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200-301 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

A.

enable secret

B.

service password-encryption

C.

username Cisco password encrypt

D.

enable password

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Question # 7

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

A.

Clock timezone

B.

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.

Clock summer-time date

D.

Clock set

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Question # 8

Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?

A.

There is a native VLAN mismatch

B.

Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

C.

The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN

D.

All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

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Question # 9

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

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Question # 10

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

A.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

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Question # 11

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

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Question # 12

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

A.

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

B.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

C.

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

D.

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

E.

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

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Question # 13

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Question # 14

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

A.

virtual routing and forwarding

B.

network port ID visualization

C.

virtual device contexts

D.

server visualization

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Question # 15

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

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Question # 16

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

A.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

C.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.

D.

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

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Question # 17

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

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Question # 18

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

A.

read

B.

create

C.

replace

D.

update

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Question # 19

What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?

A.

UCS-2

B.

UTF-8

C.

Hex

D.

GB18030

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Question # 20

A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?

A.

clock summer-time recurring

B.

clock timezone

C.

clock summer-time date

D.

clock set

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Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

A.

the 10.0.0.0 network

B.

a single destination address

C.

the source 10.0.1.100

D.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

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Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

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Question # 23

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168 10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20 75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

A.

10.10101

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.101014

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Question # 24

Which physical component is distributed among multiple virtual machines running on the same hypervisor?

A.

external storage

B.

hardware resources

C.

network interfaces

D.

backplane network

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Question # 25

Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 26

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

A.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

B.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.

C.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on interface FaO 2 on SW2.

D.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

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Question # 27

Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?

A.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point

B.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf cost 5

C.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf 1 area 2

D.

Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 0/0Router(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1

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Question # 28

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

A.

out-of-band management

B.

secure in-band connectivity for device administration

C.

unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers

D.

HTTP-based GUI connectivity

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Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router must be configured so that traffic to 2000::1 is sent primarily via the Atlanta site, with a secondary path via Washington that has an administrative distance of 2. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two.)

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

C.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::3 2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

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Question # 30

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

A.

implemented over a dedicated WAN

B.

located in the same data center as the users

C.

all hosted on physical servers

D.

accessed over the Internet

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Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

A.

255.255.248.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.240.0

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Question # 32

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

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Question # 33

What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?

A.

1000BASE-ZX is supported on links up to 1000km, and 1000BASE-LX/LH operates over links up to 70 km.

B.

1000BASE-LX/LH interoperates with multimode and single-mode fiber, and 10008ASE-ZX needs a conditioning patch cable with a multimode.

C.

1000BASE-LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000BASE-ZX operates over links up to 70 km

D.

1000BASE-ZX interoperates with dual-rate 100M/1G 10Km SFP over multimode fiber, and 1000BASE-LX/LH supports only single-rate.

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Question # 34

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

A.

control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant

B.

automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

C.

pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need

D.

self-service of computing resources by the tenant

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Question # 35

Refer to the exhibit.

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?

A.

Uncheck the Guest User check box

B.

Check the Guest User Role check box

C.

Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0

D.

Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value

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Question # 36

Refer to the exhibit. After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3. how are the packets routed?

A.

They are routed to 172.16.20.2.

B.

They are routed to 192.168.100.2.

C.

They are distributed sent round robin to interfaces SO/0/0 and SO/0/1.

D.

They are routed to 10.0.0.2.

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Question # 37

What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)

A.

to enable the number of MAC addresses learned on the port to l

B.

to protect the operation of the port from topology change processes

C.

to enable the pod to enter the forwarding state immediately when the host boots up

D.

to prevent the port from participating in Spanning Tree Protocol operations

E.

to block another switch or host from communicating through the port

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Question # 38

A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?

A.

/64

B.

/96

C.

/124

D.

/128

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Question # 39

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)

A.

crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024

B.

transport input all

C.

crypto key generate rsa usage-keys

D.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048

E.

transport Input ssh

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Question # 40

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

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Question # 41

Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wireless authentication?

A.

Client Exclusion and SSH

B.

802.1x and the MAC address of the server

C.

Network Access Control State and SSH

D.

AAA Override and the IP address of the server

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Question # 42

What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?

A.

They use HTTP messages to communicate.

B.

They enable communication between the controller and the network device.

C.

They convey information from the controller to the SDN applications.

D.

They communicate with the management plane.

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Question # 43

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 44

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

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Question # 45

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Question # 46

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 47

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

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Question # 48

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

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Question # 49

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

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Question # 50

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0 ' 1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

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Question # 51

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

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Question # 52

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

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Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

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Question # 54

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Question # 55

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

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Question # 56

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 57

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

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Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 59

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

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Question # 60

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

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Question # 61

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

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Question # 62

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

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Question # 63

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 64

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

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Question # 65

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Question # 66

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

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Question # 67

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

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Question # 68

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

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Question # 69

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Question # 70

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Question # 71

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

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Question # 72

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

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Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

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Question # 74

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

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Question # 75

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Question # 77

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Question # 78

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Question # 79

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Question # 80

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

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Question # 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 82

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

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Question # 83

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Full Access
Question # 84

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Full Access
Question # 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Full Access
Question # 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Full Access
Question # 87

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 88

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

Full Access
Question # 89

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Full Access
Question # 90

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Full Access
Question # 91

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Full Access
Question # 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Full Access
Question # 93

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Full Access
Question # 95

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Full Access
Question # 96

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Full Access
Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Full Access
Question # 98

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Full Access
Question # 99

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

Full Access
Question # 100

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Full Access
Question # 101

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Full Access
Question # 102

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Full Access
Question # 103

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Full Access
Question # 104

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Full Access
Question # 105

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 106

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Full Access
Question # 107

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 108

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Full Access
Question # 109

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

Full Access
Question # 110

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Full Access
Question # 111

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config > #ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Full Access
Question # 112

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Full Access
Question # 113

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Full Access
Question # 114

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Full Access
Question # 115

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Full Access
Question # 116

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Full Access
Question # 117

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Full Access
Question # 118

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Full Access
Question # 119

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

Full Access
Question # 120

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

A.

global unicast

B.

unique local

C.

link-local

D.

multicast

Full Access
Question # 121

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Full Access
Question # 122

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Full Access
Question # 123

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Full Access
Question # 124

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

Full Access
Question # 125

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 126

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Full Access
Question # 127

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Full Access
Question # 128

Refer to me exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

Full Access
Question # 129

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

A.

cost

B.

adminstrative distance

C.

metric

D.

as-path

Full Access
Question # 130

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Full Access
Question # 131

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

Full Access
Question # 132

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

Full Access
Question # 133

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Full Access
Question # 134

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

Full Access
Question # 135

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Full Access
Question # 136

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Full Access
Question # 137

Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

Full Access
Question # 138

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

Full Access
Question # 139

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

Full Access
Question # 140

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Full Access
Question # 141

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Full Access
Question # 142

Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

A.

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

B.

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

C.

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

D.

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

Full Access
Question # 143

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

Internal EIGRP

D.

OSPF

Full Access
Question # 144

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

Full Access
Question # 145

Refer to the exhibit.

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

Full Access
Question # 146

What is the function of a server?

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Full Access
Question # 147

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 148

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

Full Access
Question # 149

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in " mode active "

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Full Access
Question # 150

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Full Access
Question # 151

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Full Access
Question # 152

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

Full Access
Question # 153

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

Full Access
Question # 154

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 155

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

Full Access
Question # 156

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

Full Access
Question # 157

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Full Access
Question # 158

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

Full Access
Question # 159

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

Full Access
Question # 160

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

Full Access
Question # 161

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

Full Access
Question # 162

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Full Access
Question # 163

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 164

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 165

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

A.

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Full Access
Question # 166

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

Full Access
Question # 167

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

Full Access
Question # 168

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 169

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

A.

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D.

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Full Access
Question # 170

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

Full Access
Question # 171

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

Full Access
Question # 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

A.

192.168.1.17

B.

192.168.1.61

C.

192.168.1.64

D.

192.168.1.127

E.

192.168.1.254

Full Access
Question # 173

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 174

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

Full Access
Question # 175

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Full Access
Question # 176

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

A.

northbound API

B.

REST API

C.

SOAP API

D.

southbound API

Full Access
Question # 177

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

Full Access
Question # 178

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

A.

ntp authenticate

B.

ntp server

C.

ntp peer

D.

ntp master

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Question # 179

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

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Question # 180

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

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Question # 181

Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

Full Access
Question # 182

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

A.

It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

B.

It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

C.

It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

D.

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

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Question # 183

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Full Access
Question # 184

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

Full Access
Question # 185

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Full Access
Question # 186

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Full Access
Question # 187

An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 188

Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

Full Access
Question # 189

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0 ' 1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Full Access
Question # 190

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

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Question # 191

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

Full Access
Question # 192

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Full Access
Question # 193

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Full Access
Question # 194

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

A.

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Full Access
Question # 195

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

Full Access
Question # 196

Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

A.

Shaping

B.

Policing

C.

Weighted fair queuing

D.

FIFO

Full Access
Question # 197

How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?

A.

Reduces the response time for specific requests to devices with many interfaces

B.

Categorizes traffic and provides insights

C.

Allows the controller to be vendor-agnostic

D.

Streamlines monitoring using SNMP and other polling tools

Full Access
Question # 198

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?

A.

QinQ

B.

ISL

C.

PAgP

D.

LAG

Full Access
Question # 199

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 200

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

Full Access
Question # 201

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

Full Access
Question # 202

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

performs packet fragmentation and reassembly

B.

tracks the number of active TCP connections

C.

provides a single broadcast domain for all connected devices

D.

uses the data link layer for communications

Full Access
Question # 203

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Full Access
Question # 204

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

Full Access
Question # 205

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

A.

enable the PortFast feature on ports

B.

implement port-based authentication

C.

configure static ARP entries

D.

configure ports to a fixed speed

E.

shut down unused ports

Full Access
Question # 206

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131

B.

ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224

D.

ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

Full Access
Question # 207

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

A.

collision

B.

CRC

C.

runt

D.

late collision

Full Access
Question # 208

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

Full Access
Question # 209

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Full Access
Question # 210

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

Full Access
Question # 211

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

Full Access
Question # 212

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Full Access
Question # 213

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

A.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685

B.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

C.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

D.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

Full Access
Question # 214

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A.

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B.

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

C.

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

D.

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

Full Access
Question # 215

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:

Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.

Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.

Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A.

Enable the Aironet IE option.

B.

Enable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required

D.

Enable the client band select option.

E.

Enable the allow AAA Override option

Full Access
Question # 216

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

queueing

C.

bad NIC

D.

broadcast storm

Full Access
Question # 217

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

A.

REST API

B.

OpenFlow

C.

Southbound API

D.

NETCONF

Full Access
Question # 218

Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)

A.

Policing is not supported on subinterfaces.

B.

Shaping and rate limiting have the same effect.

C.

Shaping drops excessive traffic without adding traffic delay.

D.

Shaping levels out traffic bursts by delaying excess traffic.

E.

Policing is performed in the inbound and outbound directions.

Full Access
Question # 219

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 220

Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

A.

Informational

B.

debugging

C.

alerts

D.

notifications

Full Access
Question # 221

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLan " has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?

A.

There is a strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using x.509 standard.

B.

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addresses connect to the network.

C.

There is a robust security mechanism configured to protect against various Layer 2 and Layer 3 attacks.

D.

There is Galois cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication.

Full Access
Question # 222

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

Full Access
Question # 223

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

Full Access
Question # 224

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

A.

cost 20

B.

cost 30

C.

cost 40

D.

cost 50

Full Access
Question # 225

Refer to the exhibit. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLAN " has Layer 2 Security configured with MAC filtering enabled. What additional security is provided by this specific feature?

A.

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addresses connect to the network

B.

There is strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using X.509 standard

C.

All data frames exchanged between the client and the access point are encrypted

D.

There is a Galcis cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication

Full Access
Question # 226

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.

Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?

A.

switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active

B.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode active

C.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode on

D.

switchport switchport mode trunk

Full Access
Question # 227

What is a benefit of VRRP?

A.

It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.

B.

It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

C.

It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.

D.

It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

Full Access
Question # 228

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Full Access
Question # 229

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

A.

0.0.0.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.255

Full Access
Question # 230

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Full Access
Question # 231

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

Full Access
Question # 232

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 233

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Full Access
Question # 234

What is represented in line 3 within this JSON schema?

A.

object

B.

key

C.

array

D.

value

Full Access
Question # 235

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

Full Access
Question # 236

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Full Access
Question # 237

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch are added with redundant connections between them.

B.

A spine switch is added with at least 40 GB uplinks.

C.

A leaf switch is added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch is added with connections to every spine switch.

Full Access
Question # 238

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

Full Access
Question # 239

How does MAC learning function?

A.

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

Full Access
Question # 240

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination address of 10.10.10.147?

A.

Serial 0/0

B.

FastEthernet 0/2

C.

FastEthernet 0/0

D.

FastEthernet 0/1

Full Access
Question # 241

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?

A.

GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/0

C.

GigabitEthernet2/0

D.

Null0

Full Access
Question # 242

How does MAC learning function?

A.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the CAM table

C.

sends the frame back to the source to verify availability

D.

drops received MAC addresses not listed in the address table

Full Access
Question # 243

Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?

A.

Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.

B.

Select a correctly configured Layer 2 ACL.

C.

Set the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy to Not-Allow.

D.

Set the MFP Client Protection to Required.

Full Access
Question # 244

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

Full Access
Question # 245

Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

A.

Informational

B.

debugging

C.

alerts

D.

notifications

Full Access
Question # 246

Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

A.

Shaping

B.

Policing

C.

Weighted fair queuing

D.

FIFO

Full Access
Question # 247

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

Full Access
Question # 248

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport mode trunk

C.

switchport nonegotiate

D.

switchport mode dynamic auto

Full Access
Question # 249

Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.

Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table

How does the switch handle the frame?

A.

It ages out the frame until the MAC address becomes known.

B.

It drops the frame to avoid unnecessary network congestion.

C.

It switches the frame to a predetermined port based on settings.

D.

It floods the frame to all ports except the incoming port.

Full Access
Question # 250

Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

Full Access
Question # 251

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?

A.

Content-Type: application/json

B.

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.

Accept: application/json

D.

Accept-Language: application/json

Full Access
Question # 252

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Full Access
Question # 253

Refer to the exhibit.

Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 254

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

A.

PBR

B.

FRTS

C.

PQ

D.

CBWFQ

E.

CAR

Full Access
Question # 255

What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?

A.

16

B.

32

C.

48

D.

64

Full Access
Question # 256

Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST

C.

OpFlex

D.

SOAP

E.

NETCONF

Full Access
Question # 257

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

A.

UDP

B.

RTP

C.

TCP

D.

IP

E.

ARP

Full Access
Question # 258

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 259

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

A.

Cost 20

B.

Cost 30

C.

Cost 40

D.

Cost 50

Full Access
Question # 260

What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?

A.

Security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS.

B.

Devices communicate with each other to establish a security policy.

C.

It creates a unified control point making security policies consistent across all devices.

D.

It exposes an API to configure locally per device for security policies.

Full Access
Question # 261

A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?

A.

ipconfig /renew

B.

ipconfig

C.

ipconfig /all

D.

ipconfig /displaydns

Full Access
Question # 262

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

it supports protocol discovery

Full Access
Question # 263

What is a DNS lookup operation?

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Full Access
Question # 264

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?

A.

show ip route

B.

show ip interface

C.

show interface

D.

show cdp neighbor

Full Access
Question # 265

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

Full Access
Question # 266

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

Full Access
Question # 267

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

A.

achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B.

runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

C.

handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

D.

runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

E.

housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

Full Access
Question # 268

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

Full Access
Question # 269

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Full Access
Question # 270

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

Full Access
Question # 271

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch are added with redundant connections between them.

B.

A spine switch is added with at least 40 GB uplinks.

C.

A leaf switch is added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch is added with connections to every spine switch.

Full Access
Question # 272

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

Full Access
Question # 273

Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.

Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table

How does the switch handle the frame?

A.

It ages out the frame until the MAC address becomes known.

B.

It drops the frame to avoid unnecessary network congestion.

C.

It switches the frame to a predetermined port based on settings.

D.

It floods the frame to all ports except the incoming port.

Full Access
Question # 274

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

A.

The link is in a down state.

B.

The link is in an error disables state

C.

The link is becomes an access port.

D.

The link becomes a trunk port.

Full Access
Question # 275

Refer to the exhibit.

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

Router

C.

Load balancer

D.

firewall

Full Access
Question # 276

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

A.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

Full Access
Question # 277

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

A.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Full Access
Question # 278

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

Full Access
Question # 279

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

A.

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

B.

The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

C.

Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

D.

The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

Full Access
Question # 280

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

Full Access
Question # 281

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 282

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

Full Access
Question # 283

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 284

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 285

What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?

A.

Writes the class identifier of a packet to a dedicated field in the packet header

B.

Services traffic according to its class

C.

Configures traffic-matching rules on network devices

D.

Identifies the type of traffic that will receive a particular treatment

Full Access
Question # 286

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

A.

cost 20

B.

cost 30

C.

cost 40

D.

cost 50

Full Access
Question # 287

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

Integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

B.

Serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

D.

Correlates user activity with network events

Full Access
Question # 288

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

Full Access
Question # 289

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

Full Access
Question # 290

What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?

A.

provides protection against spyware

B.

eliminates network piggybacking

C.

associates a name to a wireless network

D.

allows easy file sharing between endpoints

Full Access
Question # 291

Refer to the exhibit.

Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

OSPF

D.

RIP

Full Access
Question # 292

Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.

Which set of actions corrects the configuration?

A.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.248.

B.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the DNS servers to 172.16.1.12 and 172.16.1.13.

C.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the default gateway to 172.16.1.7.

D.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the DNS server to 172.16.1.12 only.

Full Access
Question # 293

Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?

A.

Default

B.

Access

C.

Trunk

D.

LAG

Full Access
Question # 294

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

A.

EIGRP

B.

OSPF

C.

RIP

D.

Local

Full Access
Question # 295

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 296

What is a function of Layer 3 switches?

A.

They route traffic between devices in different VLANs.

B.

They forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses.

C.

They move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses.

D.

They transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively.

Full Access
Question # 297

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

Full Access
Question # 298

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the CPE router to allow computers in the 172.20.1.0/24 network to obtain their IP configurations from the central DHCP server. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the CPE?

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/1ip helper-address 172.20.254.1

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0ip helper-address 172.20.1.1

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0ip helper-address 172.20.255.1

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/ip helper-address 172.20.255.11

Full Access
Question # 299

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

A.

interface gi0/1no cdp enable

B.

interface gi0/1clear cdp table

C.

interface gi0/0no cdp advertise-v2

D.

interface gi0/0no cdp run

Full Access
Question # 300

When deploying a new network that includes both Cisco and third-party network devices, which redundancy protocol avoids the interruption of network traffic if the default gateway router fails?

A.

FHRP

B.

HSRP

C.

GLBP

D.

VRRP

Full Access
Question # 301

Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?

A.

Use an access list to filter out the syslog messages.

B.

Turn off the logging monitor in global configuration mode.

C.

Disable logging to the console.

D.

Set the logging trap severity level to informational.

Full Access
Question # 302

Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)

A.

Policing is not supported on subinterfaces.

B.

Shaping and rate limiting have the same effect.

C.

Shaping drops excessive traffic without adding traffic delay.

D.

Shaping levels out traffic bursts by delaying excess traffic.

E.

Policing is performed in the inbound and outbound directions.

Full Access
Question # 303

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

A.

Provide uninterrupted forwarding service.

B.

Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

C.

Provide direct connectivity for end user devices.

D.

Ensure timely data transfer between layers.

E.

Inspect packets for malicious activity.

Full Access
Question # 304

When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)

A.

relay agent information

B.

database agent

C.

address pool

D.

smart-relay

E.

manual bindings

Full Access
Question # 305

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 306

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

Full Access
Question # 307

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

A.

A TCP connection has been torn down

B.

An ICMP connection has been built

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A certificate has expired.

Full Access
Question # 308

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 309

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

A.

read

B.

update

C.

create

D.

delete

Full Access
Question # 310

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

A.

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Full Access
Question # 311

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

A.

DHCP

B.

STP

C.

SNMP

D.

DNS

Full Access
Question # 312

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Full Access
Question # 313

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

A.

it enables BPDU messages

B.

It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

C.

It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

D.

It immediately enables the port in the listening state

Full Access
Question # 314

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

Full Access
Question # 315

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

A.

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

B.

broadcast to all ports

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

Full Access
Question # 316

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

A.

asychronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

Full Access
Question # 317

Refer to the exhibit.

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

Full Access
Question # 318

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

Full Access
Question # 319

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 320

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

A.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

B.

Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

C.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

D.

Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Full Access
Question # 321

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

A.

It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.

B.

It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.

C.

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.

D.

It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

E.

It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

Full Access
Question # 322

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

Full Access
Question # 323

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

Full Access
Question # 324

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 325

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

Full Access
Question # 326

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

A.

CPU ACL

B.

TACACS

C.

Flex ACL

D.

RADIUS

Full Access
Question # 327

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two.)

A.

Enable the 802.1X option for Authentication Key Management

B.

Enable the WPA2 Policy option

C.

Enable the CCKM option for Authentication Key Management

D.

Enable the MAC Filtering option

E.

Enable the OSEN Policy option

Full Access
Question # 328

Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?

A.

channels 2, 7, 9, and 11

B.

channels 1, 6, 11, and 14

C.

channels 2, 7, and 11

D.

channels 1, 6, and 11

Full Access
Question # 329

Refer to the exhibit.

How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 330

Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?

A.

service port

B.

virtual

C.

AP-Manager

D.

dynamic

Full Access
Question # 331

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

Full Access
Question # 332

Which capability does TFTP provide?

A.

loads configuration files on systems without data storage devices

B.

provides authentication for data communications over a private data network

C.

provides encryption mechanisms for file transfer across a WAN

D.

provides secure file access within the LAN

Full Access
Question # 333

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?

A.

10.165 20.126

B.

10.165.20.146

C.

10.165.20.166

D.

10.165 20.226

Full Access
Question # 334

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

A.

255.255.254.0

B.

255.255.255.240

C.

255.255.255.248

D.

255.255.255.252

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Question # 335

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary address must be advertised in OSPF?

A.

10.1.40.0/25

B.

10.1.40.0/24

C.

10.1.40.0/23

D.

10.1.41.0/25

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Question # 336

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

A.

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.252.0 g0/0

B.

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 g0/0

C.

ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 g0/0

D.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0

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Question # 337

What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?

A.

SNMP traps are used for proactive monitoring, and SNMP polling is used for reactive monitoring.

B.

SNMP traps send periodic updates via the MIB, and SNMP polling sends data on demand.

C.

SNMP traps are initiated by the network management system, and network devices initiate SNMP polling.

D.

SNMP traps are initiated using a push model at the network device, and SNMP polling is initiated at the server.

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Question # 338

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

A.

GigabitEthernet0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Null0

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Question # 339

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?

A.

It creates a broadcast storm.

B.

It drops the frame from the MAC table of the switch.

C.

It shuts down the source port and places It In err-disable mode.

D.

It floods the frame out of every port except the source port.

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Question # 340

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?

A.

ip route 172.25.25 0 255 255 255.0 192.168.2.1

B.

ip route 172.25.25 1 255 255 255 255 g0/1

C.

ip route 172.25.25.0.255.255.255.0.192.168.2.2

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Question # 341

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

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Question # 342

Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

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Question # 343

What is a DHCP client?

A.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

B.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

D.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

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Question # 344

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

A.

longest prefix match

B.

highest administrative distance

C.

highest metric

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

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Question # 345

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration. Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)

A.

SW1(config)#enable secret ccnaTest123

B.

SW1(config)#username NEW secret R3mote123

C.

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15 SW1(config-line)#transport input ssh

D.

SW1(config)# crypto key generate rsa

E.

SW1(config)# interface f0/1 SW1(confif-if)# switchport mode trunk

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Question # 346

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

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Question # 347

Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

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Question # 348

What are two facts that differentiate optical fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)

A.

It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture.

B.

It carries signals for longer distances.

C.

It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices.

D.

It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables.

E.

It provides greater throughput options.

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Question # 349

What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

A.

In-band management via an asynchronous transport

B.

out-of-band management via an IP transport

C.

in-band management via an IP transport

D.

out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport

Full Access
Question # 350

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?

A.

Port security

B.

High throughput

C.

Cable disconnect

D.

duplex mismatch

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Question # 351

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

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Question # 352

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 353

Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?

A.

EtherChannel

B.

LAG

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Question # 354

What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

A.

forwarding mode and provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge for each VLAN

B.

learning mode and provides the shortest path toward the root bridge handling traffic away from the LAN

C.

blocking mode and provides an alternate path toward the designated bridge

D.

listening mode and provides an alternate path toward the root bridge

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Question # 355

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

A.

It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.

B.

It supports between 50 and 100 users.

C.

It supports between 1 and 50 users.

D.

It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.

E.

A router port connects to a broadband connection.

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Question # 356

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization

B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable

C.

when the addresses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addresses

D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet

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Question # 357

Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?

A.

pipe

B.

control

C.

transport

D.

tunnel

Full Access
Question # 358

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configurator

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

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Question # 359

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 172.16.32 254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Full Access
Question # 360

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID.

Full Access
Question # 361

Which protocol does a REST API use to communicate?

A.

SSH

B.

SNMP

C.

HTTP

D.

STP

Full Access
Question # 362

What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?

A.

The control parameters of the MRP run

B.

The creation date of the materials

C.

The low-level code of the materials

D.

The replenishment lead time of the materials

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Question # 363

Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)

A.

Enable the Broadcast SSID option

B.

Enable the Status option.

C.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802 11g Only.

D.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

E.

Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

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Question # 364

Refer to the exhibit.

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 365

Refer to the exhibit.

The P2P blocking action option is disabled on the WLC.

A.

Enable the Static IP Tunneling option.

B.

Disable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Check the DHCP Addr. Assignment check box.

D.

Set the P2P Blocking Action option to Forward-UpStream.

Full Access
Question # 366

Refer to the exhibit. How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

A.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

B.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

C.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

D.

Add the ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands under both interfaces.

Full Access
Question # 367

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

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Question # 368

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::1/64

B.

ipv6 address autoconfig 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF2::/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 link-local

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Question # 369

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

A.

Re-Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

OEAP Split Tunnel

C.

11ac MU-MIMO

D.

Client Band Select

Full Access
Question # 370

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Full Access
Question # 371

Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)

A.

Only authentication records the duration of a user ' s connection.

B.

Only authentication supports user-activity audits.

C.

Only authentication provides supporting information for billing users.

D.

Only authentication challenges users for their credentials and returns a response.

E.

Only authentication validates " who you are. "

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Question # 372

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

A.

applies 802.1x authentication

B.

usesTKIP

C.

employs PKI to identify access points

D.

protects against brute force attacks

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