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CRISC Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

A.

Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.

B.

Escalate the situation to risk leadership.

C.

Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.

D.

Review system and process documentation.

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Question # 7

Which of the following would BEST prevent an unscheduled application of a patch?

A.

Network-based access controls

B.

Compensating controls

C.

Segregation of duties

D.

Change management

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Question # 8

Which of the following is a KEY outcome of risk ownership?

A.

Risk responsibilities are addressed.

B.

Risk-related information is communicated.

C.

Risk-oriented tasks are defined.

D.

Business process risk is analyzed.

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Question # 9

Recent penetration testing of an organization ' s software has identified many different types of security risks. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause for the identified risk?

A.

SIEM software is producing faulty alerts.

B.

Threat modeling was not utilized in the software design process.

C.

The configuration management process is not applied consistently during development.

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) tool has not been properly integrated into the software.

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Question # 10

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRI thresholds

B.

Integrity of the source data

C.

Control environment

D.

Stakeholder requirements

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Question # 11

An application runs a scheduled job that compiles financial data from multiple business systems and updates the financial reporting system. If this job runs too long, it can delay financial reporting. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation?

A.

Implement database activity and capacity monitoring.

B.

Ensure the business is aware of the risk.

C.

Ensure the enterprise has a process to detect such situations.

D.

Consider providing additional system resources to this job.

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Question # 12

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Question # 13

A risk practitioner ' s BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 14

Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?

A.

Industry trends in Al

B.

Expected algorithm outputs

C.

Data feeds

D.

Alert functionality

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Question # 15

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

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Question # 16

Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?

A.

Customized regional training on local laws and regulations

B.

Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions

C.

Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture

D.

Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers

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Question # 17

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern when changes to firewall rules do not follow change management requirements?

A.

Potential audit findings

B.

Insufficient risk governance

C.

Potential business impact

D.

Inaccurate documentation

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Question # 18

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

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Question # 19

A business unit has implemented robotic process automation (RPA) for its

repetitive back-office tasks. Which of the following should be the risk

practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

A.

The security team is unaware of the implementation.

B.

The organization may lose institutional knowledge.

C.

The robots may fail to work effectively.

D.

Virtual clients are used for implementation.

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Question # 20

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?

A.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

B.

An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions

C.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

D.

A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)

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Question # 21

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

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Question # 22

Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization ' s risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:

A.

is in charge of information security.

B.

is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

can implement remediation action plans.

D.

is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.

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Question # 23

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization ' s risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

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Question # 24

Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?

A.

The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.

B.

Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.

C.

Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.

D.

A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.

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Question # 25

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 26

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

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Question # 27

Which of the following is the MOST important concern when assigning multiple risk owners for an identified risk?

A.

Accountability may not be clearly defined.

B.

Risk ratings may be inconsistently applied.

C.

Different risk taxonomies may be used.

D.

Mitigation efforts may be duplicated.

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Question # 28

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 29

The GREATEST benefit of introducing continuous monitoring to an IT control environment is that it:

A.

Enables timely detection of emerging risk

B.

Enables the collection of benchmarking data

C.

Identifies stakeholders involved in the process

D.

Helps to obtain buy-in for future IT investments

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Question # 30

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

A.

Encryption policy

B.

Organization risk profile

C.

Digital rights management policy

D.

Information classification policy

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Question # 31

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor ' s control environment?

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor ' s recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

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Question # 32

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization ' s:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

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Question # 33

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Testing is completed in phases, with user testing scheduled as the final phase.

B.

Segregation of duties controls are overridden during user testing phases.

C.

Data anonymization is used during all cycles of end-user testing.

D.

Testing is completed by IT support users without input from end users.

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Question # 34

A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:

A.

mature

B.

ineffective.

C.

optimized.

D.

inefficient.

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Question # 35

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST important action to reduce the likelihood of internal fraud?

A.

Recommend fraud awareness training for staff

B.

Communicate legal consequences for internal fraud.

C.

Update the internal fraud risk likelihood in the risk register.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of separation of duties.

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Question # 36

Which of the following is the BEST control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT)?

A.

Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls

B.

Conducting regular penetration tests

C.

Monitoring social media activities

D.

Implementing automated log monitoring

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Question # 37

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

A.

Identifying users who have access

B.

Selecting an encryption solution

C.

Defining the data retention period

D.

Determining the value of data

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Question # 38

How does an organization benefit by purchasing cyber theft insurance?

A.

It decreases the amount of organizational loss if risk events occur.

B.

It justifies the acceptance of risk associated with cyber theft events.

C.

It transfers risk ownership along with associated liabilities to a third party.

D.

It decreases the likelihood of risk events occurring.

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Question # 39

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

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Question # 40

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

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Question # 41

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY recipient of reports showing the

progress of a current IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Senior management

B.

Project manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

IT risk manager

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Question # 42

Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?

A.

Corrective

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 43

An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?

A.

Data classification schemes

B.

Industry data breach reports

C.

Data storage locations

D.

Data flow documentation

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Question # 44

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

A.

Perform an in-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

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Question # 45

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

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Question # 46

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

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Question # 47

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?

A.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed

B.

Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding

C.

Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities

D.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed

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Question # 48

Which of the following is the MOST important risk management activity during project initiation?

A.

Defining key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Classifying project data

C.

Identifying key risk stakeholders

D.

Establishing a risk mitigation plan

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Question # 49

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Question # 50

A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?

A.

A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.

B.

A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.

C.

Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.

D.

Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.

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Question # 51

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

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Question # 52

Which of the following is BEST used to aggregate data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior?

A.

Cyber threat intelligence

B.

Anti-malware software

C.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

D.

SIEM systems

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Question # 53

Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:

A.

the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters

B.

international law and a uniform set of regulations.

C.

the laws and regulations of each individual country

D.

international standard-setting bodies.

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Question # 54

An organization ' s senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

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Question # 55

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 56

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

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Question # 57

Following the identification of a risk associated with a major organizational change, which of the following is MOST important to update in the IT risk register?

A.

The risk owner

B.

The person who identified the risk

C.

The control owner

D.

The risk response owner

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Question # 58

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines?

A.

Configuration validation

B.

Control attestation

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit review

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Question # 59

IT stakeholders have asked a risk practitioner for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments to allocate resources for risk mitigation. The BEST way to address this request would be to use:

A.

the cost associated with each control.

B.

historical risk assessments.

C.

key risk indicators (KRls).

D.

information from the risk register.

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Question # 60

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?

A.

Application monitoring

B.

Separation of duty

C.

Least privilege

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Question # 61

An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?

A.

Qualitative method

B.

Industry calibration method

C.

Threat-based method

D.

Quantitative method

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Question # 62

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

A.

The organization ' s knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization ' s culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

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Question # 63

Which of the following indicators measures the performance of IT configuration management?

A.

Number of devices reviewed for compliance

B.

Number of devices adhering to baseline settings

C.

Number of devices exceeding minimum configuration

D.

Number of devices not reporting configuration data

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Question # 64

An organization ' s chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization ' s risk:

A.

capacity.

B.

appetite.

C.

management capability.

D.

treatment strategy.

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Question # 65

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

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Question # 66

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

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Question # 67

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?

A.

Protecting the organization from negative publicity

B.

Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence

C.

Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers

D.

Preventing further dissemination of customer information

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Question # 68

A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?

A.

Assessing risk with no controls in place

B.

Showing projected residual risk

C.

Providing peer benchmarking results

D.

Assessing risk with current controls in place

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Question # 69

Which of the following would be MOST effective in monitoring changes in an organization ' s IT risk environment?

A.

Lagging indicators

B.

Risk mitigation plans

C.

Industry regulatory reports

D.

Risk inventory

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Question # 70

Which of the following is MOST important to add to the risk register for a remediated risk scenario?

A.

Notification to technical teams of implementation schedules

B.

Sign-off by senior executives

C.

Evidence of successfully implemented controls

D.

Minutes from control design meetings

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Question # 71

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

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Question # 72

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

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Question # 73

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Question # 74

Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?

A.

Using the risk management process

B.

Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance

C.

Reviewing results of the annual company external audit

D.

Adopting internationally accepted controls

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Question # 75

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 76

After the implementation of a remediation plan, an assessment of associated control design and operating effectiveness can determine the level of:

A.

residual risk.

B.

aggregated risk.

C.

audit risk.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 77

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

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Question # 78

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

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Question # 79

An organization ' s risk profile indicates that residual risk levels have fallen significantly below management ' s risk appetite. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Decrease monitoring of residual risk levels.

B.

Optimize controls.

C.

Increase risk appetite.

D.

Add more risk scenarios to the risk register.

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Question # 80

An organization has received notification that it is a potential victim of a cybercrime that may have compromised sensitive customer data. What should be The FIRST course of action?

A.

Invoke the incident response plan.

B.

Determine the business impact.

C.

Conduct a forensic investigation.

D.

Invoke the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Question # 81

After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager s NEXT step should be to:

A.

determine if the scenarios need 10 be accepted or responded to.

B.

record the scenarios into the risk register.

C.

continue with a qualitative risk analysis.

D.

continue with a quantitative risk analysis.

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Question # 82

Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?

A.

Requiring a printer access code for each user

B.

Using physical controls to access the printer room

C.

Using video surveillance in the printer room

D.

Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured

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Question # 83

Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?

A.

Business management approval of change requests

B.

Separation of development and production environments

C.

Requirement of an implementation rollback plan

D.

IT management review of implemented changes

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Question # 84

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use administrative controls in conjunction with technical controls?

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

C.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

D.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

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Question # 85

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

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Question # 86

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 87

Of the following, who should be responsible for determining the inherent risk rating of an application?

A.

Application owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 88

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of the three lines model for risk management?

A.

The model shows how to effectively apply oversight and monitoring for the purpose of mitigating risk.

B.

The model states that only employees are responsible for IT risk management.

C.

The model provides clear delineation of roles and responsibilities for managing IT risk.

D.

The model stipulates that senior management is responsible for IT risk management activities.

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Question # 89

Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

The value at which control effectiveness would fail

B.

Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations

C.

A typical operational value

D.

A value that represents the intended control state

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Question # 90

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

A.

The effectiveness of compensating controls

B.

The enterprise ' s capacity to absorb loss

C.

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

D.

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

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Question # 91

Which of the following requirements is MOST important to include in an outsourcing contract to help ensure sensitive data stored with a service provider is secure?

A.

A third-party assessment report of control environment effectiveness must be provided at least annually.

B.

Incidents related to data toss must be reported to the organization immediately after they occur.

C.

Risk assessment results must be provided to the organization at least annually.

D.

A cyber insurance policy must be purchased to cover data loss events.

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Question # 92

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

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Question # 93

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?

A.

Results of risk remediation team interviews

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

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Question # 94

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Question # 95

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when identifying and assigning ownership of IT-related risk?

A.

Accountability for control operation

B.

Ability to design controls to mitigate the risk

C.

Accountability for losses due to impact

D.

Span of control within the organization

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Question # 96

A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

A.

Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.

B.

Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.

C.

Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.

D.

Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.

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Question # 97

A new risk practitioner finds that decisions for implementing risk response plans are not being made. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this situation?

A.

Risk ownership is not being assigned properly.

B.

The organization has a high level of risk appetite.

C.

Risk management procedures are outdated.

D.

The organization ' s risk awareness program is ineffective.

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Question # 98

The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:

A.

the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.

B.

security controls are tested prior to implementation.

C.

compliance with corporate policies.

D.

the risk response strategy has been decided.

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Question # 99

Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?

A.

Reviewing the organization ' s policies and procedures

B.

Interviewing groups of key stakeholders

C.

Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders

D.

Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues

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Question # 100

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Placement on the risk map

C.

Degree of variances in the risk

D.

Cost of risk mitigation

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Question # 101

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

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Question # 102

Which of the following is the BEST way to address a board ' s concern about the organization ' s current cybersecurity posture?

A.

Increase the frequency of vulnerability testing.

B.

Assess security capabilities against an industry framework

C.

Update security risk scenarios.

D.

Create a new security risk officer role.

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Question # 103

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate risk assessments to senior management?

A.

To ensure actions can be taken to align assessment results to risk appetite

B.

To ensure key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds can be adjusted for tolerance

C.

To ensure awareness of risk and controls is shared with key decision makers

D.

To ensure the maturity of the assessment program can be validated

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Question # 104

Which of the following BEST prevents unauthorized access to customer personal data transmitted to third-party service providers?

A.

Reviewing and testing service providers ' business continuity plans (BCPs)

B.

Ensuring service providers comply with laws and regulations

C.

Implementing and reviewing data sharing controls

D.

Requiring service providers to report privacy breaches

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Question # 105

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

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Question # 106

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

A.

Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

B.

Ensure the alignment of the organization ' s policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C.

Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

D.

Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

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Question # 107

A PRIMARY function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization ' s risk:

A.

strategy.

B.

profile.

C.

process.

D.

map.

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Question # 108

If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7

A.

Evaluate alternative controls.

B.

Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.

C.

Develop a plan to upgrade technology.

D.

Define a process for monitoring risk.

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Question # 109

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

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Question # 110

During a data loss incident, which role in the RACI chart would be aligned to the risk practitioner?

A.

Responsible

B.

Accountable

C.

Informed

D.

Consulted

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Question # 111

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

A.

A management-approved risk dashboard

B.

A current control framework

C.

A regularly updated risk register

D.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

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Question # 112

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 113

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting risk and control self-assessments?

A.

To better understand inherent and residual risk within the organization

B.

To gain objective insight into the effectiveness and efficiency of controls

C.

To demonstrate compliance with regulatory and legal control requirements

D.

To facilitate timely and accurate updates to the risk register

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Question # 114

An organization is implementing encryption for data at rest to reduce the risk associated with unauthorized access. Which of the following MUST be considered to assess the residual risk?

A.

Data retention requirements

B.

Data destruction requirements

C.

Cloud storage architecture

D.

Key management

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Question # 115

In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?

A.

Potential benefits from use of Al solutions

B.

Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions

C.

Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions

D.

Skills required to support Al solutions

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Question # 116

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

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Question # 117

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Question # 118

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly?

A.

Time required for backup restoration testing

B.

Change in size of data backed up

C.

Successful completion of backup operations

D.

Percentage of failed restore tests

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Question # 119

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

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Question # 120

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Question # 121

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

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Question # 122

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

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Question # 123

An organization is reviewing a contract for a Software as a Service (SaaS) sales application with a 99.9% uptime service level agreement (SLA). Which of the following BEST describes ownership of availability risk?

A.

The risk is shared by both organizations.

B.

The liability for the risk is owned by the cloud provider.

C.

The risk is transferred to the cloud provider.

D.

The liability for the risk is owned by the sales department.

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Question # 124

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Question # 125

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i < the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

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Question # 126

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

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Question # 127

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

B.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

C.

Date and status of the last project milestone

D.

The individuals assigned ownership of controls

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Question # 128

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

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Question # 129

An organization’s expense claim system allows users to split large transactions into smaller ones to bypass limits. What should the risk practitioner do?

A.

Conduct an audit to determine the frequency of occurrence

B.

Update the probability in the risk register

C.

Create a noncompliance risk scenario

D.

Weigh compliance against the cost-benefit

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Question # 130

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

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Question # 131

Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?

A.

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

B.

Cost of the information system

C.

Availability of additional compensating controls

D.

Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels

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Question # 132

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

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Question # 133

A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

A.

Internal audit

B.

Control owner

C.

Senior management

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 134

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

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Question # 135

Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities

B.

Determining attack likelihood per business unit

C.

Adjusting business unit risk tolerances

D.

Customizing incident response plans for each business unit

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Question # 136

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) method of risk analysis:

A.

helps in calculating the expected cost of controls

B.

uses qualitative risk rankings such as low. medium and high.

C.

can be used m a cost-benefit analysts

D.

can be used to determine the indirect business impact.

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Question # 137

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following is the BEST way to promote a risk-aware culture?

A.

Emphasize individual responsibility for managing risk.

B.

Communicate incident escalation procedures.

C.

Illustrate methods to identify threats and vulnerabilities.

D.

Challenge the effectiveness of business processes.

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Question # 138

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Time between backups for critical data

B.

Sensitivity of business data involved

C.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

D.

Maximum tolerable data loss after an incident

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Question # 139

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise ' s brand on Internet sites?

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise ' s use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

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Question # 140

What is the BEST course of action when the business impact of a risk event is rated high, but the likelihood of risk materialization has decreased?

A.

Adjust risk tolerance thresholds.

B.

Adjust the associated key risk indicator (KRI).

C.

Further mitigate the risk.

D.

Accept the risk if within tolerance.

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Question # 141

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Question # 142

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Question # 143

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an enhanced risk-aware culture?

A.

Users have read and agreed to comply with security policies.

B.

Risk issues are openly discussed within the organization.

C.

Scores have improved on risk awareness quizzes.

D.

There is a decrease in the number of reported incidents.

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Question # 144

A business impact analysis (BIA) enables an organization to determine appropriate IT risk mitigation actions by:

A.

validating whether critical IT risk has been addressed.

B.

assigning accountability for IT risk to business functions.

C.

identifying IT assets that support key business processes.

D.

defining the requirements for an IT risk-aware culture

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Question # 145

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department ' s roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization ' s information security risk profile

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Question # 146

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

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Question # 147

Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?

A.

Business impact assessment (BIA)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Risk profile

D.

Industry benchmark analysis

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Question # 148

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action is to:

A.

identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring

B.

validate the CTO ' s decision with the business process owner

C.

update the risk register with the selected risk response

D.

recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

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Question # 149

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:

A.

identify specific project risk.

B.

obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.

C.

understand risk associated with complex processes.

D.

incorporate subject matter expertise.

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Question # 150

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization ' s risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization ' s vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

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Question # 151

An organization ' s IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

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Question # 152

Which of the following information is MOST useful to a risk practitioner for developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Published vulnerabilities relevant to the business

B.

Threat actors that can trigger events

C.

Events that could potentially impact the business

D.

IT assets requiring the greatest investment

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Question # 153

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

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Question # 154

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

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Question # 155

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Including trend analysis of risk metrics

B.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data

D.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

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Question # 156

A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?

A.

Business analyst

B.

Project sponsor

C.

IT project team

D.

IT project management office (PMO)

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Question # 157

The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:

A.

reduce subjectivity in risk management.

B.

comply with regulatory requirements.

C.

demonstrate best industry practice.

D.

improve visibility of overall risk exposure.

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Question # 158

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization ' s secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Question # 159

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine software license compliance?

A.

List non-compliant systems in the risk register.

B.

Conduct periodic compliance reviews.

C.

Review whistleblower reports of noncompliance.

D.

Monitor user software download activity.

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Question # 160

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner ' s NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?

A.

Enhance the security awareness program.

B.

Increase the frequency of incident reporting.

C.

Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.

D.

Conduct a control assessment.

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Question # 161

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

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Question # 162

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of aligning generic risk scenarios with business objectives?

A.

It establishes where controls should be implemented.

B.

It ensures relevance to the organization.

C.

It quantifies the materiality of any losses that may occur.

D.

It provides better estimates of the impact of current threats.

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Question # 163

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user ' s manager

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Question # 164

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

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Question # 165

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

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Question # 166

Which of the following is MOST helpful to facilitate the decision of recovery priorities in a disaster situation?

A.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

B.

Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Risk Scenario Analysis

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Question # 167

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

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Question # 168

The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:

A.

plan awareness programs for business managers.

B.

evaluate maturity of the risk management process.

C.

assist in the development of a risk profile.

D.

maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.

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Question # 169

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when analyzing the risk associated with migrating to a new cloud service provider?

A.

The cloud service provider ' s control environment

B.

The complexity of the cloud services

C.

The date of the cloud service provider ' s last risk assessment

D.

Past incidents related to acquired cloud services

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Question # 170

Which of the following observations would be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner evaluating an organization ' s risk management practices?

A.

Senior management has approved numerous requests for risk acceptance.

B.

Business leaders provide final approval for information security policies.

C.

Several risk scenarios have action plans spanning multiple years.

D.

Senior management does not set risk tolerance.

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Question # 171

Which of the following is the MOST essential characteristic of a good IT risk scenario?

A.

The scenario is aligned to business control processes.

B.

The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

The scenario is aligned to a business objective.

D.

The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology.

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Question # 172

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

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Question # 173

Technical controls affecting access permissions for systems should be implemented according to:

A.

Integration testing requirements.

B.

Separation of duties.

C.

Configuration baselines.

D.

Contingency scenarios.

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Question # 174

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

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Question # 175

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

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Question # 176

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

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Question # 177

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service

provider during a vendor risk assessment?

A.

Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Independent audit report

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 178

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?

A.

The type of shared data

B.

The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented

C.

The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified

D.

The impact to affected stakeholders

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Question # 179

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization ' s account provisioning process?

A.

User provisioning

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Security log monitoring

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Question # 180

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

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Question # 181

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when assessing whether an organization has appropriately managed its level of risk compared to its established risk appetite?

A.

Inherent risk

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk trend

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 182

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

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Question # 183

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) provides the BEST insight into the risk associated with IT systems being unable to meet the required availability service level in the future?

A.

Percentage of IT systems having defined incident management service levels

B.

Percentage of IT systems having met the availability service level

C.

Percentage of IT outsourced systems having met the availability service level

D.

Percentage of IT systems routinely running at peak utilization

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Question # 184

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

A.

Review vendors ' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

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Question # 185

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

A.

Regional competitors ' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

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Question # 186

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?

A.

Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.

B.

Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.

C.

Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.

D.

Document the risk decision in the project risk register.

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Question # 187

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization ' s risk taxonomy?

A.

Leading industry frameworks

B.

Business context

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

IT strategy

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Question # 188

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Question # 189

An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated

cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of

action?

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Identify compensating controls

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds.

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Question # 190

Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of what type of control?

A.

Detective

B.

Compensating

C.

Corrective

D.

Preventive

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Question # 191

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

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Question # 192

Which of The following should be of GREATEST concern for an organization considering the adoption of a bring your own device (BYOD) initiative?

A.

Device corruption

B.

Data loss

C.

Malicious users

D.

User support

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Question # 193

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

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Question # 194

Which of the following is the MOST important component in a risk treatment plan?

A.

Technical details

B.

Target completion date

C.

Treatment plan ownership

D.

Treatment plan justification

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Question # 195

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Question # 196

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for managing emerging risk?

A.

The organization is likely to become prone to continuous disruptive events.

B.

Risk assessment methodologies cannot be applied to emerging risk.

C.

Assumptions about the future state are likely to become invalid.

D.

The number of risk scenarios may become uncontrollably high.

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Question # 197

A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?

A.

Code review

B.

Penetration test

C.

Gap assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 198

After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?

A.

A decrease in threats

B.

A change in the risk profile

C.

An increase in reported vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in identified risk scenarios

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Question # 199

Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

A.

Cloud service provider

B.

IT department

C.

Senior management

D.

Business unit owner

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Question # 200

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on ensuring the alignment of the risk profile with business objectives?

A.

An effective enterprise-wide risk awareness program

B.

Senior management approval of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Stage gate reviews throughout the risk management process

D.

Incorporation of industry best practice benchmarks and standards

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Question # 201

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

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Question # 202

A new software package that could help mitigate risk in an organization has become available. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Review industry best practice.

D.

Review risk governance policies.

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Question # 203

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 204

Senior leadership has set guidelines for the integration of a new acquisition. The guidelines allow for a variation in the level of risk-taking. The variation indicates which of the following risk management concepts?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk sensitivity

D.

Risk velocity

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Question # 205

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Question # 206

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?

A.

To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained

B.

To allow for proper review of risk tolerance

C.

To identify dependencies for reporting risk

D.

To provide consistent and clear terminology

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Question # 207

An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?

A.

IT service desk manager

B.

Sales manager

C.

Customer service manager

D.

Access control manager

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Question # 208

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

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Question # 209

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

A.

Increase in mitigating control costs

B.

Increase in risk event impact

C.

Increase in risk event likelihood

D.

Increase in cybersecurity premium

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Question # 210

A risk owner should be the person accountable for:

A.

the risk management process

B.

managing controls.

C.

implementing actions.

D.

the business process.

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Question # 211

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

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Question # 212

Once a risk owner has decided to implement a control to mitigate risk, it is MOST important to develop:

A.

a process for measuring and reporting control performance.

B.

an alternate control design in case of failure of the identified control.

C.

a process for bypassing control procedures in case of exceptions.

D.

procedures to ensure the effectiveness of the control.

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Question # 213

Which of the following describes the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

A.

Risk appetite is completely independent of risk tolerance.

B.

Risk tolerance is used to determine risk appetite.

C.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance are synonymous.

D.

Risk tolerance may exceed risk appetite.

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Question # 214

A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?

A.

Review the risk profile

B.

Review pokey change history

C.

interview the control owner

D.

Perform control testing

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Question # 215

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Question # 216

Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database ' '

A.

Implement role-based access control

B.

Implement a data masking process

C.

Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

D.

Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool

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Question # 217

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

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Question # 218

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?

A.

Percentage of systems included in recovery processes

B.

Number of key systems hosted

C.

Average response time to resolve system incidents

D.

Percentage of system availability

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Question # 219

An organization ' s decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Question # 220

Where should a risk practitioner document the current state and desired future state of organizational risk?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk action plan

C.

Risk management strategy

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Question # 221

While reviewing an organization ' s monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

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Question # 222

Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?

A.

Establish a cyber response plan

B.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

C.

Implement network segregation.

D.

Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.

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Question # 223

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Question # 224

Which of the following is the MOST significant benefit of using quantitative risk analysis instead of qualitative risk analysis?

A.

Minimized time to completion

B.

Decreased structure

C.

Minimized subjectivity

D.

Decreased cost

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Question # 225

A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk impact

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 226

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

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Question # 227

An organization has established a contract with a vendor that includes penalties for loss of availability. Which risk treatment has been adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Avoidance

C.

Transfer

D.

Reduction

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Question # 228

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization ' s information security policy.

C.

validate the organization ' s data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Question # 229

Which element of an organization ' s risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 230

Where is the FIRST place a risk practitioner should look to identify accountability for a specific risk?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk scenario

C.

RACI matrix

D.

Risk response plan

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Question # 231

A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization ' s cloud provider is assigned to the provider who should the risk scenario be reassigned to.

A.

Senior management

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Vendor manager

D.

Data owner

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Question # 232

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Identify staff members who have access to the organization ' s sensitive data.

B.

Identify locations where the organization ' s sensitive data is stored.

C.

Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.

D.

Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.

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Question # 233

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

A.

The third party ' s IT operations manager

B.

The organization ' s process owner

C.

The third party ' s chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization ' s risk practitioner

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Question # 234

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Question # 235

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

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Question # 236

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?

A.

Weak governance structures

B.

Senior management scrutiny

C.

Complex regulatory environment

D.

Unclear reporting relationships

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Question # 237

Which of the following is MOST likely to result in a major change to the overall risk profile of the organization?

A.

Changes in internal and external risk factors

B.

Changes in internal and external auditors

C.

Changes in risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

Changes in vulnerability assessment and penetration testing

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Question # 238

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner ' s PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

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Question # 239

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to engage business unit managers in risk management processes ' ?

A.

Improved alignment will technical risk

B.

Better-informed business decisions

C.

Enhanced understanding of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Improved business operations efficiency

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Question # 240

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Question # 241

Which of the following provides a risk practitioner with the MOST reliable evidence of a third party ' s ability to protect the confidentiality of sensitive corporate information?

A.

A signed nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Control self-assessment (CSA) results

C.

External audit reports

D.

Internal audit reports

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Question # 242

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

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Question # 243

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?

A.

Threat landscape

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk register

D.

Risk metrics

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Question # 244

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

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Question # 245

The BEST reason to classify IT assets during a risk assessment is to determine the:

A.

priority in the risk register.

B.

business process owner.

C.

enterprise risk profile.

D.

appropriate level of protection.

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Question # 246

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk governance charter

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Cross-business representation

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Question # 247

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization ' s access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?

A.

After the initial design

B.

Before production rollout

C.

After a few weeks in use

D.

Before end-user testing

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Question # 248

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to identify stakeholders for each IT risk scenario?

A.

To ensure enterprise-wide risk management

B.

To establish control ownership

C.

To enable a comprehensive view of risk

D.

To identify key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 249

An organization ' s finance team is proposing the adoption of a blockchain technology to provide a secure method for moving funds. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Recommend permissionless blockchain.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Recommend permissioned blockchain.

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Question # 250

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

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Question # 251

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increased volume of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Hot backup site

B.

Transaction limits

C.

Scalable infrastructure

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Question # 252

Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Business objectives

C.

The organization ' s risk framework

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 253

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Question # 254

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

A.

The scenarios are based on industry best practice.

B.

The scenarios focus on current vulnerabilities.

C.

The scenarios are relevant to the organization.

D.

The scenarios include technical consequences.

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Question # 255

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

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Question # 256

An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?

A.

Detective

B.

Directive

C.

Preventive

D.

Compensating

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Question # 257

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:

A.

data classification and labeling.

B.

data logging and monitoring.

C.

data retention and destruction.

D.

data mining and analytics.

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Question # 258

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Question # 259

A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

update the risk rating.

B.

reevaluate inherent risk.

C.

develop new risk scenarios.

D.

implement additional controls.

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Question # 260

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Question # 261

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

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Question # 262

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

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Question # 263

Which of the following is MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Common attacks in other industries.

B.

Identification of risk events.

C.

Impact on critical assets.

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events.

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Question # 264

Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?

A.

Clear understanding of the risk

B.

Comparable industry risk trends

C.

Appropriate resources

D.

Detailed standards and procedures

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Question # 265

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure an organization ' s current risk scenarios are relevant?

A.

Adoption of industry best practices

B.

Involvement of stakeholders in risk assessment

C.

Review of risk scenarios by independent parties

D.

Documentation of potential risk in business cases

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Question # 266

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization ' s risk profile?

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 267

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

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Question # 268

Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?

A.

Disciplinary action

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

A review of the awareness program

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 269

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

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Question # 270

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?

A.

An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk

B.

Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud

C.

Clear accountability for risk management processes

D.

Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations

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Question # 271

Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:

A.

Set performance expectations for controls.

B.

Align with key business objectives.

C.

Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.

D.

Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.

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Question # 272

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to review during an IT risk assessment?

A.

Published records of loss from peer organizations

B.

The organization ' s historical threats and monetary loss

C.

Information system assets and associated threats

D.

Information system control weaknesses and audit findings

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Question # 273

Which of the following is the FIRST consideration to reduce risk associated with the storage of personal data?

A.

Implement privacy training

B.

Normalize the personal data

C.

Minimize the collection of data

D.

Encrypt the personal data

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Question # 274

Which of the following BEST enables risk mitigation associated with software licensing noncompliance?

A.

Document IT inventory management procedures.

B.

Conduct annual reviews of license expiration dates.

C.

Perform automated vulnerability scans.

D.

Implement automated IT asset management controls.

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Question # 275

During which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) should information security requirements for the implementation of a new IT system be defined?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Development

C.

Implementation

D.

Initiation

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Question # 276

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

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Question # 277

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization ' s defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Question # 278

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

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Question # 279

Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?

A.

Reduction in the number of incidents

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Reduction in residual risk

D.

Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities

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Question # 280

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?

A.

Unknown vulnerabilities

B.

Legacy technology systems

C.

Network isolation

D.

Overlapping threats

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Question # 281

Which of the following represents a vulnerability?

A.

An identity thief seeking to acquire personal financial data from an organization

B.

Media recognition of an organization ' s market leadership in its industry

C.

A standard procedure for applying software patches two weeks after release

D.

An employee recently fired for insubordination

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Question # 282

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization ' s security incident handling process?

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

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Question # 283

A small organization finds it difficult to implement separation of duties necessary to mitigate the likelihood of system misuse. Which of the following would be the BEST compensating control?

A.

Undertake control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Require reports from staff with multiple duties

C.

Obtain independent analysis of transaction logs

D.

Assign activities to fewer employees

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Question # 284

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

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Question # 285

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

A.

Risk and control ownership

B.

Senior management participation

C.

Business unit support

D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy

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Question # 286

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

A.

User authorization

B.

User recertification

C.

Change log review

D.

Access log monitoring

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Question # 287

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management ' s risk appetite?

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

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Question # 288

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 289

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization ' s risk register?

A.

Limit access to senior management only.

B.

Encrypt the risk register.

C.

Implement role-based access.

D.

Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.

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Question # 290

A risk practitioner is involved in a comprehensive overhaul of the organizational risk management program. Which of the following should be reviewed FIRST to help identify relevant IT risk scenarios?

A.

Technology threats

B.

IT assets

C.

Security vulnerabilities

D.

IT risk register

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Question # 291

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

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Question # 292

Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization ' s cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?

A.

Analyzing cyber intelligence reports

B.

Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants

C.

Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register

D.

Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment

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Question # 293

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?

A.

Perform a penetration test.

B.

Review security logs.

C.

Conduct a threat analysis.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Question # 294

Which of the following would MOST likely cause management to unknowingly accept excessive risk?

A.

Satisfactory audit results

B.

Risk tolerance being set too low

C.

Inaccurate risk ratings

D.

Lack of preventive controls

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Question # 295

An organization has outsourced a critical process involving highly regulated data to a third party with servers located in a foreign country. Who is accountable for the confidentiality of this data?

A.

Third-party data custodian

B.

Data custodian

C.

Regional office executive

D.

Data owner

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Question # 296

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?

A.

Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks

B.

Number of downtime hours in business critical servers

C.

Number of patches made to anti-malware software

D.

Number of successful attacks by malicious software

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Question # 297

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise ' s current appetite for risk?

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies

B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments

C.

Interviews with senior management

D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports

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Question # 298

Which of the following is the BEST method to track asset inventory?

A.

Periodic asset review by management

B.

Asset registration form

C.

Automated asset management software

D.

IT resource budgeting process

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Question # 299

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management ' s response?

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

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Question # 300

Which of the following facilitates a completely independent review of test results for evaluating control effectiveness?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Three lines of defense

C.

Compliance review

D.

Quality assurance review

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Question # 301

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

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Question # 302

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Question # 303

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

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Question # 304

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 305

Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?

A.

Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.

B.

Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.

C.

Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.

D.

Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 306

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?

A.

Residual risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Mitigation cost

D.

Inherent risk

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Question # 307

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Probability definition

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Question # 308

An updated report from a trusted research organization shows that attacks have increased in the organization ' s industry segment. What should be done FIRST to integrate this data into risk assessments?

A.

Average the ransomware attack frequencies together

B.

Revise the threat frequency for ransomware attack types

C.

Adjust impact amounts based on the average ransom

D.

Use the new frequency as the maximum value in a Monte Carlo simulation

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Question # 309

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?

A.

Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape

B.

Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment

C.

Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit

D.

Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors

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Question # 310

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

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Question # 311

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 312

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 313

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to regularly assess the design of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Increasing process failures could impact a key objective.

B.

Tolerance levels change as strategies evolve.

C.

System enhancements could bypass the change control process.

D.

Data required for risk reporting changes with industry trends.

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Question # 314

When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:

A.

Relevant policies.

B.

Threat landscape.

C.

Awareness program.

D.

Risk heat map.

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Question # 315

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

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Question # 316

Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?

A.

IT compliance and IT audit

B.

Regulators and shareholders

C.

The board and executive management

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

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Question # 317

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

A.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Improving control process efficiency

D.

Complying with functional requirements

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Question # 318

A risk practitioner recently discovered that sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following i the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment

B.

Implement equivalent security in the test environment.

C.

Prevent the use of production data for test purposes

D.

Mask data before being transferred to the test environment.

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Question # 319

Which of the following will BEST help in communicating strategic risk priorities?

A.

Heat map

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Balanced Scorecard

D.

Risk register

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Question # 320

An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

A.

Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.

B.

List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

C.

Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.

D.

Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.

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Question # 321

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

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Question # 322

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect sensitive data from administrators within a public cloud?

A.

Use an encrypted tunnel lo connect to the cloud.

B.

Encrypt the data in the cloud database.

C.

Encrypt physical hard drives within the cloud.

D.

Encrypt data before it leaves the organization.

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Question # 323

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Question # 324

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend be done prior to disposal of server hardware containing confidential data?

A.

Destroy the hard drives.

B.

Encrypt the backup.

C.

Update the asset inventory.

D.

Remove all user access.

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Question # 325

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

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Question # 326

Which of the following provides the MOST insight regarding an organization ' s risk culture?

A.

Awareness training participation rate

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Senior management interviews

D.

Risk management framework

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Question # 327

While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:

A.

review and update the policies to align with industry standards.

B.

determine that the policies should be updated annually.

C.

report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.

D.

review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.

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Question # 328

The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:

A.

Identify new or emerging risk issues.

B.

Satisfy audit requirements.

C.

Survey and analyze historical risk data.

D.

Understand internal and external threat agents.

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Question # 329

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?

A.

Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register

C.

Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls

D.

Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards

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Question # 330

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?

A.

Average bandwidth usage

B.

Peak bandwidth usage

C.

Total bandwidth usage

D.

Bandwidth used during business hours

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Question # 331

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

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Question # 332

A risk practitioner has been asked to mark an identified control deficiency as remediated, despite concerns that the risk level is still too high. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this concern?

A.

Prepare a risk acceptance proposal for senior management ' s consideration.

B.

Review the organization ' s risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

Assess the residual risk against the organization ' s risk appetite.

D.

Recommend implementation of additional compensating controls.

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Question # 333

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for communicating an organization’s risk level to senior management?

A.

A list of organizational threats

B.

A high-level risk map

C.

Specialized risk publications

D.

A list of organizational vulnerabilities

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Question # 334

Which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider when determining whether to approve a policy exception request?

A.

Volume of exceptions

B.

Lack of technical resources

C.

Cost of noncompliance

D.

Time required to implement controls

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Question # 335

Which of the following would BEST help secure online financial transactions from improper users?

A.

Review of log-in attempts

B.

multi-level authorization

C.

Periodic review of audit trails

D.

multi-factor authentication

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Question # 336

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?

A.

Establishing policies and procedures

B.

Periodically reviewing control design

C.

Measuring trends in control performance

D.

Obtaining management control attestations

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Question # 337

Which of the following is MOST important to review when evaluating the ongoing effectiveness of the IT risk register?

A.

The costs associated with mitigation options

B.

The status of identified risk scenarios

C.

The cost-benefit analysis of each risk response

D.

The timeframes for risk response actions

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Question # 338

An organization ' s IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation?

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

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Question # 339

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining risk appetite?

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Risk heat map

C.

IT capacity

D.

Risk culture

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Question # 340

An organization ' s recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

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Question # 341

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register?

A.

To ensure IT risk appetite is communicated across the organization

B.

To ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite

C.

To ensure IT risk ownership is assigned at the appropriate organizational level

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are consistently assessed within the organization

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Question # 342

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

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Question # 343

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Question # 344

The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:

A.

operates as intended.

B.

is being monitored.

C.

meets regulatory requirements.

D.

operates efficiently.

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Question # 345

Which of the following is MOST commonly compared against the risk appetite?

A.

IT risk

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Financial risk

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 346

While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.

B.

Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.

C.

Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.

D.

Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.

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Question # 347

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

A.

Testing control design

B.

Accepting residual risk

C.

Establishing business information criteria

D.

Establishing the risk register

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Question # 348

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

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Question # 349

Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation strategy for an organization?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Known vulnerabilities

D.

Cyber insurance

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Question # 350

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

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Question # 351

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Question # 352

A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?

A.

Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports.

B.

Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies.

C.

Classify and protect the data according to the parent company ' s internal standards.

D.

Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company ' s network.

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Question # 353

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Question # 354

When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk ' register?

A.

Leveraging business risk professionals

B.

Relying on generic IT risk scenarios

C.

Describing IT risk in business terms

D.

Using a common risk taxonomy

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Question # 355

A legacy application used for a critical business function relies on software that has reached the end of extended support Which of the following is the MOST effective control to manage this application?

A.

Subscribe to threat intelligence to monitor external attacks.

B.

Apply patches for a newer version of the application.

C.

Segment the application within the existing network.

D.

Increase the frequency of regular system and data backups.

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Question # 356

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

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Question # 357

Which organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls. Which of the following tasks is lie responsibility of the risk practitioner*?

A.

Verify that existing controls continue to properly mitigate defined risk

B.

Test approval process controls once the project is completed

C.

Update the existing controls for changes in approval processes from this project

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted control processes

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Question # 358

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

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Question # 359

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

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Question # 360

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?

A.

Risk management action plans

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

What-if technique

D.

Tabletop exercise results

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Question # 361
A.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

B.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

C.

Regular employee security awareness training

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Question # 362

An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?

A.

Project Charlie

B.

Project Bravo

C.

Project Alpha

D.

Project Delta

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Question # 363

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

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Question # 364

An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST step to address this situation?

A.

Recommend additional controls to address the risk.

B.

Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.

C.

Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.

D.

Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.

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Question # 365

The MOST important reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) is to help management:

A.

identity early risk transfer strategies.

B.

lessen the impact of realized risk.

C.

analyze the chain of risk events.

D.

identify the root cause of risk events.

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Question # 366

From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:

A.

solution delivery.

B.

resource utilization.

C.

strategic alignment.

D.

performance evaluation.

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Question # 367

What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

Flexibility and adaptability

B.

Measurability and consistency

C.

Robustness and resilience

D.

Optimal cost and benefit

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Question # 368

Which of the following provides the BEST protection for Internet of Things (loT) devices that are accessed within an organization?

A.

Identity and access management (IAM)

B.

Comprehensive patching program

C.

Source code reviews

D.

Adoption of a defense-in-depth strategy

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Question # 369

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

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Question # 370

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Challenging risk decision making

B.

Developing controls to manage risk scenarios

C.

Implementing risk response plans

D.

Establishing organizational risk appetite

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Question # 371

Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

A.

Threat to IT

B.

Number of control failures

C.

Impact on business

D.

Risk ownership

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Question # 372

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

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Question # 373

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure before using risk reports in decision making?

A.

Root cause analysis is included.

B.

Risk analysis results are validated.

C.

Real-time risk information is provided.

D.

Quantitative risk data is provided.

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Question # 374

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:

A.

resources to monitor backups

B.

restoration monitoring reports

C.

backup recovery requests

D.

recurring restore failures

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Question # 375

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when selecting and designing key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

The KCI can establish a formal correlation with relevant KRIs

B.

The KCI can demonstrate whether the control objective has been met

C.

The KCI can be implemented within the allocated budget

D.

The KCI can be measured using quantitative methods

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Question # 376

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with insufficient focus on addressing blockchain interoperability in the SDLC?

A.

Limited blockchain adoption and support

B.

Reduced transaction speed and system responsiveness

C.

Reduced network integrity and availability

D.

Limited integration with external systems and blockchains

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Question # 377

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department ' s recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise ' s business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Question # 378

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

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Question # 379

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

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Question # 380

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Question # 381

A risk practitioner is asked to present the results of the most recent technology risk assessment to executive management in a concise manner. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the presentation?

A.

Residual risk levels

B.

Compensating controls

C.

Details of vulnerabilities

D.

Failed high-risk controls

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Question # 382

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control?

A.

Scope of the control coverage

B.

The number of exceptions granted

C.

Number of steps necessary to operate process

D.

Number of control deviations detected

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Question # 383

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Question # 384

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Question # 385

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

A.

risk appetite.

B.

security policies

C.

process maps.

D.

risk tolerance level

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Question # 386

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company ' s risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

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Question # 387

Which of the following is the BEST success criterion for control implementation?

A.

Adequate resources are allocated to perform the control.

B.

Responsibilities for control execution are properly defined.

C.

Risk is at an acceptable level after the control is in place.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) for the control are properly defined.

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Question # 388

An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:

A.

procedures to monitor the operation of controls.

B.

a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.

C.

real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.

D.

monitoring activities for all critical assets.

E.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Question # 389

An organization has recently updated its disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk if the new plan is not tested?

A.

External resources may need to be involved.

B.

Data privacy regulations may be violated.

C.

Recovery costs may increase significantly.

D.

Service interruptions may be longer than anticipated.

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Question # 390

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

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Question # 391

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

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Question # 392

An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization ' s customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management ' s decision?

A.

Time zone difference of the outsourcing location

B.

Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company

C.

Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country

D.

Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location

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Question # 393

When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?

A.

Users may share accounts with business system analyst

B.

Application may not capture a complete audit trail.

C.

Users may be able to circumvent application controls.

D.

Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process

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Question # 394

Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery ' ?

A.

Implement a release and deployment plan

B.

Conduct comprehensive regression testing.

C.

Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)

D.

Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report

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Question # 395

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

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Question # 396

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

To document all implemented systems reflecting the architectural views relevant to the IT team

B.

To provide a vision of the future state and generate strategy to move from current to future state

C.

To implement a governance framework that aligns with the desired organizational structure

D.

To develop and design a technology framework to be used by all IT staff within the organization

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Question # 397

Read " rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:

A.

business process owner.

B.

database administrator.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

systems administrator.

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Question # 398

Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?

A.

Brainstorming sessions

B.

Control self-assessments

C.

Vulnerability analysis

D.

Monte Carlo analysis

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Question # 399

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Logs are retained for longer than required.

B.

Logs are reviewed annually.

C.

Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.

D.

Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

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Question # 400

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (IoT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for sensitive data?

A.

Recommend device management controls.

B.

Enable role-based access control (RBAC).

C.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

D.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels.

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Question # 401

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

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Question # 402

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization ' senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

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Question # 403

An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s MOST important action related to this decision?

A.

Recommend rejection of the initiative.

B.

Change the level of risk appetite.

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk.

D.

Initiate a reassessment of the risk.

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Question # 404

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of involving business owners in risk scenario development?

A.

Business owners have the ability to effectively manage risk.

B.

Business owners have authority to approve control implementation.

C.

Business owners understand the residual risk of competitors.

D.

Business owners are able to assess the impact.

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Question # 405

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner ' s NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization ' s noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?

A.

Identify risk response options.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Document the penalties for noncompliance.

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Question # 406

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Question # 407

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

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Question # 408

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

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Question # 409

Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Risk policy requirements

C.

A risk register

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 410

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor ' s public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?

A.

The organization ' s incident response procedures have been updated.

B.

The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.

C.

Administrative access is only held by the vendor.

D.

The vendor ' s responsibilities are defined in the contract.

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Question # 411

Which of the following provides the MOST mitigation value for an organization implementing new Internet of Things (loT) devices?

A.

Performing a vulnerability assessment on the loT devices

B.

Designing loT architecture with IT security controls from the start

C.

Implementing key risk indicators (KRIs) for loT devices

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

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Question # 412

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line in the three lines model?

A.

Applying risk treatments

B.

Implementing internal controls

C.

Monitoring risk responses

D.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

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Question # 413

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?

A.

It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.

B.

It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.

C.

It validates the organization ' s risk appetite.

D.

It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.

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Question # 414

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

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Question # 415

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to increase the likelihood of identifying risk associated with unethical employee behavior?

A.

Require a signed agreement by employees to comply with ethics policies

B.

Conduct background checks for new employees

C.

Establish a channel to anonymously report unethical behavior

D.

Implement mandatory ethics training for employees

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Question # 416

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of engaging key stakeholders in the IT risk assessment process?

A.

Reducing the time required for risk analysis

B.

Increasing the quality of analysis

C.

Building a risk aware culture

D.

Ensuring proper budget allocation for risk remediation

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Question # 417

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

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Question # 418

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

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Question # 419

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

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Question # 420

Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

A.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions

B.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal

C.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance

D.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency

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Question # 421

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to compare the business impact analysis (BIA) against the organization ' s business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

The results of the BIA quantify the BCP objectives and supporting technology for each operational area.

B.

The BCP provides detailed information on alternative facilities to use in case of business interruptions.

C.

The results of the BIA quantify the cost of the technology environment needed to restart each operational area.

D.

The BCP provides the backup and restoration procedures to follow in case of business interruptions.

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Question # 422

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 423

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization ' s data inventory.

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Question # 424

The PRIMARY objective of the board of directors periodically reviewing the risk profile is to help ensure:

A.

the risk strategy is appropriate

B.

KRIs and KPIs are aligned

C.

performance of controls is adequate

D.

the risk monitoring process has been established

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Question # 425

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?

A.

Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.

B.

Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.

C.

Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.

D.

Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.

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Question # 426

Which of the following is MOST helpful in preventing risk events from materializing?

A.

Prioritizing and tracking issues

B.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Reviewing and analyzing security incidents

D.

Maintaining the risk register

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Question # 427

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 428

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 429

The BEST way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to:

A.

conduct an audit of files stored offsite.

B.

interview employees to compare actual with expected procedures.

C.

inspect a selection of audit trails and backup logs.

D.

demonstrate a successful recovery from backup files.

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Question # 430

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

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Question # 431

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

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Question # 432

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Question # 433

Which of the following functions independently reviews and provides feedback regarding the achievement of organizational objectives?

A.

Risk management

B.

Internal audit

C.

IT governance

D.

Senior leadership

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Question # 434

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Question # 435

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

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Question # 436

A vendor ' s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

A.

IT infrastructure manager

B.

Chief Risk Officer (CRO)

C.

Business continuity manager

D.

Business application owner

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Question # 437

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events

B.

The cost to implement the risk response

C.

Lack of data to measure threat events

D.

Monetary value of the asset

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Question # 438

An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?

A.

More time has been allotted for testing.

B.

The project is likely to deliver the product late.

C.

A new project manager is handling the project.

D.

The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.

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Question # 439

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

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Question # 440

Owners of technical controls should be PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring the controls are:

A.

Mapped to the corresponding business areas.

B.

Aligned with corporate security policies.

C.

Effectively implemented and maintained.

D.

Designed based on standards and frameworks.

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Question # 441

A risk practitioner is evaluating policies defined by an organization as part of its IT security framework. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?

A.

Lack of alignment with global security standards

B.

Inadequate policy enforcement

C.

Lack of a single repository for security procedures

D.

Increased cost for policy adoption

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Question # 442

Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?

A.

Closed management action plans from the previous audit

B.

Annual risk assessment results

C.

An updated vulnerability management report

D.

A list of identified generic risk scenarios

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Question # 443

A key risk indicator (KRI) indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

A.

Determine changes in the risk level.

B.

Outsource the vulnerability management process.

C.

Review the patch management process.

D.

Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting.

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Question # 444

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

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Question # 445

Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization ' s risk profile?

A.

A risk roadmap

B.

A balanced scorecard

C.

A heat map

D.

The risk register

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Question # 446

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year ' s budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

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Question # 447

The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:

A.

risk scenarios.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk policy.

D.

risk appetite.

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Question # 448

The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:

A.

develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy

B.

develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios

C.

identify root causes for relevant events

D.

perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 449

An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:

A.

a recognized industry control framework

B.

guidance provided by the external auditor

C.

the service provider ' s existing controls

D.

The organization ' s specific control requirements

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Question # 450

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

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Question # 451

To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:

A.

risk mitigation approach

B.

cost-benefit analysis.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

vulnerability assessment results

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Question # 452
A.

Conduct frequent internal audits of IT systems.

B.

Review information from threat intelligence sources.

C.

Define a comprehensive set of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Document thorough IT risk scenarios in the risk register.

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Question # 453

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for measuring the security of a blockchain network?

A.

Number of active nodes

B.

Blockchain size in gigabytes

C.

Average transaction speed

D.

Number of validated transactions

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Question # 454

Which of the following BEST ensures that the data feeds used by an organization are complete and accurate?

A.

Data is inspected and accepted by owners

B.

Best-in-class data mining technology is used

C.

Sources of data and attributes are known

D.

The project is run by an experienced team

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Question # 455

Which of the following will have the GREATEST influence when determining an organization ' s risk appetite?

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Risk management budget

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Risk culture

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Question # 456

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 457

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

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Question # 458

Which of the following is the BEST time for an enterprise project management team to use risk analysis?

A.

When the final testing phase begins

B.

During the project initiation phase

C.

At the end of the project

D.

During business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 459

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

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Question # 460

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

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Question # 461

An organization is considering adopting artificial intelligence (AI). Which of the

following is the risk practitioner ' s MOST important course of action?

A.

Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Ensure sufficient pre-implementation testing.

C.

Identify applicable risk scenarios.

D.

Identify the organization ' s critical data.

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Question # 462

A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

A.

Update the KRI threshold.

B.

Recommend additional controls.

C.

Review incident handling procedures.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Question # 463

An organization ' s risk management team wants to develop IT risk scenarios to show the impact of collecting and storing credit card information. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive approach to capture this scenario?

A.

Top-down analysis

B.

Event tree analysis

C.

Control gap analysis

D.

Bottom-up analysis

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Question # 464

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

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Question # 465

An organization is revising its IT security policy. Which of the following should be done FIRST to help ensure the policy is followed?

A.

Develop a policy socialization and awareness strategy.

B.

Implement technical controls to monitor for policy violations.

C.

Benchmark the policy against industry peers.

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the old and new policy.

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Question # 466

The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?

A.

Assemble an incident response team.

B.

Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Develop a risk response plan.

D.

Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Question # 467

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to continuously manage after implementing a Zero Trust security model?

A.

Privileged user access reviews

B.

Integration with existing security protocols

C.

Policy enforcement inconsistencies

D.

Network segmentation errors

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Question # 468

Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:

A.

a gap analysis

B.

a root cause analysis.

C.

an impact assessment.

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Question # 469

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

A.

The organization ' s strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Question # 470

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan ' s implementation?

A.

Increased number of controls

B.

Reduced risk level

C.

Increased risk appetite

D.

Stakeholder commitment

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Question # 471

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risk and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

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Question # 472

WhichT5f the following is the MOST effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage?

A.

Enforce sanctions for noncompliance with security procedures.

B.

Conduct organization-w > de phishing simulations.

C.

Require training on the data handling policy.

D.

Require regular testing of the data breach response plan.

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Question # 473

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

A.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) for its operations

B.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall

D.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards

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Question # 474

A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?

A.

Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology

B.

Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.

C.

Establish IT-specific compliance objectives

D.

Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers

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Question # 475

Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?

A.

Inability to access key information

B.

Complex security administration

C.

User resistance to single sign-on

D.

Single point of failure

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Question # 476

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST appropriate course of action upon learning that an organization is not compliant with its patch management policy?

A.

Document the concern in an issue tracker.

B.

Strengthen data loss prevention (DLP) controls.

C.

Apply the most recent available patches.

D.

Escalate the issue to the ethics committee.

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Question # 477

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

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Question # 478

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk owner when making risk-aware decisions?

A.

Risk exposure expressed in business terms

B.

Recommendations for risk response options

C.

Resource requirements for risk responses

D.

List of business areas affected by the risk

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Question # 479

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 480

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

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Question # 481

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management ' s approach to organizational risk?

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year ' s risk assessment results

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Question # 482

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to identify changes in the performance of the control environment?

A.

Evaluate key performance indicators (KPIs).

B.

Perform a control self-assessment (CSA).

C.

Implement continuous monitoring.

D.

Adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Question # 483

A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.

B.

suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.

C.

revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.

D.

evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.

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Question # 484

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

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Question # 485

The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:

A.

capability to implement the response

B.

importance of IT risk within the enterprise

C.

effectiveness of risk response options

D.

alignment of response to industry standards

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Question # 486

Which of The following is the MOST comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the effects of system downtime?

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results

B.

Recovery lime objective (RTO)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

results Recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 487

Which risk analysis methodology uses diagrams to analyze causes and consequences of particular risk events?

A.

Failure mode and effects analysis

B.

Process and control mapping

C.

Monte Carlo simulation

D.

Fault tree analysis

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Question # 488

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

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Question # 489

An online retailer has decided to store its customer database with a cloud provider in an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) configuration. During an initial review of preliminary risk scenarios, a risk practitioner identifies instances where sensitive customer information is stored unencrypted. Who is accountable for ensuring this encryption?

A.

The cloud provider

B.

The retailer ' s IT department

C.

The chief information officer (CIO)

D.

The data owner

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Question # 490

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

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Question # 491

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

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Question # 492

An organization ' s business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Question # 493

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

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Question # 494

In a DevOps environment, a container does not pass dynamic application security testing (DAST). How should this situation be categorized?

A.

As a risk event

B.

As a risk scenario

C.

As an incident

D.

As an error

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Question # 495

Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?

A.

Securing the network from attacks

B.

Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender

C.

Digitally signing individual messages

D.

Encrypting data-in-transit

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Question # 496

Which of the following should be management ' s PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

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Question # 497

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when identifying stakeholders to review risk scenarios developed by a risk analyst? The reviewers are:

A.

accountable for the affected processes.

B.

members of senior management.

C.

authorized to select risk mitigation options.

D.

independent from the business operations.

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Question # 498

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 499
A.

Some risk remediation activities from the last assessment are still in progress.

B.

The risk scenarios have never been updated.

C.

The risk scenario development process was led by an external consultant.

D.

The number of risk scenarios is very high.

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Question # 500

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of developing information security metrics?

A.

Raising security awareness

B.

Enabling continuous improvement

C.

Identifying security threats

D.

Ensuring regulatory compliance

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Question # 501

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?

A.

Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register

B.

Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process

C.

Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk

D.

Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness

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Question # 502

An organization ' s risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

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Question # 503

Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:

A.

line management.

B.

the IT risk function.

C.

enterprise compliance.

D.

internal audit.

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Question # 504

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board ' '

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

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Question # 505

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Question # 506

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

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Question # 507

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Question # 508

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

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Question # 509

When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?

A.

Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR

B.

Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.

C.

Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.

D.

Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.

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Question # 510

Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?

A.

Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders

B.

Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training

C.

Providing regular communication to risk managers

D.

Appointing the risk manager from the business units

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Question # 511

An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?

A.

The organization ' s business process owner

B.

The organization ' s information security manager

C.

The organization ' s vendor management officer

D.

The vendor ' s risk manager

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Question # 512

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Question # 513

A public online information security training course is available to an organization ' s staff. The online course contains free-form discussion fields. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the organization ' s risk practitioner?

A.

The form may be susceptible to SQL injection attacks.

B.

Data is not encrypted in transit to the site.

C.

Proprietary corporate information may be disclosed.

D.

Staff nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) are not in place.

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Question # 514

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Cryptocurrency reserve

C.

Data backups

D.

End user training

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Question # 515

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of IT policies? The number of:

A.

IT policy exceptions granted.

B.

Senior management approvals.

C.

Key technology controls covered by IT policies.

D.

Processes covered by IT policies.

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Question # 516

Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) BEST enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization ' s:

A.

risk classification methods

B.

risk-based capital allocation

C.

risk portfolio

D.

risk culture

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Question # 517

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an assessment reveals a control is not operating as intended?

A.

Recommend updates to the control procedures

B.

Determine the root cause of the control issue.

C.

Discuss the status with the control owner.

D.

Recommend compensating controls.

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Question # 518

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a potential threat?

A.

Increase in identified system vulnerabilities

B.

Ineffective risk treatment plans

C.

Excessive policy and standard exceptions

D.

Excessive activity in system logs

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Question # 519

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Question # 520

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

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Question # 521

Which of the following BEST indicates that risk management is embedded into the responsibilities of all employees?

A.

The number of incidents has decreased over time

B.

Industry benchmarking is performed on an annual basis

C.

Risk management practices are audited on an annual basis

D.

Risk management practices are incorporated into business processes

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Question # 522

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?

A.

a identity conditions that may cause disruptions

B.

Review incident response procedures

C.

Evaluate the probability of risk events

D.

Define metrics for restoring availability

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Question # 523

An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

B.

Creating immutable backups

C.

Performing required patching

D.

Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring

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Question # 524

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

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Question # 525

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 526

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk mitigation policies

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk analysis techniques

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Question # 527

When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?

A.

Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee

B.

List of compensating controls

C.

IT audit follow-up responses

D.

A memo indicating risk acceptance

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Question # 528

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting digital signature software?

A.

Availability

B.

Nonrepudiation

C.

Accuracy

D.

Completeness

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Question # 529

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing an initial set of risk scenarios for an organization?

A.

Refer to industry standard scenarios.

B.

Use a top-down approach.

C.

Consider relevant business activities.

D.

Use a bottom-up approach.

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Question # 530

A newly enacted information privacy law significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following will MOST likely outcome for an organization affected by the new law?

A.

Increase in compliance breaches

B.

Increase in loss event impact

C.

Increase in residual risk

D.

Increase in customer complaints

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Question # 531

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization ' s data flow model?

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

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Question # 532

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

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Question # 533

All business units within an organization have the same risk response plan for creating local disaster recovery plans. In an effort to achieve cost effectiveness, the BEST course of action would be to:

A.

select a provider to standardize the disaster recovery plans.

B.

outsource disaster recovery to an external provider.

C.

centralize the risk response function at the enterprise level.

D.

evaluate opportunities to combine disaster recovery plans.

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Question # 534

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization ' s risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

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Question # 535

Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of user passwords being compromised by a man in the middle technique?

A.

Require users to select long passwords.

B.

Implement a passwordless access mechanism.

C.

Require users to change password as frequently as possible.

D.

Block user sessions after short periods of inactivity.

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Question # 536

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Question # 537

Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization ' s firewall rule set?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key management indicators (KMIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

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Question # 538

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Question # 539

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

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Question # 540

Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:

A.

ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.

B.

provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.

C.

provide a snapshot of the risk profile.

D.

ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.

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Question # 541

A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization ' s risk:

A.

management.

B.

tolerance.

C.

culture.

D.

analysis.

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Question # 542

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?

A.

Obtain approval to retire the control.

B.

Update the status of the control as obsolete.

C.

Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.

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Question # 543

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

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Question # 544

Which of the following BEST supports an accurate asset inventory system?

A.

Asset management metrics are aligned to industry benchmarks

B.

Organizational information risk controls are continuously monitored

C.

There are defined processes in place for onboarding assets

D.

The asset management team is involved in the budgetary planning process

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Question # 545

Which of the following is MOST important for a project steering committee to consider when deciding to release a new system into production?

A.

Dynamic application security testing (DAST) results

B.

Project implementation plan

C.

Project risk register

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT) results

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Question # 546

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

A.

Prepare a report for senior management.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Question # 547

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk practitioner to embed risk management within the organization?

A.

Provide risk management feedback to key stakeholders.

B.

Collect and analyze risk data for report generation.

C.

Monitor and prioritize risk data according to the heat map.

D.

Engage key stakeholders in risk management practices.

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Question # 548

An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:

A.

reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

B.

communicate the consequences for violations.

C.

implement industry best practices.

D.

reduce the organization ' s risk appetite

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Question # 549

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?

A.

To achieve business objectives

B.

To minimize business disruptions

C.

To identify threats and vulnerabilities

D.

To identify and analyze risk

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Question # 550

A control owner has completed a year-long project To strengthen existing controls. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

update the risk register to reflect the correct level of residual risk.

B.

ensure risk monitoring for the project is initiated.

C.

conduct and document a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

verify cost-benefit of the new controls being implemented.

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Question # 551

The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:

A.

align with audit results.

B.

benchmark with competitor s actions.

C.

reference best practice.

D.

focus on the business drivers

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Question # 552

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

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Question # 553

An organization wants to develop a strategy to mitigate the risk associated with unethical actions by stakeholders. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Provide incentives for whistleblowers to report unethical actions

B.

Communicate sanctions and penalties for unethical actions

C.

Develop company-wide training on business ethics

D.

Create a policy regarding ethical behavior

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Question # 554

A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?

A.

IT system owner

B.

Chief financial officer

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 555

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

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Question # 556

Which of the following is MOST important to address for an organization looking to improve its IT asset management processes?

A.

Lack of predictive analytics for asset failures

B.

Lack of detailed historical asset data

C.

Lack of a centralized asset inventory

D.

Lack of asset valuation mechanisms

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Question # 557

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

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Question # 558

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Question # 559

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 560

The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Insufficient risk tolerance

B.

Optimized control management

C.

Effective risk management

D.

Over-controlled environment

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Question # 561

What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?

A.

Segment the system on its own network.

B.

Ensure regular backups take place.

C.

Virtualize the system in the cloud.

D.

Install antivirus software on the system.

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Question # 562

It was discovered that a service provider ' s administrator was accessing sensitive information without the approval of the customer in an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model. Which of the following would BEST protect against a future recurrence?

A.

Data encryption

B.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Contractual requirements

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Question # 563

Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization ' s data disposal policy?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data architect

C.

Data owner

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 564

Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?

A.

Digital signature

B.

Edit checks

C.

Encryption

D.

Multifactor authentication

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Question # 565

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

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Question # 566

Who is accountable for the process when an IT stakeholder operates a key control to address a risk scenario?

A.

Data custodian

B.

Risk owner

C.

System owner

D.

IT manager

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Question # 567

During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Escalate the non-cooperation to management

B.

Exclude applicable controls from the assessment.

C.

Review the supplier ' s contractual obligations.

D.

Request risk acceptance from the business process owner.

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Question # 568

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 569

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

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Question # 570

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information

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Question # 571

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

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Question # 572

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

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Question # 573

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted when a global organization is required by law to implement a new data protection regulation across its operations?

A.

Risk ownership assignments

B.

Threat profile

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Risk profile

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Question # 574

An organization allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations. Which of the following is the BEST control?

A.

Implementing an emergency change authorization process

B.

Periodically reviewing operator logs

C.

Limiting the number of super users

D.

Reviewing the programmers ' emergency change reports

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Question # 575

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture?

A.

Reducing the involvement by senior management

B.

Using more risk specialists

C.

Reducing the need for risk policies and guidelines

D.

Discussing and managing risk as a team

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Question # 576

Which of the following will provide the BEST measure of compliance with IT policies?

A.

Evaluate past policy review reports.

B.

Conduct regular independent reviews.

C.

Perform penetration testing.

D.

Test staff on their compliance responsibilities.

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Question # 577

The patch management process is MOST effectively monitored through which of the following key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Number of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame

C.

Number of patches deployed outside of business hours

D.

Percentage of patched systems tested

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Question # 578

Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?

A.

Maturity of the enterprise architecture

B.

Cost of control implementation

C.

Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 579

External penetration tests MUST include:

A.

use of consultants to ensure completeness.

B.

communications to users of the target systems.

C.

changes to target data to prove the attack was successful.

D.

advance approval from system owners.

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Question # 580

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

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Question # 581

An organization is developing a risk awareness program for contractors and consultants. Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to keep confidential?

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) threshold methodology

B.

Names of key cloud providers

C.

Unmitigated vulnerabilities

D.

Corporate security policies

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