F3 Questions and Answers

PPP says identical goods should cost the same when prices are expressed in a common currency, but in reality transport costs, taxes, tariffs, and market imperfections can allow differences to persist.

Answer: C. Economic forces should eliminate the price difference, but imperfections may permit it to persist.

Step 1 – Determine rights price and number of new shares

Current share price = $12.50

20% discount → rights price = 12.50 × 0.8 = $10.00

Amount to be raised = $15m → new shares = 15 / 10 = 1.5m

Total shares after issue = 3m + 1.5m = 4.5m

Step 2 – Total equity value after financing and project

Current equity value = 3m × 12.50 = $37.5m

Add cash raised = +15m → 52.5m

Add NPV of project = +9m → $61.5m

Step 3 – Yield-adjusted TERP

TERP=61.54.5=13.666⋯≈$13.67\text{TERP} = \frac{61.5}{4.5} = 13.666\dots \approx \$13.67TERP=4.561.5​=13.666⋯≈$13.67

✅ Answer: D. $13.67

Using PPP to forecast the Year-3 exchange rate:

S0=1.30 USD/GBP,iUK=2%, iUS=4%S_0 = 1.30\ \text{USD/GBP},\quad i_{UK}=2\%,\ i_{US}=4\%S0​=1.30 USD/GBP,iUK​=2%, iUS​=4%

Many exam questions use:

S3=S0(1+iUS1+iUK)3=1.30(1.041.02)3≈1.2257 USD/GBPS_3 = S_0 \left(\frac{1+i_{US}}{1+i_{UK}}\right)^3 = 1.30\left(\frac{1.04}{1.02}\right)^3 \approx 1.2257\ \text{USD/GBP}S3​=S0​(1+iUK​1+iUS​​)3=1.30(1.021.04​)3≈1.2257 USD/GBP

Year-3 GBP remittance:

GBP3=580,0001.2257≈472,916\text{GBP}_3 = \frac{580,000}{1.2257} \approx 472,916GBP3​=1.2257580,000​≈472,916

Answer: C – GBP472,916

Current:

Revenue = $450m at $2.50/kWh → units = 450 / 2.5 = 180m kWh

Costs = $250m → Profit = $200m

After cap: price = $2.00, demand up 15%:

New volume = 180 × 1.15 = 207m kWh

New revenue = 207 × 2.00 = $414m

Costs unchanged = $250m → New profit = 414 − 250 = $164m

Answer: B. $164.00 million profit

Economy = obtaining quality inputs at minimum cost → D

Efficiency = obtaining maximum output from minimum inputs → C ✅

Effectiveness = spending funds so as to achieve the objectives → A

So efficiency is correctly defined by C.

Shares repurchased = 20% × 10m = 2m

Cash used = 2m × $0.75 = $1.5m

Original cash = $2m → decrease = 1.5/2 = 75%

EPS:

Earnings = $2m

Shares before = 10m → EPS = 2/10 = $0.20

Shares after = 8m → EPS = 2/8 = $0.25

Increase in EPS = (0.25 − 0.20)/0.20 = 25%

Answer: B. The cash balance will decrease by 75% and EPS will increase by 25%.

IFRS 7 requires detailed disclosures of financial instrument risks, specifically:

Credit risk – exposure to counterparties failing to meet obligations.

Market risk – currency, interest rate, and other price risks.

Liquidity risk – ability to meet obligations as they fall due.

Business risk and enterprise risk are broader strategic concepts, not the focus of IFRS 7.

✅ Answer: A, C, and E

A – True: listed companies face more onerous reporting and disclosure.

B – True: flotation planning must allow for issue/underwriting costs when deciding how much capital to raise.

C – True: listing can enhance reputation and credit standing, often improving supplier terms.

D – False: increased scrutiny usually reassures investors.

E – False: a company must become/remain a public company to list, not re-register as private.

Answer (Q118): A, B, C

The directors are using free cash flows to all investors but they want to value equity only. For equity valuation they should discount equity cash flows (dividends or FCFE) at the cost of equity (10%), so using WACC is a weakness → A.

The cash flow in Year 3 is stated as “Year 3 and each year thereafter = 7”. That means a level cash flow from Year 3 onwards, i.e. a perpetuity, but they have only discounted one year of it (7 × 0.794). They should have used a perpetuity factor → C.

Discounting free cash flow to all investors at WACC gives the value of the whole entity (firm value), not the equity. To get equity value you would then subtract the market value of debt. They have not done this → D.

B and E are therefore not appropriate criticisms.

Profit before tax = $10m (the “10 0” in the text).

Tax @ 20% ⇒ earnings after tax = 10 × (1 − 0.20) = $8m.

For a takeover, it’s appropriate to use the takeover P/E range in the same industry: 11–12 times.

Value range = 8 × 11 to 8 × 12 = $88m to $96m.

Answer: B – Minimum $88m, maximum $96m.

Why not A?

For A:

Spot: F$1 = K$1.40

1-year forward: F$1 = K$1.44

Interest: F$ at 5%, K$ at 8%

Covered interest parity condition:

F=S×1+iK1+iFF = S \times \frac{1+i_{K}}{1+i_{F}}F=S×1+iF​1+iK​​ F=1.40×1.081.05=1.40×1.028571…≈1.44F = 1.40 \times \frac{1.08}{1.05} = 1.40 \times 1.028571… \approx 1.44F=1.40×1.051.08​=1.40×1.028571…≈1.44

Forward rate is consistent with interest rates → no arbitrage.

Option D – Covered interest arbitrage

For D, everything is the same except K$ interest = 9%:

Fno-arbitrage=1.40×1.091.05=1.40×1.038095…≈1.45F_{\text{no-arbitrage}} = 1.40 \times \frac{1.09}{1.05} = 1.40 \times 1.038095… \approx 1.45Fno-arbitrage​=1.40×1.051.09​=1.40×1.038095…≈1.45

But given forward is only 1.44, so:

Borrow F$, convert to K$, invest at 9%, and lock in selling K$ forward at 1.44.

This produces a risk-free return greater than 5%, so covered interest arbitrage exists.

Option B vs C – Triangular arbitrage

From the first two quotes:

\text{F$1} = \text{K$1.40},\quad \text{K$1} = \text{L$2.10} \Rightarrow \text{F$1} = 1.40 \times 2.10 = \text{L$2.94}

So the implied rate is:

\text{L$1} = \frac{1}{2.94} \approx \text{F$0.3401}

Option B gives L$1 = F$0.34 → essentially equal (no exploitable difference assumed in exam context) → no arbitrage.

Option C gives L$1 = F$0.40, which is far from 0.3401 → direct L$/F$ quote is inconsistent with cross-rate ⇒ triangular arbitrage opportunity.

Answer: Options C and D offer arbitrage opportunities.

They need cash within 6 months and Divisions A and B are core. Options:

A. Sale of Division B – sells a core division; strategically undesirable.

B. Closure of a division – doesn’t raise cash, likely costs cash (redundancies, closure costs).

C. Management buy-out of Division C – disposes of a non-core asset, raises cash, and there is known management interest. ✅

D. Demerger of Division C – typically does not raise cash; it just separates ownership.

So the most suitable exit strategy is C.

The items that most clearly enhance shareholder wealth are those that increase future cash flows or create valuable strategic assets:

D. Exploiting production synergies – cost savings / higher margins.

E. Elimination of existing competition – greater pricing power and market share.

F. Acquiring intellectual property assets – unique products, barriers to entry, licensing income.

Let’s walk it through carefully.

1. Current earnings and EPS

EBIT = 5m

Current interest (5% × 10m) = 0.5m

Profit before tax = 5.0 − 0.5 = 4.5m

Tax (20%) = 0.9m

Earnings = 4.5 − 0.9 = 3.6m

Shares = 10m → EPS₀ = 3.6 / 10 = 0.36

Current share price = 3.60 → current P/E = 3.60 / 0.36 = 10 (matches the question context).

2. Earnings next year with higher interest

New interest rate = 6% → interest = 10m × 6% = 0.6m

Profit before tax = 5.0 − 0.6 = 4.4m

Tax (20%) = 0.88m

Earnings = 4.4 − 0.88 = 3.52m

EPS₁ = 3.52 / 10m = 0.352

3. New share price using new P/E

Expected P/E next year = 9.5

Price1=EPS1×P/E1=0.352×9.5=3.344\text{Price}_1 = \text{EPS}_1 \times \text{P/E}_1 = 0.352 \times 9.5 = 3.344Price1​=EPS1​×P/E1​=0.352×9.5=3.344

4. Percentage reduction in share price

Current price = 3.60

New price ≈ 3.344

Drop = 3.60 − 3.344 = 0.256

% reduction=0.2563.60≈7.1%≈7%\%\ \text{reduction} = \frac{0.256}{3.60} \approx 7.1\% \approx 7\%% reduction=3.600.256​≈7.1%≈7%

So the closest option is A. Reduction of 7%.

Conversion value = (conversion ratio) × (share price).

Share price is expected to grow 5% p.a. from $4.50, so the conversion value rises each year. With a steadily rising price and no other constraints given, a rational bondholder delays conversion as long as possible among the dates offered, to maximise value.

So the most worthwhile of the dates listed is the latest one: 31 December 20X3.

Answer: C. 31 December 20X3

A company is moving from all-equity to a geared structure (D:E = 1:2) with corporate tax.

Using Modigliani & Miller with tax:

ke=ke0+(ke0−kd)(1−T)DEk_e = k_{e0} + (k_{e0} - k_d)(1-T)\frac{D}{E}ke​=ke0​+(ke0​−kd​)(1−T)ED​

Where:

ke0=8%k_{e0} = 8\%ke0​=8% (ungeared cost of equity)

kd=4%k_d = 4\%kd​=4%

T=30%T = 30\%T=30%

D/E=1/2=0.5D/E = 1/2 = 0.5D/E=1/2=0.5

ke=8%+(8%−4%)×0.7×0.5=8%+4%×0.35=8%+1.4%=9.4%k_e = 8\% + (8\% - 4\%) \times 0.7 \times 0.5 = 8\% + 4\% \times 0.35 = 8\% + 1.4\% = 9.4\%ke​=8%+(8%−4%)×0.7×0.5=8%+4%×0.35=8%+1.4%=9.4%

Answer: A. 9.4%

PBIT = $500,000

Existing interest = 5% × 300,000 = $15,000

Profit before tax = 500,000 − 15,000 = $485,000

Tax (30%) = 0.30 × 485,000 = $145,500

Earnings = 485,000 − 145,500 = $339,500

Shares = 250,000 ⇒ EPS = 339,500 / 250,000 ≈ $1.36

Share price = $8 ⇒ P/E ≈ 8 / 1.36 ≈ 5.9

Interest cover = PBIT / Interest = 500,000 / 15,000 ≈ 33.3 times

After the new debt and project:

New PBIT = 500,000 + 24,000 = $524,000

New interest = 15,000 + (3% × 200,000) = 15,000 + 6,000 = $21,000

Profit before tax = 524,000 − 21,000 = $503,000

Tax (30%) = 0.30 × 503,000 = $150,900

Earnings = 503,000 − 150,900 = $352,100

EPS = 352,100 / 250,000 ≈ $1.41

New share price = $8.50

New P/E ≈ 8.50 / 1.41 ≈ 6.0 (higher than before)

New interest cover = 524,000 / 21,000 ≈ 25.0 times (lower than before).

So:

Interest cover falls

P/E ratio rises

Correct option: B.

“Boot-strapping” in takeover valuation is the shortcut where you:

Add the current post-tax earnings of bidder and target;

Apply the bidder’s (usually higher) P/E ratio to that combined earnings figure to estimate the post-acquisition value.

Company X is an established, unquoted, specialist IT advisory firm with steady results, predictable dividends and cashflows. Company P is only buying 30% (a minority stake).

B. Dividend based using DVM – Very suitable because dividends are predictable and regular. For a minority stake, dividends are often the main measurable return, so a dividend valuation model is appropriate.

C. Cash based using free cash flow before interest – A DCF valuation based on free cash flow to the firm is also appropriate for a profitable, growing, going concern. You can value the whole business using FCFF and then take 30% of the equity value.

Asset-based (A) is less relevant for a specialist service company with relatively few tangible assets. P/E-based methods (D and E) are less ideal given there are few direct competitors, making comparables unreliable.

For a listed company in the food retailing industry, the most relevant non-financial objectives are typically focused on customers and people, because success depends heavily on service quality, shopping experience and motivated staff.

A. Reduce customer complaints – Very appropriate. Complaints are a direct indicator of service problems, product quality issues, or process failures. Reducing complaints improves reputation and customer retention.

B. Increase customer service quality – Core objective for food retailers. Better service quality (speed at checkout, helpful staff, availability of products) improves competitive position and supports long-term sales growth.

D. Improve staff morale – Also highly relevant. Retail is labour-intensive and customer-facing. Motivated staff deliver better service, are more productive, and turnover is reduced.

Options C (Reduce production time) and E (Reduce raw material wastage) are more typical of manufacturing businesses, not retailers, who primarily buy finished goods rather than “produce” them. A retailer might track stock wastage or shrinkage, but the wording “raw material wastage” points clearly to a production environment.

So the best three for a listed food retailer are A, B and D.

Current year:

Revenue = $50m

PBIT = $10m → margin = 10/50 = 20%

Tax = 20%

Earnings = 10 × (1 − 0.20) = $8m

Next year:

Revenue still $50m

40% of revenue = $20m → margin falls to 18%

PBIT on this part=20×18%=3.6\text{PBIT on this part} = 20 \times 18\% = 3.6PBIT on this part=20×18%=3.6

60% of revenue = $30m → margin stays 20%

PBIT on this part=30×20%=6.0\text{PBIT on this part} = 30 \times 20\% = 6.0PBIT on this part=30×20%=6.0

Total PBIT next year:

3.6+6.0=9.6 million3.6 + 6.0 = 9.6\ \text{million}3.6+6.0=9.6 million

Earnings after tax next year:

9.6×(1−0.20)=9.6×0.8=7.68 million9.6 \times (1 - 0.20) = 9.6 \times 0.8 = 7.68\ \text{million}9.6×(1−0.20)=9.6×0.8=7.68 million

Percentage reduction in earnings:

8.00−7.688.00=0.328=0.04=4%\frac{8.00 - 7.68}{8.00} = \frac{0.32}{8} = 0.04 = 4\%8.008.00−7.68​=80.32​=0.04=4%

Correct option:

C. Reduction of 4.0%\boxed{\text{C. Reduction of 4.0\%}}C. Reduction of 4.0%​

Correct answer: C – Net asset based valuation using replacement cost best suits a capital-intensive company with reliable tangible asset values and highly uncertain future earnings/cash flows.

CIMA F3 clearly states that acquisitions enhance shareholder wealth only if they create real economic value, not just strategic or reputational benefits.

A. Press coverage – ✘

Media exposure does not directly generate cash flows or economic value.

B. New opportunities for employees – ✘

While beneficial socially, this does not directly enhance shareholder wealth unless it improves profitability.

C. Cultural diversity – ✘

CIMA F3 treats this as a soft benefit with no guaranteed financial return.

D. Acquiring Intellectual Property – ✔

IP can generate monopoly power, licensing income, and sustainable competitive advantage, directly increasing future cash flows.

E. Exploiting production synergies – ✔

Cost savings and operational efficiencies are a primary source of acquisition value highlighted throughout the F3 syllabus.

F. Elimination of competition – ✔

Reduced competition can increase pricing power and market share, improving long-term profitability and shareholder value.

In an MBO structure, senior bank debt has first claim on cash flows. Failure to pay interest on this debt can trigger default, covenants being breached, and potentially insolvency or loss of control.

Director bonuses (B) and dividends to the VC (C) are discretionary and can usually be postponed.

Inability to invest in new projects (D) is harmful for growth but less immediately threatening than defaulting on senior debt.

So the most critical cash use that must be covered is interest on bank debt.

G has effectively created an interest rate collar:

Buys a cap at 10% (protects against high rates).

Sells a floor at 8.5% (gives up benefit if rates fall too low, to reduce cost).

So:

A – True: G sacrifices gains from falling rates to help fund the cap.

B – True: the structure keeps G’s effective borrowing rate between 8.5% and 10%.

C – True: the main concern is rates rising above 10%, hence the cap.

D and E misinterpret the direction of the concern.

Cash flows:

Years 1–3: 100, 100, 100

From year 4: grow at 2% forever. Cost of capital = 12%.

PV of years 1–3:

PV1−3=1001.12+1001.122+1001.123≈240\text{PV}_{1-3} = \frac{100}{1.12} + \frac{100}{1.12^2} + \frac{100}{1.12^3} \approx 240PV1−3​=1.12100​+1.122100​+1.123100​≈240

Terminal value at end of year 3:

Year 4 CF = 100×1.02=102100 \times 1.02 = 102100×1.02=102

TV3=1020.12−0.02=1020.10=1,020\text{TV}_3 = \frac{102}{0.12 - 0.02} = \frac{102}{0.10} = 1{,}020TV3​=0.12−0.02102​=0.10102​=1,020

PV of terminal value:

PV(TV)=1,0201.123≈726\text{PV(TV)} = \frac{1{,}020}{1.12^3} \approx 726PV(TV)=1.1231,020​≈726

Total value ≈ 240+726=966240 + 726 = 966240+726=966.

So the value is $966 million → Option A.

Issue price at 20% discount to $5 = $4 per share.

Amount to raise = 20m → new shares = 20m / 4 = 5m.

Existing shares = 20m → rights ratio = 5m : 20m = 1 : 4.

Answer: A. 1 new share for every 4 existing shares

A: Reduce the annual dividend to a more sustainable level

Price controls are expected to be long-term and have cut annual profit from $3bn to $1bn. Continuing to pay a $1.5bn dividend would rely on running down cash and reserves, which is not sustainable. A rational response is to reset the dividend to a level that can be covered by ongoing earnings in the new regulatory environment.

B: Review costs and staffing to find savings

With revenues capped, GDE’s main lever to protect profitability and cash flow is cost efficiency. A thorough review of operating costs and staffing can help offset some of the profit reduction, which supports long-term shareholder value and the ability to pay dividends in future.

C: Seek new revenue streams outside the price controls

Since core electricity prices are constrained, diversifying into related goods and services that are not regulated (e.g. energy services, maintenance contracts, renewables consulting, etc.) is a sensible strategic response. This can grow earnings without breaching the price cap.

Why not D or E?

D: Rights issue to maintain historical dividend levels would mean issuing equity essentially to fund dividends, which destroys shareholder value and signals poor financial discipline.

E: Bringing in a private equity investor is not an obvious or necessary response here; private equity would demand high returns and major restructuring, and it doesn’t directly address the regulatory profit squeeze in the way cost control and new revenue lines do.

Answer: A. $129.6

Working

Current share price = $5.60

Growth for 3 years at 5% p.a.:

P3=5.60×1.053=5.60×1.157625=6.4827≈$6.48P_3 = 5.60 \times 1.05^3 = 5.60 \times 1.157625 = 6.4827 \approx \$6.48P3​=5.60×1.053=5.60×1.157625=6.4827≈$6.48

Conversion terms = 20 shares per $100 bond

Conversion value in 3 years:

Conversion value=20×6.4827=129.654≈$129.6\text{Conversion value} = 20 \times 6.4827 = 129.654 \approx \$129.6Conversion value=20×6.4827=129.654≈$129.6

So the expected conversion value per $100 bond is $129.6.

Value for Money is usually assessed using the 3 Es:

Economy – acquiring inputs at the lowest cost for a given quality (they pay less than other schools, so economy is actually good).

Effectiveness – achieving objectives (exam pass rates are high, so effectiveness is good).

Efficiency – the relationship between outputs and inputs (how well resources are turned into results).

Here, small class sizes mean more teaching resource per pupil. Even though results are good, they’re achieved with relatively high input (lots of teacher time per pupil), indicating weaker efficiency, not economy or effectiveness.

This question examines the appropriateness of debt financing instruments in the context of a high-risk, growth-oriented pharmaceutical company, which is a classic scenario discussed within CIMA F3 under Financing Decisions, Risk and Capital Structure, and Hybrid Finance.

Company P operates in a sector characterised by long development cycles, high uncertainty, and intangible asset bases. Its value derives primarily from human capital and intellectual property rather than tangible fixed assets. According to CIMA F3 study guidance, such firms face significant difficulty raising conventional straight debt, as lenders typically require stable cash flows and asset security. Furthermore, the company’s existing cash flows are only sufficient for operational needs, not major R&D expenditure, increasing perceived credit risk.

A convertible bond is explicitly highlighted in CIMA F3 as a suitable financing instrument for companies with high growth potential but limited current cash flows. Convertible bonds combine features of debt and equity, offering investors downside protection through fixed interest payments while providing upside potential through conversion into equity if the company succeeds. This reduces the required coupon rate (4% in this case), easing short-term cash flow pressure, which is crucial for Company P during the development phase of the new drug.

Importantly, the doctors who own and manage Company P wish to retain control, a key strategic constraint. Convertible bonds delay equity dilution until conversion occurs and only if the company performs well. This aligns with F3 principles that hybrid instruments are appropriate when firms wish to balance financing needs with control considerations.

The alternative options are unsuitable:

Eurobonds and conventional bonds (Options A and B) require strong credit standing and asset backing.

Commercial paper (Option C) is short-term, unsecured, and inappropriate for long-term R&D funding.

Therefore, consistent with CIMA F3 guidance on risk-adjusted financing strategy, the most appropriate choice is the convertible bond.

C – Correct: only valuing three years of forecast cash flows ignores the continuing value of the business, so the valuation is understated.

D – Correct: based on typical CIMA F3 treatment, the forecast FX path should reflect expected weakening of the foreign currency (often due to higher inflation), but the assistant’s rates instead imply a strengthening B$, so the FX forecasts are inconsistent.

E – Correct: the assistant has effectively valued the business (entity value) by discounting cash flows to all providers of finance. To arrive at equity value, the B$5m of debt should be deducted.

A is incorrect because multiplying by an exchange rate quoted as AS per B$ is the right approach. B is incorrect because cash flows to all investors are appropriately discounted at WACC, not at the cost of equity.

The company’s gearing is below its optimal level, so it plans to increase debt by issuing long-term bonds and using the proceeds to repurchase shares. CIMA F3 teaches that altering capital structure affects risk, cost of capital, and shareholder metrics.

A. Weighted Average Cost of Capital – Decreases (✔)

Since the company is moving toward its optimal gearing level, replacing equity with cheaper debt finance initially reduces WACC due to the tax shield on interest. This is a core Modigliani–Miller (with tax) implication emphasised in F3.

B. Cost of equity – Increases (✘)

Higher gearing increases financial risk to equity holders, so the cost of equity rises, not falls.

C. Interest cover – Decreases (✔)

Interest expense rises due to the new bond issue while earnings remain unchanged. This reduces interest cover, a key credit-risk indicator in F3.

D. Dividend per share – Increases (✘)

The same total dividend is paid but fewer shares remain after the buy-back, so dividend per share increases.

E. Gearing (book value) – Decreases (✔)

This is a common exam trap. Equity is reduced sharply due to the buy-back, and debt rises. However, because equity is reduced faster than debt rises, the denominator (debt + equity) falls, reducing the ratio based on book values as defined in the question.

F. Number of shares – Decreases (✘)

Shares do fall, but the question asks which measures decrease most likely; F3 focuses on financial metrics rather than mechanical outcomes.

 A. The corporate tax rate in country P is 40%.

Tax in P (40%) is higher than in T (20%), so moving profits to P via a subsidiary gives a tax disadvantage, not an advantage.

 B. There are restrictions on companies wishing to remit profit from country P

That makes it harder to get cash out of P – this is a disadvantage of having a subsidiary there.

 C. Year 1 tax depreciation allowances of 100% are available in country P. ✅

This is very attractive for an investment in a manufacturing subsidiary. A 100% first-year allowance means the company can deduct the full cost of qualifying assets immediately, reducing taxable profit and tax in early years. That’s a clear advantage to setting up in P.

 D. There is a double tax treaty between country T and country P. ✅

A double tax treaty usually prevents the same profits being taxed twice and provides tax credits/relief for foreign taxes. This especially matters when you operate via a foreign subsidiary. So it’s an advantage to establishing a subsidiary in P.

 E. There are high customs duties payable on products entering country P. ✅

If the company exports directly from T, it pays high customs duties into P. If it manufactures inside P via a subsidiary, those import duties are avoided. So high customs duties on imports are an argument in favour of local production via a subsidiary – a clear advantage of establishing the subsidiary.

Company pays 3.5% fixed on its borrowing and enters a swap at 3.4–3.5% vs 12-month USD risk-free rate.

To move from fixed to floating, it will receive fixed 3.4% and pay floating (risk-free):

Net interest:

3.5%−3.4%+rf=rf+0.1%3.5\% - 3.4\% + \text{rf} = \text{rf} + 0.1\%3.5%−3.4%+rf=rf+0.1%

Answer to Q102: C – 12-month USD risk-free rate plus 0.1%

Reasoning:

After an all-cash acquisition which the market views positively, shareholders in Company Z will mainly focus on value delivery from the deal:

A. Realisation of anticipated synergies – core reason for doing the deal.

C. Integration and retention of key employees – critical in an advertising business where human capital and client relationships are key.

E. Retention of key customers of the acquired company – losing major clients would quickly destroy acquisition value.

B is not a priority: target company shareholders have already been paid out in cash.

D is irrelevant now: the acquisition has already been completed, so regulatory approval is in the past.

Short-term interest rate futures (STIRs) are:

Standardised, exchange-traded contracts

Not tailored exactly to one company’s needs (that’s FRAs)

Traded on an exchange, so you can close out early by taking an opposite position

If interest rates fall, futures prices rise (since price ≈ 100 – interest rate)

Now check each statement:

A. “Tailored to exact needs” → False (that’s an FRA)

B. “If interest rates go down the price will have fallen” → False (it rises)

C. “Must be kept for whole duration” → False

D. “Date is flexible and the position can be closed quickly and easily” → True (you choose the contract month and can close out any time before expiry)

Answer: D. The date is flexible and the position can be closed quickly and easily.

Negatives for the bank:

A. Advanced, custom-made tech equipment – poor resale value and high obsolescence risk, weak security.

C. Premises on a long-term lease and not fully fitted out – limited asset security; further capital outlay still needed.

E. Essential ongoing R&D – continuing cash demands and uncertainty of returns.

Positives, so not negatives:

B. Continuing profitability and net cash generation – good for servicing debt.

D. Founders’ personal investment – shows commitment and loss-sharing; strengthens equity base.

A. True – holding more securities across different industries reduces unsystematic risk.

B. False – systematic risk (market risk) cannot be diversified away.

C. True – beta measures an investment’s systematic risk relative to the market.

D. False – beta of 1 means same risk as the market, not risk-free.

E. True – the Security Market Line (SML) plots expected return against beta (systematic risk).

So the correct three are A, C and E.

Applying an industry P/E ratio to DDD's forecast earnings.

In CIMA F3, the evaluation of mergers and acquisitions focuses on whether shareholder wealth is increased through strategic and operational synergies, rather than accounting or cosmetic effects. When assessing benefits, CIMA emphasises real economic advantages arising from the acquisition.

A. Access to technical expertise ✔ Correct

This is the most significant benefit in this scenario. Company Q operates in a highly technical service industry and derives much of its value from human capital. CIMA F3 explicitly recognises that acquiring skilled employees and specialist knowledge constitutes a knowledge-based synergy, which can enhance innovation, service quality, and competitive advantage for the acquirer.

D. Gain economies of scale ✔ Correct

Both companies operate in the same industry, making economies of scale highly achievable. CIMA F3 identifies cost synergies—such as shared infrastructure, reduced overheads, and improved purchasing power—as a primary motive for horizontal acquisitions. These efficiencies directly enhance shareholder value.

E. Improve earnings per share (EPS) ✔ Correct

Although CIMA warns that EPS growth alone does not guarantee value creation, it remains a likely outcome where genuine synergies and earnings growth exist. Given Company Q’s consistent earnings growth and Company M’s ability to apply its listed-company resources, EPS enhancement is a plausible benefit to shareholders.

Why the other options are incorrect

B. Reduction of risk through diversification ✘ Incorrect

CIMA F3 states that diversification benefits arise mainly from unrelated acquisitions. As both firms operate in the same industry, shareholders gain little additional risk reduction.

C. Improved asset backing due to intangible assets ✘ Incorrect

Intangible assets—especially human capital—are generally not acceptable collateral for borrowing. CIMA F3 highlights that asset backing depends primarily on tangible, transferable assets.

✅ Final Answer:

A, D, E\boxed{A,\ D,\ E}A, D, E​

You can send the next CIMA F3 question whenever you’re ready.

Imports and exports are in US$, home currency is RS. Each company has the same total revenue/cost level; what differs is their net US$ exposure, which drives how sensitive profit growth is to the US$/RS rate.

From the table:

Company L: Imports 10, Exports 20 → net export +10 US$m

Company M: Imports 0, Exports 18 → net export +18 US$m

Company N: Imports 25, Exports 21 → net import −4 US$m

Company O: Imports 15, Exports 0 → net import −15 US$m

Sensitivity to exchange rate = size of the net US$ position (absolute value).

Comparing: |+10|, |+18|, |−4|, |−15| → the largest is 18 for Company M.

So Company M’s operating profit growth is most sensitive to movements in the US$/RS rate.

✅ Answer: B – Company M

Free cash flow year 3 = Z$240m

Spot rate now: Z$1 = X$2

Inflation: X 2%, Z 4% → expected depreciation of Z$ via PPP:

Factor k=1.021.04=51/52k = \frac{1.02}{1.04} = 51/52k=1.041.02​=51/52

Year-3 expected rate:

S3=2×k3≈2×0.9434=1.8868 X/ZS_3 = 2 \times k^3 \approx 2 \times 0.9434 = 1.8868 \ \text{X$/Z$}S3​=2×k3≈2×0.9434=1.8868 X/Z

FCF in X$:

240×1.8868≈X$452.8m240 \times 1.8868 \approx X\$452.8\text{m}240×1.8868≈X$452.8m

Discount at 8% using given factor 0.794:

452.8×0.794≈X$359.5m452.8 \times 0.794 \approx X\$359.5\text{m}452.8×0.794≈X$359.5m

Nearest million: X$360m

Answer: D – X$360 million

Likely outcomes after two listed companies in the same industry merge:

A. Increase in customer base – yes, customers of both firms now belong to the combined entity.

B. Competition authorities step in to stop… – that usually happens before or to prevent the merger, not “after it has happened”, so not chosen.

C. Decrease in employee motivation due to internal changes – very common effect of mergers (uncertainty, restructuring).

D. Changes to supplier relationships owing to internal changes – the merged firm will have different bargaining power and processes; very likely.

E. Cost savings from synergistic benefits and economies of scale – one of the main motives for merger.

Answer: A, C, D, E

In CIMA F3’s coverage of short-term financing, commercial paper (CP) is identified as a very cost-effective funding source for large, high-credit-quality companies. CP is an unsecured, short-term promissory note, typically issued for periods up to 270 days, making it ideal for a 6-month funding need. Because it is issued directly into the money markets by strong credits, the interest cost is usually lower than overdrafts or short-term bank loans, which include a bank’s margin.

The scenario states that the company is large, listed, has an “excellent credit rating”, minimal default risk and already has a commercial paper programme. This matches the textbook profile of a company for which CP is the cheapest source of short-term borrowing.

Treasury bills (C) are issued by governments, not companies, so they are an investment vehicle, not a borrowing method here. Bank overdrafts (A) are flexible but generally expensive and better for fluctuating day-to-day needs. A 6-month term loan (B) tends to involve higher arrangement fees and interest margins than CP. Therefore, option D is the most cost-effective choice.

Explanation (concise):

To value the equity of BNM appropriately, HJK can use:

D. Share price × number of shares in issue

This is simply the market capitalisation, i.e. the current market value of equity.

A. Cash flows of $24 million discounted at the cost of equity

Discounting cash flows available to equity holders (free cash flow to equity) at the cost of equity is a standard equity valuation approach under CIMA F3.

E. Cash flows of $30 million (= $40 million net of tax at 25%) discounted at WACC minus the value of debt

Here, $30m is effectively FCFF = EBIT × (1 – T). Discounting FCFF at WACC gives the value of the firm; subtracting the value of debt then gives the equity value.

Option B double counts retained profits (already reflected in the share price), and option C is based on the wrong cash flow definition for equity valuation.

The company is deciding between:

Selling the business via a Management Buyout (MBO), or

Selling to an external private equity (PE) buyer.

From the original company’s viewpoint, an advantage of an MBO is:

The buyers are the existing management team. Relationships already exist, and there’s usually more trust and alignment.

Post-divestment, the original company may still trade with the divested unit (e.g., as a supplier or customer). Cooperation tends to be better with a familiar internal team than with an external PE house whose primary focus is financial returns.

Why the others are wrong:

B. Enhanced big data opportunities – unrelated to the divestment method.

C. Improved relationships with MBO team in the event of a sale to PE – logically inconsistent; if sold to PE, it’s not an MBO.

D. Higher price due to synergistic benefits – PE typically looks for financial engineering and operational improvements, not classic corporate synergies. You are more likely to see synergy premia when selling to a trade buyer, not in an MBO.

So the key pro-MBO argument here is better cooperation post divestment → A.

We want methods that give the value of equity, not the value of the whole entity.

A. D₁ / (kₑ – g) → Gordon growth dividend model = value of equity (share value). ✅

B. Total earnings × P/E → market capitalisation = equity value. ✅

C. Free cash flows to all investors discounted at WACC → enterprise / firm value (equity + debt). ❌

D. Free cash flows to equity discounted at cost of equity → equity value. ✅

E. NCA + CA − CL → value of net assets before deducting long-term debt, i.e. value of the business to all capital providers, not just equity. ❌

So correct choices: A, B, D.

Working

Market value of equity E=6mE = 6mE=6m; debt D=4mD = 4mD=4m; so total V=10mV = 10mV=10m.

DV=410=0.4T=20%=0.20\frac{D}{V} = \frac{4}{10} = 0.4 \qquad T = 20\% = 0.20VD​=104​=0.4T=20%=0.20

Under Modigliani–Miller with tax, the relationship between ungeared cost of equity KuK_uKu​ and the after-tax WACC is:

WACC=Ku (1−TDV)\text{WACC} = K_u\,(1 - T \tfrac{D}{V})WACC=Ku​(1−TVD​)

So:

Ku=WACC1−TDV=11.04%1−0.20×0.4=11.04%0.92=12.00%K_u = \frac{\text{WACC}}{1 - T\frac{D}{V}} = \frac{11.04\%}{1 - 0.20 \times 0.4} = \frac{11.04\%}{0.92} = 12.00\%Ku​=1−TVD​WACC​=1−0.20×0.411.04%​=0.9211.04%​=12.00%

So the ungeared cost of equity is 12.00%.

Under IAS 39, a derivative such as a forward contract must always be measured at fair value in the statement of financial position. When that derivative is designated as a cash flow hedge of a highly probable forecast transaction and hedge accounting criteria are met, the effective portion of the gain or loss on the hedging instrument is recognised in Other Comprehensive Income (OCI), not in profit or loss.

Here, by 31 December 20X3 the forward contract (entered at nil cost) has a positive fair value of $10,000, so there is a gain of $10,000. Because the hedge has been correctly designated as a cash flow hedge, that gain is treated as part of the cash flow hedge reserve in equity via OCI. It will be recycled to profit or loss in a later period when the hedged transaction affects profit or loss (e.g. when the forecast foreign currency transaction occurs).

So for the year ended 31 December 20X3, the correct treatment is to recognise a $10,000 gain in OCI – answer D.

Company currently pays fixed 7% on its bonds.

Swap quote 6.0%–6.5% fixed against LIBOR means:

Bank will pay 6.0% fixed and receive LIBOR, or

Receive 6.5% fixed and pay LIBOR.

To move from fixed to variable, the company should receive fixed and pay LIBOR, so it takes the 6.0% fixed leg.

Net position:

Pay 7% fixed on bond

Receive 6% fixed from swap

Pay LIBOR on swap

Total = (7% − 6%) + LIBOR = LIBOR + 1%

Answer: C. VARIABLE at LIBOR + 1.0%

In CIMA F3, equity valuation using P/E multiples is based on earnings available to ordinary shareholders (i.e. profit after interest and tax). The syllabus emphasises that when valuing a potential takeover target, you should (1) derive maintainable post-tax earnings and then (2) apply a P/E multiple that reflects prices actually paid in comparable acquisitions, not just average stock-market multiples.

Calculate maintainable earnings:

Profit before interest and tax (PBIT) = $5m

Less interest on 10% bonds: 10% × $10m = $1m

Profit before tax = $4m

Tax at 20% = $0.8m

Earnings for equity = $3.2m

Select the appropriate P/E multiple:

F3 explains that “takeover P/Es” are usually higher than sector trading P/Es, reflecting the control premium. Here we have:

Overall market P/E = 20

Retail sector P/E = 10

Recent retail takeovers P/E = 13

For a takeover valuation we use the 13× multiple from recent sector takeovers.

Compute equity value:

Equity value=3.2m×13=41.6m\text{Equity value} = 3.2\text{m} \times 13 = 41.6\text{m}Equity value=3.2m×13=41.6m

Debt’s market value (90% of $10m) is not added here because the P/E method already gives the equity value.

So, a reasonable expected equity value in a takeover is $41.6 million.

DFG doesn’t want to increase financial risk → avoid debt (so not loan stock: A).

It has little cash and shareholders won’t support a rights issue → cash (C) is impractical.

LMB’s owners want to defer tax → share-for-share consideration typically allows tax deferral, unlike cash.

An earn-out (D) creates uncertainty, and they plan to retire within a year, so it’s less suitable.

So DFG shares for full value now (B) best meets all constraints.

A scrip (or bonus) issue capitalises reserves: an amount is transferred from retained earnings to share capital.

Effects:

Retained earnings decrease (transfer out).

Share capital increases by the same amount.

Total equity (book value of equity) is unchanged (it’s just a reclassification).

Number of shares increases, so with unchanged earnings, EPS decreases.

That matches exactly the effects listed, so the transaction is a scrip dividend.

The market yield of 8% is a before-tax return to investors. For the company, interest payments reduce taxable profit, so the after-tax cost of debt is:

Cost of debt=Yield×(1−tax rate)\text{Cost of debt} = \text{Yield} \times (1 - \text{tax rate})Cost of debt=Yield×(1−tax rate)

This makes the company’s cost of debt lower than the 8% market yield.

The question asks for advantages to the acquiring company (ADC/ABC) of using shares rather than cash to pay for DEF.

C. It incentivises DEF to continue creating value for the combined group

If DEF’s shareholders (and possibly managers) receive shares in ADC, they now own part of the combined business. That aligns their interests with ADC’s existing shareholders and encourages them to help grow the value of the group.

E. The risk of poor future performance of the acquisition is shared with the DEF company shareholder.

If ADC pays with shares, DEF’s shareholders share in both the upside and downside. If the acquisition underperforms, the fall in value is shared instead of all the risk resting on ADC’s original shareholders. That’s an advantage for ADC.

F. It preserves liquidity

Paying with shares means ADC does not need to use up cash or raise new debt. This preserves cash balances and borrowing capacity, which is a clear advantage.

Why not the others?

A (sharing benefits of future growth with DEF shareholders) is actually a cost from ADC’s existing shareholders’ viewpoint – they give away more of the upside.

B dilution of ownership is also a disadvantage, not an advantage.

D a tax saving for ABC – the tax impact is usually more relevant for sellers or when using debt, not typically a direct advantage of share consideration to the acquirer.

Delta: 12% fixed or rf + 3% floating

Kappa: 15% fixed or rf + 4% floating

Delta’s advantage:

Fixed: 3% better (15 − 12)

Floating: 1% better (rf+4 − (rf+3))

Comparative advantage is in fixed; total potential gain from a swap = 3% − 1% = 2%, shared equally → 1% saving each.

So:

Delta (wants floating): (rf + 3%) − 1% = rf + 2%

Kappa (wants fixed): 15% − 1% = 14%

So D: Delta pays rf + 2%, Kappa pays 14%.

 A – True. Modigliani & Miller’s dividend irrelevance theory (in a no-tax, perfect market) says shareholder wealth depends on investing in all positive NPV projects, not on the pattern of dividends.

 B – True. Investor “clienteles” arise because some shareholders prefer cash (or scrip) depending on how each is taxed in their hands.

 C – True. In a frictionless, no-tax market, shareholders can create “homemade dividends” by selling some shares if they want cash.

 D – False. A cash dividend leaves the number of shares unchanged so EPS is unchanged, but a scrip dividend increases the number of shares and therefore reduces EPS.

 E – False. The residual dividend theory says dividends are paid only from residual earnings after funding all acceptable investment projects, not just after operating costs.

A and B similar market cap.

A’s gearing (D / (D+E)) = 30% vs industry 50% → relatively under-geared.

Rumours of bid good for A (A share price up) and bad for B (B share price down).

Financing choices: share exchange or cash raised by new debt.

Assess statements:

A. A’s price ↑ and B’s price ↓. For a given value per B share, fewer A shares are now needed than a few weeks ago → True.

B. With a share exchange, B’s shareholders receive A’s shares, so they share in future performance of combined entity → True.

C. Financing method does affect EPS (interest expense vs number of shares) → False.

D. Under MM with tax and given A is under-geared vs the 50% industry norm, adding debt is likely to lower WACC via the tax shield (ignoring distress costs) → Most likely true.

E. A share exchange issues equity, not debt; gearing effect is ambiguous and not necessarily an increase → Not “most likely”.

Answer: A, B and D.

Dividend Growth Model (DGM):

P0=D1ke−gP_0 = \frac{D_1}{k_e - g}P0​=ke​−gD1​​

Dividend just paid: D0=0.08D_0 = 0.08D0​=0.08

Dividend growth: g=2%=0.02g = 2\% = 0.02g=2%=0.02

Cost of equity: ke=15%=0.15k_e = 15\% = 0.15ke​=15%=0.15

Future dividend:

D1=D0(1+g)=0.08×1.02=0.0816D_1 = D_0 (1+g) = 0.08 \times 1.02 = 0.0816D1​=D0​(1+g)=0.08×1.02=0.0816

Theoretical price:

P0=0.08160.15−0.02=0.08160.13≈0.63P_0 = \frac{0.0816}{0.15 - 0.02} = \frac{0.0816}{0.13} \approx 0.63P0​=0.15−0.020.0816​=0.130.0816​≈0.63

Current market price = 0.60

Expected change: 0.63−0.60=0.030.63 - 0.60 = 0.030.63−0.60=0.03 increase → Option A.

A: Net position is pay floating (fixed to bank, receive fixed in swap, pay floating) → True.

B: No principal is exchanged in an interest rate swap → False.

C: LIBOR, not LIBID, is normally the reference rate → False.

D: Interest cash flows are exchanged periodically (e.g. annually) → True.

E: Swaps are usually between a company and a bank → True.

Answer: A, D, E

A – “X may be able to sell the receipts forward.”

If X invoices in customers’ currencies, it will receive known foreign-currency amounts and can hedge the exchange risk using forward contracts. So this is correct.

D – “The overseas customers may have difficulty obtaining X's home currency … so the proposal may increase sales.”

Right now, customers must obtain X’s currency to pay, bearing FX costs and risk. If X invoices in their local currency, buying becomes easier and could boost sales. So D is correct.

Why the others are wrong:

B: Effective sales price might go up or down; it isn’t necessarily lower.

C: Invoicing in customers’ currency removes certainty for X in home-currency terms unless hedged.

E: That describes the current position (customers bear the risk), not the proposed change.

Dividend Valuation Model (Gordon growth).

EPS = $1.00

Payout ratio = 40% → D0=0.40D_0 = 0.40D0​=0.40

Growth g=2%=0.02g = 2\% = 0.02g=2%=0.02

Cost of equity ke=12%=0.12k_e = 12\% = 0.12ke​=12%=0.12

Use:

P0=D1ke−g=D0(1+g)ke−gP_0 = \frac{D_1}{k_e - g} = \frac{D_0(1+g)}{k_e - g}P0​=ke​−gD1​​=ke​−gD0​(1+g)​ D1=0.40×1.02=0.408D_1 = 0.40 \times 1.02 = 0.408D1​=0.40×1.02=0.408 P0=0.4080.12−0.02=0.4080.10=4.08P_0 = \frac{0.408}{0.12 - 0.02} = \frac{0.408}{0.10} = 4.08P0​=0.12−0.020.408​=0.100.408​=4.08

Answer: A. $4.08

Verified Answer: = C

Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation with all CIMA F3: Financial Strategy documents: =

CIMA F3 explains warrants as equity-linked sweeteners often attached to debt issues (such as bonds) to make them more attractive, allowing the issuer to reduce the coupon rate. This aligns directly with statement A, which is therefore correct: warrants are indeed used to “sweeten” a bond and drive down the interest rate.

Statement B is also correct: a warrant gives the holder the right, but not the obligation, to subscribe for a company’s ordinary shares at a fixed exercise price on or before a specified future date. This is a core definition in the F3 syllabus under hybrid and derivative instruments.

Statement D reflects the idea that warrants can be costly to existing shareholders. If the share price in future is well above the exercise price, new shares will be issued at what is effectively a discount, diluting existing shareholders’ value. This is a recognised downside in CIMA discussions of equity-linked incentives.

Statement C is the incorrect one. Warrants are typically detachable and tradeable, but they are not normally redeemable by the issuer at nominal share value at the discretion of the holder. They’re exercised into shares or sold in the market, not “sold back” to the company for par. Hence C is NOT correct.

Questions no: 199044

For reviewing the effectiveness of hospital services, the focus is on quality of care and outcomes:

A. Proportion of surgical procedures successful – direct clinical effectiveness measure ✅

B. Average waiting times for treatment – key access and service delivery metric ✅

C. Patient satisfaction ratings – captures perceived quality and experience ✅

Options D (staff costs) and E (car park revenue) are financial/operational efficiency measures, not direct indicators of service effectiveness, so they are less relevant here.

Given current structure: D:E = 25:75, tax = 25%, asset beta ≈ 1.01.

Re-gear beta for new structure D:E = 35:65

βe′=βa[1+(1−T)DE]=1.01[1+0.75×3565]≈1.01×1.404≈1.42\beta_e' = \beta_a \big[1 + (1 - T)\frac{D}{E}\big] = 1.01 \big[1 + 0.75 \times \frac{35}{65}\big] \approx 1.01 \times 1.404 \approx 1.42βe′​=βa​[1+(1−T)ED​]=1.01[1+0.75×6535​]≈1.01×1.404≈1.42

Use CAPM with rf=4%r_f = 4\%rf​=4%, rm=12%r_m = 12\%rm​=12%:

ke′=rf+βe′(rm−rf)=4%+1.42×8%≈4%+11.4%≈15.4%k_e' = r_f + \beta_e'(r_m - r_f) = 4\% + 1.42 \times 8\% \approx 4\% + 11.4\% \approx 15.4\%ke′​=rf​+βe′​(rm​−rf​)=4%+1.42×8%≈4%+11.4%≈15.4%

Closest option: 15.36% → B.

The division is loss-making, with poor management and obsolete assets. It needs a $20m investment, but PV of future cash flows is only $15m → negative NPV of –$5m if retained.

The company wants to raise cash, so methods that don’t raise cash (de-merger, spin-off) are inappropriate.

Trade sale (C): sell the division to another company that may be better able to invest/manage it – brings in cash.

Liquidation (D): close the division and sell the assets – also raises cash and avoids further losses.

MBO (A) is unlikely, since current management is identified as part of the problem.

Answer: C and D

Company HGG is young, unlisted, loss-making so far, and has uncertain growth.

Weaknesses of using the dividend growth model here:

A. Future growth rate in earnings/dividends is hard to estimate – very true for an early-stage, high-uncertainty business.

C. It has been unprofitable and has no established dividend pattern, so the basic inputs to the model (D₀ and g) are unreliable.

E. Cost of capital is difficult to estimate for an unlisted company (no directly observable beta or market data).

B is just a description of the model, not a specific weakness here, and D is incorrect because the dividend growth model does discount future dividends (it fully incorporates time value of money).

✅ Answer Q121: A, C, E

Company issues new shares and uses proceeds to repay high-interest debt.

Effects:

Cost of equity (A): financial risk falls as gearing falls → cost of equity is more likely to decrease, not increase.

Number of shares (B): new share issue → increases.

Corporate tax payment (C): interest expense falls, taxable profit rises → tax paid increases.

Gearing (D): debt falls and equity rises → gearing decreases, not increases.

Interest cover (E): operating profit unchanged, interest lower → interest cover increases.

Answer: B, C and E

Competition authorities are mainly concerned with market power and abuse of dominance.

Proposing to increase prices significantly on routes where no other airlines operate (i.e. monopoly routes) is a classic competition concern → C.

Reducing destinations (A), selective disclosure to shareholders (B), or redundancies (D) are governance, disclosure, or employment issues, not the core focus of competition law.

Pre-acquisition:

Company X: earnings = $50m, P/E = 10 → value = 50 × 10 = $500m; shares = 100m → price = $5

Company Y: earnings = $15m, P/E = 10 → value = 15 × 10 = $150m; shares = 50m → price = $3

Combined earnings = 50 + 15 = $65m

Post-acquisition assumptions:

Earnings increase by 10% → 65 × 1.10 = $71.5m

Combined P/E remains 10 → total market value = 71.5 × 10 = $715m

We want X’s new share price to be 10% higher than $5 → target price = $5.50.

Share price = total value ÷ total X shares after issue:

5.50=715Total shares⇒Total shares=7155.5=130m5.50 = \frac{715}{\text{Total shares}} \Rightarrow \text{Total shares} = \frac{715}{5.5} = 130\text{m}5.50=Total shares715​⇒Total shares=5.5715​=130m

X currently has 100m shares, so must issue 30m new shares to Y’s shareholders.

Y has 50m shares → each Y share must get:

30m50m=0.6 X shares per Y share\frac{30m}{50m} = 0.6 \text{ X shares per Y share}50m30m​=0.6 X shares per Y share

Check options:

B: 3 X for 5 Y → 3/5 = 0.6 X per Y ✔

So that exchange ratio gives exactly 30m new X shares and hence a 10% increase in X’s share price.

Correct answer: B – 3 shares in Company X for 5 shares in Company Y.

B. WW was approaching a debt covenant limit…

If gearing was close to a covenant ceiling, repaying debt with equity avoids breaching the covenant and the costly consequences (default, renegotiation, higher rates).

C. A lower gearing ratio creates greater flexibility…

With less debt, WW has more headroom to borrow in the future if good projects arise, and is less constrained by lenders.

E. Reducing the gearing ratio has reduced the financial risk…

Less debt means lower risk of financial distress and lower volatility of equity returns, which is beneficial for shareholders even if debt is “cheaper” before adjusting for risk.

Why not the others?

A is not generally true; under MM with tax, more debt can increase firm value up to a point.

D is a bit off-target: the issue is not confusing cost of capital with wealth, but ignoring financial risk and constraints.

F is just wrong – a theory’s validity doesn’t depend on whether shareholders know it exists.

Current values (before project):

Equity = 1,100

Debt = 500

Firm value = 1,600

Project cost = 200; NPV = +10.

After the project:

Financed by rights issue (equity only)

Equity = 1,310 → increase of 210

But shareholders have to inject 200 cash themselves.

Net gain in shareholder wealth = 210 − 200 = 10

Financed by bond issue (all debt)

Equity = 1,150 → increase of 50

No new equity cash is put in by shareholders.

Net gain in shareholder wealth = 50

This equals: project NPV (10) + tax shield on extra debt (0.20 × 200 = 40).

Financed by mix of debt & equity at existing D/E

Equity = 1,260 → increase of 160

New equity raised ≈ 137 (since extra debt is 63, total 200).

Net gain = 160 − 137 = 23 (NPV 10 + extra tax shield ≈ 13).

The company’s objective is maximisation of shareholder wealth, so it should choose the financing that gives the highest net increase, which is the bond issue (all debt) with a gain of $50m to equity holders.

This is exactly what Modigliani & Miller with corporate tax predicts: increasing gearing creates value for shareholders via the interest tax shield.

Answer: B. $50 million if financed by debt

The pre-acquisition share prices are:

Company S: $5.00

Company T: $4.00

Shareholders in Company T want a 25% premium on the value of their shares, based on T’s current price:

Required value per T share=4.00×1.25=$5.00\text{Required value per T share} = 4.00 \times 1.25 = \$5.00Required value per T share=4.00×1.25=$5.00

Now value each offer using Company S’s pre-acquisition share price of $5:

A. 2 S shares for 1 T share

Value received = 2×5=$102 \times 5 = \$102×5=$10 → 150% premium (too high)

B. 1 S share for 1 T share

Value received = 1×5=$51 \times 5 = \$51×5=$5 →

Premium =5−44=25%= \frac{5 - 4}{4} = 25\%=45−4​=25% ✅

C. 1 S share for 2 T shares

That’s 0.5 S per T → 0.5×5=$2.500.5 \times 5 = \$2.500.5×5=$2.50 → actually a discount

D. 10 S shares for 4 T shares

That’s 2.5 S per T → 2.5×5=$12.502.5 \times 5 = \$12.502.5×5=$12.50 → huge premium (>200%)

Only offer B gives T’s shareholders exactly a 25% premium.

Correct answer: B – 1 share in Company S for 1 share in Company T.

A P/E valuation should use forecast sustainable earnings, not just the last year’s profit. ✅ (C)

The “E” in P/E is earnings after interest and tax, not profit before interest and tax. ✅ (D)

The P/E multiple should be based on comparable companies in the same sector, not the whole market. ✅ (E)

Statement A is wrong (unlisted companies usually get a discount, not an uplift).

Statement B is wrong (P/E gives an equity value, not whole entity value).

Answer Q34: C, D, E

A company financed by both equity and debt (the whole firm) is valued using free cash flow to the firm (before interest) discounted at the WACC.

So the correct combination is:

Free cash flow before interest at WACC → A.

The other options mismatch cash flow type and discount rate (either equity-only or post-interest flows).

Given

Market value of equity E=$7mE = \$7mE=$7m

Market value of debt D=$5mD = \$5mD=$5m

Total value V=D+E=12mV = D+E = 12mV=D+E=12m

WACC (geared) =9.375%= 9.375\%=9.375%

Tax rate T=15%T = 15\%T=15%

Let gearing in terms of D/ED/ED/E:

g=DE=57=0.7143g = \frac{D}{E} = \frac{5}{7} = 0.7143g=ED​=75​=0.7143

Under Modigliani & Miller with tax, the relationship between WACC of a geared firm (WACC_g) and the ungeared cost of equity kuk_uku​ is:

WACCg=ku [1+g(1−T)]1+g\text{WACC}_g = \frac{k_u \,[1 + g(1-T)]}{1+g}WACCg​=1+gku​[1+g(1−T)]​

Rearrange for kuk_uku​:

ku=WACCg⋅1+g1+g(1−T)k_u = \text{WACC}_g \cdot \frac{1+g}{1+g(1-T)}ku​=WACCg​⋅1+g(1−T)1+g​

Substitute:

g=0.7143g = 0.7143g=0.7143

1+g=1.71431+g = 1.71431+g=1.7143

g(1−T)=0.7143×0.85=0.6071g(1-T)=0.7143 \times 0.85 = 0.6071g(1−T)=0.7143×0.85=0.6071

1+g(1−T)=1.60711+g(1-T)=1.60711+g(1−T)=1.6071

ku=0.09375×1.71431.6071≈0.10=10%k_u = 0.09375 \times \frac{1.7143}{1.6071} \approx 0.10 = 10\%ku​=0.09375×1.60711.7143​≈0.10=10%

So the ungeared cost of equity is 10%.

Advantages of issuing 20-year bonds vs a 20-year bank loan:

A. Larger capital market – bond markets tap many investors.

B. Greater availability of long-term funds – banks often prefer shorter maturities.

E. Lower interest rate – disintermediation can give cheaper funding for a strong credit.

C and D are usually disadvantages of bonds (higher arrangement cost and more admin).

R is a retailer; S is its supplier (manufacturer). The classic vertical-integration synergy is lower purchase costs and better value-chain control.

Answer: A. Savings due to a reduction in purchase costs and more control over the valu

Advantages of a debt-funded cash offer vs a share exchange:

A. Shareholder control will remain with AB’s current shareholders.

B. More of the synergistic benefits will accrue to AB’s current shareholders.

D. EPS will increase (no dilution of equity; if synergies materialise, earnings are spread over the same number of shares).

Answer: A, B, D

CIMA F3 examines acquisition financing choices under Financial Policy Decisions and Mergers and Acquisitions, with a particular focus on how cash offers versus share exchanges affect shareholder wealth, control, gearing and earnings. The key issue from the perspective of Company AB’s shareholders is whether the method of financing enhances shareholder value without undermining the firm’s optimal capital structure.

A debt-funded cash offer involves Company AB raising debt to pay cash to the shareholders of Company DC. In contrast, a share exchange issues new equity, diluting existing ownership.

Option A is an advantage.

CIMA F3 highlights that a cash offer allows existing shareholders to retain control, because no new shares are issued. With a share exchange, ownership and voting power are diluted as DC’s shareholders become part-owners of the combined company.

Option B is an advantage.

Under a cash offer, all future synergies accrue to AB’s existing shareholders. F3 explains that with a share exchange, synergy benefits are shared with the target’s shareholders through their new equity stake. Therefore, a debt-funded cash offer concentrates the upside of synergies with the acquirer’s shareholders.

Option D is an advantage.

CIMA F3 notes that debt financing can lead to EPS growth, provided the return on the acquisition exceeds the cost of debt. Because no new equity is issued, earnings are spread over the same number of shares, and financial gearing magnifies returns to equity holders.

The remaining options are not advantages:

C (Gearing will increase) is a consequence, not an advantage. Since AB is already at its optimum capital structure, higher gearing increases financial risk.

E is incorrect; increasing WACC would reduce shareholder value, not enhance it.

IFRS 7 requires sensitivity analysis for market risks: currency risk, interest rate risk and other price risk (which includes commodities), not credit or liquidity.

Answer: A, C, D

Equity: $30m

Debt: $35m at 5% interest, redeemable in 5 years

They require 30% p.a. compound on the equity and no dividends are paid.

Equity value required in 5 years

Future value=30×1.35=30×3.71293≈$111.39m\text{Future value} = 30 \times 1.3^5 = 30 \times 3.71293 \approx \$111.39\text{m}Future value=30×1.35=30×3.71293≈$111.39m

Debt cash flows

Annual interest: 35×5%=$1.75m35 \times 5\% = \$1.75\text{m}35×5%=$1.75m → over 5 years: 1.75×5=$8.75m1.75 \times 5 = \$8.75\text{m}1.75×5=$8.75m

Principal repaid in year 5: $35m

Total due to venture capitalists

111.39+8.75+35=$155.14m (approx)111.39 + 8.75 + 35 = \$155.14\text{m (approx)}111.39+8.75+35=$155.14m (approx)

Answer: A. $155.14 million

Target earnings after tax for 20X2:

8.0m×1.05=8.4m8.0 \text{m} \times 1.05 = 8.4 \text{m}8.0m×1.05=8.4m

Interest on the new bond:

1.0m×4%=0.04m1.0 \text{m} \times 4\% = 0.04 \text{m}1.0m×4%=0.04m

Let required operating profit (PBIT) = XXX.

Profit before tax = X−0.04X - 0.04X−0.04.

Tax at 20% → profit after tax:

Earnings=(X−0.04)×0.8\text{Earnings} = (X - 0.04)\times 0.8Earnings=(X−0.04)×0.8

Set equal to the target 8.4m:

(X−0.04)×0.8=8.4⇒X−0.04=8.40.8=10.5⇒X=10.5+0.04=10.54m(X - 0.04)\times 0.8 = 8.4 \Rightarrow X - 0.04 = \frac{8.4}{0.8} = 10.5 \Rightarrow X = 10.5 + 0.04 = 10.54 \text{m}(X−0.04)×0.8=8.4⇒X−0.04=0.88.4​=10.5⇒X=10.5+0.04=10.54m

So minimum operating profit = $10.54 million.

The primary purpose of the IIRC’s Integrated Reporting Framework is to help organisations explain how they create value in the short, medium and long term. That wording is taken directly from how integrated reporting is framed conceptually. So B is correct.

Current dividend = $6m.

Target dividend in 5 years:

6×1.105=6×1.61051≈9.66m6 \times 1.10^5 = 6 \times 1.61051 \approx 9.66\text{m}6×1.105=6×1.61051≈9.66m.

Project profit in 5 years:

Sales: 100×1.085≈146.93m100 \times 1.08^5 \approx 146.93\text{m}100×1.085≈146.93m

Costs: 80×1.055≈102.10m80 \times 1.05^5 \approx 102.10\text{m}80×1.055≈102.10m

Profit ≈ 146.93−102.10=44.83m146.93 - 102.10 = 44.83\text{m}146.93−102.10=44.83m

Required payout ratio in 5 years:

9.66/44.83≈0.2169.66 / 44.83 \approx 0.2169.66/44.83≈0.216 → about 21.6%.

Closest option: A. 21.7%

In CIMA F3, when selecting an appropriate source of finance, you match the type and maturity of finance to the purpose of the funds, and you must also respect any constraints such as debt covenants and target gearing. Here the company “is financed by debt and equity” and is already close to breaching a debt covenant if it increases the proportion of debt. That immediately rules out additional long-term borrowing such as a private placement of a bond (B) and also makes a bank overdraft (D) inappropriate: an overdraft is short-term, potentially repayable on demand, and is still debt, so it worsens gearing and covenant pressure.

The project is a major expansion programme, so it requires long-term, stable capital. F3 material emphasises that for a listed company needing substantial equity finance, a rights issue is usually the preferred mechanism: it raises new equity, does not increase financial risk, and allows existing shareholders to maintain their proportional ownership by taking up their rights.

“Retained earnings” (A) represent accumulated past profits already part of equity; they are not a mechanism for raising an immediate $800m of new cash for investment. Therefore, the most appropriate source of finance in this situation is a rights issue.

Because taking on more debt risks breaching a debt covenant, the company should avoid additional borrowings (bonds or overdraft). A rights issue raises new equity from existing shareholders, improving gearing rather than worsening it, and is therefore the most appropriate source of the $800m expansion finance.

When valuing lease finance you discount actual cash flows only.

The cash outflow is the lease payment itself.

Because the tax regime follows the accounting treatment, the lessee gets tax relief on:

the implied interest component of the lease, and

the depreciation (straight-line) charged on the leased asset.

These tax reliefs are cash inflows (reduced tax paid) and must also be included in the discounted cash-flow calculation. Interest and depreciation themselves are not cash flows; only their associated tax shields are.

Dividends are set to suit family cash needs, so DDM (A) won’t reflect value well.

NAV (B) ignores earnings power and intangibles for a going concern.

There are listed comparables with similar capital structures, so applying an industry P/E to this firm’s earnings is standard practice for small private companies.

DCF at WACC (D) is theoretically strong but requires detailed, reliable forecasts; earnings are highly sensitive to the economy, so forecasts would be very uncertain.

A. An IPO is normally underwritten – Correct. For a fixed-price IPO, underwriters usually guarantee that the issue will be taken up, giving certainty of proceeds.

B. The government will receive significant financial resources from the sale – Correct. In a privatisation, the government is selling its ownership stake; the cash from selling these shares flows to the government.

C. The national airline employees will no longer be public sector employees – Correct. Once privatised, the airline becomes a private-sector company; its staff cease to be public-sector employees.

D is incorrect: a fixed-price offer does not guarantee maximum proceeds – the shares are often deliberately underpriced to ensure the issue is fully subscribed.

E is incorrect: in this scenario the proceeds go to the government as seller of existing shares, not directly to the airline itself.

We want items that are most likely to reduce the long-term credit rating (i.e. make lenders view the company as riskier).

B. Issue of a new bond for an NPV = 0 project – Adds more debt without adding extra value. Higher gearing = more financial risk → likely worse credit rating.

C. New shares funding expansion into a high-risk market – Even though financed by equity, this increases business risk (earnings more volatile, uncertainty higher). Rating agencies also consider business risk → rating can fall.

D. Loss of a major customer (30% of revenue) – Big hit to revenue concentration and stability. Very likely to be credit-negative.

Not chosen:

A. New shares + NPV 0 project – Adds equity, no extra risk; may even strengthen the balance sheet.

E. Disposal of loss-making division, funds paid as special dividend – You lose equity, but you also remove a division that was destroying profits and cash. Net effect is mixed, but not as clearly rating-negative as B, C, or D.

So the “most likely to reduce” ones are B, C, D.

B – The largest issuer of bonds is the government.

C – Issuing bonds in the capital markets allows entities to borrow large amounts.

E – Corporate bond issues are normally underwritten.

(Companies do not have to be listed to issue bonds, and public bond markets are regulated, not unregulated.)

CIMA F3 emphasises that shareholders expect directors to focus on value creation after an acquisition, particularly in the areas that protect and enhance the cash flows and synergies that justified the deal. Following an all-cash acquisition, the target’s former shareholders have exited, so the acquirer’s shareholders will not prioritise tailoring dividends to meet the target shareholders’ preferences (B is not relevant). Also, the question states the acquisition has just been completed, so regulatory approval needed to complete the acquisition (C) is no longer a priority stage item. What matters immediately is executing post-deal integration to secure the expected benefits. First, directors must ensure integration and retention of key employees from the acquired firm (A), especially in service/knowledge businesses where people drive client relationships and operational capability. Second, they must protect revenues by retaining the acquired firm’s key customers (D); losing customers can destroy acquisition value quickly. Third, they must deliver the deal logic by realising anticipated post-acquisition synergies (E), such as cost savings, higher capacity utilisation, cross-selling, and process improvements. These priorities align with F3’s post-merger integration focus: preserve the earnings base, then convert strategic fit into measurable synergy cash flows.

Current KKA share price = $5.00

Cash offer: $5.75 per share

Premium = (5.75 − 5.00) / 5.00 = 0.75 / 5 = 15%

Bond offer: market value $90 bond for 15 KKA shares

Value per KKA share = 90 / 15 = $6.00

Premium = (6.00 − 5.00) / 5.00 = 1 / 5 = 20%

The highest premium is therefore 20% on the bond offer, i.e. option B.

This question applies the Price/Earnings (P/E) valuation method, which is covered in CIMA F3 under Business Valuation and Market-Based Valuation Techniques. The P/E method is commonly used to value unlisted companies by reference to a comparable listed company operating in the same industry, provided that earnings are representative and sustainable.

Under CIMA F3 guidance, when using a P/E multiple:

The earnings figure used should be the most recent maintainable earnings.

The P/E ratio should be taken from a listed comparator with similar business risk.

The valuation focuses on equity value, not enterprise value.

In this scenario, the unlisted company reported earnings of $6 million in the last financial year. A listed company in the same industry has a P/E ratio of 11, which is assumed to appropriately reflect market expectations regarding growth and risk for businesses in this sector.

The valuation is therefore calculated as follows:

This gives an estimated equity value of $66 million.

It is important to note, in line with CIMA F3 principles, that balance sheet items such as retained earnings, share capital, and revaluation reserves are not directly relevant to a P/E-based valuation. The P/E approach is an income-based valuation method, relying solely on earnings and market multiples, rather than book values.

Rounding to the nearest whole number, as required by the question, confirms the final valuation.

 Integrated reports under the Framework should include:

Governance and how it supports value creation → A

The organisation’s business model → B

Risks, challenges, and uncertainties affecting strategy and value creation → C

 Comparisons with competitors’ financials (D) and a summary of board meeting discussions (E) are not required content elements in the Framework.

Key convertible bond points:

Investors accept a lower coupon on convertibles because they get the equity conversion option.

If converted, no new cash comes in: debt simply becomes equity.

On conversion, debt falls and equity rises, so gearing falls, not rises.

So:

A – False (convertible debt is usually cheaper, not more expensive).

B – False (no extra cash on conversion).

C – True (coupon is usually lower on convertibles).

D – False (conversion lowers gearing).

Answer Q73: C