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200-301 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

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Question # 7

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

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Question # 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Question # 9

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

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Question # 10

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

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Question # 11

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

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Question # 12

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

A.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

B.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.

C.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on interface FaO 2 on SW2.

D.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

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Question # 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 14

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

A.

array

B.

key

C.

value

D.

object

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Question # 15

What is a specification for SSIDS?

A.

They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.

B.

They must include one number and one letter.

C.

They define the VLAN on a switch.

D.

They are case sensitive.

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Question # 16

Why choose Cisco DNA Center for automated lifecycle management?

A.

To perform upgrades without service interruption

B.

To provide fast and accurate deployment of patches and updates

C.

To allow SSH access to all nodes in the network.

D.

To provide software redundancy in the network.

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Question # 17

Refer to the exhibit.

Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?

A.

queuing

B.

marking

C.

shaping

D.

policing

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Question # 18

How does machine learning improve the detection of unauthorized network access?

A.

It monitors for outdated software.

B.

It dictates security policy updates.

C.

It identifies patterns indicating intrusions.

D.

It assigns security clearance levels.

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Question # 19

Refer to the exhibit. The My_WLAN wireless LAN was configured with WPA2 Layer 2 PSK security. Which additional configuration must the administrator perform to allow users to connect to this WKAN on a different subnet called Data?

A.

Enable Broadcast SSID and select data from the Interface/Interface Group drop-down list.

B.

Enable Status and select data from the Interface/Interface Group drop-down list.

C.

Enable Status and set the NAS-ID to data.

D.

Enable Status and enable Broadcast SSID.

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Question # 20

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

A.

core and WAN

B.

access and WAN

C.

distribution and access

D.

core and distribution

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Question # 21

What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

A.

single sign-on

B.

unique user knowledge

C.

passwords that expire

D.

soft tokens

E.

shared password responsibility

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Question # 22

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

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Question # 23

A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

A.

/29

B.

/30

C.

/27

D.

/28

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Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running- config. Which command completes the configuration?

A.

Device(config)# netconf lock-time 500

B.

Device(config)# netconf max-message 1000

C.

Device(config)# no netconf ssh acl 1

D.

Device(config)# netconf max-sessions 100

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Question # 25

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

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Question # 26

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

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Question # 27

Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?

A.

If will choose the route with the longest match.O 100.100.100.100'32 (110/21) via 192.168.1.1. 00:05:57. EmernetO/1.

B.

It will always prefer the static route over dynamic routes and choose the routeS 100.100.0.0/16(1/0] via 192.168.4.1.

C.

It will choose the route with the highest metric.D 100.100.100.0/24 (90/435200) via 192.168.2.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/2.

D.

It will choose the route with the lowest metric,R 100.0.0.0/8 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/3.

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Question # 28

Which physical component is distributed among multiple virtual machines running on the same hypervisor?

A.

external storage

B.

hardware resources

C.

network interfaces

D.

backplane network

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Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit.

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

A.

192.168.1.226

B.

192.168.1.100

C.

192.168.1.254

D.

192.168.1.253

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Question # 30

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

A.

conserve globally unique address space

B.

simplify the addressing in the network

C.

limit the number of nodes reachable via the Internet

D.

reduce network complexity

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Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit.

In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?

A.

array

B.

object

C.

Boolean

D.

string

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Question # 32

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configurator

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

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Question # 33

Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

A.

LAG

B.

EtherChannel

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.10.3

C.

10.10.10.4

D.

10.10.10.2

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Question # 35

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

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Question # 36

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

A.

console

B.

Telnet

C.

Bash

D.

SSH

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Question # 37

A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

A.

ntp master 172.24.54.8

B.

ntp client 172.24.54.8

C.

ntp peer 172.24.54.8

D.

ntp server 172.24.54.8

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Question # 38

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

A.

LC to SC

B.

SC t ST

C.

SC to SC

D.

LC to LC

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Question # 39

Refer to the exhibit An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1 Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?

A.

Ipv6 address 2001:dbB:d8d2:1008:4343:61:0010::/64

B.

Ipv6 address autoconfig

C.

Ipv6 address fe80::/10

D.

Ipv6 address dhcp

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Question # 40

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

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Question # 41

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

A.

It continues to use a statically assigned IPv4 address

B.

It forces the DNS server to provide the same IPv4 address at each renewal.

C.

It requests the same IPv4 address when it renews its lease with the DHCP server.

D.

It prefers a pool of addresses when renewing the IPv4 host IP address

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Question # 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

A.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

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Question # 43

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

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Question # 44

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interlace of the WLC.

E.

Configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

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Question # 45

Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.

A.

FlexConnect

B.

SE-Connect

C.

bridge

D.

local

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Question # 46

Drag and drop the common functions from the left onto the cofresponding network topology architecture layer on the right. Not all common functions are used.

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Question # 47

Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?

A.

channels 1, 5, and 10

B.

channels 1,6, and 11

C.

channels 1,5, and 11

D.

channels 1,6, and 10

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Question # 48

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router must be configured so that traffic to 2000::1 is sent primarily via the Atlanta site, with a secondary path via Washington that has an administrative distance of 2. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two.)

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

C.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::3 2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

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Question # 49

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 50

What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

A.

data center network pokey con

B.

console server that permits secure access to all network devices

C.

IP address cool distribution scheduler

D.

software-defined controller for automaton of devices and services

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Question # 51

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

A.

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.252.0 g0/0

B.

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 g0/0

C.

ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 g0/0

D.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0

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Question # 52

What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?

A.

employs PKI and RADIUS to identify access points

B.

applies 802.1x authentication and AES-128 encryption

C.

uses TKIP and per-packet keying

D.

defends against deauthentication and disassociation attacks

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Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Se0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers reach one another? (Choose two.)

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

C.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Question # 54

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

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Question # 55

Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by REST-based APIs? (Choose two.)

A.

REMOVE

B.

REDIRECT

C.

OPOST

D.

GET

E.

UPOP

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Question # 56

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

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Question # 57

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

A.

The QoS policy is dropping traffic.

B.

There is a duplex mismatch.

C.

The link is over utilized.

D.

The MTU is not set to the default value.

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Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the Lo2 interface on the New York router?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

B.

ipv6 route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

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Question # 59

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

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Question # 60

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

A.

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.

B.

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

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Question # 61

Refer to the exhibit.

All routers in the network are configured correctly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routeis. Which set or routes are learned from neighbors and Installed on router 2?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 62

Refer to Exhibit.

Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:

DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30

DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29

DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28

HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used

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Question # 63

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

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Question # 64

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

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Question # 65

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID.

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Question # 66

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided

• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports

• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3

• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 67

Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?

A.

Both require fiber cable media for transmission.

B.

Both require UTP cable media for transmission.

C.

Both use the single-mode fiber type.

D.

Both use the multimode fiber type.

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Question # 68

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

A.

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

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Question # 69

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

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Question # 70

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

A.

Provide uninterrupted forwarding service.

B.

Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

C.

Provide direct connectivity for end user devices.

D.

Ensure timely data transfer between layers.

E.

Inspect packets for malicious activity.

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Question # 71

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

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Question # 72

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

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Question # 73

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

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Question # 74

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

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Question # 75

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

A.

lt drops the frame immediately.

B.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

C.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

D.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

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Question # 76

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

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Question # 77

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

A.

interface gi0/1no cdp enable

B.

interface gi0/1clear cdp table

C.

interface gi0/0no cdp advertise-v2

D.

interface gi0/0no cdp run

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Question # 78

Refer to the exhibit.

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

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Question # 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

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Question # 80

What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

A.

allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites.

B.

provides direct connections between subscribers

C.

supports Layer 2 VPNs

D.

supports application optimization

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Question # 81

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

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Question # 82

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

A.

ASCII

B.

base64

C.

binary

D.

decimal

E.

hexadecimal

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Question # 83

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

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Question # 84

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

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Question # 85

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

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Question # 86

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

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Question # 87

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

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Question # 88

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

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Question # 89

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)

A.

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B.

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C.

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

D.

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E.

It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

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Question # 90

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

A.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

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Question # 91

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

A.

Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B.

Administratively shut down the ports

C.

Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

D.

Configure the ports as trunk ports

E.

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Full Access
Question # 92

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

A.

Reassociation Request

B.

Probe Request

C.

Authentication Request

D.

Association Request

Full Access
Question # 93

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Full Access
Question # 94

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

B.

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

C.

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

D.

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Full Access
Question # 95

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 96

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

Full Access
Question # 97

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 98

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Full Access
Question # 99

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Full Access
Question # 100

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

A.

OpenFlow

B.

NETCONF

C.

Thrift

D.

CORBA

E.

DSC

Full Access
Question # 101

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

Full Access
Question # 102

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 103

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

A.

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

B.

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

C.

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

D.

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

Full Access
Question # 104

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

A.

10.0.1.3

B.

10.0.1.50

C.

10.0.1.4

D.

Loopback D

Full Access
Question # 105

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

A.

enforcing routing policies

B.

marking interesting traffic for data polices

C.

attaching users to the edge of the network

D.

applying security policies

Full Access
Question # 106

Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

Full Access
Question # 107

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

A.

Clock timezone

B.

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.

Clock summer-time date

D.

Clock set

Full Access
Question # 108

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

A.

Control

B.

Management

C.

Data

D.

application

Full Access
Question # 109

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

A.

it enables BPDU messages

B.

It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

C.

It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

D.

It immediately enables the port in the listening state

Full Access
Question # 110

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

Full Access
Question # 111

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

A.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Full Access
Question # 112

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 113

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

A.

wireless access point

B.

firewall

C.

wireless LAN controller

D.

router

Full Access
Question # 114

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

A.

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.

assign it as VLAN 1

D.

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

Full Access
Question # 115

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

A.

The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame

B.

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

C.

The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

D.

The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

Full Access
Question # 116

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

A.

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

B.

a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

C.

usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

D.

a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

Full Access
Question # 117

An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

A.

logging trap 5

B.

logging trap 2

C.

logging trap 4

D.

logging trap 3

Full Access
Question # 118

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Full Access
Question # 119

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

A.

VTP

B.

DTP

C.

egress traffic

D.

ingress traffic

Full Access
Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Full Access
Question # 121

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 122

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Full Access
Question # 123

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

A.

alert

B.

critical

C.

notice

D.

debug

Full Access
Question # 124

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

Full Access
Question # 125

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

A.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

Full Access
Question # 126

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

A.

0000.5E00.010a

B.

0005.3711.0975

C.

0000.0C07.AC99

D.

0007.C070/AB01

Full Access
Question # 127

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

Full Access
Question # 128

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

Full Access
Question # 129

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

Full Access
Question # 130

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

Full Access
Question # 131

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor's port ID

Full Access
Question # 132

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Full Access
Question # 133

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Even: Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

Full Access
Question # 134

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

Full Access
Question # 135

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A.

TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B.

UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits

C.

UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

D.

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

Full Access
Question # 136

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

A.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

B.

Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

C.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

D.

Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Full Access
Question # 137

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

Full Access
Question # 138

Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

Full Access
Question # 139

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

Full Access
Question # 140

which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

A.

communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

B.

reports device errors to a controller

C.

generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

D.

facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

Full Access
Question # 141

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

A.

read

B.

update

C.

create

D.

delete

Full Access
Question # 142

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

Full Access
Question # 143

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Full Access
Question # 144

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Full Access
Question # 145

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

A.

management interface settings

B.

QoS settings

C.

Ip address of one or more access points

D.

SSID

E.

Profile name

Full Access
Question # 146

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Full Access
Question # 147

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

Full Access
Question # 148

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

Full Access
Question # 149

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

A.

TKiP encryption

B.

AES encryption

C.

scrambled encryption key

D.

SAE encryption

Full Access
Question # 150

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

Full Access
Question # 151

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

Full Access
Question # 152

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

Full Access
Question # 153

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

A.

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Full Access
Question # 154

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

Full Access
Question # 155

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 156

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

Full Access
Question # 157

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

A.

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

B.

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

C.

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

D.

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

E.

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Full Access
Question # 158

Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

Full Access
Question # 159

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

A.

enable the PortFast feature on ports

B.

implement port-based authentication

C.

configure static ARP entries

D.

configure ports to a fixed speed

E.

shut down unused ports

Full Access
Question # 160

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Full Access
Question # 161

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

Full Access
Question # 162

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Full Access
Question # 163

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Full Access
Question # 164

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

Full Access
Question # 165

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

A.

Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B.

Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C.

Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

D.

Accept: application/json

Full Access
Question # 166

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Full Access
Question # 167

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

Full Access
Question # 168

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 169

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

Full Access
Question # 170

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Full Access
Question # 171

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

A.

global unicast

B.

link-local

C.

unique local

D.

multicast

Full Access
Question # 172

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

Full Access
Question # 173

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Full Access
Question # 174

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Full Access
Question # 175

Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?

A.

broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites

B.

multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location

C.

spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites

D.

unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

Full Access
Question # 176

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Full Access
Question # 177

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

A.

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D.

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

Full Access
Question # 178

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

Full Access
Question # 179

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

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Question # 180

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

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Question # 181

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

Full Access
Question # 182

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

A.

Exchange

B.

2-way

C.

Full

D.

Init

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Question # 183

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Full Access
Question # 184

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

Full Access
Question # 185

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Full Access
Question # 186

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Full Access
Question # 187

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

A.

policy plane

B.

management plane

C.

control plane

D.

data plane

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Question # 188

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Full Access
Question # 189

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Question # 190

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 191

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

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Question # 192

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

Full Access
Question # 193

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

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Question # 194

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Full Access
Question # 195

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

Full Access
Question # 196

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

Full Access
Question # 197

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Full Access
Question # 198

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

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Question # 199

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Full Access
Question # 200

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

Full Access
Question # 201

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

Full Access
Question # 202

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Full Access
Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Full Access
Question # 204

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 205

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Full Access
Question # 206

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

Full Access
Question # 207

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 208

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

Full Access
Question # 209

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

Full Access
Question # 210

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

Full Access
Question # 211

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Full Access
Question # 212

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 213

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

Full Access
Question # 214

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Full Access
Question # 215

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Full Access
Question # 216

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Full Access
Question # 217

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 218

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 219

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Full Access
Question # 220

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Full Access
Question # 221

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Full Access
Question # 222

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 223

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 224

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Full Access
Question # 225

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Full Access
Question # 226

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Full Access
Question # 227

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Full Access
Question # 228

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Full Access
Question # 229

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Full Access
Question # 230

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Full Access
Question # 231

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Full Access
Question # 232

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

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Question # 233

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Full Access
Question # 234

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Full Access
Question # 235

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Full Access
Question # 236

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Full Access
Question # 237

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 238

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Full Access
Question # 239

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Full Access
Question # 240

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

Full Access
Question # 241

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Full Access
Question # 242

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Full Access
Question # 243

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 244

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Full Access
Question # 245

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Full Access
Question # 246

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 247

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Full Access
Question # 248

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

Full Access
Question # 249

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Full Access
Question # 250

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Full Access
Question # 251

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Full Access
Question # 252

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Full Access
Question # 253

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

A.

LC to SC

B.

SC t ST

C.

SC to SC

D.

LC to LC

Full Access
Question # 254

Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?

A.

Alert

B.

Error

C.

Emergency

D.

Critical

Full Access
Question # 255

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

Full Access
Question # 256

What is the role of the root port in a switched network?

A.

It replaces the designated port when the designated port fails

B.

It is the best path to the root from a nonroot switch.

C.

It replaces the designated port when the root port fails.

D.

It is administratively disabled until a failover occurs.

Full Access
Question # 257

Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?

A.

EtherChannel

B.

LAG

C.

trunk

D.

access

Full Access
Question # 258

What does the term "spirt MAC” refer to in a wireless architecture?

A.

divides data link layer functions between the AP and WLC

B.

combines the management and control functions from the data-forwarding functions

C.

uses different MAC addresses for 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands on the same AP

D.

leverages two APs to handle control and data traffic

Full Access
Question # 259

What is a function of MAC address learning?

A.

It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

It increases the potential for MAC address flooding.

C.

It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks

D.

lt increases security on the management VLAN

Full Access
Question # 260

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 261

When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

A.

when a nonidempotent operation is needed

B.

to update a DNS server

C.

to display a web site

D.

when a read-only operation it required

Full Access
Question # 262

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

B.

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2

Full Access
Question # 263

Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 264

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 265

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Full Access
Question # 266

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 267

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Full Access
Question # 268

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 269

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

Full Access
Question # 270

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

Full Access
Question # 271

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Full Access
Question # 272

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

Full Access
Question # 273

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Full Access
Question # 274

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

Full Access
Question # 275

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Full Access
Question # 276

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Full Access
Question # 277

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 278

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Full Access
Question # 279

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Full Access
Question # 280

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Full Access
Question # 281

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

Full Access
Question # 282

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

Full Access
Question # 283

Which protocol uses the SSL?

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Full Access
Question # 284

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 285

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Full Access
Question # 286

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Full Access
Question # 287

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Full Access
Question # 288

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.249.210.56/25 [90/6144] via G0/15

10.249.210.56/25 [90/45053] via G0/13

10.249.210.56/25 [110/3693] via G0/16

10.249.210.56/25 [110/360] via G0/12

A.

G0/16

B.

G0/15

C.

G0/13

D.

G0/12

Full Access
Question # 289

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 290

Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)

A.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

B.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to FTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

C.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

D.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

Full Access
Question # 291

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

Full Access
Question # 292

Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST

C.

OpFlex

D.

SOAP

E.

NETCONF

Full Access
Question # 293

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

Full Access
Question # 294

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

Full Access
Question # 295

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 296

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

Full Access
Question # 297

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

A.

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

Full Access
Question # 298

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

A.

PBR

B.

FRTS

C.

PQ

D.

CBWFQ

E.

CAR

Full Access
Question # 299

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

A.

The domain name server is unreachable.

B.

LAN and WAN network segments are different.

C.

IP address assignment is incorrect.

D.

The default gateway should be the first usable IP address.

Full Access
Question # 300

Which combination of methods satisfies the minimum security requirements when a new multifactor authentication solution is deployed?

A.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-diglt PIN

B.

authorized USB dongle and mobile phone

C.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

D.

complex password and time-based one-time password

Full Access
Question # 301

Refer to the exhibit.

Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

OSPF

D.

RIP

Full Access
Question # 302

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

A.

provides external internet network connectivity

B.

provides unlimited address ranges

C.

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.

reuses addresses at multiple sites

E.

conserves globally unique address space

Full Access
Question # 303

Refer to the exhibit.

Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?

A.

Enable AutoConfig iPSK.

B.

SetCCMP128(AES).

C.

Configure PSK Format HEX with key string.

D.

Configure PSK-SHA2.

Full Access
Question # 304

What is the function of generative AI in network operations?

A.

It disables unused services.

B.

It deploys network firmware updates.

C.

It creates synthetic network configurations.

D.

It computes optimal data storage solutions.

Full Access
Question # 305

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?

A.

172.16.1.4

B.

172.16.1.1

C.

172.16.1.2

D.

172.16.1.3

Full Access
Question # 306

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

Full Access
Question # 307

What is represented in line 3 within this JSON schema?

A.

object

B.

key

C.

array

D.

value

Full Access
Question # 308

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

queueing

C.

bad NIC

D.

broadcast storm

Full Access
Question # 309

Refer to the exhibit.

Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 310

A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?

A.

ipconfig /renew

B.

ipconfig

C.

ipconfig /all

D.

ipconfig /displaydns

Full Access
Question # 311

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

Full Access
Question # 312

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

A.

Centralized cloud management platform

B.

Central WLC

C.

Individual AP

D.

Client device

Full Access
Question # 313

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?

A.

Content-Type: application/json

B.

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.

Accept: application/json

D.

Accept-Language: application/json

Full Access
Question # 314

Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

A.

mesh

B.

local

C.

bridge

D.

point-to-point

Full Access
Question # 315

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?

A.

10

B.

0

C.

1

D.

110

Full Access
Question # 316

What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

Full Access
Question # 317

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

A.

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.

They assign IP addresses to devices.

C.

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

Full Access
Question # 318

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:

    Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.

    Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.

Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A.

Enable the Aironet IE option.

B.

Enable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required

D.

Enable the client band select option.

E.

Enable the allow AAA Override option

Full Access
Question # 319

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Full Access
Question # 320

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

A.

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

Full Access
Question # 321

How does MAC learning function?

A.

Enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

Forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

C.

Overwrites the known source MAC address in the address table

D.

Protects against denial of service attacks

Full Access
Question # 322

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?

A.

QinQ

B.

ISL

C.

PAgP

D.

LAG

Full Access
Question # 323

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

Full Access
Question # 324

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Full Access
Question # 325

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

Full Access
Question # 326

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

Full Access
Question # 327

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Full Access
Question # 328

Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?

A.

Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.

B.

Select a correctly configured Layer 2 ACL.

C.

Set the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy to Not-Allow.

D.

Set the MFP Client Protection to Required.

Full Access
Question # 329

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addresses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP address

Full Access
Question # 330

Which feature Is mandatory when configuring a new SSID for a wireless network running WPA3-Personal mode?

A.

Opportunistic Wireless Encryption

B.

Protected Management Frame

C.

Enhanced Open

D.

Fast Transition

Full Access
Question # 331

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

Full Access
Question # 332

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

Full Access
Question # 333

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Full Access
Question # 334

How does MAC learning function?

A.

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

Full Access
Question # 335

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

Full Access
Question # 336

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

tracks the number of active TCP connections

B.

transmits exclusively at half duplex

C.

offers link bundling to servers

D.

uses routers to create collision domains

Full Access
Question # 337

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

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Question # 338

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

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Question # 339

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

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Question # 340

How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?

A.

Reduces the response time for specific requests to devices with many interfaces

B.

Categorizes traffic and provides insights

C.

Allows the controller to be vendor-agnostic

D.

Streamlines monitoring using SNMP and other polling tools

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Question # 341

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

A.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport private-vlan association host 5

B.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation negotiate

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan add 5

D.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk pruning vlan add 5

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Question # 342

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID "Office_WLan" has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?

A.

There is a strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using x.509 standard.

B.

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addresses connect to the network.

C.

There is a robust security mechanism configured to protect against various Layer 2 and Layer 3 attacks.

D.

There is Galois cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication.

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Question # 343

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.

Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?

A.

switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active

B.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode active

C.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode on

D.

switchport switchport mode trunk

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Question # 344

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

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Question # 345

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23

A.

G0/23

B.

G0/3

C.

G0/16

D.

G0/6

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Question # 346

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

A.

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

channel-group 1 mode on

C.

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

channel-group 1 mode active

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Question # 347

Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

A.

to uniquely identify clients to monitor their usage patterns

B.

to encrypt data to prevent excessive usage

C.

to contain embedded permissions that automatically expire

D.

to track the geographical location of each request

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Question # 348

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.174.208.210/28 [110/2708] via G0/21

10.174.208.210/28 [110/25445] via G0/20

10.174.208.210/28 [120/1] via G0/12

10.174.208.210/28 [120/4] via G0/16

A.

G0/12

B.

G0/20

C.

G0/21

D.

G0/16

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Question # 349

What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?

A.

TCP tracks segments being transmitted or received by assigning segment numbers, and UDP adjusts data flow according to network conditions.

B.

TCP establishes a connection with the device on the other end before transferring, and UDP transfers without establishing a connection.

C.

TCP sends data at a constant rate with error checking on upper protocol layers, and UDP provides error-checking and sequencing.

D.

TCP immediately transmits data without waiting for a handshake, and UDP awaits a response from the receiver before sending additional data.

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Question # 350

What is a characteristic of encryption in wireless networks?

A.

uses a unidirectional handshake for authentication

B.

Intercepts data threats before they attack a network

C.

uses integrity checks to identify forgery attacks

D.

prevents intercepted data from being easily read

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Question # 351

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

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Question # 352

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

Reduces the forwarding table on network routers

B.

Used on the external interface of a firewall

C.

Used by ISPs when only one IP is needed to connect to the internet

D.

Address space which is isolated from the internet

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Question # 353

Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?

A.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

B.

It exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

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Question # 354

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

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Question # 355

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

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Question # 356

In which way does generative AI aid network simulations?

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Question # 357

What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?

A.

Identifying permissions for end users using three authentication factors

B.

Authenticating and authorizing end users using two authentication factors

C.

Confirming end-user identity using two or more authentication factors

D.

Verifying end-user access permissions using two authentication factors

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Question # 358

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

A.

via 10.0.4.2

B.

via 10.0.0.2

C.

via FastEthernet0/1

D.

via FastEthernet1/1

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Question # 359

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

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