, and it exposes the production libraries to the risk of unauthorized or erroneous changes. The programming project leader is responsible for developing and testing the changes, but not for approving and deploying them. The approval and deployment of the changes should be done by an independent and authorized party, such as the change control board or the operations manager. The other options are not weaknesses, but rather good practices, because:
Option B: Test and production programs being in distinct libraries is a good practice, because it prevents the accidental or intentional overwriting or mixing of the test and production programs, and it ensures the integrity and security of the production libraries.
Option C: Only operations personnel being authorized to access production libraries is a good practice, because it restricts the access and modification of the production libraries to the qualified and accountable staff, and it prevents the unauthorized or inappropriate access or modification of the production libraries by other parties.
Option D: A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment being allowed is a good practice, because it ensures the consistency and completeness of the changes, and it avoids the potential errors or discrepancies that may arise from the manual or partial migration of the changes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 215.
An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.
Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.
Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.
Obtain certification to a global information security standard.
A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Report the incident.
Plan a security awareness session.
Assess the new risk.
Update the risk register.
According to the CRISC exam content outline2, one of the tasks of a risk practitioner is to “report on risk, in line with organizational reporting requirements, to enable decision making andescalation”. Therefore, the first thing that the risk practitioner should do after discovering apolicy violation is to report the incident to the appropriate authority, such as the IT security manager or the risk management committee. This will ensurethat the incident is properly documented, investigated, and resolved, and that any potential impact or consequences are minimized.
The other options are not the first actions that the risk practitioner should take. Planning a security awareness session (B) may be a preventive measure to avoid future incidents, but it does not address the current one. Assessing the new risk © may be part of the risk response process, but it should be done after reporting the incident and gathering more information. Updating the risk register (D) may be a result of the risk assessment and response, but it should not be done before reporting the incident and following the organizational procedures.
Which of the following BEST enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization?
Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework
Enterprise-wide risk awareness training
Robust risk reporting practices
Risk management policies
Understanding the Question:
The question asks what best enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework:Provides a comprehensive approach to integrating risk management across the entire organization.
B. Enterprise-wide risk awareness training:Important for education but doesn't ensure integration.
C. Robust risk reporting practices:Crucial for communication but not integration.
D. Risk management policies:Necessary but need to be part of an overall framework for effective integration.
ERM Framework:An ERM framework ensures that risk management practices are standardized and integrated throughout the organization. It aligns risk management with business objectives, ensuring that IT risk is considered within the broader context of enterprise risk.
Comprehensive Approach:ERM covers all aspects of risk, including IT, and facilitates a unified approach to managing risk across all departments and levels.
Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?
information security manager
Control owner
Risk owner
Risk manager
The control owner is the person who has the authority to approve an exception to a control. A control is a policy, procedure, or technical measure that is implemented to prevent or mitigate a risk. A control owner is responsible for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of the control, as well as for monitoring and reporting its performance and effectiveness. A control owner is also accountable for the approval of any changes or exceptions to the control, based on the risk assessment and business justification. An information security manager, a risk owner, and a risk manager are not the best choices, as they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, and knowledge as the control owner in relation to the control. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 35.
Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?
Robust organizational communication channels
Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy
Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks
Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)
Robust organizational communication channels are the best way to support ethical IT risk management practices, as they enable transparent and consistent sharing of risk information anddecisions among all stakeholders. Ethical IT risk management requires that the risk management process and outcomes are aligned with the enterprise’s values, objectives, and obligations, and that the risk management activities are conducted with integrity, accountability, and respect. Robust organizational communication channels facilitate these aspects by ensuring that the risk management roles and responsibilities are clearly defined and communicated, that the risk management policies and procedures are widely disseminated and understood, that the risk management performance and results are regularly reported and reviewed, and that the risk management feedback and improvement suggestions are solicited and addressed. Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy, capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks, and rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs) are not directly related to ethical IT risk management practices, but rather to the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question201; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 201.
An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?
Decrease in the time to move changes to production
Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes
Ratio of system changes to total changes
Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan
The ratio of emergency fixes to total changes is the best metric to determine if the change management program is performing as expected, because it reflects the quality and stability of the changes that are implemented in the production environment. A high ratio of emergency fixes to total changes indicates that the change management program is not effective, as it means that many changes are causing problems or failures that require urgent correction. A low ratio of emergency fixes to total changes indicates that the change management program is effective, as it means that most changes are well-planned, tested, and approved, and do not cause significant disruptions or defects. The ratio of emergency fixes to total changes can also help identify the root causes of the problems, the gaps in the change management process, and the areas for improvement. For example, if the ratio of emergency fixes to total changes is high, it may indicate that the change management program has issues with the following aspects: - Change request and approval: The change management program may not have a clear and consistent process for requesting, reviewing, and approving changes, or the process may not be followed by all stakeholders. - Change impact analysis: The change management program may not have acomprehensive and systematic method for assessing the potential impact of the changes on thebusiness processes, the IT systems, the users, and the customers. - Change testing and validation: The change management program may not have adequate testing and validation procedures to ensure that the changes meet the requirements and specifications, and do not introduce errors or vulnerabilities. - Change communication and training: The change management program may not have effective communication and training strategies to inform and educate the affected parties about the changes and their implications. - Change implementation and monitoring: The change management program may not have proper implementation and monitoring plans or tools to ensure that the changes are executed smoothly and successfully, and that any issues or incidents are detected and resolved promptly. Therefore, the ratio of emergency fixes to total changes is the best metric to determine if the change management program is performing as expected, as it can provide valuable feedback and insights for the change management program and its improvement. References = How to Measure Change Management Effectiveness: Metrics, Tools & Processes1, Metrics for Measuring Change Management2, Driving Value with Change Management Metrics3, Must-Know Organizational Change Management Metrics
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?
Deleting the data from the file system
Cryptographically scrambling the data
Formatting the cloud storage at the block level
Degaussing the cloud storage media
The best way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage is to cryptographically scramble the data. Cryptographic scrambling is the process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm. Cryptographic scrambling protects the data from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion, even if the cloud storage provider or a third party gains access to the data. Cryptographic scrambling also ensures that the data can be restored to its original form using the same key or algorithm, if needed. The other options are not as effective as cryptographic scrambling, because they either do not completely remove the data,or they make it impossible to recover the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?
Internal and external information security incidents
The risk department's roles and responsibilities
Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process
The organization's information security risk profile
The most important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff is the policy compliance requirements and exceptions process. This topic would help the staff to understandthe enterprise’s risk policies, standards, and procedures, and how they apply to their roles and responsibilities. It would also help the staff to know the process for requesting, approving, and documenting any exceptions to the policies, and the consequences of non-compliance. This topic would enhance the staff’s risk awareness and responsibility, and foster a culture of compliance and accountability within the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 2491
An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:
mitigation.
avoidance.
transfer.
acceptance.
Risk transfer is a risk response strategy that involves shifting the responsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as a third party, an insurance company, or a joint venture. Risk transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the exposure or impact of the risk to the enterprise. An example of risk transfer is engaging a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. By doing so, the organization transfers the risk of data breach or loss to the third party, who is responsible for ensuring the security and availability of the data. The other options are not examples of risk transfer, as they involve different risk response strategies:
Risk mitigation is a risk response strategy that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk to an acceptable level, such as by implementing controls, policies, or procedures.
Risk avoidance is a risk response strategy that involves eliminating the risk by not performing the activity that generates the risk, such as by discontinuing a product or service, or not entering a market.
Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the risk and taking no action to address it, such as by tolerating the risk, exploiting the risk, or sharing the risk. References =Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1.1, pp. 107-108.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?
To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management
To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization
To assign a risk owner to manage the risk
To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk
The primary reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results is to communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management, as this enables them to make informed decisions about risk response and allocation of resources. The risk register is a tool for documenting and reporting the current status of risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, and responses. Updating the risk register with risk assessment results ensures that the information is accurate, relevant, and timely. The risk register also helps to monitor and track the progress and effectiveness of risk management activities. The other options are not the primary reasons to update the risk register, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of doing so. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 109.
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Business impact analysis (BIA) results
Risk scenario ownership
Risk thresholds
Possible causes of materialized risk
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. They help to monitor changes in the level of risk and enable timely actions to mitigate the risk. The most useful information for developing KRIs is the possible causes of materialized risk, which are the factors or events that trigger or contribute to the occurrence of a risk. By identifying the possible causes of materialized risk, an organization can design KRIs that measure the likelihood and impact of the risk, and alert the management when the risk exceeds the acceptable level. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?
Updating the threat inventory with new threats
Automating log data analysis
Preventing the generation of false alerts
Determining threshold levels
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information about the level of exposure to a specific risk or a group of risks.
The most important factor to the effective monitoring of KRIs is determining threshold levels. This means that the acceptable or unacceptable values or ranges of the KRIs are defined and agreed upon by the relevant stakeholders.
Determining threshold levels helps to evaluate the actual performance and impact of the risks, compare them with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, identify any deviations or breaches that may require attention or action, and report them to the appropriate parties for decision making or improvement actions.
The other options are not the most important factors to the effective monitoring of KRIs. They are either secondary or not essential for KRIs.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 15
Information Technology & Security, page 9
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 7
An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:
avoided.
accepted.
mitigated.
transferred.
Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging the existence and potential impact of a risk, but deciding not to take any action to reduce or eliminate it. Risk acceptance can be appropriate when the cost or effort of implementing a risk response outweighs the benefit, or when there are no feasible or effective risk responses available. An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy, which poses a security risk to the organization. The organization is unsure of the reason for this issue, and has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information, rather than taking any immediate action to resolve the issue. As a result of this decision, the risk has been accepted, as the organization has chosen to tolerate the risk exposure for a certain period of time, and has not implemented any controls or measures to prevent or reduce the risk occurrence or impact. References = Risk Response Strategies: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept, Risk Response Strategies: What They Are and How to Use Them, Risk Response Strategy: Definition, Types, and Examples.
Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?
Protecting the organization from negative publicity
Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence
Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers
Preventing further dissemination of customer information
Thefirst stepis toprevent further disseminationof sensitive data to limit the impact of the breach. ISACA emphasizes that containment is the priority in risk response to minimize harm before addressing other aspects like root cause analysis or reputational management.
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To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and ERM, it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:
Risk impact and likelihood
Risk velocity
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk response plans and owners
Aconsistent approach to reporting risk impact and likelihoodis essential for integrating IT risk into the broader enterprise risk management (ERM) framework. It allows for proper aggregation and alignment, ensuring IT risks are understood in context with overall enterprise risk.
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A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?
HR training director
Business process owner
HR recruitment manager
Chief information officer (CIO)
The person who should be accountable for resolving the situation where a root cause analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators is the chief information officer (CIO). The CIO is the senior executive who is responsible for the overall management and governance of the IT function within the organization, including the IT strategy, objectives, policies, processes, and resources. The CIO is also accountable for the performance and value of the IT services and systems, and for ensuring that they meet the needs and expectations of the business and its stakeholders. The CIO should be accountable for resolving the situation, because it involves a major IT service disruption that could affect the organization’s operations and reputation, and because it is related to the IT staff competency and capability, which are under the CIO’s authority and responsibility. The other options are not as accountable as the CIO, although they may have some roles or involvement inthe situation. The HR training director, the business process owner, and the HR recruitment manager are not directly responsible for the IT function or the IT service delivery, and they may not have the authority or the expertise to resolve the situation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 2-3.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?
Align business objectives with risk appetite.
Enable risk-based decision making.
Design and implement risk response action plans.
Update risk responses in the risk register
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the primary purpose of periodically reviewing an organization’s risk profile is to enable risk-based decision making, because it helps to ensure thatthe risk information is current, relevant, and accurate. The risk profile is a snapshot of the organization’s risk exposure at a given point in time, based on the risk identification, analysis, and evaluation processes. Periodically reviewing the risk profile allows the organization tomonitor the changes in the risk environment, the effectiveness of the risk responses, and the impact of the risk events. This enables the organization to make informed decisions about the risk management strategies and priorities. The other options are not the primary purpose of periodically reviewing the risk profile, as they are related to other aspects of the risk management process. Aligning business objectives with risk appetite is the purpose of establishing the risk context, which defines the scope and boundaries of the risk management activities. Designing and implementing risk response action plans is the purpose of the risk response process, which involves selecting and executing the appropriate risk responses. Updating risk responses in the risk register is the outcome of the risk monitoring and reporting process, which involves tracking the risk performance and communicating the risk information to the stakeholders. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.4, page 86.
An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?
Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.
Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.
Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.
Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.
The risk practitioner’s BEST course of action is to validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change, because outsourcing the backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider does not eliminate the risk, but rather transfers it to the service provider. The risk practitioner should verify that the service provider has adequate controls and capabilities to handle the backup and recovery procedures, and that the contractual agreement specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties. The risk practitioner should also update the risk register to reflect the new risk owner and the residual risk level. The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Option A: Accepting the risk and documenting contingency plans for data disruption is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still responsible for the risk, even though it has been transferred to the service provider. Contingency plans are also reactive measures, rather than proactive ones.
Option B: Removing the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk has been eliminated, which is not the case. The risk still exists, but it has been transferred to the service provider. The risk register should reflect the current risk status and ownership.
Option C: Mitigating the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still involved in the risk management process, even though the risk has been transferred to the service provider. The risk practitioner should rely on the service provider’s controls and capabilities, andmonitor their performance and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 196.
When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?
Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR
Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.
Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.
Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.
A recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time that a business process or function can be disrupted or unavailable before it causes significant damage or loss to the organization. A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that describes how the organization will resume its critical business operations in the event of a disaster or disruption. A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a document that describes how the organization will restore its IT systems and infrastructure in the event of a disaster or disruption. The RTO defined in the BCP and the DRP should be consistent and aligned, as they both support the continuity and recovery of the business. If the RTO defined in the BCP is shorter than the RTO defined in the DRP, it means that the BCP expects the business process or function to be restored faster than the DRP can provide. This can create a gap or a conflict between the BCP and the DRP, and can compromise the effectiveness and efficiency of the continuity and recovery efforts. Therefore, the best way for the risk practitioner to address this concern is to communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up, meaning that the risk practitioner should report the issue and its implications to the DR manager, who is responsible for developing and maintaining the DRP. The DR manager should review the discrepancy and determine whether it is justified or not, and whether it requires any adjustment or alignment of the RTOs in the BCP and the DRP. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.2, p. 206-207
An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:
procedures to monitor the operation of controls.
a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.
real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.
monitoring activities for all critical assets.
Perform a controls assessment.
The best answer is C. real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions. Real-time monitoring is a process of continuously collecting and analyzing data and information on the occurrence and impact of risk events and control exceptions, using automated tools and techniques, such as dashboards, alerts, or analytics12. Real-time monitoring can help to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and to prevent or mitigate the potential consequences. Real-time monitoring can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to provide timely and accurate reporting and communication to the stakeholders. Real-time monitoring is the best answer, because itrepresents a leading-edge practice in risk monitoring, as it leverages the latest technology and innovation, and it enables a proactive and agile approach to risk management. The other options are not the best answer, although they may be useful or necessary for risk monitoring. Procedures to monitor the operation of controls are a part of the risk monitoring process, but they are not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as they may not be able to capture and address the risks and the issues in a timely manner, and they may rely on manual or periodic methods, rather than automated or continuous ones. A tool for monitoring critical activities and controls is a resource or a device that supports the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to collect and analyze the data and information in real time, and it may depend on the quality and reliability of the tool. Monitoring activities for all critical assets is a scope or a coverage of the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and it may require a lot of resources and efforts. Performing a controls assessment is a process of evaluating and testing the design and operation of the controls, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to detect and report the risks and the issues in real time, and it may follow a predefined or scheduled plan, ratherthan a dynamic or adaptive one. References = Real-Time Risk Monitoring - ISACA, Real-Time Risk Monitoring: A Case Study - ISACA
When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?
Assess management's risk tolerance.
Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.
Propose mitigating controls
Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control
IT control self-assessments are techniques that involve identifying and evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT controls that are designed and implemented to mitigate the IT risks, by the managers and staff within the organization12.
An ineffective control is a control that does not achieve its intended objective or purpose, or does not operate as designed or expected34.
A low residual risk scenario is a situation or occurrence that has a low likelihood and impact of affecting the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation, after considering the existing controls and their effectiveness56.
The next course of action when reviewing management’s IT control self-assessments and noting an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios is to recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios, which is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and tolerating the level of risk exposure, and not taking any further action to reduce or eliminate it78.
Recommending management accept the low-risk scenarios is the next course of action because it is the most cost-effective and reasonable option, given that the level of risk exposure is low andacceptable, and the cost and effort of implementing or improving the control may outweigh the potential benefits or value78.
Recommending management accept the low-risk scenarios is also the next course of action because it is consistent with the risk management process and objectives, which are to identifyand address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders, and to optimize the balance between risk and reward78.
The other options are not the next course of action, but rather possible alternatives or steps that may be considered or followed in different circumstances or scenarios. For example:
Assessing management’s risk tolerance is a step that involves determining and communicating the acceptable or tolerable level of risk exposure for the organization or its business units, based on the organization’s risk appetite, criteria, and objectives78. However, this stepis not the next course of action because it is usually done before or during the risk assessment process, and not after noting an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios78.
Proposing mitigating controls is a course of action that involves suggesting or recommending additional or alternative controls that can reduce or eliminate the level of risk exposure, and improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management process78. However, this course of action is not the next course of action because it is not necessary or appropriate for low residual risk scenarios, as the cost and effort of implementing or improving the controls may outweigh the potential benefits or value78.
Re-evaluating the risk scenarios associated with the control is a course of action that involves revising and updating the likelihood and impact of the risk scenarios, and the level of risk exposure or tolerance for the organization, based on the current or changed conditions or factors that influence the risk landscape78. However, this course of action is not the next course of action because it is not required or relevant for low residual risk scenarios, as the level of risk exposure is already low and acceptable, and the ineffective control does not significantly affect the risk assessment78. References =
1: Control Self Assessments - PwC1
2: Control self-assessment - Wikipedia2
3: Ineffective Controls: What They Are and How to Identify Them3
4: Ineffective Controls: What They Are and How to Identify Them4
5: Residual Risk - Definition and Examples5
6: Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management6
7: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
8: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
Which of the following cloud service models is MOST appropriate for client organizations that want to maximize their control over management of the data life cycle?
Data as a Service (DaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides organizations with the highest level of control over their IT resources in the cloud. With IaaS, clients manage the operating systems, storage, deployed applications, and possibly limited control of select networking components. This level of control allows organizations to manage the data life cycle comprehensively, including data creation, storage, processing, and disposal. In contrast, PaaS and SaaS models abstract more of these controls, limiting the client's ability to manage the data life cycle directly.
A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Conduct a gap analysis.
Terminate the outsourcing agreement.
Identify compensating controls.
Transfer risk to the third party.
The best course of action when a recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization’s use of a third party to supply outsourced business services is to conduct a gap analysis, as it involves comparing the current and desired states of compliance, and identifying any gaps or discrepancies that need to be addressed. Terminating the outsourcing agreement, identifying compensating controls, and transferring risk to the third party are not the best courses of action, as they may not be feasible, effective, or appropriate, respectively, and may require the prior knowledge of the compliance gaps and risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?
Conducting security awareness training
Updating the information security policy
Implementing mock phishing exercises
Requiring two-factor authentication
Implementing mock phishing exercises is the most effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk, because it helps to measure and test the knowledge and behavior of the employees regarding the detection and prevention of phishing attacks, which are one of the most common and dangerous forms of cybersecurity risk. A phishing attack is a fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive or confidential information, such as usernames, passwords, or credit card details, by impersonating a legitimate or trusted entity, such as a bank, a government agency, or a colleague, through email, phone, or other communication channels. A mock phishing exercise is a simulated phishing attack that is conducted by the organization or a thirdparty to assess the level of awareness and readiness of the employees to recognize and respond to phishing attacks, and to provide feedback and training to improve their skills andknowledge. Implementing mock phishing exercises is the most effective way, as it helps to validate the actual and practical awareness of cybersecurity risk, and to identify and address the gaps or weaknesses in the employees’ awareness and behavior. Conducting security awareness training, updating the information security policy, and requiring two-factor authentication are all useful ways to enhance organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk, but they are not the most effective way, as they do not directly validate the awareness and behavior of the employees regarding phishing attacks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
The BEST way to validate that a risk treatment plan has been implemented effectively is by reviewing:
results of a business impact analysis (BIA).
the original risk response plan.
training program and user awareness documentation.
a post-implementation risk and control self-assessment (RCSA).
A post-implementation RCSA is a process of verifying whether the risk treatment plan has been executed as intended and whether the residual risk is within the acceptable level. It involves testing the effectiveness of the controls that have been implemented to mitigate the risk and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A BIA, the original risk response plan, and the training program and user awareness documentationare not sufficient to validate theeffectiveness of the risk treatment plan, as they do not measure the actual performance of the controls or the residual risk.
An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?
After user acceptance testing (UAT)
Upon release to production
During backlog scheduling
When reviewing functional requirements
The application risk profile should be updated when reviewing functional requirements. This will help to identify and assess the potential risks that may arise from the changes to the application, and to plan and implement appropriate risk responses. Updating the application risk profile at this stage will also help to ensure that the changes are aligned with the organization’s objectives, policies, and standards, and that they meet the stakeholders’ expectations and needs. Updating the application risk profile after user acceptance testing, upon release to production, or during backlog scheduling are not the best points to update the risk profile, as they may be too late or too early to capture the relevant risks and their impacts. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 511
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 655.
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?
To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues
To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified
To ensure the project timeline is on target
To track the status of risk mitigation actions
Project risk register: A document that records the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project1.
Project steering committee: A group of senior stakeholders and experts who oversee and support a project from a higher level2.
Risk mitigation actions: The measures taken to prevent, reduce, or transfer the risks that may affect a project3.
The most important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee is to track the status of risk mitigation actions. Tracking the status of risk mitigation actions can help the project steering committee to:
Monitor and measure the performance and effectiveness of the risk management process and controls
Evaluate the progress and outcomes of the risk mitigation actions against the project goals and objectives
Identify and resolve any issues, challenges, or gaps in the risk mitigation actions
Provide guidance, feedback, and support to the project manager and the project team
Adjust or revise the risk mitigation actions as needed to reflect the changes in the project scope, schedule, budget, or environment
The other options are not the most important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee, although they may be relevant or beneficial. Allocating budget for resolution of risk issues, which means assigning financial resources to address and resolve the risks that may affect a project, may be a part of the risk management process, but it is not the primary purpose of presenting the project risk register, which is more focused on tracking and reporting the risk status and actions. Determining if new risk scenarios have been identified, which means finding out if there are any additional or emerging risks that may impact a project, may be a useful outcome of presenting the project risk register, but it is not the main objective, which is more concerned with tracking and reporting the existing risk status and actions. Ensuring the project timeline is on target, which means verifying that the project is progressing according to the planned schedule and milestones, may be a benefit of presenting the project risk register, but it is not the key objective, which is more related to tracking and reporting the risk status and actions.
References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana, Project Steering Committee: Roles, Best Practices, Challenges, Risk Mitigation: Definition, Strategies, and Examples
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines?
Configuration validation
Control attestation
Penetration testing
Internal audit review
The best way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines is to perform configuration validation. Configuration validation is the process of verifying that the system settings and parameters are consistent with the predefined standards and requirements, and that they reflect the current and desired state of the system. Configuration validation helps to ensure that the system is configured correctly and securely, and that it complies with the relevant policies, regulations, and bestpractices. Configuration validation also helps to identify and correct any deviations or errors in the system settings, and to prevent or mitigate any potential risks or issues. The other options are not as effective as configuration validation, although they may provide some input or information for the system alignment. Control attestation, penetration testing, and internal audit review are all activities that can help to assess or evaluate the system alignment, but they do not necessarily determine or validate the system settings. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
Which of the following is the MOST essential characteristic of a good IT risk scenario?
The scenario is aligned to business control processes.
The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The scenario is aligned to a business objective.
The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology.
A good IT risk scenario must be aligned with a business objective. This alignment ensures that the risk scenario is relevant to the organization’s goals and can be effectively integrated into its risk management processes.
Alignment to Business Objective (Answer C):
Importance: Aligning risk scenarios with business objectives ensures that they are relevant and support the organization’s overall strategy.
Impact: This alignment helps in prioritizing risk management efforts and resources toward areas that directly affect the organization’s success.
Outcome: It leads to more effective risk management by focusing on risks that could impact key business outcomes.
Comparison with Other Options:
A. The scenario is aligned to business control processes:
Purpose: Control processes are important but secondary to business objectives.
B. The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance:
Purpose: Important for overall risk management but not the primary characteristic of a good risk scenario.
D. The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology:
Purpose: While addressing vulnerabilities is important, the primary focus should be on how these vulnerabilities affect business objectives.
Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?
Relevance to the business process
Regulatory compliance requirements
Cost-benefit analysis
Comparison against best practice
The most important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure is the cost-benefit analysis. This is a process that compares the costs and benefits of implementing a control, and determines whether the control is worth the investment. A cost-benefit analysis helps to ensure that the control is efficient and effective in reducing the risk to an acceptable level, and that it does not introduce new risks or adversely affect other objectives. A cost-benefit analysis also helps to prioritize the controls based on their value and feasibility, and to allocate the resources accordingly. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.5, page 1861
Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?
Risk tolerance
Risk magnitude
Risk response
Risk appetite
A risk heat map is a kind of risk matrix where risks are ranked based on their potential impact and their likelihood of occurring, which allows you to prioritize the risks that pose the greatest threat. The severity of each risk is indicated by color, usually green for low risk, red for high risk, and yellow for medium risk. Therefore, from a single data point on a risk heat map, one can interpret the risk magnitude, which is the product of impact and likelihood. The other options are not directly related to a single data point on a risk heat map, but rather to the overall risk management strategy and context. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative; What Is a Risk Heat Map, and How Can It Help Your Risk Management Strategy; CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question599
Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing generic risk scenarios?
The organization’s vision and mission
Resources required for risk mitigation
Impact to business objectives
Risk-related trends within the industry
Theimpact to business objectivesis paramount when developing risk scenarios, as the primary purpose of risk management is to protect and support business objectives. Understanding the impact helps tailor scenarios to potential risks that could disrupt key operations or strategic goals.
A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?
The methodology used to perform the risk assessment
Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment
Date and status of the last project milestone
The individuals assigned ownership of controls
Updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project must primarily capture action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment.
Risk Register Purpose:
Documentation of Risks:The risk register is a central repository for all identified risks and their respective treatment plans. It ensures that all risks are documented, tracked, and managed throughout the project lifecycle.
Action Plans:It is crucial to document action plans for risks that require treatment. This ensures that there are clear strategies in place to mitigate or manage these risks.
Importance of Action Plans:
Mitigation and Management:Action plans detail the steps necessary to mitigate identified risks, providing a clear path for risk management. This is vital for ensuring that risks do not negatively impact the project.
Accountability and Tracking:Including action plans in the risk register assigns responsibility and timelines for risk treatment, which is essential for accountability and tracking progress.
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?
Peer benchmarks
Internal audit reports
Business impact analysis (BIA) results
Threat analysis results
Internal audit reports provide the most useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment. Internal audit reports are independent and objective evaluations of the design and operating effectiveness of the IT controls, as well as the compliance with policies, standards, and regulations. Internal audit reports also provide recommendations for improvement and follow-up actions for the control deficiencies. Internal audit reports can help measure the impact and severity of the control deficiencies, and prioritize the remediation efforts. Peer benchmarks, business impact analysis (BIA) results, and threat analysis results are not as directly related to the assessment of the control deficiencies, although they may provide some contextual or comparative information. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.4.1, page 1-19.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?
To support decision-making for risk response
To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans
To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts
To enable senior management to compile a risk profile
The primary reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders is to support decision-making for risk response. Risk assessment reports are documents that summarize the results of the risk assessment process, such as the risk sources, causes, impacts, likelihood, and levels. Risk assessment reports also provide recommendations for risk response options, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risk. Sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders helps to inform them of the current risk situation, and to solicit their input, feedback, or approval for the risk response actions. The other options are not the primary reason for sharing risk assessment reports, although they may be secondary reasons or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?
Approval of the control by senior management
Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives
Control owner attestation of control effectiveness
Internal audit review of control design
Internal Audit Review:
An internal audit review of control design involves a thorough examination of the control’s structure, implementation, and effectiveness.
Auditors use a systematic, disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of risk management, control, and governance processes.
Steps in Audit Review:
Understand Control Objectives:Auditors ensure that the control is designed to meet specific risk management objectives.
Evaluate Implementation:Check whether the control has been implemented as designed.
Test Effectiveness:Perform tests to verify that the control operates effectively and consistently over time.
Importance of Audit Review:
Provides independent and objective assurance that the control is appropriately designed and functioning as intended.
Identifies any deficiencies or areas for improvement in the control design.
Comparing Other Validation Methods:
Senior Management Approval:Indicates support but does not validate effectiveness.
Documentation of Control Objectives:Important for understanding intent but not validation.
Control Owner Attestation:Provides insight but lacks the independence of an audit.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the role of internal audits in validating control design and ensuring effective risk management (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.9 Control Testing and Effectiveness Evaluation).
Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?
Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.
Escalate the situation to risk leadership.
Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.
Review system and process documentation.
The best approach to identify relevant risk scenarios is to engage line management in risk assessment workshops. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how a risk event could occur and what the consequences could be1. Identifying risk scenarios can help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risks, and to design and evaluate the risk responses2. To identify relevant risk scenarios, it is important to involve the people who are responsible for or affected by the risks, such as the line managers. Line managers are the managers who oversee the operational activities and processes of the organization, and whoreport to the senior or executive management3. By engaging line managers in risk assessment workshops, the organization can:
Leverage the line managers’ knowledge and experience of the operational environment, the business objectives, the stakeholder expectations, and the potential threats and opportunities4.
Encourage the line managers’ participation and collaboration in the risk identification and analysis process, and foster a risk-aware culture and mindset5.
Enhance the line managers’ ownership and accountability of the risks and the risk responses, and ensure their alignment and commitment to the risk management strategy and objectives6.
The other options are not the best approaches to identify relevant risk scenarios, because:
Escalating the situation to risk leadership is not an effective or efficient way to identify risk scenarios, as it may bypass or undermine the line managers’ role and responsibility in the risk management process. Risk leadership is the function or role that provides the vision, direction, andguidance for the risk management activities and initiatives of the organization7. Escalating the situation to risk leadership may imply that the line managers are not capable or willing to identify and manage the risks, or that the risk leadership is not aware or involved in the riskmanagement process. This may create confusion, conflict, or distrust among the risk management stakeholders, and reduce the quality and credibility of the risk scenarios.
Engaging internal audit for risk assessment workshops is not a suitable or appropriate way to identify risk scenarios, as it may violate the independence and objectivity of the internal audit function. Internal audit is an independent and objective assurance and consulting activity that evaluates and improves the effectiveness of the organization’s governance, risk management, and control processes8. Engaging internal audit for risk assessment workshops may compromise the internal audit’s role and mandate, as it may create a conflict of interest or a self-review threat. Internal auditshould not be involved in the risk identification and analysis process, but rather provide assurance or advice on the adequacy and reliability of the process.
Reviewing system and process documentation is not a sufficient or comprehensive way to identify risk scenarios, as it may overlook or miss some important or emerging risks. System and process documentation are the records or artifacts that describe the structure, functions, features, and requirements of the organization’s systems and processes. Reviewing system and process documentation can help to identify some risks that are related to the design, implementation, or operation of the systems and processes, but it cannot capture all the risks that may affect the organization. Some risks may arise from external or internal factors that are not reflected or updated in the system and process documentation, such as changes in the market, technology, regulation, or stakeholder expectations.
References =
Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack - ISACA
Line Manager - CIO Wiki
Engaging Line Managers in Risk Management - IRM
Risk Culture - CIO Wiki
Risk Ownership - CIO Wiki
Risk Leadership - CIO Wiki
Internal Audit - CIO Wiki
[System Documentation - CIO Wiki]
Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?
Risk owner
Business manager
Data owner
Risk manager
The risk owner is primarily accountable for risk treatment decisions, as they are the person or entity with the authority and responsibility to manage a particular risk. The risk owner shouldevaluate the available risk response options, select the most appropriate one, implement the chosen response, and monitor its effectiveness. The risk owner should also communicate and report on the risk status and any issues or changes. The business manager, data owner, and risk manager are not primarily accountable for risk treatment decisions, although they may be involved in the risk management process. The business manager is responsible for the overall performance and objectives of a business unit or function. The data owner is responsible for the security and quality of a specific data asset. The risk manager is responsible for facilitating and coordinating the risk management activities across the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 47.
Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?
User authorization
User recertification
Change log review
Access log monitoring
User recertification is the most effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis, as it involves a periodic review and validation of user access rights and privileges by the appropriate authority. User recertification helps to identify and remove any unnecessary, excessive, or obsolete access rights and privileges that may pose a security risk or violate the principle of least privilege. User recertification also helps to ensure that user access rights and privileges are aligned with the current business needs, roles, and responsibilities of the users.
The other options are not the most effective controls to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis. User authorization is the process of granting or denying access rights and privileges to users based on their identity, role, and credentials, but it does not verify or update the existing access rights and privileges of the users. Change log review is the process of examining and analyzing the records of changes made to the system, configuration, or data, but it does not directly address the user access rights and privileges. Access log monitoring is the process of tracking and auditing the user activities and actions on the system or network, but it does not validate or modify the user access rights and privileges. References = What Is the Principle of Least Privilege and Why is it Important?, Principle of Least Privilege: Definition, Methods & Examples, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider who should the risk scenario be reassigned to.
Senior management
Chief risk officer (CRO)
Vendor manager
Data owner
The risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization’s cloud provider should be reassigned to the data owner, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the data they own, and to manage the risk and controls related to the data. The risk scenario should not be assigned to the cloud provider, as they are an external party that may not have the same interest or accountability as the organization. Senior management, chief risk officer (CRO), and vendor manager are not the best choices, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to risk governance, strategy, or oversight, respectively, but they do not own the data. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?
It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.
It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.
It validates the organization's risk appetite.
It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.
Updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment is the greatest benefit because it enables the organization to prioritize and respond to the most significant risks in a timely manner. The risk register is a tool that records and tracks the current status of risks, their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. By updating the risk register with the results of a risk assessment, the organization can ensure that the risk information is accurate, relevant, and actionable. Maintaining evidence of compliance with risk policy, validating the organization’srisk appetite, and helping to mitigate internal and external risk factors are all possible benefits of updating the risk register, but they are not the greatest benefit, as they do not directly support risk-based decision making. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 83
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:
minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.
aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.
build a threat profile of the organization for management review.
provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors primarily helps to provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions, which are the decisions that are made based on the consideration and evaluation of the risks and their responses. Providing a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions helps to ensure that the decisions are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the primary benefits of periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of a risk register, which is to provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.
Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment means reducing the scope and depth of risk analysis and reporting, and impairing the organization’s ability to identify and respond to emerging or changing risks. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details onidentified risk factors does not necessarily minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment, and it may not be a desirable or beneficial outcome for the organization.
Aggregating risk scenarios identified across different business units means combining or consolidating the risks that are identified by different parts or functions of the organization, and creating a holistic or integrated view of the organization’s risk profile. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units, and it may not be a sufficient or effective way to achieve a holistic or integrated view of the organization’s risk profile.
Building a threat profile of the organization for management review means creating or developing a summary or representation of the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, and presenting or reporting it to the senior management for their awareness and approval. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily build a threat profile of the organization for management review, and it may not be a comprehensive or reliable way to create or develop a summary or representation of the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 172
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?
Obtaining logs m an easily readable format
Providing accurate logs m a timely manner
Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems
implementing an automated log analysis tool
The most important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) using log analysis is providing accurate logs in a timely manner, because this ensures that the risk data is reliable, relevant, and up-to-date. Logs are records of events or activities that occur in IT systems, such as network traffic, user actions, system errors, or security incidents. Log analysis is the process of reviewing and interpreting logs to identify and assess risks, such as performance issues,operational failures, compliance violations, or cyberattacks. By providing accurate logs in a timely manner, an organization can monitor the current status and trends of its KRIs, which are metrics that measure the level and impact of risks. Accurate logs mean that the logs are complete, consistent, and free of errors or anomalies that may distort the risk data. Timely logs mean that the logs are available as soon as possible after the events or activities occur, and that they are updated frequently to reflect the latest changes. Providing accurate logs in a timely manner can help an organization to detect and respond to risks promptly, and to support risk-based decision making and reporting. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 22
A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?
Code review
Penetration test
Gap assessment
Business impact analysis (BIA)
The next step to determine the risk exposure after a vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application is to perform a penetration test. A penetration test is a simulated attack on the application to exploit the identified vulnerabilities and measure the potential impact and likelihood of a successful breach. A penetration test can help to quantify and prioritize the risks associated with the web-facing application. Code review, gap assessment, and business impact analysis (BIA) are other possible steps, but they are not as effective as a penetration test. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?
Cost of controls
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Probability definition
Risk response strategy is the approach that an organization takes to address the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk response strategy involves selecting and implementingthe appropriate risk response options, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance, for each risk, based on the risk level, the risk appetite, and the cost-benefit analysis1.
The most important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy is the risk appetite of the organization. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk attitude and its willingness to take on risk in specific scenarios. Risk appetite is usually expressed in a qualitative statement approved by the board of directors2.
Considering the risk appetite of the organization is essential for developing a risk response strategy, because it can help to:
Align the risk response strategy with the overall business strategy and vision, and ensure that the risk response options support the achievement of the organizational objectives
Balance the risk response strategy with the expected benefits and opportunities, and ensure that the risk response options do not eliminate or reduce the potential value or performance of the organization
Enhance the risk response strategy with the stakeholder expectations and requirements, and ensure that the risk response options meet the needs and interests of the customers, suppliers, partners, regulators, and other parties
Optimize the risk response strategy with the available resources and capabilities, and ensure that the risk response options are feasible and cost-effective for the organization34
The other options are not as important as the risk appetite of the organization for developing a risk response strategy, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Cost of controls is the amount of resources and funds that are required to implement and maintain the risk response controls, such as policies, procedures, or technologies, that aim to prevent or reduce the negative effects of the risks. Cost of controls is a factor that can affect the selection and implementation of the risk response options, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. Risk tolerance is a factor that can measure the risk analysis and guide the risk response, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. Probability definition is the process of estimating the likelihood or frequency of the risk events, based on historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or other methods. Probability definition is anoutcome of the risk analysis that can inform the risk response, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. References =
Risk Response - ISACA
Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference? - ISACA
Risk Response Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template)
Risk Response Strategy - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?
Documenting project lessons learned
Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed
Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded
Verifying that the risk level has been lowered
A post-implementation review (PIR) is a process to evaluate whether the objectives of the project were met and whether the project delivered the expected benefits and outcomes1. The primary objective of a risk practitioner performing a PIR of an IT risk mitigation project is to verify that the risk level has been lowered as a result of the project implementation2. This can be done by comparing the actual risk level with theexpected risk level, assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk mitigation controls, and identifying any residual or emergingrisks3. Documenting project lessons learned, validating the project completion, and confirming the project budget are important aspects of a PIR, but they are not the primary objective for a risk practitioner, as they do not directly measure the impact of the project on the risk level4. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.4: Post-Implementation Review, pp. 239-241.
During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?
Insufficient laptops for existing employees
Abuse of leavers' account privileges
Unauthorized access to organizational data
Financial cost of replacing the laptops
The greatest concern with finding unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees is the risk of unauthorized access to organizational data. The laptops may containsensitive or confidential information that could be compromised if they fall into the wrong hands. This could result in data breaches, reputational damage, legal liabilities, or regulatory penalties for the organization. Therefore, it is important to have proper controls in place to ensure that the laptops are returned, wiped, or encrypted when the employees leave the organization.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?
Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations
Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios
Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations
Determining capacity for alternate sites
Ensuring Timely Recovery of Critical Business Operations:
Primary Focus: The primary focus of a Disaster Recovery Management (DRM) framework is to ensure that critical business operations can be recovered and resumed in a timely manner after a disruption.
Business Continuity: Timely recovery of operations is essential for maintaining business continuity and minimizing the impact of disruptions on the organization’s ability to deliver products and services.
Recovery Objectives: Establishing clear recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs) ensures that critical operations are prioritized and recovery efforts are aligned with business needs.
Comparison with Other Options:
Restoring IT and Cybersecurity Operations: While important, this is part of the broader goal of recovering critical business operations.
Assessing Impact and Probability of Disaster Scenarios: This is a preparatory step that informs the DRM framework but is not the primary focus.
Determining Capacity for Alternate Sites: This is a component of the DRM strategy but supports the primary focus of ensuring timely recovery.
Best Practices:
Comprehensive Planning: Develop comprehensive disaster recovery plans that prioritize the recovery of critical business operations.
Regular Testing: Regularly test and update disaster recovery plans to ensure they remain effective and aligned with business objectives.
Cross-Functional Collaboration: Involve all relevant business units in disaster recovery planning to ensure a coordinated and effective response.
A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?
Risk likelihood
Risk velocity
Risk appetite
Risk impact
A rule-based data loss prevention (DLP) tool is a software solution that identifies and helps prevent unsafe or inappropriate sharing, transfer, or use of sensitive data. It can help an organization monitor and protect sensitive information across on-premises systems, cloud-based locations, and endpoint devices. It can also help an organization comply with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). A rule-based DLP tool works by comparing content to the organization’s DLP policy, which defines how the organization labels, shares, and protects data without exposing it to unauthorized users. The tool can then apply protective actions such as encryption, access restrictions, and alerts. As a result of implementing a rule-based DLP tool, the most likely change is the reduction of risk likelihood, which is the probability of a risk event occurring. By detecting and preventing data breaches, exfiltration, or unwanted destruction of sensitive data, a rule-based DLP tool can lower the chance of such incidents happening and thus decrease the risk likelihood. The other options are less likely to change as a result of implementing a rule-based DLP tool. Risk velocity is the speed at which a risk event impacts an organization, which depends on factors such as the nature of the threat, the response time, and the recovery process. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, which depends on factors such as the organization’s culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Risk impact is the potential loss or damage that a risk event can cause to an organization, which depends on factors such as the severity of the incident, the extent of theexposure, andthe resilience of the organization. While a rule-based DLP tool may have some influence on these factors, it is not the primary driver of change for them. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 13
Which of the following is MOST important to review when evaluating the ongoing effectiveness of the IT risk register?
The costs associated with mitigation options
The status of identified risk scenarios
The cost-benefit analysis of each risk response
The timeframes for risk response actions
The status of identified risk scenarios, because it helps to monitor and track the current level and direction of the IT risks, and to determine whether the risk responses and controls are adequate and effective. An IT riskregister is a document that records and tracks the key IT risks that an organization faces, along with their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. An IT risk scenario is a hypothetical situation or event that describes the source, cause, consequence, and impact of an IT risk. The status of identified risk scenarios is the most important factor, as it reflects the actual and potential outcomes of the IT risks, and the performance and progress of the risk management process. The costs associated with mitigation options, the cost-benefit analysis of each risk response, and the timeframes for risk response actions are all possible factors to review when evaluating the ongoing effectiveness of the IT risk register, but they are not the most important factor, as they do not directly measure and report the status of the IT risk scenarios.
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:
vendors providing risk assessments on time.
vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.
vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.
vendors that have reported control-related incidents.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, vendor risk mitigation action items are the specific tasks and activities that are assigned to the vendors or the organization to address the identified risks and implementthe risk responses. The percentage of vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time is the best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program, as it helps to evaluate the timeliness and quality of the vendor performance, the alignment of the vendor activities with the organization’s risk appetite and objectives, and the achievement of the expected outcomes and benefits of the risk responses. The percentage of vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time also helps to identify andresolve any issues or gaps in the vendor risk management process, and to improve the vendor relationship and communication. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 230.
Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database''
Implement role-based access control
Implement a data masking process
Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool
Implementing a data masking process is the best method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database. Data masking is the process of replacing sensitive data with fictitious but realistic data, such as changing names, addresses, phone numbers, etc. Data masking protects the privacy and confidentiality of the data, while still allowing for testing, analysis, or training purposes. Implementing role-based access control, including sanctions in NDAs, and installing a DLP tool are also useful methods to reduce the risk of data exposure, but they are not as effective as data masking, which prevents the data from being accessed in the first place. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following would prompt changes in key risk indicator {KRI) thresholds?
Changes to the risk register
Changes in risk appetite or tolerance
Modification to risk categories
Knowledge of new and emerging threats
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. KRIs have upper and lower acceptable risk limits (warning thresholds) that trigger actions when exceeded2. These thresholds are based on the organization’s risk appetite or tolerance, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives3. Therefore, changes in risk appetite or tolerance would prompt changes in KRI thresholds, as the organization would need to adjust its risk monitoring and response accordingly. The other options are not the primary factors that would prompt changes in KRI thresholds, although they may have some influence on the risk management process. References = Risk IT Framework; IT Risk Resources; ISACA Risk Starter Kit; Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide
A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?
Notify executive management.
Analyze the impact to the organization.
Update the IT risk register.
Design IT risk mitigation plans.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, impact analysis is the process of estimating and evaluating the potential effects of a risk event on the organization’s objectives, processes, resources, and risks. Impact analysis helps to quantify and qualify the severity and likelihood of the risk, and to identify the possible consequences and implications for the organization. Impact analysis is the first step that should be done when a risk practitioner learns about a new threat, as it helps to assess the current level of risk exposure and the urgency of the risk response. Impact analysis also helps to communicate and report the risk to the relevant stakeholders, and to facilitate risk-based decision making and action planning. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 208.
Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?
Corrective
Preventive
Detective
Deterrent
Warning banners on login screens serve as deterrent controls. Deterrent controls are designed to discourage individuals from attempting unauthorized actions by warning them of potential consequences.
Purpose of Warning Banners
Warning banners provide clear notice to users, both authorized and unauthorized, that their activities may be monitored and that unauthorized access is prohibited.
They serve as a legal disclaimer, which can be crucial in prosecuting unauthorized access attempts.
Effectiveness as a Deterrent Control
The primary function of a warning banner is to deter potential intruders by making them aware of the surveillance and legal implications of unauthorized access.
For authorized users, it reinforces awareness of the organization's security policies and acceptable use agreements.
Comparison with Other Control Types
A. Corrective: These controls are used to correct or restore systems after an incident.
B. Preventive: These controls are designed to prevent security incidents from occurring.
C. Detective: These controls are used to detect and alert about security incidents.
D. Deterrent: These controls are intended to discourage individuals from performing unauthorized activities.
References
Sybex-CISSP-Official-Study-Guide-9-Edition.pdf, p. 829, detailing the role of warning banners as deterrent controls.
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to senior management about risk mitigation status?
Risk strategy
Risk register
Gap analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA)
A risk register is the primary tool for communicating progress: it consolidates risk scenarios, mitigation plans, current status, and residual risk in a structured format. Senior management relies on it to make informed decisions.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?
To provide evidence of activities
To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)
To ensure that changes are authorized
To ensure that changes made are correctly applied
The primary reason for logging is to provide evidence of activities, ensuring accountability and traceability. This supports investigations, audits, and compliance requirements, aligning withControl Monitoring and Reportingstandards.
A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?
Appropriate approvals for the control changes
The reason the action plan was modified
The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan
The effectiveness of the resulting control
The MOST important aspect for the risk practitioner to confirm is:
A. Appropriate approvals for the control changes
Ensuring that the control design changes have the appropriate approvals is crucial. This confirms that the changes are recognized and sanctioned by the necessary authority within the organization, aligning with governance practices and maintaining the integrity of the risk management process.
Which of the following should be considered when selecting a risk response?
Risk scenarios analysis
Risk response costs
Risk factor awareness
Risk factor identification
When selecting a risk response, the following should be considered:
B. Risk response costs
It’s important to evaluate the costs associated with implementing a risk response to ensure that they are justified by the benefits of mitigating the risk. This helps in making cost-effective decisions that align with the organization’s risk management objectives.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?
The model could be hacked or exploited.
The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.
Staff could become overly reliant on the model.
It could lead to biased recommendations.
Biased recommendations from AI models pose significant risks to decision-making and organizational ethics. Such biases can propagate systemic issues and impact regulatory compliance, emphasizing the need for robust controls in AI development and deployment underEmerging Technology Risks.
Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?
Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.
Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.
Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.
Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.
A possible action that a risk practitioner should do next when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified is A. Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis. A threat and vulnerability analysis is a process of identifying and assessing the potential sources and methodsof cyber attacks, as well as the weaknesses and gaps in the organization’s information systems and security controls12 By conducting a threat and vulnerability analysis, a risk practitioner can determine the level of exposure and risk that the organization faces from external cyber attacks, and prioritize the actions and resources needed to mitigate or prevent them3 A threat and vulnerability analysis can also help to update the risk impact rating and the key risk indicator in the risk register, as well as to notify senior management of the new risk scenario, but these are subsequent steps that follow after the analysis is completed. Therefore, the first action that a risk practitioner should do next is to conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.
Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?
An antivirus program
Database activity monitoring
Firewall log monitoring
File integrity monitoring
Zero-day malware is malware that exploits unknown and unprotected vulnerabilities. This novel malware is difficult to detect and defend against, making zero-day attacks a significant threat to enterprise cybersecurity1. The best way to detect zero-day malware on an end user’s workstation is to use file integrity monitoring, which is a technique that monitors and alerts on changes to files and directories that may indicate a malware infection or compromise2. By using fileintegrity monitoring, the end user can detect zero-day malware that may alter or damage the files or directories on their workstation, and take appropriate actions to remove or isolate the malware. File integrity monitoring can also help to prevent the spread of zero-day malware to other systems or networks, and to restore the integrity and availability of the affected files or directories. Antivirus program, database activity monitoring, and firewall log monitoring are not the best ways to detect zero-day malware on an end user’s workstation, as they are not as effective or reliable as file integrity monitoring. Antivirus program is a software that scans and removes known malware from a system or network3. Antivirus program can help to protect the end user’s workstation from common or known malware, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malware that does not have a signature or a pattern that matches the antivirus program’s database. Database activity monitoring is a technique that monitors and audits the activities and transactions on a database, such as queries, updates, or deletions4. Database activity monitoring can help to protect the end user’s database from unauthorized or malicious access or modification, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malware that does not target or affect the database. Firewall log monitoring is a technique that monitors and analyzes the logs generated by a firewall, which is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall log monitoring can help to protect the enduser’s workstation from external or internal network attacks, but it may not be able to detect zero-day malwarethat bypasses or evades the firewall rules or that originates from the workstation itself. References = 1: What is Zero Day Malware? - Check Point Software2: File Integrity Monitoring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: Antivirus Software - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics4: Database Activity Monitoring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : [Firewall Log Analysis - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.] : [Zero-day attack detection: a systematic literature review | Artificial Intelligence Review] : [Zero-day Attacks Detection and Prevention Methods | Apriorit]
Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?
Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy
Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices
Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls
Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program
The most effective key risk indicator (KRI) for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program is the number of incidents originating from BYOD devices, as it directly measures the impact and frequency of the potential threats and vulnerabilities associated with the use of personal devices for accessing company data and systems. A BYOD program can pose various risks to an organization, such as data loss or breach, malware infection, unauthorized access, compliance violation, or device theft or loss12. The number of incidents originating from BYOD devices can help to identify and quantify these risks, and to trigger appropriate risk response actions when the incidents exceed the acceptable thresholds. The other options are not the most effective KRIs, as they do not directly measure the risk level or impact of the BYOD program. The number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy may indicate the awareness and compliance of the users, but not the actual risk exposure or mitigation. The budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls may indicate the investment and efficiency of the risk management, but not the effectiveness or necessity. The number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program may indicate the scope and scale of the risk, but not the severity or likelihood. References = Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide; KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management
Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?
Monthly trend of information security-related incidents
Average time to identify critical information security incidents
Frequency of information security incident response plan testing
Percentage of high-risk security incidents
The average time to identify critical information security incidents is the best indicator of effective information security incident management, as it measures how quickly the organization can detect and respond to the most severe threats to its information assets. The faster the organization can identify critical incidents, the lower the potential impact and damage they can cause. The average time to identify critical incidents also reflects the efficiency and accuracy of the monitoring and reporting mechanisms, as well as the awareness and training of the staff and stakeholders. The other options are not the best indicators of effective information security incident management, as they do not directly measure the performance or quality of the incident response process. The monthly trend of information security-related incidents may show the frequency or severity of the incidents, but not how well they are managed. The frequency of information security incident response plan testing may show the preparedness or maturity of the organization, but not the actual effectiveness of the plan. The percentage of high-risk security incidents may show the risk exposure or appetite of the organization, but not the risk mitigationor treatment. References = 7 Types of Information Security Incidents and How to Respond; Annex A.16: Information Security Incident Management - ISMS.online; CISM Isaca Exam Questions and Answers - CertLibrary.com
A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.
Build a business case to remediate the fix.
Research the types of attacks the threat can present.
Determine the impact of the missing threat.
Determining the impact of the missing threat is the best course of action for a peer review of a risk assessment, as it helps to assess the potential consequences and severity of the threat on the information system and the business objectives. Determining the impact of the missing threat is a process of estimating and quantifying the possible harm or loss that could result from the occurrence of the threat event, such as data breach, system failure, or service disruption. Determining the impact of the missing threat can help to:
Identify and prioritize the critical assets, processes, and functions that could be affected by the threat
Evaluate and measure the extent and magnitude of the damage or disruption caused by the threat
Analyze and compare the current and residual risk levels and control effectiveness
Develop and implement appropriate risk response and mitigation strategies and actions
Communicate and report the risk exposure and status to the relevant stakeholders
Determining the impact of the missing threat is an essential step to ensure the completeness and accuracy of the risk assessment and to improve the quality and reliability of the risk management and control processes.
The other options are not the best courses of action for a peer review of a risk assessment. Asking the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem is a possible action to allocate the resources and costs for the risk mitigation, but it does not address the root cause or the severity of the problem. Building a business case to remediate the fix is a possible action to justify and support the risk mitigation, but it does not provide a clear and comprehensive analysis of the problem. Researching the types of attacks the threat can present is a possible action to understand and anticipate the threat scenarios andtechniques, but it does not evaluate the actual or potential impact of the threat. References = Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Peer Review Assessment Framework
An organization wants to assess the maturity of its internal control environment. The FIRST step should be to:
validate control process execution.
determine if controls are effective.
identify key process owners.
conduct a baseline assessment.
A baseline assessment is the first step in assessing the maturity of an organization’s internal control environment. A baseline assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of the current state of the internal control structure, processes, and activities across the organization. A baseline assessment helps to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the existing internal controls, as well as the gaps and opportunities for improvement. A baseline assessment also provides a reference point for measuring the progress and effectiveness of the internal control improvement initiatives. The other options are not the first steps in assessing the maturity of an internal control environment, although they may be part of the subsequent steps. Validating control process execution is a technique to verify that the internal control activities are performed as designed and intended. Determining if controls are effective is a process to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the internal controls in achieving the desired outcomes and mitigating the risks. Identifying key process owners is a task to assign the roles and responsibilities for the internal control design, implementation, and monitoring to the appropriate individuals or groupswithin theorganization. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 153-1541; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 742
What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?
Seek approval from the control owner.
Update the action plan in the risk register.
Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.
Validate that the control has an established testing method.
The first thing that a risk practitioner should do upon learning that a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan is to reassess the risk level associated with the new control. This is because the new control may have a different effect on the likelihood and impact of the risk, and may introduce new risks or modify existing ones. The risk practitioner should evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the newcontrol, and compare the residual risk with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The risk practitioner should also communicate the results of the risk reassessment to the relevant stakeholders, and update the risk register and action plan accordingly. The other options are not the first things that a risk practitioner should do, although they may be necessary or appropriate at a later stage. Seeking approval from the control owner is important, but it does not address the potential changes in the risk level or the alignment with the risk management objectives. Updating the action plan in the risk register is a good practice, but it should be done after the risk reassessment and with the consent of the risk owner. Validating that the control has an established testing method is a part of the control assurance process, but it does not provide information on the risk level or the risk response effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 151.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?
Obtaining funding support
Defining the risk assessment scope
Selecting the risk assessment framework
Establishing inherent risk
An IT risk assessment is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the IT-related risks and their potential impacts on the organization’s objectives and performance1. Identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment is the process of determining and engaging the persons or entities that have an interest or influence in the IT risk management, such as the IT users, owners, managers, orproviders2. The primary benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment is to define the risk assessment scope, which is theboundary or extent of the IT risk assessment, such as the IT systems, processes, or functions that are included or excluded from the assessment3. By identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, the organization can ensure that the risk assessment scope is relevant, realistic, and aligned with the organization’s strategy, vision, and mission, and that it reflects the current and emerging IT risks and their potential consequences. Identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment can also help to establish and communicate the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders, and to enforce the accountability and performance of the IT risk management. Obtaining funding support, selecting the risk assessment framework, and establishing inherent risk are not the primary benefits of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, as they do not provide the same level of insight and relevance as defining the risk assessment scope. Obtaining funding support is the process of securing and providing the necessary funds or resources that are required to support or enable the IT risk assessment4. Obtaining funding support can enhance the quality and performance of the IT risk assessment, but it is not the primary benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, as it does not determine or influence the boundary or extent of the IT risk assessment. Selecting the risk assessment framework is the process of choosing or developing a set of principles, methods, and tools that guide and facilitate the IT risk assessment5. Selecting the risk assessment framework can improve the reliability and consistency of the IT risk assessment, but it is not the primary benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, as it does not define or affect the scope or coverage of the IT risk assessment. Establishing inherent risk is the process of assessing the level of risk that exists before any controls or mitigating factors are considered. Establishing inherent risk can help to understand and prioritize the IT risks and their impacts, but it is not the primary benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment, as it doesnot specify or limit the scope or range of the IT risk assessment. References = 1: IT Risk Assessment - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: Stakeholder Requirements - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: Risk Assessment Scope - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics4: Funding Support - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics5: Risk Assessment Framework - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : [Inherent Risk - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.2: Risk Analysis, pp. 67-69.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Evaluation, pp. 77-79.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1: RiskResponse Options, pp. 113-115.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Key Risk Indicators, pp. 181-185.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and ControlMonitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?
To provide data for establishing the risk profile
To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies
To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur
To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness
Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that measure the performance and effectiveness of the controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. KCIs can help to monitor the status and health of the controls, as well as to identify any issues or gaps that need to be addressed. The primary reason to adopt KCIs in the risk monitoring and reporting process is to provideassessments of mitigation effectiveness, meaning that they can help to evaluate how well the controls are reducing the risk exposure and achieving the desired outcomes. KCIs can also help to support the risk management decision making and improvement actions, as well as to demonstrate the value and benefits of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1.2, p. 115-116
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?
It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.
It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.
It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.
It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.
Policies and standards are important components of the risk management process, as they define the objectives, expectations, and requirements for managing risk within the organization. Policies and standards are also the means by which senior management formally approves and communicates the risk practices to the stakeholders, ensuring that the risk management process is aligned with the organizational strategy, culture, and values. Policies and standards also provide the authority and accountability for the risk management roles and responsibilities, as well as the criteria and metrics for measuring and reporting risk performance.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?
Improved senior management communication
Optimized risk treatment decisions
Enhanced awareness of risk management
Improved collaboration among risk professionals
The greatest benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment is optimized risk treatment decisions. Risk treatment decisions are the choices made by the organization on how to respond to the identified risks, such as avoiding, transferring,mitigating, or accepting them. Optimized risk treatment decisionsare those that align with the organizational risk appetite and objectives, and provide the best balance between the costs and benefits of the risk response actions.
Updating the risk register promptly after the completion of a risk assessment helps to optimize risk treatment decisions by providing the most current and accurate information on the risk exposure and control environment. By updating the risk register, the organization can ensure that the risk scenarios, risk levels, risk owners, risk responses, and risk indicators are consistent with the risk assessment results and reflect the changes in the internal and external environment. Updating the risk register also helps to prioritize the risks and allocate the resources more effectively and efficiently for risk treatment. Updating the risk register also facilitates the communication, collaboration, and accountability among the stakeholders involved in the risk management and control processes.
The other options are not the greatest benefits to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment. Improved senior management communication is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to inform and involve the senior management in the risk management and control processes, but it is not the greatest benefit. Enhanced awareness of risk management is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to educate and engage the staff and other stakeholders in the risk management and control processes, but it is not the greatest benefit. Improved collaboration among risk professionals is a benefit of updating the risk register, as it helps to coordinate and integrate the efforts andexpertise of the risk professionals, but it is not the greatest benefit. References = Risk Register: Examples, Benefits, and Best Practices, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Discover 10 major benefits for keeping a risk register
A threat intelligence team has identified an indicator of compromise related to an advanced persistent threat (APT) actor. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Review the most recent vulnerability scanning report.
Determine the business criticality of the asset.
Determine the adequacy of existing security controls.
Review prior security incidents related to the asset.
Upon identification of an indicator of compromise (IoC) associated with an APT actor, the risk practitioner's best course of action is to assess the adequacy of existing security controls. This involves evaluating whether current defenses are sufficient to detect, prevent, and respond tosuch sophisticated threats. Ensuring control effectiveness is vital to mitigating the risk posed by APTs.CISA
To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?
The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.
The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.
Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.
The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.
The greatest concern with the situation of combining the second and third lines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive is that the independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised. The second line of defense is the function that oversees and supports the risk management activities of the first line of defense, which is the function that owns and manages the risks. The third line of defense is the function that provides independent assurance of the risk management activities, such as the internal audit function. Combining the second and third lines of defense in a new department may compromise the independence of the internal third line of defense, as it may create a conflict of interest, bias, or influence among the functions, and impair the objectivity, credibility, and quality of the assurance activities. The independence of the internal third line of defense is essential for ensuring that the risk management activities are performed in a consistent and effective manner, and that the issues and gaps are identified and reported without fear or favor. The risk governanceapproach of the second and third lines of defense may differ, cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments, and the new structure may not be aligned to the organization’s internal control framework are also concerns, but they are not as great as the compromise of the independence of the internal third line of defense, as they do not directly affect the assurance and accountability of the risk management activities. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within theorganization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?
IT security managers
IT control owners
IT auditors
IT risk owners
IT risk owners are the most appropriate people to review the completed list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) and select the ones that should be implemented. IT risk owners are the individuals who have the authority and accountability to manage the IT risks within their scope of responsibility. They are also responsible for defining the risk appetite, tolerance, and thresholds for their IT operations, and for ensuring that the KRIs are aligned with the business objectives and risk management strategy. IT security managers, IT control owners, and IT auditors are also involved in the risk management process, but they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as IT risk owners, and they may have different perspectives and priorities on the selection of KRIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, page 1-13.
Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?
Preventive
Deterrent
Compensating
Detective
Real-time monitoring is adetective control, as it is designed to identify and report suspicious or unauthorized activities as they occur. Detective controls provide feedback to mitigate ongoing risks and serve as an integral part of incident response plans.
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?
Time between control failure and failure detection
Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count
Time spent on internal control assessment reviews
Number of internal control failures within the measurement period
The effectiveness of a control monitoring program can be measured by how quickly it can detect and correct any control failures that may compromise the achievement of the organization’s objectives. A shorter time between control failure and failure detection means that the control monitoring program is able to identify and report the issues promptly, and initiate the remediation actions accordingly. This can reduce the impact and likelihood of the risks associated with the control failures, and enhance the performance and reliability of the controls. The other options are not as good indicators of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program, because they do not reflect the timeliness and responsiveness of the program, but rather the scope, effort, or frequency of the program. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
Which of the following BEST indicates that security requirements have been incorporated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Comprehensive security training of developers
Validated security requirements and design documents
Completed user acceptance testing (UAT)
Compliance with laws and regulatory requirements
Validated security requirements and design documents demonstrate that security considerations have been integrated into the SDLC from the outset. This proactive approach ensures that security is embedded into system architecture and design, reducing vulnerabilities and enhancing overall system resilience.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?
Establishing employee awareness training
Assigning accountability to risk owners
Selling target dates to complete actions
Contracting to third parties
The best way to ensure the implementation of corrective action plans is to assign accountability to risk owners. Corrective action plans are the plans that describe the actions and resources that are needed to correct or improve the performance or compliance of the processes or controls. Risk owners are the persons who have the authority and responsibility for managing the risks and their responses. By assigning accountability to risk owners, the implementation of corrective action plans can be monitored, evaluated, and enforced, and the results and outcomes can be reported and communicated. The other options are not as effective as assigning accountability to risk owners, as they are related to the training, scheduling, or outsourcing of the corrective action plans, not the oversight or governance of the corrective action plans. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern upon learning of failures in a data migration activity?
Availability of test data
Integrity of data
Cost overruns
System performance
The integrity of data should be the greatest concern for a risk practitioner upon learning of failures in a data migration activity, because it affects the accuracy, completeness, and consistency of the data that are transferred from one system or format to another. Data integrity is a property of data that ensures that the data are valid, reliable, and trustworthy, and that they have not been altered or corrupted by unauthorized or accidental means. Data migration is a process of moving or copying data from one system or format to another, usually as part of a system upgrade, consolidation, or transformation. Data migration can pose risks to the integrity of data, such as data loss, duplication, inconsistency, or corruption, due to factors such as incompatible formats, human errors, technical glitches, or malicious attacks. Therefore, the integrity of data should be the greatest concern, as it impacts the quality and usability of the data, and the performance and functionality of the system. The availability of test data, the cost overruns, and the system performance are all possible concerns for a risk practitioner, but they are not the greatest concern, as they do not directly affect the integrity of data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:
Benchmark against peer organizations.
Identify appropriate controls within business processes.
Assess compliance with global standards.
Identify risk owners related to business processes.
A review of business processes is crucial for identifying risk owners, as risk ownership is tied to specific processes within the organization. Risk owners are accountable for managing and mitigating risks within their respective areas. This ensures that risks are effectively addressed where they arise and aligns mitigation efforts with business objectives. Properly identifying risk owners supports better governance, accountability, and alignment with the organization's risk management strategy.
Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?
It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.
It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.
It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.
It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure
An IT risk profile is a document that summarizes the IT-related risks that an organization faces, as well as the information and actions related to those risks, such as the risk description, assessment, response, status, and owner. An IT risk profile is a valuable tool for managing and communicating IT risks and their impact on the organization’s objectives and operations. The best description of the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions is that it helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure. This means that the IT risk profile can help toevaluate the potential consequences and implications of different IT choices or actions on the level and nature of the IT risks that the organization faces. The IT risk profile can also help to identify and address the gaps or opportunities for improvement in the IT risk management process and performance. The other options are not the best descriptions of the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions, although they may be related or beneficial. Comparing performance levels of IT assets to value delivered is a technique to measure and optimize the efficiency and effectiveness of the IT resources and activities that support the organization’s goals and needs. However, this technique does not necessarily involve the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the output and outcome of the IT assets, not the input and impact of the IT risks. Facilitating the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives is a technique toensure that the IT strategy and plans are consistent and compatible with the organization’s vision, mission, strategy, and objectives. However, this technique does not depend on the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the direction and purpose of the IT objectives, not the probability and threat of the IT risks. Providing input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects is a technique to support and justify the initiation and implementation of new IT initiatives that can create value or solve problems for the organization. However, this technique does not require the IT risk profile, as it focuses on the cost and benefit of the IT projects, not the risk and response of the IT risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 962; IT Risk Management Guide for 2022 | CIO Insight3; IT Risk Management Process, Frameworks & Templates4
When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.
Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.
Lack of senior management involvement.
Use of multiple risk registers.
Senior management involvement is a critical driver for the success of any risk management program. Without their engagement, there is a lack of strategic oversight, resource allocation, and prioritization of risk management initiatives, directly impacting the organization's ability to meet risk objectives. This is emphasized in theGovernance Principlesof CRISC.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?
Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels
Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register
Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls
Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards
Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls is the most helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment, because it allows the risk practitioner to compare the actual and expected outcomes of the IT processes and activities under different situations. A risk scenario is a hypothetical situation that describes a possible event or sequence of events that may affect the IT objectives and performance. A risk scenario can be based on various factors, such as the sources of risk, the risk drivers, the risk events, the risk impacts, and the risk responses. A risk scenario can also include the likelihood and severity of the risk, as well as the assumptions and uncertainties involved. Evaluating risk scenarios helps the risk practitioner to understand the nature and extent of the IT risks, as well as the potential consequences and opportunities that may arise from them. Assessing current controls is the process of examining and testing the existing controls that are implemented to manage the IT risks. A control is a measure or action that reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk, or enhances the benefits or opportunities of a risk. Assessing current controls helps the risk practitioner to determine the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, as well as their alignment with the IT objectives and requirements. By evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls, the risk practitioner can identify the gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment. The gaps can be related to the following aspects: - The IT objectives and performance: The gaps can indicate the difference between the actual and expected results of theIT processes and activities, as well as the deviation from the IT goals and targets. - The IT risk exposure and appetite: The gaps can indicate the difference between the actualand acceptable level of risk that the organization faces or is willing to take in pursuit of the IT objectives. - The IT risk management process and practices: The gaps can indicate the difference between the actual and expected performance of the IT risk management process, as well as the compliance with the IT risk management policies and standards. - The IT risk culture and awareness: The gaps can indicate the difference between the actual and desired level of risk awareness,understanding, and communication among the IT stakeholders, as well as the alignment with the organizational values and culture. Identifying the gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment is important for the risk practitioner, as it can help to prioritize and address the IT risks, as well as to improve and optimize the IT risk management process and practices. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Scenarios, pp. 63-681
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:
a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.
the likelihood of a given threat.
a function of the likelihood and impact.
the magnitude of an impact.
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as a function of the likelihood and impact, as it helps to measure and quantify the residual risk level and exposure. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or risk treatments. Residual risk can be calculated by multiplying the likelihood and impact of a risk event, where likelihood is the probability or frequency of the risk event occurring, and impact is the consequence or severity of the risk event on the asset or objective. Residual risk can be expressed as:
ResidualRisk=Likelihood×Impact
Expressing the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied as a function of the likelihood and impact helps to provide the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk assessment and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk levels and exposure across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the alignment of risk management and control activities with the organizational strategy and objectives, and helps to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
It helps to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk management and control processes, and guide the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best ways to express the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied. A function of the cost and effectiveness of controls is a measure of the inputs or outputs of therisk management and control processes, but it does not indicate the risk level or exposure. The likelihood of a given threat is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the impact or consequence of the threat. The magnitude of an impact is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the likelihood or probability of the risk event.References=Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative,IT Risk Resources | ISACA,Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management - Video & Lesson …
Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:
operational management.
the risk practitioner.
the internal auditor.
executive management.
According to the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with the operational management, which forms the first line of defense. The operational management is the function that owns and manages risk as part of their accountability for achieving objectives. They are responsible for identifying, assessing, mitigating, and reportingon risks and controls within their areas ofoperation. They are also responsible for implementing and maintaining effective internal controls and ensuring compliance with policies, standards, and regulations.
When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:
evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.
evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.
address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.
determine which risk factors have high remediation costs
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, the first step in prioritizing risk response is to address the high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions. This means that management should focus on the risks that have the most impact on the organization’s objectives and can be mitigated with the least amount of resources and effort. This approach helps to optimize the risk response process and achieve the best results in terms of risk reduction and value creation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, Page 223.
Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?
Chief information officer (CIO)
Executive management team
Audit committee
Business process owner
Strategic decisions on risk management are the decisions that involve setting the direction, objectives, and priorities for risk management within an organization, as well as aligning them with the organization’s overall strategy, vision, and mission1. Strategic decisions on riskmanagement also involve defining the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and level of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept to achieve its goals2. The responsibility for strategic decisions on risk management should belong to the executive management team, which is the group of senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance3. The executive management team has the best understanding of the organization’s strategic context, environment, and stakeholders, and can make informed and balanced decisions that consider the benefits and costsof risk-taking4. The executive management team also has the ability and responsibility to communicate and cascade the strategic decisions on risk management to the rest of the organization, and to monitor and evaluate their implementation and outcomes5. The chief information officer (CIO), the audit committee, and the business process owner are not the best choices for being responsible for strategic decisions on risk management, as they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as the executive management team. The CIO is the senior leader who oversees the organization’s information andtechnology strategy, resources, and systems6. The CIO may be involved in providing input and feedback to the executive management team on the strategic decisions on risk management, especially those related to IT risk, but they do not have the final say or the overall responsibility for them. The audit committee is a subcommittee of the board of directors that oversees the organization’s financial reporting, internal controls, and external audits7. The audit committee may be involved in reviewing and approving the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as ensuring their compliance with the relevant laws and standards, but they do not have the authority or the expertise to make or implement them. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for a business process that supports or enables the organization’s objectives and functions. The business process owner may be involved in executing and reporting on the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as identifying and mitigating the risks related to their business process, but they do not have the perspective or the influence to make or communicate them. References = 1: Strategic Risk Management: Complete Overview (With Examples)2: [Risk Appetite and Tolerance - ISACA] 3: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles andResponsibilities] 4: Stanford Strategic Decision and Risk Management | Stanford Online5: A 7-Step Process for Strategic Risk Management — RiskOptics - Reciprocity6: [Chief Information Officer (CIO) - Gartner ITGlossary] 7: [Audit Committee - Overview, Functions, and Responsibilities] : [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.]
An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?
Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement
Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement
Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year
Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control
The most important factor to include in the analysis of the policy exception is the risk associated with the inability to implement the multi-factor authentication requirement. A policy exception is a temporary orpermanent deviation from the established policies or standards of the organization, due to various reasons, such as budget constraints, technical limitations, or business needs. A policy exception must be submitted and approved by the appropriate authority, and it must include a clear and comprehensive analysis of the rationale, impact, and mitigation of the exception. The risk associated with the inability to implement the multi-factor authentication requirement is the most important factor to include in the analysis, because it evaluates the probability and severity of potential threats or incidents that could exploit the lack of multi-factor authentication, such as unauthorized access, data breach, or identity theft. The risk analysis also helps to justify the need and urgency of the policy exception, and to propose alternative or compensating controls to reduce or transfer the risk, such as password policies, access restrictions, or encryption. The other options are not the most important factor, although they may be relevant or supportive to the policy exception analysis. Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement are the clauses or provisions in the policy that allow or enable the policy exception, such as exemptions, waivers, or variances. These sections can help to validate the legitimacy and feasibility of the policy exception, but they do not assess the risk or the impact of the exception. Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year is the explanation and evidence of the financial resources and constraints that affect the implementation of the multi-factor authentication requirement. This justification can help to demonstrate the cost-benefit and return on investment of the requirement, but it does not measure the risk or the mitigation of the exception. Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control are the proven methods and standards that are adopted by the leading organizations in a specific field or sector for implementing the multi-factor authentication requirement. These best practices can help to benchmark and improve the quality and effectiveness of the requirement, but they do not quantify the risk or the impact of the exception. References = Policy Exception Management - ISACA, Multi-Factor Authentication Policy - University of Arkansas, Common Conditional Access policy: Require MFA for all users
A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?
The team that performed the risk assessment
An assigned risk manager to provide oversight
Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment
The methodology used to perform the risk assessment
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the risks that may affect a project, as well as the actions that are taken or planned to manage them1. A risk register should include information such as the risk description, category, source, impact, likelihood, severity, owner, status, and response2. Among these, the most important information to capture in the risk register is the action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment. This is because the action plans are the specific steps that are taken to reduce, avoid, transfer, or accept the risks, depending on thechosen risk treatment option3. The action plans should beclear, realistic, measurable, and aligned with the project objectives and constraints4. The action plans should also be monitored and updated regularly to ensure that they are effective and appropriate for the changing risk environment5. The action plans are essential for managing the risks and ensuring the successful delivery of the project. The other options are not the most important information to capture in the risk register, as they are either less relevant or less actionable than the action plans. The team that performed the risk assessment is the group of people who identified, analyzed, and evaluated the risks, using various tools and techniques6. While this information may be useful foraccountability and communication purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not indicate how the risks are treated or resolved. The assigned risk manager to provide oversight is the person who has the responsibility and authority to oversee the risk management process and ensure that the risks are properly identified, assessed, treated, and reported. While this information may be useful for governance and coordination purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not specify what actions are taken or planned to manage the risks. The methodology used to perform the risk assessment is the approach or framework that is used to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks, based on the project context, scope, and objectives. While this information may be useful for consistency and transparency purposes, it is not as important as the action plans, as it does not describe how the risks are addressed or mitigated. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.5, Page 55.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization?
Conduct a simulated phishing attack.
Update spam filters
Revise the acceptable use policy
Strengthen disciplinary procedures
The best recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization is to conduct a simulated phishing attack, as it tests the awareness and behavior of the employees in responding to a realistic and targeted email scam, and identifies the areas and individuals that need improvement or training. Updating spam filters, revising the acceptable use policy, and strengthening disciplinary procedures are not the best recommendations, as they may not address the human factor of the risk, or may be too reactive or punitive, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?
Implementing a risk register
Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan
Assigning risk ownership
Establishing executive management support
Establishing executive management support is the most important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization. This is because executive management support can help ensure that risk management is aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, as well as provide the necessary resources, authority, and accountability for riskmanagement activities. Executive management support can also help foster a risk-aware culture,promote stakeholder engagement, and facilitate risk communication and reporting. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key elements of IT governance is to obtain executive management support and commitment for risk management1. According to the web search results, executive management support is a critical success factor for risk management in various contexts and industries234.
An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?
The risk practitioner
The risk owner
The control owner
The audit manager
A control is a measure or action that is implemented to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk event, or to enhance the benefits or opportunities of a risk event. A control owner is a person who is assigned the responsibility and authority for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of a control. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information about the identified risks, such as the risk description, category, owner, probability, impact, response strategy, status, and action plan. When an information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control, the person who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly is the control owner. The control owner should update the risk register with the information about the failed control, such as the cause, consequence, status, and action plan. The control owner should also monitor the performance and compliance of the control, and recommend any improvements or adjustments as needed.
The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.
data logging and monitoring
data mining and analytics
data classification and labeling
data retention and destruction
The best way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for data retention and destruction. Data retention and destruction policies and procedures define the criteria, methods, and schedules for retaining and disposing of electronic data. They help to ensure that the electronic data is stored, managed, and deleted in a consistent, secure, and compliant manner. They also help to reduce the volume, complexity, and cost of retrieving electronic evidence, as they limit the scope, duration, and frequency of the data preservation and discovery process. The other options are not as effective as data retention and destruction policies and procedures, as they are related to the collection, analysis, or classification of electronic data, not the retention or destruction of electronic data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?
Key audit findings
Treatment plan status
Performance indicators
Risk scenario results
A treatment plan status is a report that shows the current status and progress of the risk mitigation actions and activities that are implemented to reduce the risk exposure of the organization. A treatment plan status would provide the most useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation, as it can help to monitor and evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the implementation. A treatment plan status can also provide feedback and information to the risk owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 257. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 257. ISACACertified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 257. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?
Comparing risk rating against appetite
Obtaining input from business units
Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk
Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence
Comparing risk rating against appetite is the most helpful criterion when prioritizing action plans for identified risk, as it helps to determine the urgency and importance of addressing the risk. Risk rating is the level of risk after considering the likelihood and impact of a risk event, and risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By comparing risk rating against appetite, an organization can identify which risks are above, within, or below its tolerance level, and prioritize the action plans accordingly. Risks that are above the appetite level should be treated with the highest priority, as they pose asignificant threat to the organization’s objectives and performance. Risks that are within the appetite level should be monitored and controlled regularly, as they are acceptable but still require attention. Risks that are below the appetite level should be reviewed periodically, as they are negligible or insignificant.
Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Engaging sponsorship by senior management
Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization
Including input from risk and business unit management
Developing in collaboration with internal audit
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics used by organizations to monitor and assess potential risks that may impact their objectives and performance. KRIs also provide early warning signals that help organizations identify, analyze, and address risks before they escalate into significant issues1. Effective KRIs are thosethat are relevant, measurable, predictable, comparable, and informational2. The most important factor for developing effective KRIs is including input from risk and business unit management, as they are the persons who have the best understanding of the risk environment, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk factors and impacts of the organization. By including input from risk and business unit management, the organization can ensure that the KRIs are aligned with the organization’s strategy, vision, and mission, and that they reflect the current and emerging risks and their potential consequences. Engaging sponsorship by senior management, utilizing data and resources internal to the organization, and developing in collaboration with internal audit are not the most important factors for developing effective KRIs, as they do not provide the same level of insight and relevance as including input from risk and business unit management. Engaging sponsorship by senior management is a factor that involves obtaining the support and approval of the senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance. Engaging sponsorship by senior management can help to promote the importance and value of KRIs, and to ensure their communication and implementation across the organization, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are appropriate and accurate for the organization’s risk profile. Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization is a factor that involves using the information and assets that are available within the organization to support or enable the development of KRIs. Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization can help to enhance the quality and reliability of KRIs, and to reduce the cost and complexity of obtaining external data and resources, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are comprehensive and consistent with the organization’s risk environment. Developing in collaboration with internal audit is a factor that involves working with the internal audit function that provides independent and objective assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s risk management. Developing in collaboration with internal audit can help to improve the validity and compliance of KRIs, and to provide feedback and recommendations for improvement, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are relevant and realistic for the organization’s risk objectives and strategies. References = 1: Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture2: KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva3: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Key Risk Indicators, pp. 181-185.]
Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?
Developing an ongoing awareness and training program
Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend
Embedding risk management into the organization
Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources
The first consideration when establishing a new risk governance program is embedding risk management into the organization. Embedding risk management means integrating risk management principles and practices into the organization’s culture, values, processes, and decision-making. Embedding risk management helps to ensure that risk management is not seen as a separate or isolated activity, but as a part of the organization’s normal operations and strategic objectives. Embedding risk management also helps to create a risk-aware and risk-responsive organization, where risk management is shared and supported by all stakeholders. The other options are not the first consideration, although they may be important steps or components of the risk governance program. Developing an ongoing awareness and training program, creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend, and completing annual risk assessments on critical resources are all activities that can help to embed risk management into the organization, but they are not the initial or primary consideration. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?
Reviewing the results of independent audits
Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center
Performing a due diligence review
Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders
The most helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization’s key IT applications in a cloud environment is conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders. A risk workshop is a facilitated session that involves brainstorming, discussing, and analyzing the potential risks and opportunities related to a specific topic or project. A risk workshop helps to identify and prioritize the most relevant and significant risk scenarios, as well as to explore the possible causes, impacts, and responses. A risk workshop also helps to engage and align the key stakeholders, such as the business owners, IT managers, cloud providers, and risk experts, and to leverage their knowledge, experience, and perspectives. The other options are not as helpful as conducting a risk workshop, although they may provide some inputor information for the risk scenario development. Reviewing the results of independent audits, performing a site visit to the cloud provider’s data center, and performing a due diligence review are all activities that can help to assess the current state and performance of the cloud environment, but they do not necessarily generate or evaluate the risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?
Data protection officer
Chief information officer (CIO)
Information asset custodian
Information asset owner
The organizational role that should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified is the information asset owner, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the information assets they own, and to manage the risk and controls related to the information assets. The other options are not the correct roles, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to the protection, governance, or maintenance of the information assets, respectively, rather than the classification of the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?
The impact of the risk
The replacement cost of the business asset
The cost of risk mitigation controls
The classification of the business asset
The primary basis for prioritizing risk responses is the impact of the risk. The impact of the risk is the consequence or effect of the risk on the organization’s objectives or operations, such as financial loss, reputational damage, operational disruption, or legal liability. The impact of therisk is one of the key dimensions of risk analysis, along with the likelihood of the risk. The impact of the risk helps to determine the severity and priority of the risk, and to select the most appropriate and effective risk response. The impact of the risk also helps to evaluate the cost-benefit and trade-off of the risk response, and to measure the residual risk and the risk performance. The other options are not the primary basis for prioritizing risk responses, although they may be considered or influenced by the impact of the risk. The replacement cost of the business asset, the cost of risk mitigation controls, and the classification of the business asset are all factors that could affect the value or importance of the business asset, but they do not necessarily reflect the impact of the risk on the business asset or the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-25.
Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?
Risk maturity
Risk policy
Risk appetite
Risk culture
Risk appetite is the best criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted, as it reflects the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to take in pursuit of its objectives. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after applying controls or other risk treatments. By comparing the residual risk ratings against the risk appetite, an organization can decide whether to accept, reduce, transfer, or avoid the risk. If the residual risk is within or below the risk appetite, the organization may accept the risk as tolerable. If the residual risk is above the risk appetite, the organization may not accept the risk as acceptable, and may seek further risk treatments or escalation.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?
It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.
It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.
There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.
Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.
The primary concern for a risk practitioner in adopting innovative big data analytics is the potential re-identification of individuals from previously anonymized data. Advanced analytics techniques can inadvertently combine datasets in ways that reveal personal identities, leading to privacy breaches and regulatory non-compliance. This risk is heightened when data from multiple sources are aggregated, increasing the chance of re-identification.
When determining risk ownership, the MAIN consideration should be:
who owns the business process.
the amount of residual risk.
who is responsible for risk mitigation.
the total cost of risk treatment.
Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?
Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)
Collaborating with IT audit
Conducting vulnerability assessments
Obtaining input from key stakeholders
The most important factor when developing risk scenarios is obtaining input from key stakeholders. A risk scenario is a description of a possible event or situation that could affect the enterprise’s objectives, processes, or resources. Obtaining input from key stakeholders, such as business owners, process owners, subject matter experts, or external parties, helps to ensure that the risk scenarios are realistic, relevant, and comprehensive. It also helps to identify the sources,drivers, indicators, likelihood, impact, and responses of the risk scenarios, and to align them with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. Obtaining input from key stakeholders also fosters a collaborative and participatory approach to risk management, and enhances the risk awareness and ownership among the stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.3, page 621
Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?
The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts
The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk
A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts
The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk and its associated controls1. The risk owner is also responsible for ensuring that the risk is within the acceptable level and that the risk response is effective and efficient2. Therefore, the most appropriate owner for a newly identified IT risk is the individual who has the authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk, asthey have the most interest and influence on the risk and its impact on the business objectives. The other options are not the most appropriate owners for a newly identified IT risk, as they may not have the authority or the accountability to manage the risk. The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts may have the operational responsibility or the oversight of the risk management activities, but they may not have the authority to allocate the resources or approve the risk response. A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts may have the project management skills or the knowledge of the risk management process, but they may not have the accountability or the ownership of the risk or its outcomes. The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge may have the technical expertise or the understanding of the risk and its causes, but they may not have the decision-making power or the responsibility to manage the risk or its controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 822
The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is
maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets
determine their sensitivity and critical
establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)
categorize data into groups
Information asset classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity and criticality to an information asset based on its value, importance, and impact to the organization. The major reason to classify information assets is to determine their sensitivity and criticality, which are the measures of how confidential, proprietary, or sensitive the information is, and how essential, urgent, or time-sensitive the information is for the business operations. By determining the sensitivity and criticality of information assets, the organization can prioritize the protection and recovery of the information assets, implement the appropriate security controls and safeguards, comply with the regulatory and contractual requirements, and manage the information lifecycle and disposal. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 74.
What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?
Segment the system on its own network.
Ensure regular backups take place.
Virtualize the system in the cloud.
Install antivirus software on the system.
The best recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system is to segment the system on its own network. Network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments, based on different criteria, such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation helps to isolate the system from the rest of the network, and limit the exposure and access to the system. Network segmentation also helps to improve the performance and security of the network, by reducing the network traffic and congestion, and enhancing the monitoring and control capabilities. The other options are not as effective as segmenting the system on its own network, although they may provide some additional protection or recovery options. Ensuring regular backups take place, virtualizing the system in the cloud, and installing antivirus software on the system are all measures that can helpto reduce the risk of data loss or system damage, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of security patches and updates for the system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?
Assigning control ownership
Assigning appropriate resources
Assigning a quality control review
Performing regular independent control reviews
Commitment to controls is the degree to which the organization and its stakeholders support and adhere to the controls that are designed and implemented to manage or mitigate the risks1. Commitment to controls is essential for ensuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, as well as the achievement of the organization’s objectives and strategies2. The best way to promote commitment to controls is to assign control ownership, which is the process ofidentifying and assigning the person or entity that has the authority and accountability for a control and its management3. By assigning control ownership, the organization can ensure that the controls are properly and promptly designed, implemented, monitored, and maintained, and that the issues or gaps in the controls are identified andresolved4. Assigning control ownership also helps to establish and communicate the roles and responsibilities of the control owners and the other stakeholders, and to enforce the accountability and performance of the control owners5. Assigning appropriate resources, assigning a quality control review, and performing regular independent control reviews are not the best ways to promote commitment to controls, as they donot provide the same level of authority and accountability as assigning control ownership. Assigning appropriate resources is the process of allocating and providing the necessary funds, staff, equipment, or technology that are required to support or enable the controls. Assigning appropriate resources can enhance the quality and performance of the controls, but it does not ensure that the controls are managed or maintained by a specific person or entity. Assigning a quality control review is the process of conducting and documenting a systematic and objective examination and evaluation of the controls, to ensure that they meet the established standards and requirements. Assigning a quality control review can improve the reliability and compliance of the controls, but it does not ensure that the controls are owned or operated by a specific person or entity. Performing regular independent control reviews is the process of performing and reporting an independent and impartial assessment and verification of the controls, to provide assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls. Performing regular independent control reviews can provide feedback and recommendations for the controls, but it does notensure that the controls are implemented or improved by a specific person or entity. References = 1: Commitment Controls - IMF2: 17 COSO Principles of Effective Internal Control | Weaver3: [Control Ownership - ISACA] 4: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.1: Control Design, pp. 233-235.] 5: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.2: Control Implementation, pp. 243-245.] : Resource Allocation - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : Quality Control Review - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics : IT Risk Resources | ISACA : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Information Systems Control Design and Implementation, Section 5.3: Control Monitoring and Maintenance, pp. 251-253.]
A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Implement new controls.
Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).
Redesign the process.
Re-evaluate the existing control design.
Understanding KPIs:
Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to evaluate the efficiency and effectiveness of a process. They must be accurate and relevant to provide meaningful insights.
Process Inefficiency Despite No Control Issues:
If a KPI shows inefficiency but no control issues are noted, it suggests that the KPI may not be accurately reflecting the process performance.
Recalibrating the KPI ensures that it correctly measures what it is intended to, providing a true picture of the process efficiency.
Steps for Recalibration:
Review the current KPI and its alignment with process objectives.
Adjust the KPI parameters or thresholds to better reflect process performance.
Validate the recalibrated KPI with historical data to ensure accuracy.
Comparing Other Actions:
Implementing New Controls:Premature without understanding the root cause of the KPI discrepancy.
Redesigning the Process:Extensive and unnecessary if the KPI is simply miscalibrated.
Re-Evaluating Existing Control Design:Important but secondary to ensuring KPI accuracy.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of accurate KPIs in monitoring process performance and the need for recalibration when discrepancies are found (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.14 Key Performance Indicators).
Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?
A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds
An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions
An increase in the number of change events pending management review
A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)
The best indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised is a decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk. Risk thresholds are the predefined values or ranges that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable level of risk exposure. Critical assets are the assets that are essential or vital for the achievement of the objectives or the continuity of the operations. A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds means that the KRIs are not capturing or reflecting the current and relevant risk exposure of the organization, and that they may not provide sufficient or accurate information for risk management decisions. Therefore, the KRIs should be revised to ensure that they cover all the critical assets and their risk thresholds.The other options are not as indicative as a decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds, as they are related to the outcomes, impacts, or activities of the KRIs, not thescope or quality of the KRIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:
the organization's risk culture
benchmarking results against similar organizations
industry-specific regulatory requirements
expertise available within the IT department
The maturity of an IT risk management program is most influenced by the organization’s risk culture, as this reflects the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that shape how the organization perceives and responds to risk. The risk culture determines the level of awareness, commitment, and involvement of the stakeholders in the IT risk management process, as well as the degree of integration and alignment with the enterprise’s objectives and strategy. A mature IT risk management program requires a strong and positive risk culture that fosters trust, collaboration, and accountability among the stakeholders, and supports continuous improvement and learning. The other options are not the most influential factors for the maturity of an IT risk management program, although they may have some impact or relevance. Benchmarking results against similar organizations can provide useful insights and comparisons, but they do not necessarily reflect the organization’s own risk culture or context. Industry-specific regulatory requirements can impose certain standards and expectations, but they do not guarantee the effectiveness or efficiency of the IT risk management program. Expertise available within the IT department can enhance the technical and operational aspects of the IT risk management program, but it does not ensure the strategic and cultural alignment with the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, page 23.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?
Benchmark of industry standards
Internal and external risk reports
Recommendations from IT risk experts
Outcome of control self-assessments
The primary input when designing IT controls should be internal and external risk reports. IT controls are specific activities performed by persons or systems to ensure that business objectives are met, and thatthe confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and the overall management of the IT function are ensured1. Designing IT controls means creating and implementing the appropriate measures or actions to reduce the likelihood or impact of the IT risks that may affect the organization2. Internal and external risk reports are documents that provide information and analysis on the current and potential IT risks that the organization faces, as well as their sources, drivers, consequences, and responses3. Internal risk reports are generated by the organization itself, such as by the IT risk management function, the internal audit function, or the business units. External risk reports are obtained from external sources, such as regulators, industry associations, or third-party service providers. Internal and external risk reports are the primary input when designing IT controls, because they help to:
Identify and prioritize the IT risks that need to be addressed by the IT controls;
Evaluate the likelihood and impact of the IT risks, and compare them against the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance;
Determine the most suitable and effective IT control objectives and activities to mitigate the IT risks;
Align the IT control design and implementation with the organization’s objectives, strategies, and values;
Monitor and measure the performance and effectiveness of the IT controls in reducing the IT risks. The other options are not the primary input when designing IT controls, as they are either less relevant or less specific than internal and external risk reports. Benchmark of industry standards is a comparison of the organization’s IT control practices and performance with those of other organizations in the same industry or sector4. Benchmark of industry standards can help to improve the quality and consistency of the IT control design and implementation, as well as to identify the best practices and gaps. However, benchmark of industry standards is not the primary input when designing IT controls, as it does not address the specific IT risks that the organization faces, or the IT control objectives and activities that are appropriate and effective for the organization. Recommendations from IT risk experts are the suggestions or advice from the professionals or specialists who have the knowledge and experience in IT risk management and IT control design and implementation5. Recommendations from IT risk experts can help to enhance the IT control design and implementation, as well as to provide guidance and support to the organization. However, recommendations from IT risk experts are not the primary inputwhen designing IT controls, as they are based on the opinions and perceptions of the experts, and may not reflect the actual or objective level and nature of the IT risks, or the IT control objectives and activities that are suitable and efficient for the organization. Outcome of control self-assessments is the result or conclusion of the evaluation and testing of the design and operation of the existingIT controls by the organization itself, such as by the IT control owners, the IT risk management function, or the business units6. Outcome of control self-assessments can help to improve the IT control design and implementation, as well as to detect and correct any issues or deficiencies. However, outcome of control self-assessments is not the primary input when designing IT controls, as it does not cover the new or emerging IT risks that the organization may face, or the IT control objectives and activities that are relevant and necessary for the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 189.
The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:
implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.
ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.
build a risk profile for management review.
quantify the organization's risk appetite.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
A risk profile is a summary or representation of the organization’s exposure or level of risk, based on the results of the risk assessment and evaluation. A risk profile can show the distribution and comparison of the risks based on various criteria, such as likelihood, impact, category, source, etc. A risk profile can also indicate the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and the gaps or opportunities for improvement.
The primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to build a risk profile for management review, because it provides the data and information that are necessary and relevant for creating and updating the risk profile, and for communicating and reporting the risk profile to the management. Maintaining an up-to-date risk register can help to build a risk profile for management review by providing the following benefits:
It can ensure that the risk profile reflects the current and accurate state and performance of the organization’s risk management function, and that it covers all the relevant and significant risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and communication of the risks and their responses, and for the alignment and integration of the risks and their responses with the organization’s strategy and culture.
It can support the decision making and planning for the risk management function, and for the allocation and optimization of the resources, time, and budget for the risk management function.
The other options are not the primary benefits of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of building a risk profile for management review, which is to summarize and represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and to communicate and report it to the management.
Implementing uniform controls for common risk scenarios means applying and enforcing the same or similar controls or countermeasures for the risks that have the same or similar characteristics or features, such as source, cause, impact, etc. Implementing uniform controls for common risk scenarios can help to ensure the consistency and efficiency of the risk management function, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because itdoes not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be relevant or appropriate for the organization’s objectives and needs.
Ensuring business unit risk is uniformly distributed means ensuring that the risks that are associated with the different business units or divisions of the organization are balanced or equalized, and that they do not exceed or fall below the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Ensuring business unit risk is uniformly distributed can help to optimize the performance and profitability of the organization, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because it does not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be feasible or realistic for the organization.
Quantifying the organization’s risk appetite means measuring and expressing the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept or take, in pursuit of its objectives and goals. Quantifying the organization’s risk appetite can help to establish and communicate the boundaries and expectations for the organization’s risk management function, but it is not the primary benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register, because it does not summarize or represent the organization’s exposure or level of risk, and it may not be consistent or compatible with the organization’s strategy and culture. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 201
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?
Operating controls for risk mitigation
Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls
Providing assurance on risk management processes
Recommending risk treatment options
Providing assurance on risk management processes is the activity that should only be performed by the third line of defense, because it is the role and responsibility of the independent andobjective assurance function, such as internal audit or external audit, to evaluate and report on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and controls. The third line of defense is the last layer of the three lines of defense model, which is a framework that defines the roles and responsibilities of different functions and levels within the organization for risk management and control. The first line of defense is the operational management and staff, who are responsible for identifying, assessing, and managing the risks and controls within their areas of responsibility. The second line of defense is the oversight and support functions, such as risk management, compliance, or legal, who are responsible for establishing and monitoring the risk policies, standards, and frameworks, and providing guidance and advice to the first line of defense. The third line of defense is the assurance function, who are responsible for providing independent and objective assurance on the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management processes and controls, and reporting to the senior management and the board of directors. Operating controls for risk mitigation, testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls, and recommending risk treatment options are all activities that can be performed by the first or second line of defense, but not by the third line of defense, as they are not part of the assurance function. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.4.1, page 59
Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?
Regional competitors' policies and standards
Ability to monitor and enforce compliance
Industry-standard templates
Differences in regulatory requirements
Differences in regulatory requirements are the most important factor for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards. This is because different countries or regions may have different laws, regulations, or standards that govern the protection of information and data, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the United States, or the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada. A multinational organization must comply with the applicable regulatoryrequirements in each jurisdiction where it operates, or it may face legal, financial, or reputational risks. Therefore, the organization should develop its security policies and standards in a way that meets or exceeds the minimum regulatory requirements, and also aligns with its business objectives and risk appetite. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key elements of IT governance is to ensure compliance withexternal laws and regulations1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, differences in regulatory requirements is the correct answer to this question2.
Regional competitors’ policies and standards, ability to monitor and enforce compliance, and industry-standard templates are not the most important factors for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards. These factors may be useful or relevant, but they are not as critical or mandatory as the differences in regulatory requirements. Regional competitors’ policies and standards may provide some insights or benchmarks, but theymay not reflect the organization’s specific needs or risks. Ability to monitor and enforce compliance is an important aspect of implementing and maintaining security policies and standards, but it does not determine the content or scope of the policies and standards. Industry-standard templates may offer some guidance or best practices, but they may not cover all the regulatory requirements or the organization’s unique circumstances.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?
Ensure compliance with the organization's internal policies
Cultivate long-term behavioral change.
Communicate IT risk policy to the participants.
Demonstrate regulatory compliance.
The primary focus of an IT risk awareness program is to cultivate long-term behavioral change. An IT risk awareness program is a program that educates and informs the stakeholders, such as the employees, managers, customers, or partners, about the IT risks and the IT risk management activities. An IT risk awareness program helps to increase the knowledge and understanding of the IT risks and the IT risk management objectives, strategies, and processes, and to promote the participation and collaboration of the stakeholders in the IT risk management activities. Theprimary focus of an IT risk awareness program is to cultivate long-term behavioral change, which is the change in the attitudes, beliefs, values, and actions of the stakeholders regarding the IT risks and the IT risk management activities. Cultivating long-term behavioral change helps to create and sustain a risk-aware culture, which is a culture that recognizes,respects, and supports the IT risk management activities, and that encourages the stakeholders to take responsibility and ownership of the IT risks and the IT risk management activities. Cultivating long-term behavioral change also helps to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT risk management activities, and to align the IT risk management activities with the business goals and values. Ensuring compliance with the organization’s internal policies, communicating IT risk policy to the participants, and demonstrating regulatory compliance are not the primary focus of an IT risk awareness program, as they are either the benefits or the objectives of the IT risk awareness program, and they do not address the primary need of changing the behavior of the stakeholders. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?
Apply data classification policy
Utilize encryption with logical access controls
Require logical separation of company data
Obtain the right to audit
The most effective practice in protecting personally identifiable information (PII) from unauthorized access in a cloud environment is to utilize encryption with logical access controls. Encryption is a technique that transforms the data into an unreadable or unintelligible form, making it inaccessible or unusable by unauthorized parties. Logical access controls are the mechanisms or rules that regulate who can access, view, modify, or delete the data, based on their identity, role, or privilege. By utilizing encryption with logical access controls, the PII can be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, or theft, both in transit and at rest, in a cloud environment. The other options are not as effective as utilizing encryption with logical access controls, as they are related to the classification, separation, or audit of the data, not the protection or security of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?
identification of control requirements
Alignment to business objectives
Consideration of new business strategies
inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance
Alignment to business objectives is the most important factor when developing a business case for a proposed security investment, because it demonstrates how the investment will support the enterprise’s mission, vision, and goals. A business case should show how the security investment will contribute to the value creation, risk reduction, and performance improvement of the enterprise. The other options are not the most important factors, although they may also be included in the business case. The identification of control requirements, the consideration of new business strategies, and the inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance are secondary factors that depend on the alignment to business objectives. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers
Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?
Lack of technical expertise
Combining incompatible duties
Unauthorized data usage
Denial of service attacks
The most common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider is unauthorized data usage, which means the misuse, disclosure, or theft of the organization’s data by the service provider or its employees, contractors, or subcontractors1. Unauthorized data usage can pose significant risks to the organization, such as:
Data security and privacy breaches, which can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data, and expose the organization to legal liability, regulatory penalties, reputational damage, or loss of trust and credibility2.
Data quality and accuracy issues, which can affect the reliability and validity of the data, and impair the decision-making, reporting, or performance of the organization3.
Data ownership and control issues, which can limit the access and rights of the organization to its own data, and create dependency or lock-in with the service provider4.
The other options are not the most common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, because:
Lack of technical expertise is a potential but not prevalent concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may affect the quality and efficiency of the services provided by the service provider, and the compatibility and integration of the services with the organization’s systems and processes5. However, most service providers have sufficient technical expertise in their domain or field, and they can offer specialized skills or resources that the organization may not have internally6.
Combining incompatible duties is a possible but not frequent concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may create conflicts of interest or segregation of duties issues for the service provider or the organization, and increase the risk of errors, fraud, or abuse7. However, most service providers have adequate governance and control mechanisms to prevent or mitigate such issues, and they can adhere to the organization’s policies and standards regarding the separation of duties8.
Denial of service attacks is a rare but not common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may disrupt the availability or functionality of the services provided by the service provider, and affect the operations or continuity of the organization. However, most service providers have robust security measures and contingency plans to protect and recover from such attacks, and they can ensure the resilience and reliability of the services.
References =
Unauthorized Data Usage - CIO Wiki
What is outsourcing? Definitions, benefits, challenges, processes, advice | CIO
The Pros and Cons of Outsourcing in 2023 - GrowthForce
13 Common Problems of Outsourcing and How to Avoid Them - ENOU Labs
The Top 10 Problems with Outsourcing Implementation - SSON
10 problems with outsourcing (+ Solutions for each) - Time Doctor Blog
Segregation of Duties - CIO Wiki
Outsourcing Governance - CIO Wiki
[Denial-of-Service Attack - CIO Wiki]
[Business Continuity Planning - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?
Threat to IT
Number of control failures
Impact on business
Risk ownership
Ineffective control implementation can result in increased risk exposure, reduced compliance, and diminished performance for the organization. Therefore, the most relevant information for stakeholders is the impact of ineffective control implementation on the business objectives, processes, and outcomes. The impact on business can include financial losses, reputational damage, operational inefficiencies, customer dissatisfaction, and legal liabilities. The other options are not as relevant as the impact on business, because they do not directly link the control effectiveness to the business value. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 128.
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?
Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.
Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization
Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management
Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices
Managing cyber risk according to the organization’s risk management framework is the best recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile, as it helps to integrate and align the cybersecurity risk management (CSRM) and the enterprise risk management (ERM) processes. A risk management framework is a set of principles, policies, and practices that guide and support the risk management activities within an organization. A risk management framework helps to establish a consistent, comprehensive, and coordinated approach to risk management across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
Managing cyber risk according to the organization’s risk management framework helps to ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile by providing the following benefits:
It enables a holistic and comprehensive view of the cyber risk landscape and its interdependencies with the business processes and functions.
It facilitates the communication and collaboration among the business and IT stakeholders and enhances their understanding and awareness of the cyber risk exposure and control environment.
It supports the development and implementation of effective and efficient cyber risk response and mitigation strategies and actions that are aligned with the business risk appetite and objectives.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the cyber risk management and control processes and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best recommendations to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile. Defining cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization is a good practice to clarify and assign the duties and accountabilities for the cyber risk management and control processes, but it does not directly address the cyber risk assessment and integration with the enterprise-level risk profile. Conducting cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management is a useful method to educate and engage the senior management in the cyber risk management and control processes, but it does not provide asystematic or consistent way to assess and reflect the cyber risk in the enterprise-level risk profile. Implementing a cyber risk program based on industry best practices is a possible action to improve and enhance the cyber risk management and control processes, but it does not ensure the alignment or integration with the organization’s risk management framework or the enterprise-level risk profile. References = Integrating Cybersecurity and Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) - NIST, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Identifying and Estimating Cybersecurity Risk for Enterprise Risk …
Which of the following is MOST helpful in verifying that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended?
An updated risk register
Risk assessment results
Technical control validation
Control testing results
Control testing is the process of verifying that the risk mitigation controls are designed and operating effectively, and that they achieve the intended objectives and outcomes. Control testing can involve various methods, such as observation, inspection, inquiry, re-performance, or simulation. Control testing results can provide evidence and assurance that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended, and that the control is functioning properly and consistently. Control testing results can also identify any issues or deficiencies in the control design or operation, and recommend corrective actions or improvements. The other options are not as helpful as control testing results, because they do not provide a direct and objective verification of the control implementation, but rather focus on other aspects or outputs of the risk management process, as explained below:
A. An updated risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their characteristics, and their status. An updated risk register can reflect the changes in the risk profile and exposure after the implementation of a risk mitigation control, but it does not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable.
B. Risk assessment results are the outputs of the risk analysis and evaluation process, which measure the impact and likelihood of the risks, and assign a risk rating and priority. Risk assessment results can indicate the level of risk exposure and the need for risk mitigation controls, but they do not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable.
C. Technical control validation is the process of ensuring that the technical aspects of a control, such as hardware, software, or network components, are configured and functioning correctly. Technical control validation can verify that the control implementation meets the technical specifications and requirements, but it does not verify that the control implementation has been completed as intended, or that the control is effective and reliable from a businessperspective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130.
A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:
a root cause analysis is required
controls are effective for ensuring continuity
hardware needs to be upgraded
no action is required as there was no impact
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control documents, the risk practitioner should conclude that no action is required as there was no impact. The fact that there have been no interruptions to business operations despite the increasing hardware failure incidents indicates that the built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture are effective in ensuring continuity.
Options A and C are not necessary in this scenario. A root cause analysis (Option A) might be considered if there were actual interruptions or impact on business operations. However, since there were no interruptions, a root cause analysis may not be immediately required. Similarly, upgrading hardware (Option C) may not be necessary if the existing controls are effectively preventing business disruptions.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual
Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?
Regular testing of risk controls
Communication of audit findings
Procedures for security monitoring
Open communication of risk reporting
Open communication of risk reporting is the most important factor for promoting a risk-aware culture, because it fosters trust, transparency, and accountability among all stakeholders. It also enables timely and informed decision-making, feedback, and learning from risk events. Regular testing of risk controls, communication of audit findings, and procedures for security monitoring are all important aspects of risk management, but they do not necessarily create a risk-aware culture, which requires a shared understanding and commitment to risk management across the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2, page 1-9.
Which of the following controls BEST enables an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory?
Prohibiting the use of personal devices for business
Performing network scanning for unknown devices
Requesting an asset list from business owners
Documenting asset configuration baselines
IT asset inventory is the process of tracking and managing the financial, physical, licensing, and contractual aspects of IT assets throughout their life cycle1. IT assets include hardware, software, and network components that an organization values and uses to achieve its objectives2. A complete and accurate IT asset inventory can help an organization to optimize its IT budget, reduce security risks, ensure compliance, and improve performance3.
One of the best controls to enable an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory is performing network scanning for unknown devices. Network scanning is the process of identifying and collecting information about the devices connected to a network, such as their IP addresses, operating systems, open ports, services, and vulnerabilities4. Network scanning can help an organization to:
Discover and inventory all the IT assets on the network, including those that are unauthorized, unmanaged, or hidden
Detect and remove any rogue or malicious devices that may pose a threat to the network security or performance
Update and verify the asset inventory data regularly and automatically, and alert on any changes or discrepancies
Support the asset lifecycle management and maintenance activities, such as patching, upgrading, or retiring assets5
References = IT Asset Valuation, Risk Assessment and Control Implementation Model, ITAM: The ultimate guide to IT asset management, Navigating Security Threats with IT Inventory Management, Network Scanning - Wikipedia, 8 Best IT Asset Management Software (2024)
Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?
Al requires entirely new risk management processes.
Al potentially introduces new types of risk.
Al will result in changes to business processes.
Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.
Artificial intelligence (AI) solutions can offer significant benefits to an organization, such as improved efficiency, accuracy, and innovation. However, AI also poses new challenges and risks that need to be considered and addressed by senior management. Some of these risks include:
Ethical and social risks: AI solutions may have unintended or undesirable impacts on human values, rights, and behaviors, such as privacy, fairness, accountability, and transparency. For example, AI systems may exhibit bias, discrimination, or manipulation, or may infringe on personal data or autonomy.
Technical and operational risks: AI solutions may have vulnerabilities, errors, or failures that affect their performance, reliability, or security. For example, AI systems may be subject to hacking, tampering, or misuse, or may malfunction or produce inaccurate or harmful outcomes.
Legal and regulatory risks: AI solutions may have unclear or conflicting legal or regulatory implications or obligations, such as liability, compliance, or governance. For example, AI systems may raise questions about ownership, responsibility, or accountability, or may violate existing laws or regulations, or create new ones.
Therefore, a risk practitioner should communicate to senior management that AI potentially introduces new types of risk that need to be identified, assessed, and managed in alignment with the organization’s objectives, values, and risk appetite. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2, page 113.
A global organization has implemented an application that does not address all privacy requirements across multiple jurisdictions. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted with regard to privacy requirements?
Risk avoidance
Risk transfer
Risk mitigation
Risk acceptance
The global organization has adopted risk acceptance as the risk response with regard to privacy requirements, as it has decided to continue with the implementation of the application that does not address all privacy requirements across multiple jurisdictions, and bear the potential consequences of noncompliance. Risk avoidance, risk transfer, and risk mitigation are not the risk responses adopted by the organization, as they would involve avoiding, sharing, or reducing the risk of noncompliance with privacy requirements, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?
Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls' effectiveness.
Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.
Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.
Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT
A compensating control is a control that is implemented to reduce the risk exposure when the primary control is not feasible or cost-effective. A compensating control may not directly address the root cause of the risk, but it can provide an alternative or supplementary way of mitigating the risk. A residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. A residual risk can be accepted, monitored, or further reduced depending on the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner is a person who is responsible for identifying and analyzing the potential sources and consequences of risk events. When a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process, the action that would enable the most effective management of the residual risk is to schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls’ effectiveness, which means to measure and evaluate the performance and compliance of the compensating controls on a regular basis. By scheduling periodic reviews of the compensating controls’ effectiveness, the risk practitioner can ensure that the compensating controls are stilloperating as intended, and that they are delivering the expected results. The risk practitioner can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the compensating controls, and recommend any improvements or adjustments as needed. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 177.
Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?
Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.
Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.
Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.
Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.
The most concerning issue for a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register is that several risk action plans have missed target completion dates. This indicates that the risk responses are not being implemented effectively or timely, and that the risk exposure may not be reduced as expected. Senior management accepting more risk than usual, risk associated with many assets being expressed in qualitative terms, and many risk scenarios being owned by the same senior manager are not as concerning as the missed deadlines, as they may reflect the risk appetite, tolerance, and culture of the organization. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?
Number of risk register entries
Number of controls
Level of financial support
Amount of residual risk
The best indicator of the condition of a risk management program is the amount of residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses. Residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management program in reducing the risk exposure to an acceptable level, and in aligning the risk profile with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. A low amount of residual risk indicates that the risk managementprogram is performing well, and that the controls are adequate and appropriate. A high amount of residual risk indicates that the risk management program is not functioning properly, and that the controls are insufficient or ineffective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2, page 191
A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?
Sensitivity of the data
Readability of test data
Security of the test environment
Availability of data to authorized staff
Production data is the data that is used in the actual operation of a system or application, such as customer information, financial records, transactions, etc.
Test data is the data that is used in the testing or development of a system or application, such as dummy data, sample data, simulated data, etc.
A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. This indicates that there is a risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction of the production data, which may affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data.
The primary concern of the risk practitioner in this situation is the sensitivity of the data. This means that the risk practitioner should assess how valuable, critical, or confidential the data is, and what would be the impact or consequence if the data is compromised or lost.
The sensitivity of the data helps to determine the level of protection and control that is needed to safeguard the data, and the priority and urgency of the risk response actions.
The other options are not the primary concerns of the risk practitioner in this situation. They are either secondary or not essential for data protection.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 32
Information Technology & Security, page 26
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 24
Which of the following BEST measures the efficiency of an incident response process?
Number of incidents escalated to management
Average time between changes and updating of escalation matrix
Average gap between actual and agreed response times
Number of incidents lacking responses
The average gap between actual and agreed response times is the best measure of the efficiency of an incident response process, as it indicates how well the process meets the service level agreements (SLAs) and the expectations of the stakeholders. A smaller gap means that the process is more efficient and effective in resolving incidents within the agreed time frame. The other options are not the best measures of the efficiency of an incident response process, as they do not directly reflect the performance of the process against the SLAs. The number of incidents escalated to management may indicate the complexity or severity of the incidents, but not the efficiency of the process. The average time between changes and updating of escalation matrix may indicate the agility or flexibility of the process, but not the efficiency of the process. The number of incidents lacking responses may indicate the capacity or availability of the process, but not the efficiency of the process. References = Top 5 Incident Response Metrics with Real-World Examples & Impact; Mastering Incident Response: Best Practices for Effective Handling; The Five Steps of Incident Response
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture?
Reducing the involvement by senior management
Using more risk specialists
Reducing the need for risk policies and guidelines
Discussing and managing risk as a team
Discussing and managing risk as a team is the greatest benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture, as it enables the organization to share and communicate the risk information and knowledge among all the stakeholders, and to collaborate and coordinate the risk management activities and responsibilities. Discussing and managing risk as a team can also help to foster a positive and proactive attitude toward risk, and to align the risk management process with the organization’s strategy and objectives. Discussing and managing risk as a team can also enhance the risk governance and accountability, and support the risk learning and improvement. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 252. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 252. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when periodically reviewing risk response action plans?
The action plans have documented schedules
The action plans treat the corresponding risk
Budget has been allocated for the action plans
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are defined in the action plans
Maintaining alignment between action plans and their associated risk is critical. The risk practitioner must ensure that each plan directly addresses its risk, not just that timelines, budgets, or indicators exist.
Although detailed references aren’t available in our accessible summary, ISACA guidelines emphasize verifying that responses remain appropriately focused on risk scenarios.
To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:
Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.
Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.
Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.
Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.
Effective risk governance requires senior management to have a clear understanding of business risks and the associated ownership. This understanding enables them to make informed decisions, allocate resources appropriately, and establish accountability for risk management activities throughout the organization.
A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:
updating the risk register.
validating the risk scenarios.
documenting the risk scenarios.
identifying risk mitigation controls.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the most important time to involve business stakeholders in the development of bottom-up IT risk scenarios is when validating the risk scenarios, as they can provide valuable input on the relevance, completeness, and accuracy of the scenarios and their impact on the business objectives and processes2
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100001 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 97
Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?
Threat landscape
Risk appetite
Risk register
Risk metrics
Reviewing the risk register is the best way to help an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile, because it provides a comprehensive and structured representation of all the key risks that the organization faces, along with their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the current status of risks, their sources, causes, consequences, and controls. A risk register helps to facilitate the communication and reporting of risks, and to support the risk-based decision making and prioritization. A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that an organization faces, and their implications forthe organization’s objectives and strategy. Reviewing the risk register is the best way to understand the risk profile, as it reflects the nature and level of exposure that the organization has from the various risk sources and scenarios. Reviewing the threat landscape, the risk appetite, and the risk metrics are all useful ways to help an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile, but they are not the best way, as they do not provide a comprehensive and structured view of the risks and theirresponses. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 83
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?
Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.
Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.
Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.
Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.
Brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders are the best way to facilitate the development of relevant risk scenarios, as they can generate diverse and creative ideas, perspectives, and insights about the potential risks and their impact on the organization’s objectives and operations. Brainstorming sessions can also foster collaboration, communication, and engagement among the stakeholders, and help to identify and prioritize the most significant and realistic risk scenarios. Brainstorming sessions can be guided by an industry-recognized risk framework, such as ISACA’s Risk IT, and supported by qualitative or quantitative risk assessment methodologies, but they are not sufficient by themselves to develop relevant risk scenarios.
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?
Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets
Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments
A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents
A large number of control exceptions
A risk management program is a set of processes, policies, and tools that enable an enterprise to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate its risks. The maturity level of a risk management program indicates how well the program is integrated, standardized, and aligned with the enterprise’s objectives, culture, and values. The best indication that an organization’s risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level is large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments. Risk ratings are the measures of the impact and likelihood of the risks, and they should be consistent and comparable across the enterprise and over time. Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments suggest that the risk management program is not stable, reliable, or effective, and that the risk identification and analysis methods are not robust, accurate, or transparent. The other options are not as indicative of the maturity level of the riskmanagement program, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the risk management program:
Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets means that the enterprise is spending more resources on implementing risk responses, such as controls, policies, or procedures. This may indicate that the enterprise is facing more or higher risks, or that the risk responses are more costly or complex, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the enterprise’s risk appetite, tolerance, and strategy.
A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents means that the enterprise is taking longer to restore its normal operations after a disruption or a loss. This may indicate that the enterprise is not prepared or resilient enough to deal with the incidents, or that the incidents are more frequent or severe, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the nature and source of the incidents, or the availability and effectiveness of the recovery plans.
A large number of control exceptions means that the enterprise is deviating from the established controls, policies, or procedures, either intentionally or unintentionally. This may indicate that the enterprise is not complying with the risk management program, or that the controls are not adequate or appropriate for the enterprise’s needs, but it does not necessarily reflect the maturity level of the risk management program, as it may also depend on the reasons and justifications for the exceptions, or the approval and monitoring processes for the exceptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.1.3.1, pp. 14-15.
The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.
ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements
demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.
ensure organizational awareness of the risk level
mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance
The main purpose of selecting a risk response is to mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance. Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying a risk response. Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk response is the process of selecting and implementing actions to address risk. The goal of risk response is to reduce the residual risk to a level that is acceptable to the organization and its stakeholders. The other options are not the main purpose of selecting a risk response, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?
User provisioning
Role-based access controls
Security log monitoring
Entitlement reviews
An organization’s account provisioning process is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for the organization’s information systems and resources. It involves defining the access requirements, policies, and standards, and implementing and enforcing them across the organization.
The best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process is entitlement reviews, which are the periodic or regular reviews and validations of the user accounts and access rights that are granted or assigned to the users or entities that interact with the organization’s information systems and resources. Entitlement reviews can provide assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
Entitlement reviews can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, reports, audits, surveys, etc. Entitlement reviews can also be integrated with the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions, and aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process, because they do not provide the same level of assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
User provisioning is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for a specific user or entity, based on their identity, role, or function in the organization. User provisioning is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the user accounts and access rights are appropriate and authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Role-based access controls are the controls that grant or restrict user accounts and access rights based on the predefined roles or functions that the users or entities perform or assume in the organization. Role-based access controls are an important part of the account provisioningprocess, but they are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because they do not indicate whether the roles or functions are defined and assigned correctly and consistently, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Security log monitoring is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the security events or activities that are recorded or logged by the organization’s information systems and resources. Security log monitoring is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the security events or activities are legitimate or authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 173
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?
It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.
It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.
It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.
It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.
The main benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios is that it establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives. A top-down approach is a method of risk identification and analysis that starts with the organization’s strategic objectives and then identifies the potential risk events that could affect or prevent the achievement of those objectives. A top-down approach helps to establish the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives, because it links the risk scenarios to the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and it prioritizes the risk scenarios based on their impact and relevance to the organization’s objectives. A top-down approach also helps to align and communicate the risk scenarios with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, and business units, and to facilitate the risk response and monitoring activities. The other options are not the main benefit of using a top-down approach, although they may be part of or derived from the top-down approach. Describing risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise, using hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise, and helping management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios are all activities or outcomes that could be performed or achieved by using a top-down approach, but they are not the primary purpose or result of the top-down approach. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
During a risk assessment of a financial institution, a risk practitioner discovers that tellers can initiate and approve transactions of significant value. This team is also responsible for ensuring transactions are recorded and balances are reconciled by the end of the day. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated risk?
Implement continuous monitoring.
Require a second level of approval.
Implement separation of duties.
Require a code of ethics.
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application?
Objectives are confirmed with the business owner.
Control owners approve control changes.
End-user acceptance testing has been conducted.
Performance information in the log is encrypted.
The performance of a client-facing application is the measure of how well the application meets the expectations and requirements of the clients who use it. The performance of a client-facing application can be affected by various factors, such as functionality, usability, reliability, availability, security, and scalability. Continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the performance data and metrics of the application over time. Continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application can help identify and resolve issues, improve quality, optimize resources, and enhance client satisfaction. The most important thing to ensure when continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application is that the objectives are confirmed with the business owner. The business owner is the person or entity who has the authority and responsibility for the business value and outcomes of the application. The business owner defines the objectives, goals, and requirements of the application, and sets the performance criteria and targets. Confirming the objectives with the business owner can help ensure that the performance monitoring is aligned with the business needs and expectations, and that the performance data and metrics are relevant, accurate, and meaningful. References = Risk and Information SystemsControl Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Continuous Monitoring, p. 203-205.
An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?
Confidentiality breach
Institutional knowledge loss
Intellectual property loss
Unauthorized access
The type of risk that is most likely to materialize as a result of allowing several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs is institutional knowledge loss, as it represents the loss of valuable information, experience, and expertise that the employees have accumulated over time, and that may not be easily transferred or replaced. Confidentiality breach, intellectual property loss, and unauthorized access are not the most likely types of risk, as they are more related to the security, ownership, or access of information, respectively, rather than the retention or transfer of knowledge. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?
To assign control ownership of risk
To provide a centralized view of risk
To identify opportunities to transfer risk
To mitigate organizational risk
According to ISACA, a risk register is a tool to record and track the identified risks, their ratings, responses, and status. The primary purpose of a risk register is to provide a centralized view of risk for the organization, as it enables the consolidation, communication, and reporting of risk information across different levels, units, and functions. A risk register can also support the risk management process, such as risk identification, assessment, treatment, monitoring, and review.
The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
Insufficient risk tolerance
Optimized control management
Effective risk management
Over-controlled environment
The situation where the cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss is best described as an over-controlled environment, as it indicates that the control is not cost-effective and may be unnecessary or excessive. Insufficient risk tolerance, optimized control management, and effective risk management are not the best descriptions, as they do not reflect the imbalance between the control cost and the potential loss. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 149.
Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?
Previous audit reports
Control objectives
Risk responses in the risk register
Changes in risk profiles
Understanding the Question:
The question seeks to identify which source provides the most useful information for evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls.
Analyzing the Options:
A. Previous audit reports:Provide historical data but might not reflect current risks.
B. Control objectives:These are standards to be achieved, not current evaluations.
C. Risk responses in the risk register:Useful but focused on specific responses rather than overall effectiveness.
D. Changes in risk profiles:Reflect current and emerging risks, providing a dynamic view of control effectiveness.
Risk Profiles:Evaluating changes in risk profiles helps understand how effective existing controls are against current threats. If risk levels are increasing, it may indicate that controls are insufficient or need updating.
Proactive Adjustment:By monitoring changes in risk profiles, organizations can proactively adjust their controls to address new or evolving risks.
An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:
chief risk officer.
project manager.
chief information officer.
business process owner.
The business process owner should be the risk owner for the risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system, because they are responsible for the performance and outcomes of the HR business process, and they understand the business requirements, expectations, and impact of the HR system. The business process owner can also evaluate the trade-offs between the potential benefits and costs of the HR system, and the potential risks and consequences of a failure or breach of the system. The business process owner can also communicate and justify their risk acceptance or mitigation decision to the senior management and other stakeholders, and ensure that the risk is monitored and reviewed regularly. The other options are less appropriate to be the risk owner for this risk exposure. The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing the enterprise-wide risk management framework and process, which includesensuring the identification, assessment, and reporting of risks. However, they are not the owner of the HR system or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. The project manager is responsible for managing the implementation of the HR system, which includes ensuring the delivery of the system within the scope, time, and budget constraints. However, they are not the owner of the HR system or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. The chief information officeris responsible for managing the IT function and resources, which includes providing the technical support and security for the HR system. However, they are not the owner of the HRsystem or the HR business process, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept or mitigate the risk on behalf of the business. References = Getting risk ownership right 1
Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures?
Relevant risk case studies
Internal audit findings
Risk assessment results
Penetration testing results
The most helpful factor for an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures is the risk assessment results. The risk assessment results provide a comprehensive and objective analysis of the risks facing the enterprise, including their likelihood, impact, and root causes. The risk assessment results also help to identify the gaps and weaknesses in the existing controls, and to prioritize the risks based on their severity and urgency. The risk assessment results enable the information security management team toallocate the resources in a cost-effective and risk-based manner, and to implement the most appropriate risk responses to reduce the exposures to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1, page 1751
Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register?
Risk taxonomy
Risk response
Risk appetite
Risk ranking
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk taxonomy is the system of classification and categorization of risks based on common characteristics and attributes. Risk taxonomy is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register, because it helps to ensure consistency, comparability, and alignment of the risks across the organization. Risk taxonomy also helps to facilitate the communication, reporting, and aggregation of the risks. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not essential for consolidating the risk registers. Risk response is the action taken to address the risk, which may vary depending on the risk level and strategy. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept, which may differ across the organization’s units and functions. Risk ranking is the process of prioritizing the risks based on their impact and likelihood, which may change over time and context. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.2, page 69.
Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?
Approval by senior management
Low cost of development and maintenance
Sensitivity to changes in risk levels
Use of industry risk data sources
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that help organizations monitor and assess potential risks that may impact their operations, financial health, or overall performance1. KRIs should have certain characteristics that make them effective for risk monitoring, such as:
Ability to measure the right thing (e.g., supports the decisions that need to be made)
Quantifiable (e.g., damages in dollars of profit loss)
Capability to be measured precisely and accurately
Relevant (measuring the right thing associated with decisions)2
Among the four options given, only option C (sensitivity to changes in risk levels) best enables effective risk monitoring. This is because KRIs should be able to capture the changes in risk levels over time and alert organizations to emerging or escalating risks3. A high sensitivity to changes in risk levels indicates that theKRI is responsive and timely, and can help organizations take preventive or corrective actions before the risks become too severe.
References = Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide, Key Risk Indicators: Examples & Definitions, Key Risk Indicators - Wikipedia
Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?
Introducing an approved IT governance framework
Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses
Performing a business impact analysis (BlA)
Implementing a risk classification system
Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses is the most helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives, as it helps to identify and prioritize the IT-related risks that could affect the achievement of the business goals and strategies. A top-down risk scenario analysis is a method of risk assessment that starts from the business perspective and considers the potential impact and likelihood of various risk events on the business outcomes and performance. A top-down risk scenario analysis can help to align IT risk with business objectives by providing the following benefits:
It ensures that the IT risk assessment is driven by the business needs and priorities, rather than by the IT technical details or assumptions.
It enables a holistic and comprehensive view of the IT risk landscape and its interdependencies with the business processes and functions.
It facilitates the communication and collaboration among the business and IT stakeholders and enhances their understanding and awareness of the IT risk exposure and control environment.
It supports the development and implementation of effective and efficient IT risk response and mitigation strategies that are aligned with the business risk appetite and objectives.
The other options are not the most helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives. Introducing an approved IT governance framework is a good practice to establish the principles, policies, and processes for the governance of IT, but it does not directly address the IT riskalignment with the business objectives. Performing a business impact analysis (BIA) is an important step to assess the potential consequences of IT disruptions on the business operations and continuity, but it does not provide information on the likelihood or sources of the IT risk events. Implementing a risk classification system is a useful tool to categorize and organize the IT risks based on their characteristics and attributes, but it does not link the IT risks with the business objectives or outcomes. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, How to reduce risk by aligning business strategy and IT strategy - QuoStar
Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?
Customer notification plans
Capacity management
Access management
Impacts on IT project delivery
Capacity management is crucial when transitioning employees to remote work during a crisis. It involves ensuring that the IT infrastructure can handle increased loads and that resources are available to support remote operations effectively.
A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Report the issue to internal audit.
Submit a request to change management.
Conduct a risk assessment.
Review the business impact assessment.
The first course of action for a risk practitioner when discovering a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched is to conduct a risk assessment. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that could affect the achievement of the objectives of the system or the organization. A risk assessment helps to determine the level and nature of the risk exposure, and to prioritize and respond to the risks. Conducting a risk assessment is the first course of action, as it helps to understand the source, cause, and impact of the deficiency, and to estimate the likelihood and consequences of the risk events that could exploit the deficiency. Conducting a risk assessment also helps to identify and evaluate the existing or potential controls or mitigations that could address the deficiency, and to recommend the appropriate risk treatment options. Reporting the issue to internal audit, submitting a request to change management, and reviewing the business impact assessment are not the first courses ofaction, as they are either the outputs or the inputs of the risk assessment process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the risk situation and status. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?
Results of risk remediation team interviews
Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes
Vulnerability assessment results
Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios
“Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios is a metric that measures the proportion of risk scenarios that have been reduced or eliminated by the risk responses and actions. However, this metric is not the most useful tool because it does not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk landscape…”
To truly measure progress,an up‑to‑date risk registerprovides the full context and current status of risk treatments—capturing what’s been done and what remains.
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Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?
Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports
Information generated by the systems
Control environment narratives
Confirmation from industry peers
The source that provides the most reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment is the information generated by the systems, as it reflects the actual and objective data and results of the system operations and performance, and can be verified and tested against the control objectives and criteria. The other options are not the most reliable sources, as they may be subjective, biased, or incomplete, and may not reflect theactual or current state of the system controls, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?
Use production data in a non-production environment
Use masked data in a non-production environment
Use test data in a production environment
Use anonymized data in a non-production environment
Using anonymized data in a non-production environment is the best approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality. Anonymized data is data that has been stripped of any personally identifiable information (PII) or other sensitive data, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc. Anonymized data protects the privacy and security of the data, while still preserving the structure and format of the original data. Using anonymized data in a non-production environment allows the organization to test the application functionality without risking data breaches or violating regulations. Using production data, masked data, or test data in either production or non-production environments are not as optimal as using anonymized data, because they may introduce errors, inconsistencies, or vulnerabilities in the data or the application. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?
Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities
Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience
Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite
Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation
Customizing the risk profile presentation ensures that stakeholders receive information in a format and context relevant to their roles. Tailored communication improves understanding, aligns risk discussions with decision-making needs, and ensures the stakeholders are equipped to act on the information effectively.
Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?
Recommend the IT department remove access to the cloud services.
Engage with the business area managers to review controls applied.
Escalate to the risk committee.
Recommend a risk assessment be conducted.
The best action for the risk practitioner to take when business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department is to recommend a risk assessment be conducted. A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the use of cloud services, such as financial, privacy, compliance, security, performance, quality, and technical risks12. A risk assessment can help to determine the current and potential risk exposure and impact of the cloud services, as well as the effectiveness and efficiency of theexisting or proposed controls. A risk assessment can also help to prioritize the risks and to develop and implement appropriate risk response strategies and plans, such as risk avoidance, reduction, sharing, or acceptance. Recommending a risk assessment is the best action, because it can provide valuable information and guidance to the business areas and the IT department for managing the cloud services in a consistent, effective, and efficient manner, and for aligning the cloud services with the organizational objectives, strategy, and risk appetite. The other options are not the best action, although they may be related or subsequent steps in the risk management process. Recommending the IT department remove access to the cloud services is a drastic and impractical action, as it may disrupt the business operations and services, and it may not address the underlying causes or drivers of the cloud service adoption. Engaging with the business area managers to review controls applied is a useful and collaborative action, as it can help to understand and evaluate the current state and practices of the cloud service usage, and to identify and address any gaps or issues in the control environment. However, this action should be based on or supported by a risk assessment, rather than preceding or replacing it. Escalating to the risk committee is a reporting and communication action, as it can help to inform and involve the senior management and other stakeholders in the risk management process, and to obtain their support and approval for the risk response actions. However, this action should be done after or along with a risk assessment, rather than before or instead of it. References = Best Practices to Manage Risks in the Cloud - ISACA, Cloud Risk Management - PwC UK
When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk 'register?
Leveraging business risk professionals
Relying on generic IT risk scenarios
Describing IT risk in business terms
Using a common risk taxonomy
Using a common risk taxonomy is the most important factor to consider when creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization with regard to the existing corporate risk register, as it ensures consistency, clarity, and alignment of the IT risk identification, classification, and reporting with the corporate risk management framework and strategy. Leveraging business risk professionals, relying on generic IT risk scenarios, and describing IT risk in business terms are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the resources, inputs, or outputs of the IT risk register, respectively, rather than the structure or format of the IT risk register. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?
Business case documentation
Organizational risk appetite statement
Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation
Organizational hierarchy
Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation provides the most useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across the organization’s technical environment, because it describesthe structure and behavior of the organization’s IT systems, applications, infrastructure, and processes, and how they support and enable the organization’s strategy and objectives. EA documentation also defines the principles, standards, and guidelines that govern the design and implementation of the IT solutions and services. Aggregated risk is the total or combined level of risk that the organization faces from multiple or interrelated sources or scenarios. Aggregated risk may have a greater impact than the sum of the individual risks, due to the synergistic or compounding effects of the risks. The technical environment is the set of IT components and capabilities that support the organization’s business functions and processes. Tracing the impact of aggregated risk across the technical environment is a process of identifying and assessing the potential or actual consequences of the aggregated risk on the performance, functionality, or security of the IT systems, applications, infrastructure, or processes. EA documentation provides the most useful information, as it helps to understand and analyze the interdependencies and relationships of the IT components and capabilities, andto evaluate the effect of the aggregated risk on the alignment and integration of IT with the organization’s strategy and objectives. Business case documentation, organizational risk appetite statement, and organizational hierarchy are all possible sources of information to trace the impact of aggregated risk, but they are not the most useful information, as they do not provide a comprehensive and detailed view of the technical environment and its architecture. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 183
A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?
Data quality
Maintenance costs
Data redundancy
System integration
The greatest concern for the risk practitioner when a big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions is the data quality. Data quality is the degree to which the data is accurate, complete, consistent, reliable, relevant, and timely. Data quality is essential for the success of any big data project, as it affects the validity and reliability of the analysis and the outcomes. Poor data quality could lead to erroneous or misleading results, which could have negative consequences for the investment decisions and the organization’s performance and reputation. The other options are not as concerning as the data quality, although they may also pose some challenges or risks for the big data project. Maintenance costs, data redundancy, and system integration are all factors that could affect the efficiency and effectiveness of the big data project, but they do not directly affect the accuracy and reliability of the analysis and the outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-20.
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?
Scheduling periodic audits
Assigning a data custodian
Implementing technical controls over the assets
Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Scheduling periodic audits is the best way to facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements, because it helps to verify and validate that the data are classified and handled according to the established policies, standards, and guidelines, and that the data classification requirements are updated and aligned with the changes in the data environment or regulations. Data classification is a process of categorizing data according to their sensitivity, confidentiality, and value to the organization, and specifying the appropriate handling and protection measures for each category. Data classification requirements are the rules or criteria that define how data should be classified and treated. Scheduling periodic audits is the best way to ensure that the data classification requirements are followed and maintained, and that any issues or gaps are identified and addressed. Assigning a data custodian, implementing technical controls over theassets, and establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution are all useful ways to facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements, but they are not the best way, as they do not provide a comprehensive and independent review and assessment of the data classification process and outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?
Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives
Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review
Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk
Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate
The most important outcome of reviewing the risk management process is assuring that the risk profile supports the IT objectives, because this ensures that the organization is managing its IT-related risks in alignment with its business goals and priorities. The risk profile is a summary of the key risks that the organization faces, their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. The IT objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the organization expects to achieve from its IT investments and activities. Byreviewing the risk management process, the organization can evaluate whether the risk profile is accurate, complete, and up-to-date, and whether the risk responses are effective, efficient, and consistent with the IT objectives. The review can also identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and provide recommendations for enhancing the process and its outcomes. The review can also help to communicate and report the value and performance of the risk management process to the senior management, the board of directors, and other stakeholders. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 17
An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?
Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy
Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance
Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies
Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization
The next thing that the risk practitioner should do from a risk management perspective when the organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth is to identify new threats resulting from the new business strategy. A threat is a potentialcause of an unwanted incident that may affect the achievement of the objectives. An aggressive business strategy is a strategy that involves pursuing high-risk, high-reward opportunities or initiatives to gain a competitive advantage or a significant market share. An aggressive business strategy may introduce new threats or increase thelikelihood or impact of existing threats, such as market volatility, regulatory changes, customer dissatisfaction, or competitor retaliation. Therefore, the risk practitioner should identify the new threats resulting from the new business strategy, and assess their potential consequences and implications for the organization. The other options are not as immediate as identifying new threats resulting from the new business strategy, as they are related to the update, information, or measurement of the risk management process, not the identification or analysis of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?
The system documentation is not available.
Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.
The board of directors has not approved the decision.
The business process owner is not an active participant.
The primary concern when IT decides to develop an in-house replacement application for a critical business application is that the business process owner is not an active participant. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility for the business process that is supported by the application, and who understands the business requirements, objectives, and expectations of the application. The business process owner should be involved in all stages of the application development lifecycle, from planning, analysis, design, testing, implementation, to maintenance, to ensure that the application meets the business needs and delivers value. Without the active participation of the business process owner, the application development project may face risks such as scope creep, miscommunication, user dissatisfaction, poor quality, or failure.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk
awareness program?
Policies and procedures
Structure and culture
Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds
Known threats and vulnerabilities
Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?
Assessing regulatory requirements
Benchmarking against industry standards
Gaining management consensus
Identifying risk tolerance
The most important factor when determining risk appetite is gaining management consensus, as it involves obtaining the agreement and support of the senior management and the board of directors on the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, and ensuring the alignment and consistency of the risk appetite across the organization. The other options are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the assessment, benchmarking, or identification of the risk, respectively, rather than the determination of the risk appetite. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''
A summary of risk response plans with validation results
A report with control environment assessment results
A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)
A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases
A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs) is the best way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board because it provides a concise and visual overview of the current risk status, trends, and performance of the organization. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help the board monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. A summary of risk response plans, a report with control environment assessment results, and a summary of IT risk scenarios are all useful information, but they are too detailed and technical for the board, who needs a high-level and strategic view of the risk management program. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?
Compliance objectives
Risk appetite of the organization
Organizational objectives
Inherent and residual risk
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite is a key factor in communicating the risk associated with IT in business terms, because it helps to align the IT risk management with the business strategy and goals. Risk appetite also helps to define the risk tolerance and thresholds, which are the acceptable levels of variation around the objectives. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not essential for communicating the risk associated with IT in business terms. Compliance objectives are the objectives that an organization must achieve to comply with the applicable laws, regulations, standards, andcontracts. Organizational objectives are the objectives that an organization sets to achieve its mission, vision, and values. Inherent and residual risk are the risk levels before and after applying the risk responses, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page 66.
In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?
Potential benefits from use of Al solutions
Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions
Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions
Skills required to support Al solutions
Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?
Annual loss expectancy (ALE)
Business impact analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Inherent vulnerabilities
Annual loss expectancy (ALE) is a method to assign a monetary value to risk by multiplying the probability of a risk event by the potential loss associated with that event1. ALE can be used to compare the costs and benefits of different risk mitigation options and to determine the optimallevel of investment in riskmanagement2. Business impact analysis (BIA) is a process to identify and evaluate the potential effects of a disruption on the critical functions and processes of an organization3. BIA can help to forecast the impacts of a risk event, but it does not assign a monetary value to the risk itself. Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) is a technique to compare the costs and benefits of a project, decision, or action4. CBA can help to evaluate the feasibility and profitability of a risk mitigation option, but it does not assign a monetary value to the risk itself. Inherent vulnerabilities are the weaknesses or flaws in a system, process, or asset that expose it to potential threats5. Inherent vulnerabilities can increase the likelihood or impact of a risk event, but they do not assign a monetary value to the risk itself. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.2: Risk Analysis, pp. 77-81.
Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?
Expected frequency and potential impact
Risk tolerance
Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment
Risk appetite
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant IT risks that an organization faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. An IT risk register can help to provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the organization’s IT risk profile, and to support the decision making and reporting of the IT risk management function1.
One of the data that must be updated to maintain an IT risk register is the expected frequency and potential impact of each IT risk. The expected frequency is the probability or likelihood of the IT risk occurring, based on historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or other methods. The potential impact is the magnitude or severity of the consequences or outcomes of the IT risk, measured in terms of cost, time, quality, reputation, or other criteria2.
Updating the expected frequency and potential impact of each IT risk is essential for maintaining an IT risk register, because it can help to:
Evaluate and prioritize the IT risks based on their risk level, which is calculated by multiplying the frequency and impact
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the IT risk exposure and performance over time
Identify and implement the appropriate risk response strategies and controls, based on the risk level and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization
Report and communicate the IT risk status and progress to the stakeholders, using risk indicators, dashboards, or matrices3
The other options are not the data that must be updated to maintain an IT risk register, but rather the data that are used as inputs or outputs of the IT risk management process. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. Risk tolerance is used to measure the IT risk analysis and to guide the IT risk response. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the IT risks across theorganization. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment is used topopulate the IT risk register and to inform the IT risk response. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite is used to guide the IT risk analysis and to align the IT risk response. References =
Risk Register - ISACA
Risk Analysis - ISACA
Risk Register 2021-2022 - UNECE
[How To Conduct Business Impact Analysis in 8 Easy Steps - G2]
[Risk Appetite and Risk Tolerance - ISACA]
[Enterprise Risk Assessment - ISACA]
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the risk of account compromise?
Enforce password changes.
Enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA).
Enforce role-based authentication.
Enforce password encryption.
Multi-factor authentication (MFA)significantly reduces the risk of account compromise by requiring multiple forms of verification, such as a password and a one-time code, enhancing security beyond single-factor authentication methods.
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Improving risk awareness
Obtaining buy-in from risk owners
Leveraging existing metrics
Optimizing risk treatment decisions
The main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs) is improving risk awareness, as it helps to communicate the risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance of the organization to the relevant parties. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. By involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, the risk practitioner can ensure that the KRIs are aligned with the stakeholder expectations, needs, and objectives, and that they reflect the most significant risks that affect the organization. This also helps to foster a risk culture and a shared understanding of risk among the stakeholders, which can enhance the risk management process and performance. The other options are not the main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, although they may be some of the outcomes or advantages of doing so. Obtaining buy-in from risk owners, leveraging existing metrics, and optimizing risk treatment decisions are all important aspects of risk management, but they are not the primary reason for involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide; The 10 Types of Stakeholders That You Meet in Business; What are Stakeholders? Stakeholder Definition | ASQ
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization's inventory system?
Poor access control
Unnecessary data storage usage
Data inconsistency
Unnecessary costs of program changes
Data inconsistency is the greatest concern associated with redundant data in an organization’s inventory system, as it can lead to inaccurate, unreliable, and conflicting information that can affect the decision-making and performance of the organization. Redundant data can occur when the same data is stored in multiple locations or formats, or when data is not updated or synchronized properly. Data inconsistency can cause errors, confusion, and inefficiency in the inventory management process, and can also increase the risk of fraud, theft, or loss of inventory. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 238. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 238. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 238.
A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?
Change logs
Change management meeting minutes
Key control indicators (KCIs)
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
The best way to provide information to management about emergency changes that may not be approved is to use key risk indicators (KRIs). KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs help to provide information to management about emergency changes, because they help to alert and inform management about the potential risks and consequences of the changes, and to support the risk decision-making and reporting processes. KRIs also help to provide information to management about emergency changes, because they help to track and evaluate the effectiveness and performance of the changes, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise from the changes. The other options are not the best way to provide information to management about emergency changes, although they may be part of or derived from the KRIs. Change logs, change management meeting minutes, and key control indicators (KCIs) are all examples of documentation or communication tools, which may help to record or report the details and status of the changes, but they do not necessarily measure or monitor the risks and outcomes of the changes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.5.1, page 4-38.
A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?
The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.
The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.
The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.
The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased is the information that would have the most impact on the overall recovery profile, as it indicates that the organization has improved its ability to restore its critical systems and processes within the acceptable time frames after a disaster. The recovery target time, also known as the recovery time objective (RTO), is the maximum acceptable time that an application, computer, network, or system can be down after an unexpected disaster, failure, or comparable event takes place. The recovery profile, also known as the recovery point objective (RPO), is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. A lower percentage of systems with long recovery target times means that the organization has:
Reduced the gap between the business requirements and the IT capabilities for disaster recovery
Enhanced the resilience and availability of its critical systems and processes
Minimized the potential losses and damages caused by prolonged downtime
Increased the confidence and satisfaction of its stakeholders and customers
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 174-1751
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?
Monitoring risk responses
Applying risk treatments
Providing assurance of control effectiveness
Implementing internal controls
The primary risk management responsibility of the second line of defense is to monitor the risk responses. The second line of defense is the function that oversees and supports the risk management activities of the first line of defense, which is the function that owns and manages the risks. The second line of defense includes the risk management, compliance, and quality assurance functions, among others. The second line of defense is responsible for monitoring the risk responses, which are the actions taken to address the risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risks. The second line of defense monitors the risk responses to ensure that they are implemented effectively and efficiently, that they achieve the desired outcomes, and that they are aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The second line of defense also provides guidance, advice, and feedback to the first line of defense on the risk responses, and reports the results and issues to the senior management and the board. Applying risk treatments, providing assurance of control effectiveness, and implementing internal controls are not the primary risk management responsibilities of the second line of defense, as they are either the responsibilities of the first line of defense or the third line ofdefense, which is the function that provides independent assurance of the risk management activities, such as the internal audit function. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?
Obtain approval to retire the control.
Update the status of the control as obsolete.
Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.
Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.
The best course of action for a risk practitioner upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary is to obtain approval to retire the control. This will help to ensure that the control is removed in a controlled and documented manner, and that the relevant stakeholders are informed and agree with the decision. Retiring unnecessary controls can also help to optimize the control environment, reduce costs and complexity, and improve efficiency and performance. Updating the status of the control as obsolete, consulting the internal auditor for a second opinion, and verifying the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan are not the best courses of action, as they may not address the root cause of the control’s obsolescence, and may delay or complicate the control retirement process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.2, page 1071
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 649.
When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:
Relevant policies.
Threat landscape.
Awareness program.
Risk heat map.
A high number of exceptions often indicate misalignment betweenpoliciesand business needs. Reviewing policies helps determine if they are overly restrictive or need adjustments to reduce exceptions while maintaining security.
An organization recently invested in an identity and access management (IAM) solution to manage user activities across corporate mobile devices. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?
Inherent risk
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
Residual risk
Residual risk is the remaining risk after implementing risk responses, such as controls or mitigation strategies. With the deployment of an IAM solution, the organization has addressed certain access-related risks. Updating the risk register to reflect the new residual risk levels ensures accurate tracking and informs future risk management decisions.
When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:
high impact scenarios.
high likelihood scenarios.
treated risk scenarios.
known risk scenarios.
When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log the known risk scenarios, because they are the risk scenarios that have been identified and assessed in the IT risk assessment process. The risk register should document and track the known risk scenarios, their characteristics, their status, and their responses. The other options are not the ones that should be logged, because:
Option A: High impact scenarios are the risk scenarios that have a high potential impact on the business objectives and processes, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register should include all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their impact level.
Option B: High likelihood scenarios are the risk scenarios that have a high probability of occurrence, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register should include all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their likelihood level.
Option C: Treated risk scenarios are the risk scenarios that have been addressed by the risk response actions, but they are not the only ones that should be logged. The risk register shouldinclude all the known risk scenarios, regardless of their treatment status. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 108.
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?
IT goals and objectives
Organizational goals and objectives
The organization's risk appetite statement
Legal and regulatory requirements
The most important factor for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy is the organizational goals and objectives. The organizational goals and objectives are the statements that define the purpose, direction, and desired outcomes of the organization. The organizational goals and objectives help to align the IT strategy with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the IT strategy supports and enables the organization’s performance and improvement. The organizational goals and objectives also help to communicate and coordinate the IT strategy with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions, and to facilitate the IT decision-making and reporting processes. The other options are not as important as the organizational goals and objectives, although they may be related to the IT strategy. IT goals and objectives, the organization’s risk appetite statement, and legal and regulatory requirements are all factors that could affect the feasibility and sustainability of the IT strategy, but they do not necessarily reflect or influence the organization’s purpose, direction, and desired outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-9.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of emerging risk?
Performing scenario-based assessments
Reviewing audit reports annually
Conducting root cause analyses
Engaging a risk-focused audit team
Performing scenario-based assessments is a proactive approach that allows organizations to anticipate potential future events and assess their impact. This method helps in identifying emerging risks by exploring hypothetical situations and their possible outcomes. It enables organizations to prepare for unforeseen events by understanding how different scenarios could affect their operations and objectives.
Which of the following BEST supports the management of identified risk scenarios?
Collecting risk event data
Maintaining a risk register
Using key risk indicators (KRIs)
Defining risk parameters
The best tool to support the management of identified risk scenarios is maintaining a risk register, as it provides a comprehensive and structured record of the risk information and decisions, such as the risk description, rating, ownership, response, and status, and facilitates the communication and accountability of the risk management process and activities. The other options are not the best tools, as they are more related to the collection, measurement, or definition of the risk scenarios, respectively, rather than the management of the risk scenarios. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?
Digital signature
Edit checks
Encryption
Multifactor authentication
The most effective method for uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions is a digital signature. A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to authenticate the identity and integrity of the sender and the message. A digital signature is created by applying the sender’s private key to a hash of the message, and is verified by applying the sender’s public key to the signature and comparing it with the hash ofthe message. A digital signature ensures that the sender cannot deny sending the message (non-repudiation), and that the message has not been altered or tampered with during transmission (data integrity). References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3, page 1301
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?
Establishing policies and procedures
Periodically reviewing control design
Measuring trends in control performance
Obtaining management control attestations
The best way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness is to measure trends in control performance. This will help to monitor and evaluate how well the controls are achieving their objectives, and to identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate control failures or weaknesses. Measuring trends in control performance also helps to provide feedback and assurance to the stakeholders and decision makers, and to support continuous improvement andoptimization of the control environment. Establishing policies and procedures, periodically reviewing control design, and obtaining management control attestations are good practices, but they are not the best way to ensure control effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.2, page 1071
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 650.
An organization's IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?
Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.
The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.
The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.
Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.
The lack of due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor should be of greatest concern to the risk practitioner, because it exposes the organization to potential risks and issues related to the security, reliability, performance, and compliance of the cloud service provider. Due diligence is a process of conducting a thorough investigation and evaluation of a potential vendor or partnerbefore entering into a contractual relationship. Due diligence helps to verify the vendor’s credentials, capabilities, reputation, and track record, and to identify any red flags or gaps that may affect the quality or suitability of the service. Cloud computing is a model of delivering IT services over the internet, where the service provider owns and manages the IT infrastructure, platforms, or applications, and the customer pays only for the resources or functions they use. Cloud computing can offer cost savings, scalability, and flexibility for the business, but it also introduces new risks and challenges, such as data privacy, security breaches, vendor lock-in, service outages, or regulatory compliance. Therefore, performing due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor is essential to ensure that the organization’s expectations and requirements are met, and that the risks and issues are identified and addressed. The business introducing new SaaS solutions without IT approval, the maintenance of IT infrastructure being outsourced to an IaaS provider, and the architecture responsibilities not being clearly defined are all possible concerns for the risk practitioner, but they are not the greatest concern, as they can bemitigated or resolved with appropriate controls, policies, or agreements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 183
When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?
Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer
Remove risk that management has decided to accept
Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment
Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels
The standard operating procedure (SOP) statement that best illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance is to remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response or mitigation has been applied. Tolerance levels are the acceptable or allowable ranges of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcomes or objectives. When the mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels, it means that the risk has been reduced or managed to an acceptable or satisfactory level, and that no further action or monitoring is required. Therefore, the risk can be removed from the risk register, as it is no longer a significant or relevant risk for the organization. The other options are not as appropriate as removing risk when mitigation resultsin residual risk within tolerance levels, as they are related to the transfer, acceptance, or change of the risk, not the removal of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?
Escalate to senior management
Require a nondisclosure agreement.
Sanitize portions of the register
Determine the purpose of the request
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the IT-related risks that an organization faces, as well as the information and actions related to those risks, such as the risk description, assessment, response, status, and owner. An IT risk register is a valuable tool for managing andcommunicating IT risks and their impact on the organization’s objectives and operations. However, an IT risk register may also contain sensitive or confidential information that should not be disclosed or shared with unauthorized or irrelevant parties, as it may compromise the security, privacy, or reputation of the organization or its stakeholders. Therefore, the risk manager’s best approach to the request from the head of a business operations department to review the entire IT risk register is to determine the purpose of the request before sharing the register. This is a technique to understand and evaluate the reason and the need for the request, as well as the scope and the level of access that the requester requires or expects. By determining the purpose of therequest, the risk manager can ensure that the request is legitimate, appropriate, and relevant, and that the requester has a clear and valid interest or stake in the IT risk register. The risk manager can also ensure that the request is aligned with the organization’s policies, procedures, and standards for IT risk management and information sharing. The risk manager can also use the purpose of the request to decide what and how much information to share with the requester, and what conditions or restrictions to apply, such as confidentiality, accuracy, or timeliness. The other options are not the best approaches to the request from the head of a business operations department to review the entire IT risk register, as they may be premature, unnecessary, or ineffective. Escalating to senior management is a technique to involve or inform the higher-level authorities or decision makers about the request, which may be useful or required in some cases, but it may not be the first or the best step to take, as it may delay or complicate the process, or undermine the risk manager’s authority or responsibility. Requiring a nondisclosure agreement is a technique to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the information in the IT risk register by legally binding the requester to not disclose or misuse the information. However, a nondisclosure agreement may not be needed or appropriate in every case, and it may not prevent or address other issues or risks related to the information sharing, such as relevance, accuracy, or timeliness. Sanitizing portions of the register is a technique toremove or redact the sensitive or confidential information from the IT risk register before sharing it with the requester, which may be necessary or prudent in some cases, but it may not be sufficient or satisfactory, as it may affect the completeness, usefulness, or validity of the information, or raise questions or concerns from the requester.
A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:
ownership of responsibilities.
a business recovery plan.
provision for source code escrow.
the providers financial statements.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), a contract associated with a cloud service provider must include ownership of responsibilities, as this defines the roles and obligations of both the cloudprovider and the customer in relation to the cloud services. The contract should specify who is responsible for:
Service delivery and performance
Data security and privacy
Compliance with regulations and standards
Incident management and reporting
Business continuity and disaster recovery
Change management and configuration control
Intellectual property rights and licensing
Termination and data egress
The contract should also include service level agreements (SLAs) that measure and monitor the quality and availability of the cloud services, as well as remedies and penalties for non-compliance. The contract should also address pricing and payment terms, dispute resolution mechanisms, and liability and indemnification clauses.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 173-1741
An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?
Project Charlie
Project Bravo
Project Alpha
Project Delta
Project Delta should be deferred by management, as it has the lowest return on investment (ROI) among the four competing projects. ROI is a measure of the profitability or efficiency of a project, calculated by dividing the net benefits by the total costs. Project Delta has a net benefit of $100,000 and a total cost of $200,000, resulting in an ROI of 0.5. The other projects have higher ROIs: Project Alpha has an ROI of 1.0, Project Bravo has an ROI of 0.8, and Project Charlie has an ROI of 0.6. Therefore, Project Delta is the least attractive option for reducingoverall IT risk, and management should prioritize the other projects instead. References = How to Manage Project Risk: A 5-Step Guide; Matching the right projects with the right resources; Risk Types in Project Management
An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?
Number of business change management requests
Number of revisions to security policy
Number of security policy exceptions approved
Number of changes to firewall rules
A security policy exception is a deviation from the established security policy that is granted to an individual or a group for a specific purpose or period of time. A security policy exception may be necessary when the security policy is too restrictive, outdated, or incompatible with the business requirements or objectives. However, a security policy exception also introduces a risk to the organization, as it may weaken the security posture, expose the organization to threats orvulnerabilities, or violate the compliance or regulatory obligations. Therefore, an upward trend in the number of security policy exceptions approved should be of most concern, as it indicates that the security policy is not effective or aligned with the organization’s needs and goals, and that the organization is accepting more risk than desired. The other options are not as concerning as the number of security policy exceptions approved, because they do not imply a direct or immediate risk to the organization, but rather reflect the normal or expected activities of the security management process, as explained below:
A. Number of business change management requests is a metric that measures the volume and frequency of the requests to modify the business processes, systems, or functions. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the organization is undergoing a transformation, innovation, or improvement, which may have positive or negative impacts on the organization’s performance and security. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the change management requests may be properly assessed, approved, and implemented, following the established change management procedures and controls.
B. Number of revisions to security policy is a metric that measures the amount and extent of the changes made to the security policy over time. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the security policy is being updated, refined, or enhanced, which may improve or maintain the security posture and compliance of the organization. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the revisions to the security policy may be based on the best practices, standards, and expectations for security management, and may be communicated and enforced effectively across the organization.
D. Number of changes to firewall rules is a metric that measures the number and type of the modifications made to the firewall configuration, which controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the firewall is being adjusted, optimized, or customized, which may increase or decrease the firewall performance and security. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the changes to the firewall rules may be justified, authorized, and validated,following the established firewall management procedures and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. Security Policy Exceptions: What Are They and How to Manage Them, Security Policy Exceptions: How to Handle Them in a Secure Manner, Security Policy Exceptions: A Necessary Evil?
Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?
Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.
Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.
Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.
Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).
The most important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring is to validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk, as it involves verifying and testing the adequacy and performance of the controls, and identifying any control gaps or deficiencies that may affect the risk level and response. The other options are not the most important courses of action, as they are more related to the evaluation, confirmation, or analysis of the risk profile, compliance, or indicators, respectively, rather than the validation of the control effectiveness. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?
Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape
Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment
Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit
Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors
An updatedrisk registerensures that decision-makers have accurate, timely information about current risks, enabling informed, risk-based decisions that align with organizational priorities and changes in the environment.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?
Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.
Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.
Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.
Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.
The best way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes is to assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed, as this reflects the potential damage or harm that the organization may suffer due to a breach of confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the information. The loss impact can be measured in terms of financial, operational, reputational, legal, or regulatory consequences, depending on the nature, sensitivity, and criticality of the information. The loss impact can also help the organization to prioritize the protection and mitigation of the information assets, and to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives and risk appetite.
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?
Data duplication processes
Data archival processes
Data anonymization processes
Data protection processes
Data archival processes should be the primary focus of a risk practitioner when ensuring that organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations, because data archival processes ensure that records are stored securely, reliably, and accessibly for as long as they are needed. Data archival processes also help to manage the storage capacity, retention policies, and disposal procedures of records. Data duplication processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for backup and recovery purposes, not for long-term retention. Data anonymization processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for privacy and confidentiality purposes, not for legal compliance. Data protection processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for security and integrity purposes, not for retention requirements. References = Free ISACA CRISC Sample Questions and Study Guide
Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Documented procedures
Information security policies
Information security standards
Documented procedures are the best way to enable effective IT control implementation. Documented procedures are the specific actions or steps that are performed to achieve the IT control objectives and mitigate the IT risks. Documented procedures provide clear guidance, consistency, and accountability for the IT control activities. Documented procedures also help to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the IT controls, and to identify and address any gaps or weaknesses. The other options are not as effective as documented procedures, although they may support or complement the IT control implementation. Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of IT risks, but they do not specify how to implement the IT controls. Information security policies and standards are high-level statements that define the IT security goals and requirements, but they do not detail how to implement the IT controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 1-15.
A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?
Preventive
Detective
Directive
Deterrent
A preventive control is a type of control that aims to avoid or reduce the occurrence of an undesirable event or risk. A preventive control can be implemented through technical, administrative, or physical means. A new policy that forbids copying of data onto removablemedia is an example of a preventive control, because it prevents unauthorized data exfiltration or leakage through removable devices, such as flash drives or external hard disk drives. A preventive control is different from the other types of controls, as explained below:
A detective control is a type of control that aims to discover or identify the occurrence of an undesirable event or risk. A detective control can be implemented through monitoring, auditing, or reporting activities. An example of a detective control is a log analysis tool that detects any unauthorized access or modification of data on a system.
A directive control is a type of control that aims to guide or instruct the behavior or actions of individuals or groups. A directive control can be implemented through policies, procedures, standards, or rules. An example of a directive control is a training program that teaches employees how to handle sensitive data securely and appropriately.
A deterrent control is a type of control that aims to discourage or dissuade individuals or groups from performing an undesirable event or risk. A deterrent control can be implemented throughsanctions, penalties, or consequences. An example of a deterrent control is a warning message that informs users of the legal implications of copying data onto removable media without authorization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 38.
A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?
Assessing risk with no controls in place
Showing projected residual risk
Providing peer benchmarking results
Assessing risk with current controls in place
Showing projected residual risk is the most helpful way to respond to the request of explaining how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. Projected residual risk is the estimated level of risk that will remain at a future point in time, based on the assumptions and expectations of the risk responses2. By showing projected residual risk, the risk practitioner can:
Demonstrate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk treatment plans, and how they reduce the risk level from the inherent risk (the risk before the risk responses) to the residual risk3.
Compare the projected residual risk with the risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives4. This can help to determine whether the projected residual risk is acceptable or not, and whether the risk treatment plans are consistent and proportional to the risk level5.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the achievement of the projected residual risk, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions or contingency plans6.
The other options are not the most helpful ways to respond to the request, because:
Assessing risk with no controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the current or future risk posture of the organization. Controls are the measures or actions that are implemented to modify the risk, such as prevent, detect, correct, or mitigate the risk7. Assessing risk with no controls in place can help to measure the inherent risk, but it does not show the impact or outcome of the risk treatment plans.
Providing peer benchmarking results is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the specific or unique risk profile of the organization. Peer benchmarking is the process ofcomparing the organization’s risk level and performance with its peers or competitors, based on a common set of criteria or indicators8. Providing peer benchmarking results can help to provide a reference or a standard for the risk posture, but it does not show the effect or result of the risk treatment plans.
Assessing risk with current controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the future or projected risk posture of the organization. Assessing risk with current controls in place can help to measure the current residual risk, but it does not show the expected or estimated residual risk at the end of the year.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Projected Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Control - CIO Wiki
Benchmarking - CIO Wiki
[Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki]
A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Escalate the concern to senior management.
Document the reasons for the exception.
Include the application in IT risk assessments.
Propose that the application be transferred to IT.
The best course of action when a risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT is to include the application in IT risk assessments. IT risk assessments are the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the IT-related risks that could affect the achievement of the enterprise’s objectives. By including the application in IT risk assessments, the risk practitioner can identify the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts associated with the application, and recommend the appropriatecontrols and mitigation strategies to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. Escalating the concern to senior management, documenting the reasons for the exception, and proposing that the application be transferred to IT are not the best courses of action, as they do not address the risk exposure and impact of the application, and may not be feasible or desirable for the business. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 47.
When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?
Demonstration that the control is operating as designed
A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment
Management attestation that the control is operating effectively
Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced
Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced provides the most tenable evidence that a business process control is effective, because it shows the actual impact and outcome of thecontrol on the risk level. A demonstration that the control is operating as designed, a successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment, and a management attestation that the control is operating effectively are not the most tenable evidence, because they are based on subjective judgments, assumptions, or expectations, not on objective facts or results. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
An organization operates in a jurisdiction where heavy fines are imposed for leakage of customer data. Which of the following provides the BEST input to assess the inherent risk impact?
Number of customer records held
Number of databases that host customer data
Number of encrypted customer databases
Number of staff members having access to customer data
The best input to assess the inherent risk impact of leakage of customer data is the number of customer records held. Inherent risk impact is a measure of the potential severity or consequence of a risk event, before considering the existing controls. Inherent risk impact can be based on quantitative or qualitative factors, such as financial, operational, reputational, or legal factors.The number of customer records held is the best input, because it directly reflects the amount and type of data that could be leaked, and the potential harm or loss that could result from the leakage. The number of customer records held can also help to estimate the probability and frequency of the leakage, as well as the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls. The more customer records the organization holds, the higher the inherent risk impact of leakage, and the more controls the organization needs to implement and maintain. The other options are not the best input, although they may be related or influential to the inherent risk impact. The number of databases that host customer data is a measure of the complexity or diversity of the data storage and management systems, but it does not directly indicate the amount or type of data that could be leaked, or the potential harm or loss that could result from the leakage. The number of databases that host customer data may also vary depending on the design and configuration of the systems, which may not reflect the inherent risk impact. The number of encrypted customer databases is a measure of the security or protection of the data storage and management systems, but it is not an input to the inherent risk impact, rather it is an output or a result of the control implementation. The number of encrypted customer databases may also depend on the quality and reliability of the encryption methods and keys, which may not indicate the inherent risk impact. The number of staff members having access to customer data is a measure of the exposure or vulnerability of the data to internal threats, such as unauthorized or malicious actions by the staff members. The number of staff members having access to customer data can affect the inherent risk impact, but it is not the best input, as it does not account for the external threats, such as hackers or competitors, or the amount or type of data that could be leaked, or the potential harm or loss that could result from the leakage. References = What is Inherent Risk? You Could Be at Risk of a Data Breach | UpGuard, Data leakage: A data leak is an unintentional exposure of sensitive data on the internet. For example, an employee might upload customer data files to an unsecured server. Lack of encryption: This is the storing, sending, or transferring information without converting it into ciphertext first.
An information system for a key business operation is being moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor. Which of the following will have the GREATEST impact on the ability to monitor risk?
Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs)
Reduced access to internal audit reports
Dependency on the vendor's key performance indicators (KPIs)
Dependency on service level agreements (SLAs)
Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs) will have the greatest impact on the ability to monitor risk when an information system for a key business operation is moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor, as it may limit the visibility and control over the risk exposure and performance of the system. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they should be aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and objectives. When the system is moved to a SaaS vendor, the enterprise may lose access to the data and processes that are used to calculate and report the KRIs, or the KRIs may become irrelevant or inconsistent with the vendor’s environment and standards. This may impair the ability to monitor risk and to take timely and appropriate actions to manage risk. Reduced access to internal audit reports, dependency on the vendor’s key performance indicators (KPIs), and dependency on service level agreements (SLAs) are not the greatest impacts on the ability to monitor risk, as they do not affect the measurement and reporting of the risk status and performance, but rather the assurance and evaluation of the system quality and reliability. References = CRISC Certified in Risk andInformation Systems Control – Question221; ISACACertified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 221.
Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?
Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated
Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register
Communicating the register to key stakeholders
Performing regular reviews and updates to the register
An IT risk register is a document that records the identified IT risks, their analysis, and their responses. It is a useful tool for managing and communicating the IT risks throughout the project or the organization. The most important factor for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register is to perform regular reviews and updates to the register, meaning that the riskpractitioner should periodically check and revise the riskregister to reflect the changes in the IT risk environment, the project status, or the organization’s objectives. Performing regular reviews and updates to the register can help to ensure that the risk register is accurate, complete, and current, and that it provides relevant and reliable information for the risk management decision making and actions. Performing regular reviews and updates to the register can also help to identify any new or emerging IT risks, as well as to monitor and report on the IT risk performance and improvement. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, p. 106-107
A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.
Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.
Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.
Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.
The best course of action for the risk practitioner who has identified that the agreed RTO with a SaaS provider is longer than the business expectation is to collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan. The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage the risk within their scope of responsibility. The risk response plan is the document that describes the actions and resources needed to address the risk. By collaborating with the risk owner, the risk practitioner can help toanalyze the gap between the agreed RTO and the business expectation, evaluate the potential impact and consequences, and select the most appropriate risk response option, such as avoiding, reducing, transferring, or accepting the risk. Documenting the gap in the risk register, including a right to audit clause in the service provider contract, or advising the risk owner to accept the risk are not the best courses of action, because they do not address the root cause of the problem, or provide a solution to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:
capacity.
appetite.
management capability.
treatment strategy.
The conditional approval of the CIO’s proposal indicates the organization’s risk appetite. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By setting a limit for expenditures before final approval, senior management isexpressing their willingness to take a calculated risk with the new technology, but also their desire to control the potential loss or harm. Risk capacity, management capability, and treatment strategy are other possible factors, but they are not as relevant as risk appetite. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?
Mean time between failures (MTBF)
Mean time to recover (MTTR)
Planned downtime
Unplanned downtime
Mean time between failures (MTBF) is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the average time that a system or component operates without interruption or failure. MTBF is a common metric for reliability and availability of IT services. A higher MTBF indicates a lower frequency of failures and a higher ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, MTBF is one of the KPIs for IT service delivery1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, MTBF is the correct answer to this question2.
Mean time to recover (MTTR), planned downtime, and unplanned downtime are not the best KPIs to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services. MTTR measures the average time that it takes to restore a system or component to normal operation after a failure. Planned downtime measures the scheduled time that a system or component is not available for use due to maintenance or upgrades. Unplanned downtime measures the unscheduled time that a system or component is not available for use due to failures or incidents. These KPIs are useful for measuring the impact and duration of service interruptions, but they do not directly reflect the ability to prevent or avoid service interruptions.
Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?
Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.
Residual risk is inadequately recorded.
Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.
Residual risk equals current risk.
Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits, because it indicates that the risk level is higher than the organization’s risk appetite or tolerance, and that the risk responses and controls are insufficient or ineffective. Residual risk is the level of risk remaining in a process or procedure following the implementation of risk controls to limit or remove it. Escalation is a process that increases theawareness and involvement of higher-level stakeholders or authorities in a risk issue or situation. Escalation is appropriate when the risk issue or situation is outside the scope or authority of the current risk owner or manager, and requires the attention or action of the senior management or the board of directors. Residual risk exceeding acceptable limits is the best situation to justify escalation, as it implies that the current risk owner or manager cannot manage the risk within the predefined boundaries or expectations, and that the senior management or the board of directors need to intervene or approve the risk acceptance or transfer.
Residual risk being inadequately recorded, residual risk remaining after controls have been applied, and residual risk equaling current risk are all possible situations that may require escalation, but they are not the best situations, as they do not necessarily indicate that the risk level is higher than the acceptable limits, and that the senior management or the board of directors need to be involved.
Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?
Informing business process owners of the risk
Reviewing and updating the risk register
Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals
Implementing new control technologies
A risk factor is a condition or event that may increase the likelihood or impact of a risk, which is the effect of uncertainty on objectives1. An information systems review is a process that involves examining and evaluating the adequacy and effectiveness of the information systems and their related controls, policies, and procedures2. The purpose of an information systems review is to identify and report the risk factors that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and performance of the information systems and their outputs3. The best way to ensure that the risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed is to assign action items and deadlines to specific individuals, who are responsible and accountable for implementing the appropriate risk responses. A risk response is an action taken or plannedto mitigate or eliminate the risk, such as avoiding, transferring, reducing, or accepting the risk4. By assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals, the organization can ensure that the risk factors are properly and promptly addressed, and that the progress and results of the risk responses are monitored and reported5. Informing business process owners of the risk, reviewing and updating the risk register, and implementing new control technologies are not the best ways to ensure that the risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed, as they do not provide the same level of accountability and effectiveness as assigning action items anddeadlines to specific individuals. Informing business process owners of the risk is a process that involves communicating and sharing the risk information with the persons who have the authority and accountability for a business process that is supported or enabled by the information systems6. Informing business process owners of the risk can help to raise their awareness and understanding of the risk, but it does not ensure that they will take the necessary actions to address the risk. Reviewing and updating the risk register is a process that involves checking and verifying that the risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the risks and their related information, is current, complete, and consistent7. Reviewing and updating the risk register can help to reflect the changes and updates in the risk factors and their status, but it does not ensure that the risk factors are resolved or reduced. Implementing new control technologies is a process that involves introducing or applying new software or hardware that can help to prevent, detect, or correct the risk factors affecting the information systems8. Implementing new control technologies can help to improve the security and performance of the information systems, but it does not ensure that the risk factors are eliminated or mitigated. References = 1: Risk Factors - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: InformationSystems Audit and Control Association (ISACA) - ISACA3: Information Systems Audit: The Basics4: Risk Response Strategy and Contingency Plans - ProjectManagement.com5: Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response, Section 3.1: Risk Response Options, pp. 113-115.6: [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] 7: Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana8: Technology Control Automation: Improving Efficiency, Reducing … - ISACA : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.]
What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?
It reduces the number of audit findings.
It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.
It facilitates risk-aware decision making.
It facilitates communication of threat levels.
Risk monitoring is the process of tracking and evaluating the performance and effectiveness of the risk management process and controls, and identifying any changes or emerging risks that may affect theenterprise’s objectives and strategy. The primary benefit of risk monitoring is that it facilitates risk-aware decision making, as it provides timely and relevant information and feedback to the decision-makers and stakeholders, and enables them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. Risk monitoring also helps to ensure that the risk management process is aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance, and supports the achievement of the enterprise’s goals and value creation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 239. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 239. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 239.
A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRis) is that (hey
identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds
assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds
identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite
help with internal control assessments concerning risk appellate
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. They help to monitor changes in the level of risk and enable timely actions to mitigate the risk. The major advantage of using KRIs is that they identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds, which are the acceptable or tolerable levels of risk that the organization has established. By identifying when risk exceeds defined thresholds, the KRIs can alert the management and stakeholders of the need to take corrective or preventive measures, and avoid or reduce the potential losses or damages. References = 3
To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?
business owner
IT department
Risk manager
Third-party provider
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the business owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the achievement of the business objectives and the managementof the associated risks. The business owner is ultimately responsible for ensuring that the IT services and solutions support the business needs and goals, and for accepting or rejecting the residual risks after the implementation of risk responses. Therefore, the business owner should own the risk associated with calculation errors, as they are the ones who will be affected by the potential impact of the errors on the financial data and decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 194.
A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?
Business analyst
Project sponsor
IT project team
IT project management office (PMO)
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?
Monitoring
Analysis
Identification
Response selection
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are most useful during the monitoring phase of the risk management process, as they provide timely and relevant information on the current and future risk status and performance. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they have predefined thresholds that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable risk status. By monitoring the KRIs, the risk practitioner can identify and report any changes or deviations in the risk level, and take appropriate actions to manage the risk. KRIs are not most useful during the analysis, identification, or response selection phases, as they do not help to assess the likelihood or impact of the risk, to find the sources or causes of the risk, or to evaluate or choose the optimal risk response option. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 222.
An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?
The organization's business process owner
The organization's information security manager
The organization's vendor management officer
The vendor's risk manager
A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:
better understands the system architecture.
is more objective than risk management.
can balance technical and business risk.
can make better-informed business decisions.
Involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is beneficial, as it enables management to have a comprehensive and holistic view of the risk environment and its impact on the organization’s objectives and strategy. By participating in the risk management process, management can make better-informed business decisions, as they can consider the risk factors and implications of their choices, and align their decisions with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Involving business management in evaluating and managing risk can also enhance the risk culture and governance of the organization, and foster a proactive and collaborative approach to risk management. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 253. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 253. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?
Improved alignment with business goals.
Reduction of residual risk.
Increased costs due to control implementation.
Decreased overall risk appetite.
The primary goal of risk mitigation is to reduce residual risk to an acceptable level. This aligns with the principles ofRisk Treatment, ensuring that the implemented strategies effectively address identified risks without exceeding the organization's risk appetite.
An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?
Initiate a retest of the full control
Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.
Review the corresponding change control documentation
Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment
The best course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed is to initiate a retest of the full control, as it may reveal any new issues or gaps that the new application may introduce to the SSO control, and ensure that the control remains effective and adequate. Retesting the control using the new application as the only sample, reviewing the corresponding change control documentation, and re-evaluating the control during the next assessment are not the best courses of action, as they may not provide sufficient assurance, evidence, or timeliness of the control testing, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?
a identity conditions that may cause disruptions
Review incident response procedures
Evaluate the probability of risk events
Define metrics for restoring availability
The first step to ensure continuity of operations when performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a new business process is to identify the conditions that may cause disruptions to the service or the process. This is because identifying the potential sources, causes, and scenarios of disruptions helps to determine the impact and likelihood of the risks, and to select the appropriate risk responses and recovery strategies. The other options are not the first steps, although they may also be part of the risk assessment process. Reviewing incident response procedures, evaluating the probability of risk events, and defining metrics for restoring availability are examples of subsequent steps that depend on the identification of the conditions that may cause disruptions. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?
Standards-based policies
Audit readiness
Efficient operations
Regulatory compliance
The greatest benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place is efficient operations, as EA provides a holistic view of the organization’s business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure, and enables alignment, integration, and optimization of these components. Standards-based policies, audit readiness, and regulatory compliance are also benefits of EA, but they are not the greatest benefit. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 145.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?
A record of incidents is maintained.
Forensic investigations are facilitated.
Security violations can be identified.
Developing threats are detected earlier.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the greatest benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems is to detect developing threats earlier, because it helps to identify and correlate the patterns, trends, and anomalies that may indicate a potential attack or compromise. Log analysis is the process of examining and interpreting the log data generated by various systems, such as firewalls, servers, routers, and applications. Log analysis can provide valuable insights into the activities and events that occur on the systems, and can enable the timely detection and response to the emerging threats. The other options are not the greatest benefits of analyzing logs, as they are less proactive or less strategic than detecting developing threats earlier. Maintaining a record of incidents is a benefit of logging, but not of analyzing logs, as it involves storing and preserving the log data for future reference. Facilitating forensic investigations is a benefit of analyzing logs, but it is a reactive and tactical activity that occurs after an incident has happened. Identifying security violations is a benefit of analyzing logs, but it is a specific and operational activity that focuses on the compliance and enforcement of the security policies and standards. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 263.
Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
The owner of the financial reporting process
The risk rating of affected financial processes
The list of relevant financial controls
The most important element of an organization’s risk register to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system is the risk rating of affected financial processes. A risk rating is a measure of the level and nature of the risk exposure, based on the impact and likelihood of the risk events. A risk rating can help to prioritize and respond to the risks, and to monitor and report the risk status. A new financial reporting system may introduce new or different risks, or change the existing risks, that could affect the financial processes of the organization, such as data quality, accuracy, timeliness, compliance, or security. Therefore, the risk rating of affected financial processes should be updated to reflect the current risk situation and to ensure that the risk register is accurate and complete. Key risk indicators (KRIs), the owner of the financial reporting process, and the list of relevant financial controls are not asimportant as the risk rating of affected financial processes, as they are not directly affected by the commissioning of a new financial reporting system, and they do not measure the risk exposure and impact of the financial processes. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 48.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?
Utilization of a cross-functional team
Participation by IT subject matter experts
Integration of contingency planning
Validation by senior management
The best way to facilitate the development of effective IT risk scenarios is to utilize a cross-functional team. A cross-functional team is a group of people with different skills, expertise, and perspectives who work together to achieve a common goal. A cross-functional team can help to create realistic, comprehensive, and relevant IT risk scenarios by bringing diverse knowledge, experience, and insights from various domains and functions. A cross-functional team can alsohelp to identify and address the interdependencies, interactions, and impacts of IT risks across the organization. The other options are not the best ways to facilitate the development of effective IT risk scenarios, although they may be useful or necessary depending on the context and nature of the IT risks. Participation by IT subject matter experts is important, but it is notsufficient, as IT risks may affect or be affected by non-IT factors and stakeholders. Integration of contingency planning is a part of the risk response process, which follows the risk scenario development process, but it is not the same as creating the risk scenarios. Validation by senior management is a quality assurance step that ensures the accuracy and completeness of the risk scenarios, but it is not the same as facilitating the development of the risk scenarios. References = Six Steps to Using Risk Scenarios for Improved Risk Management, IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin, IT Risk Resources | ISACA
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?
Assigning a data owner
Implementing technical control over the assets
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Scheduling periodic audits
Assigning a data owner would best facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements. A data owner is responsible for defining the classification of the data, ensuring that the data is properly labeled, and approving access requests. Implementing technical control over the assets, implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, and scheduling periodic audits are important activities, but they are not as effective as assigning a data owner. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework?
A strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite
A risk-based internal audit plan for the organization
A control function within the risk management team
An organization-wide risk awareness training program
The most important thing for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework is a strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite, as this provides the direction, scope, and objectives of the risk management process, and defines the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or avoid in pursuit of its goals. A strategic approach to risk aligns the risk management framework with the organization’s vision, mission, values, and strategy, and ensures that the risk management activities support the achievement of the desired outcomes. An established risk appetite sets the boundaries and criteria for risk decision making, and guides the selection and implementation of risk responses. The other options are not the most important things for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework, although they may be useful or necessary components of it. A risk-based internal audit plan is a tool that helps to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of the risk management framework, but it does not define or drive the risk management process. A control function within the risk management team is a role that helps to implement and monitor the risk controls, but it does not determine or influence the risk strategy or appetite. An organization-wide risk awareness training program is a method that helps to enhance the risk culture and competence of the organization, but it does not establish or communicate the risk approach or appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, page 23.
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?
Lack of a mature records management program
Lack of a dedicated asset management team
Decentralized asset lists
Incomplete asset inventory
Asset management is the process of identifying, tracking, and maintaining the physical and information assets of an organization. Asset management helps to optimize the value, performance, and security of the assets, and support the business objectives and strategies. The factor that would be of greatest concern regarding an organization’s asset management is an incomplete asset inventory, which is a list of all the assets that the organization owns or uses. An incomplete asset inventory may indicate that the organization does not have a clear and accurate understanding of its assets, their location, ownership, value, dependencies, etc. This may lead to various risks, such as asset loss, theft, misuse, damage, underutilization, overutilization, etc. An incomplete asset inventory may also affect the asset classification, protection, recovery, and disposal processes. References = 6
A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?
Risk forecasting
Risk tolerance
Risk likelihood
Risk appetite
Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the critical functions and processes after a disruption1. RTOs are derived from the business impact analysis (BIA) andreflect the organization’s risk appetite, which is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives2. Risk tolerance is the level of risk a company is willing to tolerate, and it is affected by a number of factors, including how much uncertainty or financial loss can be tolerated and where those losses will impact operations3. Risk tolerance is used to measure if the risk exposure is within the risk appetite and to implement controls to reduce the residual risk to an acceptable level2. If the majority of core IT application RTOs have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners, it means that the organization is not meeting its risk appetite and is exposed to more risk than it can accept. Therefore, the most likely change as a result is to adjust the risk tolerance to reflect the current reality and to take actions to improve the recovery capabilities and reduce the risk exposure4. Risk forecasting is the process of estimating the potential outcomes and impactsof future events that may affect the organization’s objectives5. Risk forecasting may change as aresult of the RTOs exceeding the maximum time, but it is not the most likely change, as it does not directly address the gap between the risk appetite and the risk exposure. Risk likelihood is the probability of a risk event occurring5. Risk likelihood may change as a result of the RTOs exceeding the maximum time, but it is not the most likely change, as it does not directly measure the impact of the risk event on the organization’s objectives. Risk appetite is the amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives2. Risk appetite may change as a result of the RTOs exceeding the maximum time, but it is not the most likely change, as it is a strategic decision that reflects the organization’s vision and mission, and not a tactical response to a specific risk event. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.3: Business Continuity Planning, pp. 227-238.
Which of the following would be MOST beneficial as a key risk indicator (KRI)?
Current capital allocation reserves
Negative security return on investment (ROI)
Project cost variances
Annualized loss projections
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric used to measure and monitor the level of risk associated with a particular process, activity, or system within an organization1. KRIs are typically used in risk management to provide early warning signs of potential risks and to help organizations take proactive steps to mitigate those risks. KRIs are designed to be quantitative and measurable, allowing organizations to track changes in risk levels over time and to identify trends and patterns that may indicate an increased likelihood of risk. A negative security return on investment (ROI) would be most beneficial as a KRI, as it would indicate that the organization is spending more on security than the value it is generating or protecting. A negative security ROI would suggest that the organization is either over-investing in security, under-utilizing its security assets, or facing significant security threats or incidents that erode its security value. A negative security ROI would alert the organization to review its security strategy, budget, and performance, and to adjust them accordingly to optimize its security ROI and reduce its risk exposure2. Current capital allocation reserves are not the most beneficial as a KRI, as they do notdirectly measure the level of risk associated with a particular process, activity, or system. Capital allocation reserves are the amount of capital that an organization sets aside to cover potential losses or liabilities arising from its activities. Capital allocation reserves may reflect the organization’s overall risk appetite and tolerance, but they do not provide specific information on the sources, types, or impacts of risks that the organization faces3. Project cost variances are not the most beneficial as a KRI, as they do not directly measure the level of risk associated with a particular process, activity, or system. Project cost variances are the differences between the actual and planned costs of a project. Project cost variances may indicate the performance or efficiency of a project, but they do not provide specific information on the risks that may affect the project’s objectives, scope, quality, or schedule4. Annualized loss projections are not the most beneficial as a KRI, as they do not directly measure the level of risk associated with a particular process, activity, or system. Annualized loss projections are the estimates of the potential losses that an organization may incur in a year due to various risk events. Annualized loss projections may help the organization to plan and budget for its risk management activities, but they do not provide specific information on the likelihood, frequency, or severity of riskevents that may occur5. References = 1: Key risk indicator - Wikipedia2: What Is A Key Risk Indicator?3: Capital Allocation - Overview, Importance, and Methods4: Project Cost Variance: Definition, Formula, and Examples5: [Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) - Definition, Formula, and Example]
Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?
Business impact assessment (BIA)
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Risk profile
Industry benchmark analysis
The risk profile is the most important document to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance, because it summarizes the current and target state of the organization’s risk exposure, as well as the risk response strategies and actions. The risk profile should reflect the alignment of the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance with its strategic objectives and operational capabilities. Updating the risk profile will help the organization to monitor and manage its risks effectively and efficiently.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2.1: Risk Profile
•Risk Profile - ISACA
•What is a Risk Profile? Definition, Examples, and More
Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?
Using the risk management process
Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance
Reviewing results of the annual company external audit
Adopting internationally accepted controls
Using the risk management process will best ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives, as it involves identifying, assessing, responding, and monitoring the risks that may affect the achievement of the business goals and objectives, and designing and implementing controls to mitigate those risks. Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance, reviewing results of the annual company external audit, and adopting internationally accepted controls are also good practices, but they are not the best, as they do not necessarily align the controls with the business goals and objectives. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 146.
When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:
cost-benefit analysis.
risk appetite.
regulatory guidelines
control efficiency
Cost-benefit analysis is the most helpful tool to show risk reduction based on when developing risk treatment alternatives for a business case, because it compares the expected costs and benefits of each alternative and helps to select the most optimal and feasible one. Cost-benefit analysis also helps to justify the investment and resources required for the risk treatment plan and to demonstrate the value and return of the risk reduction. The other options are not the most helpful tools, although they may also be considered when developing risk treatment alternatives. Risk appetite, regulatory guidelines, and control efficiency are examples of factors or criteria that influence the selection of risk treatment alternatives, but they do not show the risk reduction based on the alternatives. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?
Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.
Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.
Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.
Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.
The best course of action for a risk practitioner when a bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization is to analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed. Blockchain technology is a new and emerging technologythat may introduce new risks or change the existing risks for the bank. Therefore, the risk practitioner should perform a risk analysis to identify, assess, and evaluate the risks associated with the Blockchain technology, and update the risk register accordingly. Determining whether risk responses are still adequate, analyzing and updating control assessments, and conducting testing of the controls are possible actions that may follow the risk analysis, but they are not the best initial course of action. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:
perform a business impact analysis.
identify potential sources of risk.
establish risk guidelines.
understand control design.
It is most important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization’s processes in order to identify potential sources of risk, as this enables the risk practitioner to understand the objectives, activities, resources, dependencies, and outputs of the processes, and how they may be affected by internal or external factors that create uncertainty or variability. Identifying potential sources of risk is the first step in the risk identification process, which aims to find, recognize, and describe the risks that could affect the achievement of the organization’s goals. The other options are not the most important reasons for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization’s processes, although they may be related or beneficial aspects of it. Performing a business impact analysis is a part of the risk analysis process, which aims to understand the nature and extent of the risks and their consequences on the organization’s objectives and functions. Establishing risk guidelines is a part of the risk governance process, which aims to define and communicate the risk management principles, policies, and roles across the organization. Understanding control design is a part of the risk response process, which aims to select and implement the appropriate actions to modify the risk level or achieve the risk objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 47.
Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?
Identify the potential risk.
Monitor employee usage.
Assess the potential risk.
Develop risk awareness training.
The security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace is the possibility and impact of unauthorized access, disclosure, or use of the data or information that are collected, stored, or transmitted by the wearable devices, such as smartwatches, fitness trackers, or glasses, that are worn or used by the employees12.
The first step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace is to identify the potential risk, which is the process of recognizing and describing the sources,causes, and consequences of the risk, and the potential impacts on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation34.
Identifying the potential risk is the first step because it provides the basis and input for the subsequent steps of the risk management process, such as assessing, treating, monitoring, and communicating the risk34.
Identifying the potential risk is also the first step because it enables the organization to understand and prioritize the risk, and to allocate the appropriate resources and controls for the risk management process34.
The other options are not the first step, but rather possible subsequent steps that may depend on or follow the identification of the potential risk. For example:
Monitoring employee usage is a step that involves collecting and analyzing data and information on the frequency, duration, and purpose of the wearable devices that are used by the employees, and detecting and reporting any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate a security risk5 . However, this step is not the first step because it requires theidentification of the potential risk to provide the guidance and standards for the monitoring process5 .
Assessing the potential risk is a step that involves estimating and evaluating the likelihood and impact of the risk, and the level of risk exposure or tolerance for the organization34. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the information and data for the assessment process34.
Developing risk awareness training is a step that involves educating and training the employees and other stakeholders on the security risks and best practices associated with the wearable technology, and informing them of their roles, obligations, and responsibilities for the risk management process . However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the content and objectives for the training process . References =
1: Wearable Devices in the Workplace: Security Threats and Protection1
2: 10 security risks of wearables | CSO Online2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Continuous Monitoring - ISACA3
Continuous Monitoring: A New Approach to Risk Management - ISACA Journal4
What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US
Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?
It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.
It requires more resources than other methods
It produces the results in numeric form.
It is based on impact analysis of information assets.
The drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis is that it requires more resources than other methods. Quantitative risk analysis is a method of risk analysis that assigns numeric values to the exposures of assets, the impact and likelihood of risk events, and the cost and benefit of risk responses. Quantitative risk analysis can provide more precise and objective results, and support the risk-based decision making process. However, quantitative risk analysis also requires more resources than other methods, such as data, time, expertise, and tools, to collect, validate, and analyze the quantitative information, and to perform the complex calculations and simulations. Quantitative risk analysis may also be limited by the availability, reliability, and accuracy of thedata, and the assumptions and models used. Assigning numeric values to exposures of assets, producing the results in numeric form, and being based on impact analysis of information assets are not drawbacks, but characteristics of quantitative risk analysis. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 49.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk associated with Internet of Things (IoT) technology?
The inability to monitor via network management solutions
The lack of relevant IoT security frameworks to guide the risk assessment process
The heightened level of IoT threats via the widespread use of smart devices
The lack of updates for vulnerable firmware
Vulnerable firmware that lacks updates is a significant security risk, as it can be exploited by attackers. Addressing this issue aligns withSecure IoT Deployment Practicesto reduce exposure.
A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?
Risk likelihood
Risk impact
Risk capacity
Risk appetite
The migration to a jurisdiction with heavy fines for data leakage primarily affects the potential impact of a risk event. This change should be reflected in the risk impact factor, as the financial consequences of a risk event would be significantly higher.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?
Ongoing training
Timely notification
Return on investment (ROI)
Cost minimization
The best way to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners is to provide timely notification of the changes in the risk exposure. KRIs are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. By providing timely notification of the KRI values, the risk owners can be alerted of the risk situation and take appropriate actions to manage the risk. Ongoing training, return on investment (ROI), and cost minimization are other possible ways to ensure KRIs provide value, but they are not as effective as timely notification. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:
ratio of disabled to active user accounts.
percentage of users with multiple user accounts.
average number of access entitlements per user account.
average time between user transfers and access updates.
The average time between user transfers and access updates is a trend that would cause the greatest concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization’s user access control processes, as it indicates thedelay or inefficiency in updating the user access rights and privileges according to the user’s current role and responsibilities. This can result in unauthorized or excessive access to the organization’s information assets, and increase the risk of data leakage, fraud, or misuse. The user access control processes should ensure that the user access rights and privileges are reviewed and modified regularly, and especially when the user’s role or status changes, such as transfer, promotion, demotion, or termination. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question241. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 241. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 241.
If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?
Confidentiality
Accountability
Availability
Integrity
Integrity is the property of data that ensures its accuracy, completeness, and consistency2. If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, the integrity of the data may be compromised, as it may lead to concurrency problems such as lost update, unrepeatable read, or phantom read3. These problems can cause the data to be incorrect, incomplete, or inconsistent, which may affect the reliability and validity of the data. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it reflects the impact of improper concurrent update transactions on the data integrity. The other options are not correct, as they do not directly relate to the effect of concurrent update transactions on the data. Option A, confidentiality, is the property of data that ensures its protection from unauthorized access or disclosure2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the confidentiality of the data, as they do not involve exposing the data to unauthorized parties. Option B, accountability, is the property of data that ensures its traceability and auditability2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the accountability of the data, as they do not involve losing the records or logs of the data transactions. Option C, availability, is the property of data that ensures its accessibility and usability2. Concurrent update transactions do not necessarily affect the availability of the data, as they do not involve preventing the access or use of the data.
A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?
Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value
Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact
Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization
Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings
Using aconsistent risk taxonomyensures that IT risks can be aggregated and compared with enterprise-level risks in a meaningful way. ISACA emphasizes that standardized risk language and categories are critical to integrating IT risk with ERM processes.
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Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?
Testing in a non-production environment
Performing a security control review
Reviewing the security audit report
Conducting a risk assessment
Automated information security controls are controls that are implemented or executed by software or hardware, without human intervention, to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and systems1. Examples of automated information security controls include firewalls, antivirus software, encryption, authentication, and logging2. The effectiveness of automated information security controls refers to how well they achieve their intended objectives and outcomes, such as preventing, detecting, or responding to security threats or incidents3. The best way to measure the effectiveness of automatedinformation security controls prior to going live is to test them in a non-production environment, which is an environment thatsimulates the production environment, but does not contain real or sensitive data orsystems4. Testing in a non-production environment allows the organization to verify the proper and consistent configuration, functionality, and performance of the automated information security controls, without affecting the normal operations or risking the exposure of the data or systems5. Testing in a non-production environment also enables the organization to identify andresolve any issues or gaps in the automated information security controls, and to evaluate their compatibility and interoperability with other systems or controls6. Performing a security control review, reviewing the security audit report, and conducting a risk assessment are not the best ways to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live, as they do not provide direct and timely information on the configuration, functionality, and performance of the automated information security controls. Performing a security control review is a process that involves checking and verifying that the organization’s security controls are up to date, relevant, and effective7. A security control review can help to identify and address any issues or gaps in the security controls, but it does not show the actual behavior and results of the automated information security controls in a realistic environment. Reviewing the security audit report is a process that involves reading and analyzing the findings and recommendations of an independent examination and evaluation of the organization’s security controls8. A security audit report can help to provide assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the security controls, but it does not show the current and dynamic status and performance of the automated information security controls in a changing environment. Conducting a risk assessment is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and their potential impacts on the organization’s objectives and performance. A risk assessment can help to anticipate and prepare for the risks that may affect the organization’s security, but it does not show the actual impact and outcome of the automated information security controls in a specific scenario. References = 1: Automation Support for Security Control Assessments - NIST2: Automated Security Control Assessment: When Self-Awareness Matters3: Technology Control Automation: Improving Efficiency, Reducing … - ISACA4: [What is a Non-Production Environment? | Definition and FAQs] 5: [Why You Need a Non-Production Environment - Plutora] 6: [Testing Automated Security Controls - SANS Institute] 7: A brief guide to assessing risks and controls | ACCA Global8: IT Risk Resources | ISACA : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.1: Risk Identification, pp. 57-59.]
Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?
Trends in IT resource usage
Trends in IT maintenance costs
Increased resource availability
Increased number of incidents
IT capacity is the ability of an IT system or network to handle the current and future workload and performance demands. IT capacity can be affected by various factors, such as the numberand type of users, applications, devices, data, transactions, etc. IT capacity management is the process of planning, monitoring, and optimizing the IT resources to ensure that they meet the business needs and objectives. IT capacity management can help prevent issues such as system slowdowns, outages, errors, or failures, and improve the efficiency, reliability, and security of the IT system or network. One of the IT key risk indicators (KRIs) that provides managementwith the best feedback on IT capacity is the trends in IT resource usage. IT resource usage is the measure of how much of the IT resources, such as CPU, memory, disk, bandwidth, etc., are being consumed by the IT system or network. Trends in IT resource usage can help monitor and analyze the changes in the IT capacity over time, and identify the patterns, peaks, and bottlenecks in the IT resource consumption. Trends in IT resource usage can also help forecast the future IT capacity requirements, and plan for the appropriate IT resource allocation, optimization, or expansion. Trends in IT resource usage can provide management with valuable information on the current and potential IT capacity risks, and support the decision making and risk response for IT capacity management. References = Integrating KRIs and KPIs for Effective Technology Risk Management, p. 3-4.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk map with stakeholders?
Consolidates risk response options by severity
Aligns risk appetite with business objectives
Correlates risk scenarios to risk appetite
Defines an organizational risk taxonomy
Arisk maphelps stakeholders understand how risk scenarios align with the organization’srisk appetite. This visualization facilitates informed decision-making and ensures risk responses are consistent with organizational priorities.
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An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?
Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).
Perform a root cause analysis.
Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.
Review the incident response plan.
The risk practitioner’s best recommendation after recovery steps have been completed is B. Perform a root cause analysis. A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and assessing the underlying causes of a problem or an incident. By performing a root cause analysis, the risk practitioner can help the organization to understand how and why the cyber attack happened, what vulnerabilities and gaps were exploited, and what actions and controls can be implemented to prevent or mitigate similar incidents in the future12
A root cause analysis can also help the organization to improve its incident response plan, which is a set of instructions to help IT staff detect, respond to, and recover from network security incidents3 A root cause analysis can provide valuable feedback and lessons learned from the cyber attack, and help the organization to update and test its incident response plan accordingly45
Developing new key risk indicators, recommending the purchase of cyber insurance, and reviewing the incident response plan are all possible actions that the risk practitioner can take after a cyber attack, but they are not the best recommendation. Developing new key risk indicators can help the organization to monitor and measure its risk exposure and performance, but it does not address the root causes of the cyber attack12 Recommending the purchase of cyber insurance can help the organization to hedge against the financial losses caused by cyber incidents, but it does not prevent or solve the underlying issues67 Reviewing the incident response plan can help the organization to evaluate its effectiveness and identify areas for improvement, but it does not explain how and why the cyber attack occurred345
Therefore, the best recommendation is to perform a root cause analysis, as it can help the organization to understand, resolve, and prevent the cyber attack and its consequences12
An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?
Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization
Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture
Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure
Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios
Lack of common understanding of the organization’s risk culture is the greatest barrier to achieving the initiative’s objectives, because it hinders the alignment and integration of risk management across the organization. Risk culture is the set of shared values, beliefs, and behaviors that influence how risk is perceived and managed in an organization. A risk universe is a comprehensive and structured representation of all the sources and types of risk that an organization faces. Developing a risk universe requires a common understanding of the organization’s risk culture, as it affects the risk appetite, tolerance, and strategy of the organization. Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops, lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure, and lack of an integrated risk management system are all challenges that may affect thedevelopment of a risk universe, but they are not the greatest barrier, as they can be overcome with appropriate tools and techniques. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 44
When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:
review alignment with the organizations strategy.
understand the organization's information security policy.
validate the organization's data classification scheme.
report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.
The most important thing to do when establishing an enterprise IT risk management program is to review the alignment with the organization’s strategy. The organization’s strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its vision, mission, and goals. The IT risk management program should be aligned with the organization’s strategy, so that it supports and enables the organization’s strategic objectives, and addresses the IT risks that could affect the organization’s performance and value. Reviewing the alignment with the organization’s strategy helps to ensure that the IT risk management program is relevant, effective, and consistent with the organization’s expectations and needs. The other options are not as important as reviewing the alignment with the organization’s strategy, although they may be useful or necessary steps or components of the IT risk management program. Understanding the organization’s information security policy, validating the organization’s data classification scheme, and reporting identified IT risk scenarios to senior management are all activities that can help to implement and improvethe IT risk management program, but they are not the initial or primary thing todo. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-12.
An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do
FIRST?
Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party
Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.
Notify information security management.
Request IT to remove the system from the network.
The first thing that the risk practitioner should do upon learning that a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems is to notify information security management. This will help to escalate the issue to the appropriate authority and responsibility level, and to initiate the incident response process. Information security management can also coordinate with the third party, the IT department, and other stakeholders to assess the impact and severity of the vulnerabilities, and to implement the necessary actions to contain, eradicate, and recover from the incident. Confirming the vulnerabilities with the third party, identifying procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities, and requesting IT to remove the system from the network are not the first things that the risk practitioner should do, as they may not address the urgency and priority of the issue, and may not involve the relevant decision makers and responders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.2, page 1931
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 659.
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?
A management-approved risk dashboard
A current control framework
A regularly updated risk register
Regularly updated risk management procedures
Importance of a Risk Register:
A risk register is a critical tool for documenting, tracking, and managing risks within an organization. It serves as a central repository for all identified risks, detailing their status, impact, likelihood, and the actions taken to mitigate them.
A regularly updated risk register demonstrates an active and ongoing risk management process, reflecting the organization's commitment to identifying and addressing risks promptly.
Evidence of Robust Risk Management:
The risk register shows the organization's proactive approach to risk management by continuously monitoring and updating risks.
It provides transparency and accountability, allowing stakeholders to see how risks are being managed and mitigated over time.
Regular updates ensure that new risks are identified and existing risks are reassessed, indicating a dynamic and responsive risk management practice.
Comparing Other Options:
Management-Approved Risk Dashboard:While useful for summarizing risk information, a dashboard does not provide the detailed, ongoing updates and comprehensive tracking found in a risk register.
Current Control Framework:A control framework outlines the controls in place but does not detail specific risks or their management.
Regularly Updated Risk Management Procedures:Procedures are important but do not provide the same level of detailed risk tracking and management as a risk register.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of a risk register in consolidating and tracking risk data, making it an essential component of robust risk management practices (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.6 Risk Register) .
Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?
Reviewing password change history
Performing periodic access recertification
Conducting social engineering exercises
Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys
Social engineering exercises are simulations of real-world attacks that exploit human vulnerabilities, such as phishing, baiting, pretexting, or quid pro quo. Conducting social engineering exercises can help assess the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities by measuring the employees’ susceptibility to such attacks, their awareness of security policies and procedures, and their response to incidents. Reviewing password change history, performing periodic access recertifications, and reviewing the results of security awareness surveys are also useful, but they do not directly test the employees’ behavior and resilience in the face of social engineering attacks.
Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
The program has not decreased threat counts.
The program has not considered business impact.
The program has been significantly revised
The program uses non-customized training modules.
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner when reviewing the findings of a security awareness program assessment is that the program uses non-customized training modules. Non-customizedtraining modules are generic and may not address the specific security needs, issues, and challenges of the organization. They may also fail to engage and motivate the employees to follow the security policies and procedures, and to enhance their security knowledge and skills. The program not decreasing threat counts, not considering business impact, or being significantly revised are other possible findings, but they are not as concerning as the program using non-customized training modules. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?
Extending the date of a future action plan by two months
Retiring a risk scenario no longer used
Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted
Changing a risk owner
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
A risk register update is a change or modification to the information or status of the risks and their responses in the risk register. It may be triggered by the occurrence or resolution of a risk event, the identification or evaluation of a new or emerging risk, the implementation or completion of a risk response, the monitoring or review of the risk performance, etc.
The most important risk register update for senior management to review is avoiding a risk that was previously accepted, which means that the organization has decided to eliminate or withdraw from the risk exposure or activity that may cause the risk, instead of tolerating or retaining the risk as before. This may indicate a significant change in the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, objectives, or environment, and it may have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value.
The other options are not the most important risk register updates for senior management to review, because they do not indicate a significant change or impact on the organization’s risk profile or performance.
Extending the date of a future action plan by two months means that the organization has postponed the implementation or completion of the planned actions or measures to address the risk, due to some reasons or constraints. This may indicate a delay or deviation from the expected or desired risk outcome, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk is very urgent or critical.
Retiring a risk scenario no longer used means that the organization has removed or discarded the risk scenario that is no longer relevant or applicable to the organization’s objectives or operations, due to some changes or developments. This may indicate a reduction or improvement in the organization’s risk exposure or level, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk scenario was very significant or influential.
Changing a risk owner means that the organization has assigned or transferred the responsibility and accountability for the risk and its response to a different person or role, due to some reasons or circumstances. This may indicate a change or improvement in the organization’s risk governance or culture, but it may not have a major impact on the organization’s performance and value, unless the risk owner was very ineffective or inappropriate. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 160
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A violation of segregation of duties is when the same:
user requests and tests the change prior to production.
user authorizes and monitors the change post-implementation.
programmer requests and tests the change prior to production.
programmer writes and promotes code into production.
A violation of segregation of duties is when the same person performs two or more conflicting tasks that could compromise the security or integrity of a system or process. In the context of IT risk management, segregation of duties aims to prevent fraud, errors, sabotage, theft, misuse of information, and other security breaches. One of the common categories of functions to be separated is the authorization function, which involves evaluating and approving transactions or changes. Another category is the custody function, which involves managing or accessing physical or digital assets. A programmer who writes and promotes code into production is performing both the authorization and the custody functions, which creates a high-risk conflict.The programmer could introduce malicious or erroneous code into the system without proper review or approval, and potentially cause harm to the organization or its stakeholders. Therefore, this scenario is a violation of segregation of duties. References =
Segregation of Duties: Examples of Roles, Duties & Violations
Separation of duties - Wikipedia
Segregation of duties: prevent fraud and error - eftsure
An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?
Audit reports
Industry benchmarks
Financial forecasts
Annual threat reports
The best input for conducting a review of emerging risk is the annual threat reports. Emerging risk is the risk that arises from new or evolving sources, or from existing sources that have not been previously considered or recognized. Emerging risk may have significant impact on the organization’s objectives, strategies, operations, or reputation, and may require new or different risk responses. Annual threat reports are the reports that provide information and analysis on the current and future trends, developments, and challenges in the threat landscape, such as cyberattacks, natural disasters, geopolitical conflicts, or pandemics. Annual threat reports can help to identify and assess the emerging risk, as they can provide insights into the sources, drivers, indicators, and scenarios of the emerging risk, as well as the potential impact and likelihood of the emerging risk. Annual threat reports can also help to benchmark and compare the organization’s risk exposure and preparedness with the industry and the peers, and to prioritize and respond to the emerging risk. Audit reports, industry benchmarks, and financial forecasts are not as useful as annual threat reports, as they do not focus on the emerging risk, and may not capture the latest or future changes in the threat landscape. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?
Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.
Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.
Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.
Obtain vendor references from third parties.
An organization may rely on third-party vendors to provide some of its IT systems, applications, or services, such as cloud computing, software development, or data processing. The organization should evaluate the control environment of the third-party vendors, which is the set of policies, procedures, and practices that establish the tone and culture of the vendor’s risk management and control activities. The best way to evaluate the control environment of severalthird-party vendors is to obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors. Independent control reports are the documents that attest to the design, implementation, and effectiveness of the vendor’s controls, based on the standards or frameworks that are relevant and applicable for the vendor’s services, such as the ISAE 3402 or the SOC 2. Independentcontrol reports are prepared by independent and qualified auditors, who provide an objective and reliable assessment of the vendor’s controls. High-risk vendors are the vendors that pose the highest level of risk to the organization, such as by having access to sensitive or confidential data, or by providing critical or complex services. By obtaining independent control reports from high-risk vendors, the organization can verify that the vendor’s controls are adequate and appropriate for the organization’s needs, and that the vendor complies with thecontractual and regulatory requirements. The other options are not as good as obtaining independent control reports from high-risk vendors, as they may not provide sufficient or consistent information or evidence on the vendor’s control environment:
Review vendors’ internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls means that the organization examines the vendor’s own evaluation of its risks and controls, such as by reviewing the vendor’s risk register, risk matrix, or risk report. This may provide some information or insight on the vendor’s control environment, but it may not be as reliable or objective as obtaining independent control reports, as the vendor’s internal risk assessments may have biases, conflicts, or gaps in their methodology, scope, or quality.
Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes means that the organization measures and monitors the vendor’s performance and outcomes, such as by using key performance indicators (KPIs), service level agreements (SLAs), or customer satisfaction surveys. This may provide some information or feedback on the vendor’s control environment, but it may not be as comprehensive or relevant as obtaining independent control reports, as the vendor’s performance metrics may not cover all the aspects or components of the vendor’s controls, or may not reflect the latest or updated status or results of the vendor’s controls.
Obtain vendor references from third parties means that the organization collects and verifies the testimonials or recommendations of the vendor’s services from other customers or stakeholders, such as by contacting them directly or by reading their reviews or ratings. This may provide some information or evidence on the vendor’s control environment, but it may not be as accurate or consistent as obtaining independent control reports, as the vendor’s references from third parties may have biases, conflicts, or variations in their expectations, experiences, or opinions of the vendor’s services. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.2.1, pp. 147-148.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?
Adherence to legal and compliance requirements
Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase
Establishment of digital forensic architectures
Consistent management of information assets
Integrating risk and security requirements in an organization’s enterprise architecture (EA) helps to ensure that information assets are consistently managed throughout their life cycle, and that the risks associated with them are identified and mitigated. (Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, 5th Edition, page 112)
A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?
Control owner
Risk owner
IT security manager
Control operator
Role of the Control Owner:
The control owner is responsible for the design, implementation, and maintenance of a specific control.
They have detailed knowledge of the control’s purpose, its intended functionality, and its operational context within the organization.
Responsibility for Remediation:
When a penetration testing team discovers an ineffectively designed access control, it is the control owner’s responsibility to ensure the design gap is remediated.
The control owner must assess the findings, determine the root cause of the ineffectiveness, and take necessary actions to redesign or enhance the control to address the identified weaknesses.
Steps to Remediate Control Design Gap:
Assess the Findings:Understand the specific issues identified by the penetration testing team.
Redesign the Control:Modify the control design to address the identified gaps and ensure it meets security requirements.
Implement Changes:Apply the redesigned control and test its effectiveness.
Continuous Monitoring:Regularly review the control to ensure it remains effective over time.
Comparing Other Roles:
Risk Owner:Manages overall risk but does not directly handle control design.
IT Security Manager:Oversees the security posture but delegates specific control responsibilities to control owners.
Control Operator:Operates the control but is not responsible for its design or remediation.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the control owner's responsibility in maintaining and improving control effectiveness (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.7 Control Design and Selection).
When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:
Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.
Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.
Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.
Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios
The most important step when developing risk scenarios using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices is to validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance. The generic risk scenarios may not be applicable or suitable for the specific context, objectives, and environment of the organization. Therefore, the risk practitioner should validate the relevance of the generic risk scenarios by comparing them with the organization’s risk profile, risk appetite, and risk criteria. Assessing generic risk scenarios with business users, selecting the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list, and identifying common threats causing generic risk scenarios are other steps that may be useful, but they are not as important as validating the relevance of the generic risk scenarios. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Historical data availability
Implementation and reporting effort
Ability to display trends
Sensitivity and reliability
Sensitivity and reliability are the most important criteria for selecting KRIs, as they indicate how well the KRIs reflect the changes in the risk level and how consistent and accurate the KRIs are in measuring the risk.Sensitivity means that the KRIs should respond quickly and proportionally to the variations in the risk exposure, and provide early warning signals of potential risk events. Reliability means that the KRIs should be based on valid and verifiable data sources, and produce consistent and comparable results over time and across different units or functions. Historical data availability, implementation and reporting effort, and ability to display trends are also useful criteria, but they are not as critical as sensitivity and reliability.
Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?
Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.
Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.
Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.
Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, performing the assessment as it would normally be done is the best approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system, because it ensures that the risk practitioner maintains their objectivity, integrity, and professionalism. The risk practitioner should not compromise the quality or accuracy of the risk assessment, regardless of any external pressure or influence. The risk practitioner should follow the established risk assessment methodology and standards, and report the risk results and recommendations based on the facts and evidence. The other options are not the best approaches, because they may affect the credibility or reliability of the risk assessment. Conducting an abbreviated version of the assessment may result in incomplete or insufficient risk information, which may lead to poor riskdecisions or actions. Reporting the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation may escalate the situation or create a conflict of interest, which may hinder the risk assessment process or outcome. Recommending an internal auditor perform the review may transfer the responsibility or accountability of the risk practitioner, which may undermine their role or authority. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 74.
When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
Reliance on qualitative analysis methods
Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool
Lack of senior management involvement
Use of multiple risk registers
Senior management involvement is foundational to an effective risk management framework. Lack of engagement signals inadequate oversight, strategic alignment, and resource commitment, impairing the program's success. This is supported by CRISC's focus on governance and leadership alignment to ensure enterprise risk management objectives are met.
Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service
provider during a vendor risk assessment?
Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Independent audit report
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
A vendor risk assessment is a process of evaluating and managing the risks associated with outsourcing IT services or functions to a third-party provider, such as a cloud service provider.
One of the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment is an independent audit report. This is a report that provides an objective and reliable assurance on the quality, security, and performance of the cloud service provider’s operations, processes, and controls, based on the standards and criteria established by an independent auditor or a recognized authority, such as ISACA, ISO, NIST, etc.
An independent audit report helps to verify the compliance and effectiveness of the cloud service provider’s risk management practices, identify any gaps or issues that may affect the service delivery or security, and recommend improvements or corrective actions.
The other options are not the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment. They are either secondary or not essential for vendor risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 22
Information Technology & Security, page 16
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 14
Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?
Business context
Risk tolerance level
Resource requirements
Benchmarking information
The primary consideration when establishing an organization’s risk management methodology is the business context, which includes the internal and external factors that influence the organization’s objectives, strategies, scope, and boundaries. The business context helps to define the risk criteria, the risk appetite, the risk identification, the risk analysis, and the risk treatment. The other options are not the primary consideration, but rather the outcomes or inputs of the risk management methodology. References = ISO 31000 Risk Management – Principles andGuidelines; ISO 31000 Principles of Risk Management; The risk management process: What is the best structure and administration?
Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?
Weak governance structures
Senior management scrutiny
Complex regulatory environment
Unclear reporting relationships
Control ownership is the assignment of roles and responsibilities for the design, implementation, monitoring, and improvement of controls that mitigate risks. Control ownership can help ensure that the controls are effective, efficient, and aligned with the business objectives and risk appetite. Control ownership can also help facilitate the communication, coordination, and accountability among the stakeholders involved in the risk management process. One of the factors that would present the greatest challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership is unclear reporting relationships. Reporting relationships are the formal or informal lines of authority and communication that define who reports to whom, and who is accountable for what. Unclear reporting relationships can create confusion, ambiguity, and conflict among the control owners and other stakeholders, such as the risk owners, the business owners, the auditors, the regulators, etc. Unclear reporting relationships can also hinder the performance evaluation, feedback, and recognition of the control owners, and affect their motivation and commitment. Unclear reporting relationships can also increase the risk of duplication, inconsistency, or gaps in the control activities, and compromise the quality and reliability of the control environment. References = Defining, Assigning and Measuring: Accountability Challenges in 21st Century Governance, CRISC 351-400 topic3, Foundations of Project Management : Week 2.
Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?
Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment
Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access
Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers
Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing
Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing is the best process control to mitigate the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor. This is because segregation of duties is a key internal control that prevents or detects errors, fraud, orabuse by ensuring that no single person can perform incompatible or conflicting tasks. The vendor master file is a database that contains the information and settings for each vendor, such as name, address, bank account, payment terms, etc. Invoicing is the process of generating and sending bills to the vendors for the goods or services they provide. If the same person can access and modify the vendor master file and issue invoices, he or she could create fictitious vendors, alter vendor information, or generate false or duplicate invoices, and then divert the payments to his or her own account. By segregating these duties, the organization can reduce the opportunity and likelihood of such fraudulent activities. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, segregation of duties is one of the key IT control objectives and practices1. According to the web search results, segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing is a common and recommended control to prevent vendor fraud
When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on which of the following risk management activities?
Risk management strategy planning
Risk monitoring and control
Risk identification
Risk response planning
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information about the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, such as the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, status, owner, response, etc.
When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on risk identification. This is the process of finding, recognizing, and describing the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, using various techniques, such as brainstorming, interviews, checklists, surveys, etc.
Risk identification helps to create a comprehensive and accurate list of the risks that need to be managed, and to provide the basis for the subsequent risk analysis and evaluation, risk response planning, and risk monitoring and control.
The other options are not the risk management activities that a risk practitioner should focus on when developing a new risk register. They are either subsequent or parallel to risk identification.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 29
Information Technology & Security, page 23
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 21
Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?
Level of residual risk
The results of a gap analysis
IT alignment to business objectives
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk management maturity level is the degree to which an organization has developed and implemented a systematic and proactive approach to managing the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk management maturity level reflects the organization’s risk culture and capability, and its alignment with its objectives and strategies1.
The best measurement of an organization’s risk management maturity level is the key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential exposure and performance of the organization in relation to specific risks. KRIs can help to:
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the risk level and the risk response over time
Identify and alert the risk issues or events that require attention or action
Evaluate and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and practices
Support and inform the risk decision making and improvement23
KRIs can be classified into different types, such as:
Leading KRIs, which are forward-looking and predictive, and indicate the likelihood or probability of a risk event occurring in the future
Lagging KRIs, which are backward-looking and descriptive, and indicate the impact or consequence of a risk event that has already occurred
Quantitative KRIs, which are numerical or measurable, and indicate the magnitude or severity of a risk event or outcome
Qualitative KRIs, which are descriptive or subjective, and indicate the nature or characteristics of a risk event or outcome4
The other options are not the best measurements of an organization’s risk management maturity level, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Level of residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the risk response has been implemented. Level of residual risk reflects the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, and the need for further action or monitoring. The results of a gap analysis are the differences between the current and the desired state of the risk management processes and practices. The results of a gap analysis reflect the completeness and coverage of the risk management activities, and the areas for improvement or enhancement. IT alignment to business objectives is the extent to which IT supports and enables the achievement of the organization’s goals and strategies. IT alignment to business objectives reflects the integration and coordination of the IT and business functions, and the optimization of the IT value and performance. References =
Risk Maturity Assessment Explained | Risk Maturity Model
Key Risk Indicators - ISACA
Key Risk Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Risk Indicators: Types and Examples
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified
Estimate the residual risk.
Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).
Design control improvements.
Identify the risk owner.
•A risk owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to manage a specific risk1. The risk owner is accountable for the implementation and effectiveness of the risk response strategy and the risk treatment plan2.
•Identifying the risk owner is the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because the risk owner is the key stakeholder who will be involved in the subsequent steps of the risk management process, such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, risk treatment, and risk monitoring2.
•Identifying the risk owner also helps to clarify the roles and responsibilities of different parties involved in the risk management process, such as the risk manager, the risk analyst, the risk committee, and the risk auditor3. This can improve the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the risk management team and ensure that the risk is managed effectively and efficiently.
•Estimating the residual risk (option A) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because the residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk treatment plan has been implemented2. Therefore, estimating the residual risk requires prior steps such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk treatment.
•Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) (option B) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because KRIs are metrics or data points that provide early warning signals or information about the level or trend of a risk4. Therefore, establishing KRIs requires prior steps such as risk identification, risk analysis, and risk evaluation.
•Designing control improvements (option C) is not the first step when a new risk scenario has been identified, because control improvements are part of the risk treatment plan, which is the set of actions and resources needed to implement the chosen risk response strategy2. Therefore,designing control improvements requires prior steps such as risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk response selection.
References =
•Risk Owner - Institute of Internal Auditors
•Risk Treatment Plan - ISACA
•Risk Management Roles and Responsibilities - 360factors
•Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?
Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls
Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register
Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner
Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions
The best course of action for a risk practitioner who finds that the approved risk action plan has not been completed but other risk mitigation actions have been implemented is to verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner. This is because the risk owner is the person who is accountable for the risk and the risk response strategy, and therefore should be consulted to ensure that the alternative actions are adequate and effective in reducing the risk to an acceptable level. The other options are not the best course of action, although they may also be performed after verifying the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner. Reviewing the cost-benefit of mitigating controls, marking the risk status as unresolved within the risk register, and updating the risk register with implemented mitigating actions are secondary actions that depend on the outcome of the verification process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, p. 193.
Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?
A reduction in the number of help desk calls
An increase in the number of identified system flaws
A reduction in the number of user access resets
An increase in the number of incidents reported
A security awareness training program is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches12.
A risk-aware culture is a culture that values and promotes the understanding and management of risks, and encourages the behaviors and actions that support the organization’s risk objectives and strategy34.
The best indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees is an increase in the number of incidents reported, which is the frequency or rate of security incidents that are detected and communicated by the employees to the appropriate authorities or channels56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is the best indication because it shows that the employees have gained the awareness and confidence to recognize and report the security incidents that may affect the organization, and that they have the responsibility and accountability to contribute to the organization’s risk management and security posture56.
An increase in the number of incidents reported is also the best indication because it enables the organization to respond and recover from the security incidents more quickly and effectively, and to prevent or reduce the recurrence or escalation of similar incidents in the future56.
The other options are not the best indication, but rather possible outcomes or consequences of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program. For example:
A reduction in the number of help desk calls is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more self-reliant and proficient in solving or preventing the common or minor IT issues or problems . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may be more serious or complex .
An increase in the number of identified system flaws is a consequence of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more vigilant and proactive in finding and reporting the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the IT systems or processes . However, this consequence does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may exploit or leverage the system flaws .
A reduction in the number of user access resets is an outcome of an improved risk-aware culture or a security awareness training program that indicates the employees have become more careful and responsible in managing and protecting their user credentials or accounts . However, this outcome does not measure the employees’ awareness or reporting of security incidents, which may compromise or misuse the user access . References =
1: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US5
2: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky6
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Security Incident Reporting and Response, University of Toronto, 2017
6: Security Incident Reporting and Response, ISACA, 2019
IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2018
IT Help Desk Best Practices, ISACA Now Blog, February 12, 2018
System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, University of Toronto, 2017
System Flaw Reporting and Remediation, ISACA, 2019
User Access Management and Control, University of Toronto, 2017
User Access Management and Control, ISACA, 2019
Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?
User acceptance testing (UAT)
Database activity monitoring
Source code review
Vulnerability analysis
A source code review is the process of examining and analyzing the source code of an application to identify any vulnerabilities, errors, or flaws that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. A source code review is the most effective way to identify an application backdoor prior to implementation, as it can detect any hidden or unauthorized code that may allow unauthorized access, bypass security controls, or execute malicious commands. A source code review can also help to improvethe quality and reliability of the application, and ensure compliance with the coding standards and best practices. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 181.
In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?
Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data
Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements
The best way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed when an organization allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes is to require employees to sign nondisclosure agreements. Nondisclosure agreements are legal contracts that prohibit the employees from disclosing or sharing the company sensitive information with unauthorized parties, such as competitors, media, or regulators. Nondisclosure agreements also specify the scope, duration, and conditions of the nondisclosure obligation, and the penalties or remedies for breaching the agreement. Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements is the best way to protect company sensitive information, as it helps to prevent or deter the employees from exposing or leaking the company sensitive information on social media, and to hold the employees accountable and liable for their actions. Requiring employees to signnondisclosure agreements also helps to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements for data protection and privacy. Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential, implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, and taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data are also useful ways, but they are not as effective as requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements, as they are either dependent on the employees’ awareness or behavior, or reactive or corrective measures, rather than proactive or preventive measures. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?
Define information retention requirements and policies
Provide information security awareness training
Establish security management processes and procedures
Establish an inventory of information assets
The first thing that should be done from a governance perspective to secure the information assets of a newly incorporated enterprise is to establish an inventory of information assets. An inventory of information assets is a document that lists and categorizes all the information assets that the organization owns, uses, or manages, such as data, documents, systems, applications, and devices. An inventory of information assets helps to identify and classify the information assets based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality, and to determine the appropriate level of protection and control for each asset. An inventory of information assets also helps to support the development and implementation of other information security activities, such as risk assessment, policy formulation, awareness training, and incident response. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, although they may be important steps or components of the information security governance. Defining information retention requirements and policies, providing information security awareness training, and establishing security management processes and procedures are all activities that can help to secure the information assets, but theyrequire the prior knowledge and understanding of the information assets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, page 3-3.
Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?
RACI matrix
Financial models
Management support
Industry benchmarking
A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization's access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?
After the initial design
Before production rollout
After a few weeks in use
Before end-user testing
Providing opinions on control strength after the initial design is the best time for the risk practitioner, because it helps to ensure that the controls are aligned with the requirements and objectives of the new cloud-based service, and that they are effective and efficient in mitigating the risks associated with the service. A cloud-based service is a service that is delivered over the internet, where the service provider owns and manages the IT infrastructure, platforms, or applications, and the customer pays only for the resources or functions they use. An access management capability is a capability that enables the organization to control and monitor the access to its IT systems or networks, such as authentication, authorization, or auditing. Controls are policies, procedures, or mechanisms that help to reduce or eliminate the risks that may affect the security, reliability, performance, or compliance of the cloud-based service. Providing opinions on control strength after the initial design is the best time, as it allows the risk practitioner to review the design specifications and requirements, and to provide feedback and recommendations on the adequacy and suitability of the controls. Providing opinions on control strength before production rollout, after a few weeks in use, or before end-user testing are all possible times for the risk practitioner, but they are not the best time, as they may be too late or too early to influence the design and implementation of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, page 183
Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?
Application controls are manual.
Application development is outsourced.
Source code is escrowed.
Developers have access to production environment.
The production environment is the environment where the application is deployed and used by the end users. The production environment should be protected from unauthorized or unintended changes that could compromise the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the application and its data. Developers have access to the production environment presents the greatest risk to an application, as it could allow them tobypass the change management process, introduce errors or vulnerabilities, or manipulate the application or its data for malicious purposes. The other options are not as risky as developers having access to the production environment, as they involve different aspects of the application lifecycle:
Application controls are manual means that the application relies on human intervention to perform some functions or validations, such as data entry, reconciliation, or authorization. This could increase the risk of human error, fraud, or inefficiency, but it does not directly affect the production environment.
Application development is outsourced means that the application is developed by a third party, such as a vendor or a contractor. This could increase the risk of quality issues, contractual disputes, or intellectual property rights, but it does not directly affect the production environment.
Source code is escrowed means that the source code of the application is deposited with a trusted third party, such as a lawyer or a bank. This could provide assurance and continuity in case the original developer is unable or unwilling to maintain or support the application, but it does not directly affect the production environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1.1, pp. 144-145.
The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:
the third-party website manager
the business process owner
IT security
the compliance manager
The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is best owned by the business process owner, as they are ultimately responsible for the business objectives and outcomes that depend on the website. The business process owner should ensure that the website is adequately protected and that the customer data is handled in compliance with the relevant laws and regulations. The third-party website manager, IT security, and the compliance manager are all involved in managing the risk, but they are not the owners. The third-party website manager is responsible for the technical aspects of the website, such as hosting, maintenance, and performance. IT security is responsible for implementing and monitoring the security controls and policies for the website. The compliance manager is responsible for ensuring that the website meets the regulatory and contractual requirements. However, none of these roles have the authority or accountability to own the risk, as they are not directly affected by the business impact of the data loss. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 47.
An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Review the risk identification process.
Inform the risk scenario owners.
Create a risk awareness communication plan.
Update the risk register.
The best course of action when an audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile is to review the risk identification process. This is because the risk identification process is the first step in the risk management process and it is responsible for identifying and assessing the potential risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. If the risk identification process is not effective, it may result in incomplete, inaccurate, or outdated risk profiles that do not reflect the current environment and the associated risks. Therefore, reviewing the risk identification process will help to ensure that the risk profile is updated and aligned with the changes in the environment and the organization’s strategy. References = Responding to Audit Findings
Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?
Management intervention
Risk appetite
Board commentary
Escalation triggers
The best answer is D. Escalation triggers. Escalation triggers are predefined thresholds or conditions that indicate when a key risk indicator (KRI) has reached a critical level that requires immediate attention or action. Escalation triggers can be based on quantitative or qualitative measures, such as percentages, scores, ratings, or colors. Escalation triggers can help to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk, because they provide clear and timely signals that alert the risk owners, managers, and other stakeholders of the need to review and revise the risk response plan, or to implement additional or alternative controls. Escalation triggers can also help to communicate and report the risk status and the risk response actions to the senior management and the board, and to obtain their support and approval, if needed. The otheroptions are not the best answer, although they may be related or influential to the KRI and the risk mitigation. Management intervention is a part of the risk response process, which involves the actions and decisions taken by the management to address the risk, such as approving, implementing, or monitoring the controls. Management intervention can help to mitigate risk, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a consequence or a result of the escalation triggers. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite can help to define and align the KRI and the escalation triggers with the organizational strategy and culture, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a factor or a driver of the KRI. Board commentary is a part of the risk reporting process, which involves the feedback and guidance provided by the board on the risk management process and performance. Board commentary can help to improve and enhance the KRI and the risk mitigation, but it is not a component of the KRI, rather it is a source or a resource of the KRI. References = Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva
Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?
Risk management framework
Risk register
Global security standards
Recent security incidents reported by competitors
The most relevant source to reference when updating security awareness training materials is the recent security incidents reported by competitors. This can help to illustrate the real-world threats and consequences of poor security practices, and to motivate the employees to follow the security policies and procedures. Risk management framework, risk register, and global security standards are other sources that may be useful, but they are not as relevant as the recent security incidents. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 9; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 214.
An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?
Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.
Analyze the impact of the provider's control weaknesses to the business.
Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider's control weaknesses.
Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.
An independent security audit report is a document that provides an objective and comprehensive assessment of the security posture and practices of a cloud service provider (CSP), based on a set of standards, criteria, or frameworks1. An independent security audit report can help an organization to evaluate the risks and benefits of using a CSP, and to ensure that the CSP meets the organization’s security and compliance requirements2.
If an organization receives an independent security audit report of its CSP that indicates significant control weaknesses, the next step that should be done in response to this report is to analyze the impact of the provider’s control weaknesses to the business. This means that the organization should:
Identify and prioritize the business processes, functions, or objectives that depend on or are affected by the CSP’s services
Assess the potential consequences and likelihood of the control weaknesses leading to security incidents, breaches, or losses
Estimate the financial, operational, reputational, or legal impacts of the security incidents, breaches, or losses
Compare the impacts with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and determine the level of risk exposure and acceptance
Communicate the results of the analysis to the relevant stakeholders and decision-makers3
References = What is a Security Audit?, Cloud Security Audit: A 10-Step Checklist, Independent security audits are essential for cloud service providers. Here’s why
Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?
Likelihood of a threat
Impact of technology risk
Impact of operational risk
Control weakness
A vulnerability report for the IT infrastructure is a document that identifies and evaluates the weaknesses or gaps in the IT systems, networks, or devices that could be exploited by threats or cause incidents. By analyzing the latest vulnerability report, one can conclude the existence and extent of control weaknesses in the IT infrastructure, because control weaknesses are the deficiencies or failures of the controls that are supposed to prevent, detect, or correct the vulnerabilities. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not directly concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report. The likelihood of a threat, the impact of technology risk, and the impact of operational risk are examples of risk factors or consequencesthat depend on the vulnerability and the threat, but they are not determined by the vulnerability report alone. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?
Standard operating procedures
SWOT analysis
Industry benchmarking
Control gap analysis
New risk exposures due to changes in the business environment are the possibilities and impacts of new or emerging threats or opportunities that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation, as a result of changes in the internal or external factors that influence the organization’s operations, such as technology, competition, regulation, or customer behavior12.
The most helpful tool in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment is a SWOT analysis, which is a technique that involves identifying and analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) that are relevant to the organization’s situation, goals, and capabilities34.
A SWOT analysis is the most helpful tool because it helps the organization to scan and assess the business environment, and to identify and prioritize the new or emerging risk exposures that may arise from the changes in the environment34.
A SWOT analysis is also the most helpful tool because it helps the organization to align and adapt its strategy and actions to the changes in the environment, and to leverage its strengths and opportunities, and mitigate its weaknesses and threats34.
The other options are not the most helpful tools, but rather possible sources or inputs that may be used in a SWOT analysis. For example:
Standard operating procedures are documents that describe the routine tasks and processes that are performed by the organization, and the policies and standards that govern them56. However, these documents are not the most helpful tools because they may not reflect or capture the changes in the business environment, and they may need to be revised or updated to address the new or emerging risk exposures56.
Industry benchmarking is a technique that involves comparing and contrasting the performance and practices of the organization with those of the similar or leadingorganizations in the same or related industry, and identifying the gaps or opportunities for improvement78. However, this technique is not the most helpful tool because it may not provide a comprehensive or holistic view of the business environment, and it may not align with the organization’s specific situation, goals, or capabilities78.
Control gap analysis is a technique that involves assessing and evaluating the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls that are designed and implemented to mitigate the risks, and identifying and addressing the areas or aspects that need to be improved or added . However, this technique is not the most helpful tool because it is reactive rather than proactive, and it may not identify or anticipate the new or emerging risk exposures that may result from the changes in the business environment . References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: SWOT Analysis - ISACA1
4: SWOT Analysis: What It Is and When to Use It2
5: Standard Operating Procedure - Wikipedia3
6: How to Write Effective Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)4
7: Benchmarking - Wikipedia5
8: Benchmarking: Definition, Types, Process, Advantages & Examples6
Control Gap Analysis - ISACA7
Control Gap Analysis: A Step-by-Step Guide8
Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?
Process ownership
Risk appetite statement
Risk tolerance levels
Risk response options
Risk response options are the most important factor to determine as a result of a risk assessment, as they involve selecting the optimal strategy and actions to address the identified and assessed risks, and align them with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. Process ownership, risk appetite statement, and risk tolerance levels are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the governance, definition, or communication of the risk, respectively, rather than the response to the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.
Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.
Implement key control indicators (KCIs).
Escalate the control failures to senior management.
The first step is to assess whether the ineffective controls result in residual risk exceeding the risk appetite. This establishes the urgency and priority of remediation efforts and ensures alignment with enterprise risk thresholds, reflecting principles ofRisk Assessment and Prioritization.
Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?
Change management as determined by a change control board
Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects
Project governance criteria as determined by the project office
The risk owner as determined by risk management processes
Deviation from a mitigation action plan’s completion date should be determined by the risk owner as determined by risk management processes, because the risk owner is the person or entity who has the accountability and authority to manage the risk and its associated mitigation actions. The risk owner should monitor and report the progress and status of the mitigation action plan, and determine if there is any deviation from the expected completion date, based on the risk management processes and criteria. The other options are not the ones who should determine the deviation, because:
Option A: Change management as determined by a change control board is a process that ensures that any changes to the project scope, schedule, cost, or quality are controlled and approved, but it does not determine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity.
Option B: Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects is a technique that compares the performance and practices of the current project with those of similar or successful projects, but it does not determine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity.
Option C: Project governance criteria as determined by the project office is a set of rules and standards that define the roles, responsibilities, and authority of the project stakeholders, but it does notdetermine the deviation from the mitigation action plan’s completion date, which is a risk management activity. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 122.
A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?
Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.
Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.
Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.
Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization's risk tolerance.
Preparing a risk response that is aligned to the organization’s risk tolerance is the next step after completing a risk assessment and reporting the validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation to the application owner, because it helps to define and implement the appropriate actions to reduce or eliminate the risk, or to prepare for and recover from the potentialconsequences. A risk response is a strategy or tactic for managing the identified risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. A risk response should be aligned to the organization’s risk tolerance, which is the acceptable level of variation from the organization’s objectives or expectations. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in an IT system or application that can be exploited by a threat or attack to cause harm or damage. A vulnerability finding is a result of a vulnerability assessment, which is a process of identifying and evaluating the vulnerabilities in an IT system or application. A vulnerability finding requires mitigation, which is a type of risk response that involves applying controls or countermeasures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk. Therefore, preparing a risk response that is aligned to the organization’s risk tolerance is the next step, as it helps to address the vulnerability findings and to achieve the desired level of risk. Reporting the findings to executive management, reassessing each vulnerability, and conducting a penetration test are all possible steps to perform afterpreparing a risk response, but they are not the next step, as they depend on the results and approval of the risk response. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 103
A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?
The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.
The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.
The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision-making.
The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.
The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision making would pose the greatest concern for a risk practitioner who is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register, as it indicates a lack of clarity and specificity on who is accountable for the risk and its response. The risk owner should be an individual, not a department, who has the authority and responsibility to manage the risk and its associated controls. The other options are not the greatest concern, as they do not necessarily imply a lack of accountability, but rather a possible difference in roles and responsibilities between the risk owner and the control owner, the business unit and the IT department, or the staff member and the department manager. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:
is updated based upon significant events.
documents possible countermeasures.
contains the risk assessment completion date.
is regularly audited.
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, responses, and owners. It is a living document that should be updated regularly to reflect the changes in therisk environment and the status of the risk responses12. The best way to improve a risk register is to ensure that it is updated based upon significant events, such as:
New risks are identified or existing risks are eliminated
Risk probabilities or impacts change due to internal or external factors
Risk responses are implemented or modified
Risk owners or stakeholders change
Risk incidents or issues occur
Risk thresholds or appetite change
Risk reporting or communication requirements change
Updating the risk register based upon significant events can help to:
Maintain the accuracy and relevance of the risk information
Enhance the risk awareness and accountability of the risk owners and stakeholders
Support the risk monitoring and reporting activities
Facilitate the risk evaluation and decision-making processes
Improve the risk management performance and maturity
References =
Risk Register - Project Management Knowledge
How to Create a Risk Register: A Step-by-Step Guide - ProjectManager.com
Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs)?
Activity logging and monitoring
Periodic access review
Two-factor authentication
Awareness training and background checks
According to the CRISC Review Manual, activity logging and monitoring is the best way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs), because it enables the detection and prevention of unauthorized or inappropriate actions on the database. Activity logging and monitoring involves capturing and reviewing the activities of the DBAs, such as the commands executed, the data accessed or modified, the privileges used,and the time and duration of the sessions. Activity logging and monitoring can also provide an audit trail for accountability and forensic purposes. The other options are not the best ways to manage the risk, because they do not directly address the malicious activities of the DBAs. Periodic access review is a control that verifies the appropriateness of the access rights granted to the DBAs, but it does not monitor their actual activities. Two-factor authentication is a control that enhances the security of the authentication process, but it does not prevent the DBAs from performing malicious activities once they are authenticated. Awareness training and background checks are controls that aim to reduce the likelihood of the DBAs engaging in malicious activities, but they do not guarantee their compliance or behavior. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.3, page 166.
The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:
encrypting the data
including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract
assessing the data classification scheme
reviewing CSP access privileges
Encrypting the data would MOST effectively reduce the risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP), because it is a control that protects the confidentiality and integrity of the data by transforming it into an unreadable and unmodifiable form, using a secret key or algorithm. Encrypting the data can prevent or minimize the unauthorized or accidental access, modification, or leakage of the data, especially when the data is stored, transmitted, or processed in a public cloud environment, which may have less security and control than a private or on-premise environment. The other options are not as effective as encrypting the data, because:
Option B: Including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract is a legal measure that can deter or penalize the CSP from disclosing the data to any third party, but it does not reduce the risk of inadvertent disclosure of the data, which may occur due to human error, system failure, or malicious attack, and it does not protect the data from unauthorized or accidental access, modification, or leakage.
Option C: Assessing the data classification scheme is a process that can help to identify and categorize the data according to its sensitivity, value, and criticality, and to determine the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data, but it does not reduce the risk of inadvertent disclosure of the data, which may affect any type or class of data, and it does not provide the specific or effective control to protect the data from unauthorized or accidental access, modification, or leakage.
Option D: Reviewing CSP access privileges is a procedure that can help to monitor and verify the access rights and permissions of the CSP to the data, and to ensure that they are aligned with the business needs and expectations, but it does not reduce the risk of inadvertent disclosure of the data, which may occur even with the legitimate or authorized access of the CSP, and it does not protect the data from unauthorized or accidental access, modification, or leakage by otherparties. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 211.
Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?
Network monitoring infrastructure
Centralized vulnerability management
Incident management process
Centralized log management
According to the CRISC Review Manual, centralized log management is the best way to assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization’s network, because it enables the collection, correlation, analysis, and retention of log data from various sources. Centralized log management can provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the activities and transactions that occurred before, during, and after the incident, and can facilitate the identification of the root cause, impact, and scope of the incident. The other options are not the best ways to assist in reconstructing the sequence of events, because they do not provide the same level of detail and accuracy as centralized log management. Network monitoring infrastructure is a tool that helps to monitor the performance and availability of the network, but it does not capture the log data from the IT systems. Centralized vulnerability management is a process that helps to identify and remediate the vulnerabilities in the IT systems, but it does not record the events and transactions that occurred on the systems. Incident management process is a process that helps to respond to and resolve the incidents, but it does not provide the log data from the IT systems. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 263.
TESTED 16 Jun 2025
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