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APM-001 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 7

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 8

Most experienced project managers know that:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

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Question # 9

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

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Question # 10

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Question # 11

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Question # 12

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Question # 13

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Question # 14

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

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Question # 15

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

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Question # 16

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Change requests

D.

Deliverables

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Question # 17

An element of the project scope statement is:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

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Question # 18

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

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Question # 19

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

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Question # 20

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

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Question # 21

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Question # 22

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 23

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Question # 24

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

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Question # 25

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 26

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 27

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Question # 28

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

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Question # 29

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Question # 30

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

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Question # 31

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Question # 32

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

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Question # 33

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

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Question # 34

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

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Question # 35

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

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Question # 36

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 37

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A.

Teaming agreements

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

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Question # 38

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

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Question # 39

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 40

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 41

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

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Question # 42

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

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Question # 43

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 44

In a project, total float measures the:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

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Question # 45

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

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Question # 46

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

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Question # 47

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 48

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

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Question # 49

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

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Question # 50

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

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Question # 51

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

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Question # 52

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 53

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

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Question # 54

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

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Question # 55

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

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Question # 56

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

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Question # 57

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

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Question # 58

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

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Question # 59

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Question # 60

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Question # 61

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Question # 62

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Question # 63

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

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Question # 64

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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Question # 65

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

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Question # 66

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Question # 67

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Question # 68

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 69

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

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Question # 70

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 71

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

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Question # 72

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Question # 73

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Question # 74

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

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Question # 75

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Question # 76

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Question # 77

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Question # 78

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

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Question # 79

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Question # 80

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Question # 81

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

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Question # 82

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

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Question # 83

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 84

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 85

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

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Question # 86

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

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Question # 87

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

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Question # 88

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

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Question # 89

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Question # 90

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

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Question # 91

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

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Question # 92

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

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Question # 93

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

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Question # 94

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

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Question # 95

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

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Question # 96

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Question # 97

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 98

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

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Question # 99

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

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Question # 100

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

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Question # 101

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

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Question # 102

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Question # 103

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Question # 104

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

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Question # 105

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

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