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200-301 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

RADIUS

C.

TACACS+

D.

HTTP

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Question # 7

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

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Question # 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

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Question # 9

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

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Question # 10

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

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Question # 11

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

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Question # 12

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

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Question # 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 14

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

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Question # 15

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

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Question # 16

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

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Question # 17

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

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Question # 18

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

A.

Enable NTP authentication.

B.

Verify the time zone.

C.

Disable NTP broadcasts

D.

Specify the IP address of the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP server private key

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Question # 19

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

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Question # 20

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

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Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

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Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

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Question # 23

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

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Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

A.

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

C.

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

D.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

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Question # 25

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

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Question # 26

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

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Question # 27

What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)

A.

It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN

B.

It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN

C.

It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN

D.

It is at most 32 characters long.

E.

IT provides secured access to a WLAN

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Question # 28

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

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Question # 29

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

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Question # 30

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

A.

The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

C.

The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.

D.

The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

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Question # 31

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

A.

enable the PortFast feature on ports

B.

implement port-based authentication

C.

configure static ARP entries

D.

configure ports to a fixed speed

E.

shut down unused ports

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Question # 32

What is the function of a server?

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

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Question # 33

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

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Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

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Question # 35

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

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Question # 36

Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

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Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 38

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

A.

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

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Question # 39

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

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Question # 40

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

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Question # 41

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

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Question # 42

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

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Question # 43

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 44

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

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Question # 45

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

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Question # 46

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

Internal EIGRP

D.

OSPF

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Question # 47

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

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Question # 48

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

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Question # 49

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

A.

TKiP encryption

B.

AES encryption

C.

scrambled encryption key

D.

SAE encryption

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Question # 50

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

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Question # 51

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

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Question # 52

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

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Question # 53

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

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Question # 54

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

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Question # 55

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

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Question # 56

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

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Question # 57

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

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Question # 58

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

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Question # 59

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

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Question # 60

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

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Question # 61

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

A.

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

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Question # 62

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

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Question # 63

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

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Question # 64

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

A.

northbound API

B.

REST API

C.

SOAP API

D.

southbound API

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Question # 65

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 66

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 67

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

A.

It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

B.

For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.

C.

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

D.

It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

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Question # 68

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

A.

ntp authenticate

B.

ntp server

C.

ntp peer

D.

ntp master

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Question # 69

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

A.

192.168.1.17

B.

192.168.1.61

C.

192.168.1.64

D.

192.168.1.127

E.

192.168.1.254

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Question # 70

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

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Question # 71

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

A.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

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Question # 72

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

A.

1,6,11

B.

1,5,10

C.

1,2,3

D.

5,6,7

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Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?

A.

queuing

B.

marking

C.

shaping

D.

policing

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Question # 74

Refer to the exhibit.

Given the following switch MAC addresses, which switch will be elected as the root bridge?

SW1: 0C:5A:05:53:27:17

SW2: 0C:0A:A8:1A:3C:9D

SW3: 0C:0A:18:81:83:19

SW4: 0C:0A:05:22:05:97

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Question # 75

Refer to the exhibit.

Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?

A.

192.168.7.4

B.

192.168.7.7

C.

192.168.7.35

D.

192.168.7.40

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Question # 76

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

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Question # 77

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

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Question # 78

Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

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Question # 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

A.

10.10.10.1

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.10.10.14

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Question # 80

Refer to Exhibit.

Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:

DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30

DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29

DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28

HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used

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Question # 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

A.

192.168.10/24

B.

192.168.3.0/24

C.

192.168.2.0/24

D.

172.16 1.0/24

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Question # 82

Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?

A.

A point-to-point network type is configured.

B.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.

C.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface.

D.

The interface is not participating in OSPF.

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Question # 83

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?

A.

STP

B.

port security

C.

wrong cable type

D.

shutdown command

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Question # 84

Which action must be taken when password protection is Implemented?

A.

Use less than eight characters in length when passwords are complex.

B.

Store passwords as contacts on a mobile device with single-factor authentication.

C.

Include special characters and make passwords as long as allowed.

D.

Share passwords with senior IT management to ensure proper oversight.

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Question # 85

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

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Question # 86

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

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Question # 87

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8 :: 500:a:400F:583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8 :: 5:a:4F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :: db8:0000 :: 500:a:400F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0 :: 500:a:4F:583B

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Question # 88

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

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Question # 89

Refer to the exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the lookback3 interface of the Washington router.

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

B.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

C.

ipv6 route 2000:3 123 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

Full Access
Question # 90

Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?

A.

multicast

B.

private

C.

loopback

D.

public

Full Access
Question # 91

A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require

A.

Unlike lightweight access points, which require redundant WLCs to support firmware upgrades, autonomous access points require only one WLC.

B.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points store a complete copy of the current firmware for backup.

C.

Unlike lightweight access points, autonomous access points can recover automatically from a corrupt firmware update.

D.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC to implement remote firmware updates.

Full Access
Question # 92

What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?

A.

to reduce interference

B.

to allow for channel bonding

C.

to stabilize the RF environment

D.

to increase bandwidth

Full Access
Question # 93

What is the role of the root port in a switched network?

A.

It replaces the designated port when the designated port fails

B.

It is the best path to the root from a nonroot switch.

C.

It replaces the designated port when the root port fails.

D.

It is administratively disabled until a failover occurs.

Full Access
Question # 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

A.

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.252.0 g0/0

B.

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 g0/0

C.

ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 g0/0

D.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0

Full Access
Question # 95

Refer to the exhibit An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1 Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?

A.

Ipv6 address 2001:dbB:d8d2:1008:4343:61:0010::/64

B.

Ipv6 address autoconfig

C.

Ipv6 address fe80::/10

D.

Ipv6 address dhcp

Full Access
Question # 96

What is a valid IPv6 address record in DNS?

A.

A

B.

MX

C.

AAAA

D.

CNAME

Full Access
Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

Loopback0

C.

10.1.1.1

D.

10.1.1.3

Full Access
Question # 98

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125. Which configuration must the engineer perform on the WLC?

A.

In the Management Software activation configuration, set the Clients value to 125.

B.

In the Controller IPv6 configuration, set the Throttle value to 125.

C.

In the WLAN configuration, set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 125.

D.

In the Advanced configuration, set the DTIM value to 125.

Full Access
Question # 99

Refer to the exhibit.

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

Full Access
Question # 100

What is a DHCP client?

A.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

B.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

D.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

Full Access
Question # 101

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

A.

out-of-band management

B.

secure in-band connectivity for device administration

C.

unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers

D.

HTTP-based GUI connectivity

Full Access
Question # 102

Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

A.

ESX host

B.

resolver

C.

web

D.

file transfer

E.

authentication

Full Access
Question # 103

What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

A.

forwarding mode and provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge for each VLAN

B.

learning mode and provides the shortest path toward the root bridge handling traffic away from the LAN

C.

blocking mode and provides an alternate path toward the designated bridge

D.

listening mode and provides an alternate path toward the root bridge

Full Access
Question # 104

Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)

A.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively

B.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

C.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

D.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Full Access
Question # 105

What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?

A.

source MAC address and aging time

B.

destination MAC address and flush time

C.

source MAC address and source port

D.

destination MAC address and destination port

Full Access
Question # 106

What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

A.

In-band management via an asynchronous transport

B.

out-of-band management via an IP transport

C.

in-band management via an IP transport

D.

out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport

Full Access
Question # 107

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 must be implemented on R1 to the ISP The uplink between R1 and the ISP must be configured with a manual assignment, and the LAN interface must be self-provisioned Both connections must use the applicable IPv6 networks Which two configurations must be applied to R1? (Choose two.)

A.

interface Gi0/1ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA02:/127

B.

interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:AFFF::/64 eui-64

C.

interface Gi0/1ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA00:/127

D.

interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:AFFF::/64 eui-64

E.

interface Gi0/0ipv6 address 2001:db8:0F1B:FCCB:ACCE:FCED:ABCD:FA03;/127

Full Access
Question # 108

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

Full Access
Question # 109

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

A.

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

B.

Comply with PCI regulations

C.

Comply with local law

D.

Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers

Full Access
Question # 110

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

Full Access
Question # 111

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 112

An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 113

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP, and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol's route will be installed in the routing table?

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

OSPF

D.

Internal EIGRP

Full Access
Question # 114

When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

A.

when a nonidempotent operation is needed

B.

to update a DNS server

C.

to display a web site

D.

when a read-only operation it required

Full Access
Question # 115

What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?

A.

employs PKI and RADIUS to identify access points

B.

applies 802.1x authentication and AES-128 encryption

C.

uses TKIP and per-packet keying

D.

defends against deauthentication and disassociation attacks

Full Access
Question # 116

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

A.

Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

B.

Enable "box by box" configuration and deployment.

C.

Decipher simple password policies.

D.

Increase recurrent management costs.

Full Access
Question # 117

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

ip domain-name domain

B.

password password

C.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Full Access
Question # 118

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

Full Access
Question # 119

What are two lacts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)

A.

It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables.

B.

It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture.

C.

It provides greater throughput options.

D.

It carries signals for longer distances.

E.

It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices.

Full Access
Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

A.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

Full Access
Question # 121

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

A.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

B.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.

C.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on interface FaO 2 on SW2.

D.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

Full Access
Question # 122

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A. B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which nary address must be advertised in OSPF?

A.

10.1.40.0/25

B.

10.1.40.0/24

C.

10.1.40.0/23

D.

10.1.41.0/25

Full Access
Question # 123

Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 124

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

32

Full Access
Question # 125

Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wireless authentication?

A.

Client Exclusion and SSH

B.

802.1x and the MAC address of the server

C.

Network Access Control State and SSH

D.

AAA Override and the IP address of the server

Full Access
Question # 126

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

Full Access
Question # 127

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

A.

It needs a high MTU between sites.

B.

It has a high implementation cost.

C.

It must have point-to-point communication.

D.

It requires complex configuration.

E.

It works only with BGP between sites.

Full Access
Question # 128

Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 129

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 130

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)

A.

assigns DNS locally and then forwards request to DHCP server

B.

permits one IP helper command under an individual Layer 3 interface

C.

allows only MAC-to-IP reservations to determine the local subnet of a client

D.

minimizes the necessary number of DHCP servers

E.

configured under the Layer 3 interface of a router on the client subnet

Full Access
Question # 131

How is a configuration change made to a wireless AP in lightweight mode?

A.

SSH connection to the management IP of the AP

B.

EolP connection via the parent WLC

C.

CAPWAP/LWAPP connection via the parent WLC

D.

HTTPS connection directly to the out-of-band address of the AP

Full Access
Question # 132

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

A.

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.

B.

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

Full Access
Question # 133

Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 134

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

Full Access
Question # 135

Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?

A.

Cisco DNA Center leverages SNMPv3 tor encrypted management, and traditional campus management uses SNMPv2.

B.

Cisco DNA Center automates HTTPS for secure web access, and traditional campus management uses HTTP.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages APIs, and traditional campus management requires manual data gathering.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automates SSH access for encrypted entry, and SSH Is absent from traditional campus management.

Full Access
Question # 136

Full Access
Question # 137

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are presented?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 138

Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?

A.

ip access-list extended Services35 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

B.

no ip access-list extended Servicesip access-list extended Services30 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

C.

ip access-list extended Servicespermit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

D.

no ip access-list extended Servicesip access-list extended Servicespermit udp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any eq 53permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domaindeny ip any any log

Full Access
Question # 139

NO: 346

What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?

    Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.

A.

Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.

B.

Cloud-based mode APs are easy to deploy but harder to automate than APs in autonomous mode.

C.

Autonomous mode APs are easy to deploy and automate than APs in cloud-based mode.

Full Access
Question # 140

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

Full Access
Question # 141

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Full Access
Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 143

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Full Access
Question # 144

Which protocol uses the SSL?

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Full Access
Question # 145

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Full Access
Question # 146

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Full Access
Question # 147

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 148

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Full Access
Question # 149

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 150

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Full Access
Question # 151

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 152

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Full Access
Question # 153

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Full Access
Question # 154

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Full Access
Question # 155

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Full Access
Question # 156

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Full Access
Question # 157

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Full Access
Question # 158

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Full Access
Question # 159

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Full Access
Question # 161

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Full Access
Question # 162

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 163

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 164

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Full Access
Question # 165

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

Full Access
Question # 166

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

Full Access
Question # 167

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

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Question # 168

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 169

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

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Question # 170

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Question # 171

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 172

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

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Question # 173

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

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Question # 174

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

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Question # 175

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

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Question # 176

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

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Question # 177

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

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Question # 178

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

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Question # 179

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Question # 180

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

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Question # 181

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Question # 182

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Question # 183

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

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Question # 184

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 185

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 186

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 187

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

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Question # 188

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

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Question # 189

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

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Question # 190

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

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Question # 191

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

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Question # 192

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

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Question # 193

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 194

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

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Question # 195

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 196

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

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Question # 197

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

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Question # 198

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

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Question # 199

Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

A.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.

This is a root bridge

C.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

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Question # 200

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

A.

1.544 Mbps

B.

2.048 Mbps

C.

34.368 Mbps

D.

43.7 Mbps

Full Access
Question # 201

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

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Question # 202

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

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Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

A.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

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Question # 204

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Question # 205

Which option about JSON is true?

A.

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

B.

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C.

used for storing information

D.

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

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Question # 206

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

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Question # 207

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

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Question # 208

Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?

A.

There is a native VLAN mismatch

B.

Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

C.

The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN

D.

All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

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Question # 209

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

A.

Reassociation Request

B.

Probe Request

C.

Authentication Request

D.

Association Request

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Question # 210

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

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Question # 211

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

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Question # 212

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

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Question # 213

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

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Question # 214

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST API

C.

NETCONF

D.

Southbound API

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Question # 215

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

A.

outside global

B.

outsdwde local

C.

inside global

D.

insride local

E.

outside public

F.

inside public

Full Access
Question # 216

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

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Question # 217

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

A.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685

B.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

C.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

D.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

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Question # 218

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

A.

It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.

B.

It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.

C.

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.

D.

It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

E.

It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

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Question # 219

Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

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Question # 220

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor's port ID

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Question # 221

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

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Question # 222

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

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Question # 223

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Full Access
Question # 224

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

Full Access
Question # 225

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

A.

ipv6 address dhcp

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

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Question # 226

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

A.

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

B.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

C.

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

D.

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

E.

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

Full Access
Question # 227

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

A.

DHCP

B.

STP

C.

SNMP

D.

DNS

Full Access
Question # 228

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

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Question # 229

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

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Question # 230

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

A.

asychronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Question # 231

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

A.

TACACS server

B.

wireless access point

C.

RADIUS server

D.

wireless LAN controller

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Question # 232

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

Full Access
Question # 233

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

Full Access
Question # 234

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

A.

OpenFlow

B.

NETCONF

C.

Thrift

D.

CORBA

E.

DSC

Full Access
Question # 235

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

A.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

C.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.

D.

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

Full Access
Question # 236

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

A.

lt drops the frame immediately.

B.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

C.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

D.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

Full Access
Question # 237

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

A.

adminadmin123

B.

default

C.

testing 1234

D.

cisco123

Full Access
Question # 238

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

Full Access
Question # 239

An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 240

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

A.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Full Access
Question # 241

in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

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Question # 242

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

Full Access
Question # 243

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

Full Access
Question # 244

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

Full Access
Question # 245

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

A.

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

Full Access
Question # 246

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Full Access
Question # 247

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

Full Access
Question # 248

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23

A.

G0/23

B.

G0/3

C.

G0/16

D.

G0/6

Full Access
Question # 249

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

Full Access
Question # 250

Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.

Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table

How does the switch handle the frame?

A.

It ages out the frame until the MAC address becomes known.

B.

It drops the frame to avoid unnecessary network congestion.

C.

It switches the frame to a predetermined port based on settings.

D.

It floods the frame to all ports except the incoming port.

Full Access
Question # 251

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 252

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Full Access
Question # 253

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

Full Access
Question # 254

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Full Access
Question # 255

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

Full Access
Question # 256

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Full Access
Question # 257

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

Full Access
Question # 258

How does MAC learning function?

A.

Enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

Forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

C.

Overwrites the known source MAC address in the address table

D.

Protects against denial of service attacks

Full Access
Question # 259

Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:0FFA:0::/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::1/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 anycast

Full Access
Question # 260

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

A.

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

Full Access
Question # 261

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

A.

PBR

B.

FRTS

C.

PQ

D.

CBWFQ

E.

CAR

Full Access
Question # 262

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

A.

via 10.0.4.2

B.

via 10.0.0.2

C.

via FastEthernet0/1

D.

via FastEthernet1/1

Full Access
Question # 263

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 264

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Full Access
Question # 265

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Full Access
Question # 266

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Full Access
Question # 267

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Full Access
Question # 268

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 269

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

Full Access
Question # 270

Refer to the exhibit.

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

Router

C.

Load balancer

D.

firewall

Full Access
Question # 271

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

A.

Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

B.

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

C.

allows application developers to interact with the network

D.

integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

Full Access
Question # 272

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

network-as-a-service

D.

infrastructure-as-a-service

Full Access
Question # 273

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

Full Access
Question # 274

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 275

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

A.

read

B.

update

C.

create

D.

delete

Full Access
Question # 276

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 277

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

Full Access
Question # 278

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

Full Access
Question # 279

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

Full Access
Question # 280

What is a DHCP client?

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a rooter that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

Full Access
Question # 281

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

A.

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Full Access
Question # 282

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

Full Access
Question # 283

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Full Access
Question # 284

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

A.

1729.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

Full Access
Question # 285

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

A.

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Full Access
Question # 286

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

Full Access
Question # 287

Refer to Exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

C.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

Full Access
Question # 288

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Full Access
Question # 289

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

A.

reduced management overhead on network routers

B.

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.

higher degree of availability

D.

reduced ARP traffic on the network

Full Access
Question # 290

Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

Full Access
Question # 291

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 292

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 293

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Full Access
Question # 294

Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

multifactor authentication

C.

attribute-based access control

D.

rule-based access control

Full Access
Question # 295

Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?

A.

cloud computing

B.

virtualization

C.

application hosting

D.

containers

Full Access
Question # 296

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:

    Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.

    Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.

Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A.

Enable the Aironet IE option.

B.

Enable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required

D.

Enable the client band select option.

E.

Enable the allow AAA Override option

Full Access
Question # 297

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

A.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

D.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: l4/64 fd00:12::2

E.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/64 fd00:12::2

Full Access
Question # 298

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 299

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport mode trunk

C.

switchport nonegotiate

D.

switchport mode dynamic auto

Full Access
Question # 300

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

Full Access
Question # 301

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

A.

provides external internet network connectivity

B.

provides unlimited address ranges

C.

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.

reuses addresses at multiple sites

E.

conserves globally unique address space

Full Access
Question # 302

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?

A.

10.0.0.2

B.

110

C.

30

D.

2

Full Access
Question # 303

Refer to the exhibit.

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

A.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

Full Access
Question # 304

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC address storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

Full Access
Question # 305

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 306

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

Full Access
Question # 307

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

Full Access
Question # 308

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 309

What is the function of generative AI in network operations?

A.

It disables unused services.

B.

It deploys network firmware updates.

C.

It creates synthetic network configurations.

D.

It computes optimal data storage solutions.

Full Access
Question # 310

What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?

A.

value

B.

object

C.

array

D.

key

Full Access
Question # 311

Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?

A.

distribution

B.

service

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual

Full Access
Question # 312

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

Full Access
Question # 313

Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

A.

mesh

B.

local

C.

bridge

D.

point-to-point

Full Access
Question # 314

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

A.

0.0.0.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.255

Full Access
Question # 315

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?

A.

Content-Type: application/json

B.

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.

Accept: application/json

D.

Accept-Language: application/json

Full Access
Question # 316

What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?

A.

16

B.

32

C.

48

D.

64

Full Access
Question # 317

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7

10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6

10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4

10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5

A.

F0/7

B.

F0/5

C.

F0/4

D.

F0/6

Full Access
Question # 318

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Full Access
Question # 319

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

A.

Centralized cloud management platform

B.

Central WLC

C.

Individual AP

D.

Client device

Full Access
Question # 320

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

Full Access
Question # 321

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Full Access
Question # 322

Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)

A.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

B.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to FTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

C.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

D.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

Full Access
Question # 323

Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)

A.

Policing is not supported on subinterfaces.

B.

Shaping and rate limiting have the same effect.

C.

Shaping drops excessive traffic without adding traffic delay.

D.

Shaping levels out traffic bursts by delaying excess traffic.

E.

Policing is performed in the inbound and outbound directions.

Full Access
Question # 324

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Full Access
Question # 325

Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?

A.

Use an access list to filter out the syslog messages.

B.

Turn off the logging monitor in global configuration mode.

C.

Disable logging to the console.

D.

Set the logging trap severity level to informational.

Full Access
Question # 326

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

Full Access
Question # 327

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

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Question # 328

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

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Question # 329

How does automation affect network management processes?

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

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Question # 330

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addresses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP address

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Question # 331

What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

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Question # 332

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

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Question # 333

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

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Question # 334

Why would a network administrator implement the HSRP protocol?

A.

To provide network redundancy in the case of a router failure

B.

To use an open standard protocol that is configured on Cisco and third-party routers

C.

To allow hosts in a network to use the same default gateway virtual IP when load-balancing traffic

D.

To allow clients to be configured with multiple default gateway IPs

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Question # 335

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

A.

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.

They assign IP addresses to devices.

C.

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

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Question # 336

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

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Question # 337

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

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Question # 338

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

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Question # 339

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring on this switch?

A.

A high number of frames smaller than 64 bytes are received.

B.

Frames are dropped after 16 failed transmission attempts.

C.

The internal transmit buffer is overloaded.

D.

An excessive number of frames greater than 1518 bytes are received.

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Question # 340

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

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Question # 341

Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

A.

to uniquely identify clients to monitor their usage patterns

B.

to encrypt data to prevent excessive usage

C.

to contain embedded permissions that automatically expire

D.

to track the geographical location of each request

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Question # 342

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

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Question # 343

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

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Question # 344

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

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Question # 345

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

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