Pre-Summer Sale - Special 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70dumps

200-301 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

A.

VTP

B.

DTP

C.

egress traffic

D.

ingress traffic

Full Access
Question # 7

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

Full Access
Question # 8

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

A.

ISATAP

B.

GRE over IPsec

C.

IPsec over ISATAP

D.

GRE

Full Access
Question # 9

which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

A.

communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

B.

reports device errors to a controller

C.

generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

D.

facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

Full Access
Question # 10

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 10

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

Full Access
Question # 11

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

Question # 11

Full Access
Question # 12

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

A.

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

Full Access
Question # 13

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

Full Access
Question # 14

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

Full Access
Question # 15

Refer the exhibit.

Question # 15

What is the cause of poor performance on router R19?

A.

excessive collisions

B.

speed and duplex mismatch

C.

port oversubscription

D.

excessive CRC errors

Full Access
Question # 16

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 16

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

Full Access
Question # 17

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

Question # 17

Full Access
Question # 18

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

Full Access
Question # 19

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Full Access
Question # 20

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

Full Access
Question # 21

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

Full Access
Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 22

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

A.

Ansible

B.

JSON

C.

Chef

D.

Puppet

Full Access
Question # 23

Question # 23

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken on router R1 to resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Full Access
Question # 24

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

IPv6 address

D.

OSPF process ID

E.

OSPF stub flag

Full Access
Question # 25

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Question # 25

Full Access
Question # 26

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

Full Access
Question # 27

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 27

Which configuration for RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

Question # 27

B)

Question # 27

C)

Question # 27

D)

Question # 27

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 28

Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provide the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request

A.

Get

B.

GetNext

C.

Set

D.

GetBulk

E.

Inform

Full Access
Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 29

User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IIP address 192.168.0.10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

A.

The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly

B.

The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic

C.

The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2

D.

The traffic to 192.168.0.10 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.

Full Access
Question # 30

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

A.

It needs a high MTU between sites.

B.

It has a high implementation cost.

C.

It must have point-to-point communication.

D.

It requires complex configuration.

E.

It works only with BGP between sites.

Full Access
Question # 31

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

Full Access
Question # 32

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

Question # 32

Full Access
Question # 33

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

Question # 33

Full Access
Question # 34

What is a function of an endpoint?

A.

It is used directly by an individual user to access network services

B.

It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network

C.

It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN

D.

It provide security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.

Full Access
Question # 35

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 35

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0 0.0 192.168.0.2

Full Access
Question # 36

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

Full Access
Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 37

A multivendor network exists and the company is implementing VoIP over the network for the first time.

A)

Question # 37

B)

Question # 37

C)

Question # 37

D)

Question # 37

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 38

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right Not all options are used.

Question # 38

Full Access
Question # 39

What are two reasons a switch experiences frame flooding? (Choose two.)

A.

A defective patch cable is connected to the switch port

B.

Topology changes are occurring within spanning-tree

C.

An aged MAC table entry is causing excessive updates

D.

Port-security is configured globally

E.

The forwarding table has overflowed

Full Access
Question # 40

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 40

Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

Full Access
Question # 41

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

Question # 41

Full Access
Question # 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 42

What is represented by " R1 " and " SW1 " within the JSON output?

A.

key

B.

array

C.

value

D.

object

Full Access
Question # 43

What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?

A.

decreases overall network complexity

B.

limits data queries to the control plane

C.

reduces cost

D.

offloads the creation of virtual machines to the data plane

Full Access
Question # 44

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

A.

user training

B.

user awareness

C.

vulnerability verification

D.

physical access control

Full Access
Question # 45

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

A.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

B.

filters traffic based on destination IP addressing

C.

sends the default route to the hosts on a network

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Full Access
Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 46

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?

A)

Question # 46

B)

Question # 46

C)

Question # 46

D)

Question # 46

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 47

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.128 10.10.10.6R2(config)#lp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.5

C.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.6R2(config)#tp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.5

D.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

Full Access
Question # 48

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

anti-replay

D.

accounting

Full Access
Question # 49

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 49

Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.10.3

C.

10.10.10.4

D.

10.10.10.2

Full Access
Question # 50

How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

A.

TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately.

B.

TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.

C.

TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments.

D.

TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering.

Full Access
Question # 51

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 51

Which two values does router R1 use to identify valid routes for the R3 loopback address 1.1.1.3/32? (Choose two.)

A.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

B.

highest metric

C.

highest administrative distance

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest administrative distance

Full Access
Question # 52

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?

A.

Lightweight with local switching disabled

B.

Local with AP fallback enabled

C.

OfficeExtend with high availability disabled

D.

FlexConnect with local switching enabled

Full Access
Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 53

An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration. Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)

A.

SW1(config)#enable secret ccnaTest123

B.

SW1(config)#username NEW secret R3mote123

C.

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15 SW1(config-line)#transport input ssh

D.

SW1(config)# crypto key generate rsa

E.

SW1(config)# interface f0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Full Access
Question # 54

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 54

Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?

A.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active no shutdown

B.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode passive no shutdown

C.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode desirableno shutdown

D.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode on no shutdown

Full Access
Question # 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 55

When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?

A.

Null0

B.

Vlan58

C.

Vlan60

D.

Vlan59

Full Access
Question # 56

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

A.

to secure physical access to a data center

B.

to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram

C.

to securely manage and deploy network devices

D.

to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points

Full Access
Question # 57

Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

A.

Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtain insights, and traditional campus management requires manual analysis.

B.

Cisco DNA Center handles management tasks at the controller to reduce the load on infrastructure devices, and traditional campus management uses the data backbone.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages YANG and NETCONF to assess the status of fabric and nonfabric devices, and traditional campus management uses CLI exclusively.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automatically compares security postures among network devices, and traditional campus management needs manual comparisons.

Full Access
Question # 58

What is a characteristic of RSA?

A.

It uses preshared keys for encryption

B.

It requires both sides to have identical keys

C.

It is a private-key encryption algorithm

D.

It is a public-key cryptosystem

Full Access
Question # 59

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Full Access
Question # 60

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 60

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

Full Access
Question # 61

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two)

A.

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B.

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C.

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

D.

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E.

It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

Full Access
Question # 62

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

Full Access
Question # 63

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

Full Access
Question # 64

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

Full Access
Question # 65

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

Full Access
Question # 66

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Question # 66

Full Access
Question # 67

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

A.

172.9.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

Full Access
Question # 68

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 68

Which types of JSDN data is shown

A.

Object

B.

Sequence

C.

String

D.

boolean

Full Access
Question # 69

A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require

A.

Unlike lightweight access points, which require redundant WLCs to support firmware upgrades, autonomous access points require only one WLC.

B.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points store a complete copy of the current firmware for backup.

C.

Unlike lightweight access points, autonomous access points can recover automatically from a corrupt firmware update.

D.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC to implement remote firmware updates.

Full Access
Question # 70

Question # 70

Refer to the exhibit. Four load-balancing servers are reachable through this router; however, the company is removing all static and default routes on the router.

Server 1 - 10.12.14.14

Server 2 - 192.168.4.4

Server 3 - 209.165.200.5

Server 4 - 209.165.201.26

Which server will handle all traffic after the policy changes take effect?

A.

Server 1 - 10.12.14.14

B.

Server 2 - 192.168.4.4

C.

Server 3 - 209.165.200.5

D.

Server 4 - 209.165.201.26

Full Access
Question # 71

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

A.

REST API

B.

OpenFlow

C.

Southbound API

D.

NETCONF

Full Access
Question # 72

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

Full Access
Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 73

Router R1 is added to the network and configured with the 10.0.0.64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not accessible. Which command when executed on R1 defines a static route to reach the R3 LAN?

A)

Question # 73

B)

Question # 73

C)

Question # 73

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

Full Access
Question # 74

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.174.208.210/28 [110/2708] via G0/21

10.174.208.210/28 [110/25445] via G0/20

10.174.208.210/28 [120/1] via G0/12

10.174.208.210/28 [120/4] via G0/16

A.

G0/12

B.

G0/20

C.

G0/21

D.

G0/16

Full Access
Question # 75

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wirelesss network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wirelesss network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

Full Access
Question # 76

A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?

A.

GCMP256

B.

GCMP128

C.

CCMP256

D.

CCMP128

Full Access
Question # 77

Question # 77

A)

Question # 77

B)

Question # 77

C)

Question # 77

D)

Question # 77

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 78

What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)

A.

prevent users from assigning their own IP addresssses to hosts

B.

assign dynamic IP configurations to hosts in a network

C.

support centralized IP management

D.

issue DHCPDISCOVER messages when added to the network

E.

respond to client DHCPOFFER requests by issuing an IP addressss

Full Access
Question # 79

Which interface IP addressss serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets froin the WLC to an AP?

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

Full Access
Question # 80

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

Full Access
Question # 81

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

A.

redundancy

B.

console

C.

distribution system

D.

service

Full Access
Question # 82

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addresssing?

A.

traverses the Internet when an outbound ACL Is applied

B.

used without allocation from a regional Internet authority

C.

shared addresss space between an ISP and subscriber

D.

reduces the need for isolated networks

Full Access
Question # 83

Which set of actions satisfies the requirement for multifactor authentication?

A.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

B.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link.

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.

D.

The user enters a user name and password, and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.

Full Access
Question # 84

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addressses

D.

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

Full Access
Question # 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 85

An architect is managing a wireless network with APs from several branch offices connecting to the WLC in the data center. There is a new requirement for a single WLAN to process the client data traffic without sending it to the WLC. Which action must be taken to complete the request?

A.

Enable local HTTP profiling.

B.

Enable Disassociation Imminent.

C.

Enable FlexConnect Local Switching.

D.

Enable local DHCP Profiling.

Full Access
Question # 86

When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

A.

when a nonidempotent operation is needed

B.

to update a DNS server

C.

to display a web site

D.

when a read-only operation is required

Full Access
Question # 87

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC addresss storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

Full Access
Question # 88

Question # 88

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

A.

Cost 20

B.

Cost 30

C.

Cost 40

D.

Cost 50

Full Access
Question # 89

Which group of channels in the 802.11b/g/n/ax 2.4 GHz frequency bands are non-overlapping channels?

A.

channels 1, 5, and 10

B.

channels 1, 5, and 11

C.

channels 1, 6, and 10

D.

channels 1, 6, and 11

Full Access
Question # 90

Question # 90

Question # 90

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Full Access
Question # 91

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Question # 91Question # 91

Full Access
Question # 92

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

A.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

B.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table.

C.

Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.

D.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Full Access
Question # 93

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 93

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

A.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

C.

it load-balances traffic between all three routes

D.

It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

Full Access
Question # 94

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

Full Access
Question # 95

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 96

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

Question # 96

Full Access
Question # 97

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

A.

TACACS server

B.

wireless access point

C.

RADIUS server

D.

wireless LAN controller

Full Access
Question # 98

What is a function of a remote access VPN?

A.

used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

B.

used exclusively when a user is connected to a company ' s internal network

C.

establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

D.

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

Full Access
Question # 99

What is a DNS lookup operation?

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Full Access
Question # 100

Which option about JSON is true?

A.

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

B.

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C.

used for storing information

D.

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

Full Access
Question # 101

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

A.

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Full Access
Question # 102

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 102

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

B.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

C.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

D.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

Full Access
Question # 103

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributed management functions

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

Full Access
Question # 104

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 104

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

Full Access
Question # 105

Which IP addressss is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

Full Access
Question # 106

Question # 106

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?

A.

10

B.

0

C.

1

D.

110

Full Access
Question # 107

What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

A.

forwarding mode and provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge for each VLAN

B.

learning mode and provides the shortest path toward the root bridge handling traffic away froin the LAN

C.

blocking mode and provides an alternate path toward the designated bridge

D.

listening mode and provides an alternate path toward the root bridge

Full Access
Question # 108

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 108

PC A is communicating with another device at IIP address 10.227.225.255. Through which router does router Y route the traffic?

A.

router A

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router D

Full Access
Question # 109

What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?

A.

Writes the class identifier of a packet to a dedicated field in the packet header

B.

Services traffic according to its class

C.

Configures traffic-matching rules on network devices

D.

Identifies the type of traffic that will receive a particular treatment

Full Access
Question # 110

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 110

A network administrator configures the CPE to provide internet access to the company headquarters. Traffic must be load-balanced via ISP1 and ISP2 to ensure redundancy.

Which two command sets must be configured on the CPE router? (Choose two.)

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1 255

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 255

ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

E.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 2

Full Access
Question # 111

Question # 111

Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Full Access
Question # 112

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

Full Access
Question # 113

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

Full Access
Question # 114

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Full Access
Question # 115

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

A.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

Full Access
Question # 116

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

Full Access
Question # 117

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

A.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685

B.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

C.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

D.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

Full Access
Question # 118

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 118

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

Question # 118

Full Access
Question # 119

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

Full Access
Question # 120

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

A.

ipv6 address dhcp

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Full Access
Question # 121

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Full Access
Question # 122

Refer to exhibit.

Question # 122

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

A.

It is a broadcast IP address

B.

The router does not support /28 mask.

C.

It belongs to a private IP address range.

D.

It is a network IP address.

Full Access
Question # 123

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

A.

wireless access point

B.

firewall

C.

wireless LAN controller

D.

router

Full Access
Question # 124

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

network-as-a-service

D.

infrastructure-as-a-service

Full Access
Question # 125

Question # 125

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and must now remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

no ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

B.

no login local

C.

no service password-encryption

D.

no ip name-server 198.51.100.210

E.

no hostname CPE

Full Access
Question # 126

An engineer is configuring en encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured. Drag and drop the configuration commands froin the let into the correct sequence on the right. Not all commends are used.

Question # 126

Full Access
Question # 127

Question # 127

Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?

A.

Small frames less than 64 bytes are rejected due to size.

B.

The receive buffer is full due to a broadcast storm.

C.

Frames are discarded due to a half-duplex negotiation.

D.

Broadcast packets are rejected because ARP timeout is enabled.

Full Access
Question # 128

Question # 128

Refer to the exhibit. The loopback IP of R3 has been learned via the two interfaces on R1. R1 is configured with a reference bandwidth of 10 Gbps. Based on the metric calculations, which next hop IP would be used for outgoing routing?

A.

10.12.0.5

B.

10.12.0.2

C.

10.12.0.1

D.

10.12.0.6

Full Access
Question # 129

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 129

Which configuration parameter is preventing host C from reaching the internet?

A.

automatic DNS

B.

default gateway

C.

IP network mask

D.

IP addressss assignment

Full Access
Question # 130

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 130

How many arrays are present in the JSDN data?

A.

one

B.

three

C.

six

D.

nine

Full Access
Question # 131

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

Full Access
Question # 132

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

Integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

B.

Serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addressses

D.

Correlates user activity with network events

Full Access
Question # 133

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Question # 133

Full Access
Question # 134

Drag and drop the AAA features froin the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right Not all options are used.

Question # 134

Full Access
Question # 135

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 135

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a static password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

A.

Crable PSKEnable iod 1s

B.

Select WPA2 PolicyDisable PMFEnable PSK

C.

Select WPA PolicyEnable PSK

D.

Select WPA PolicySelect WRAS Policy

Full Access
Question # 136

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

Full Access
Question # 137

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 137

A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:

• accommodates current configured VLANs

• expands the range to include VLAN 20

• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs

Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?

A)

Question # 137

B)

Question # 137

C)

Question # 137

D)

Question # 137

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 138

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Question # 138

Full Access
Question # 139

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addressses?

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

Full Access
Question # 140

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7

10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6

10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4

10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5

A.

F0/7

B.

F0/5

C.

F0/4

D.

F0/6

Full Access
Question # 141

Question # 141

Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:

Handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections

Minimizes consumption of public IP addresssses

Which configuration meets the requirements?

A.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat inside source list HQC interface gigabitEthernet0/0 overload

B.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.200.225 209.165.200.226 netmask 255.255.255.252ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

C.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.3 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat inside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

D.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.248 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

Full Access
Question # 142

Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::1/64

B.

ipv6 addresss autoconfig 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF2::/64

C.

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 link-local

Full Access
Question # 143

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

A.

Centralized cloud management platform

B.

Central WLC

C.

Individual AP

D.

Client device

Full Access
Question # 144

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

ip domain-name domain

B.

password password

C.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Full Access
Question # 145

Which function generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?

A.

encryption and decryption for VPN link processing

B.

building route tables and updating the forwarding table

C.

changing the source or destination address during NAT operations

D.

encapsulation and decapsulation of packets in a data-link frame

Full Access
Question # 146

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Full Access
Question # 147

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 147

The DHCP server is configured with a DHCP pool for each of the subnets represented. Which command must be configured on switch SW1 to allow DHCP clients on VLAN 10 to receive dynamic IP addresssses froin the DHCP server?

A.

SW1(config-if)#ip helper-addresss 192.168.20.2

B.

SW1(config-if)#ip helper-addresss 192.168.20.1

C.

SW1(config-if)#ip helper-addresss 192.168.10.2

D.

SW1(config-if)#ip helper-addresss 192.168.10.1

Full Access
Question # 148

What are two purposes of HSRP? (Choose two.)

A.

It groups two or more routers to operate as one virtual router.

B.

It improves network availability by providing redundant gateways.

C.

It passes configuration information to hosts in a TCP/IP network.

D.

It helps hosts on the network to reach remote subnets without a default gateway.

E.

It provides a mechanism for diskless clients to autoconfigure their IP parameters during boot.

Full Access
Question # 149

Question # 149

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wirelesss LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

A.

Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.

B.

Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.

C.

Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

D.

Enable the WPA Policy.

Full Access
Question # 150

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 150

Full Access
Question # 151

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Question # 151Question # 151

Full Access
Question # 152

Question # 152

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Question # 152

Full Access
Question # 153

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Question # 153Question # 153

Full Access
Question # 154

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 154

Full Access
Question # 155

Question # 155

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Question # 155

Full Access
Question # 156

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Question # 156

Full Access
Question # 157

Question # 157

Question # 157

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Full Access
Question # 158

Question # 158

Question # 158

Question # 158

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Full Access
Question # 159

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

A.

LC to SC

B.

SC t ST

C.

SC to SC

D.

LC to LC

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 160

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 161

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

A.

UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.

B.

TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out- of-order.

C.

TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.

D.

UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

Full Access
Question # 162

A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet prefixes: 172.31.0.0/16, 172.31.0.0/24, and 172.31.0.0/25. How does the router handle the packet?

A.

It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/16

B.

It sends the traffic via the default gateway 0.0.0.0/0.

C.

It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/24

D.

It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/25

Full Access
Question # 163

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 163

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

A.

The permit command fails and returns an error code.

B.

The router accepts all incoming traffic to Serial0 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0.

C.

The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255 is allowed on Serial0.

D.

The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

Full Access
Question # 164

What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

A.

single sign-on

B.

unique user knowledge

C.

passwords that expire

D.

soft tokens

E.

shared password responsibility

Full Access
Question # 165

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 165

A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

Loopback0

C.

10.1.1.1

D.

10.1.1.3

Full Access
Question # 166

Which type of port is used to connect to the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

A.

LAG

B.

EtherChannel

C.

trunk

D.

access

Full Access
Question # 167

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 167

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

A.

one

B.

four

C.

seven

D.

nine

Full Access
Question # 168

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.

Question # 168

Full Access
Question # 169

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 169

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

A.

ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1

B.

ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

C.

ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10

D.

ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10

Full Access
Question # 170

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.

Question # 170

Full Access
Question # 171

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

Full Access
Question # 172

A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?

A.

clock summer-time recurring

B.

clock timezone

C.

clock summer-time date

D.

clock set

Full Access
Question # 173

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 173

A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

A.

Device(config)# netconf lock-time 500

B.

Device(config)# netconf max-message 1000

C.

Device(config)# no netconf ssh acl 1

D.

Device(config)# netconf max-sessions 100

Full Access
Question # 174

What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?

A.

to reduce interference

B.

to allow for channel bonding

C.

to stabilize the RF environment

D.

to increase bandwidth

Full Access
Question # 175

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 175

A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?

A)

Question # 175

B)

Question # 175

C)

Question # 175

D)

Question # 175

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 176

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

Full Access
Question # 177

How does frame switching function on a switch?

A.

forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

B.

modifies frames that contain a known source VLAN

C.

inspects and drops frames from unknown destinations

D.

forwards known destinations to the destination port

Full Access
Question # 178

Refer to the exhibit

Question # 178

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:

* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically

* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen

Which two commands must be configuredd to complete this task " ? (Choose two)

A.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security mac-address sticky

B.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security violation restrict

C.

SW(config-if)sswitchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6

D.

SW(config-if)switchport port-security maximum 2

E.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security violation shutdown

Full Access
Question # 179

Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

Question # 179

Full Access
Question # 180

Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?

A.

Header Checksum

B.

Type of service

C.

DSCP

D.

ECN

Full Access
Question # 181

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

A.

console

B.

Telnet

C.

Bash

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 182

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 182

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

A.

S 192.168.0.0/20 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

B.

S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

C.

S 192.168.2.0/28 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

D.

S 192.168.1.0/30 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

Full Access
Question # 183

Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

802.1X

D.

Kerberos

Full Access
Question # 184

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 184

An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1 Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?

A.

Ipv6 address 2001:dbB:d8d2:1008:4343:61:0010::/64

B.

Ipv6 address autoconfig

C.

Ipv6 address fe80::/10

D.

Ipv6 address dhcp

Full Access
Question # 185

What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?

A.

Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path.

B.

Allow multiple VLAN to be used in the data path.

C.

Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management.

D.

Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management.

Full Access
Question # 186

What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?

A.

VLAN trunking

B.

tunneling

C.

first hop redundancy

D.

link aggregation

Full Access
Question # 187

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

Full Access
Question # 188

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Full Access
Question # 189

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 189

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

Full Access
Question # 190

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

Full Access
Question # 191

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 191

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

Full Access
Question # 192

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Question # 192

Full Access
Question # 193

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 193

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Full Access
Question # 194

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 194

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Full Access
Question # 195

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Full Access
Question # 196

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Full Access
Question # 197

Question # 197

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

A.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

B.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

C.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

D.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 198

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two)

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Full Access
Question # 199

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

A.

It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

B.

For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.

C.

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

D.

It counts the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

Full Access
Question # 200

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Full Access
Question # 201

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

Full Access
Question # 202

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 202

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

Full Access
Question # 203

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

Full Access
Question # 204

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 204

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

Full Access
Question # 205

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 205

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Question # 205

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 206

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

Full Access
Question # 207

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

Full Access
Question # 208

What must be considered when using 802:11 a?

A.

It is compatible with 802.11b and 802.11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Full Access
Question # 209

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Full Access
Question # 210

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

A.

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

Full Access
Question # 211

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

Full Access
Question # 212

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

Full Access
Question # 213

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

A.

802.1q trunks

B.

Cisco vPC

C.

LLDP

D.

LACP

Full Access
Question # 214

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Full Access
Question # 215

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 215

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

Question # 215

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

A.

Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

B.

Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

C.

Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

D.

Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

Full Access
Question # 216

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Question # 216

Full Access
Question # 217

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 217

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

Full Access
Question # 218

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 218

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Question # 218

Full Access
Question # 219

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

A.

The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

B.

The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

C.

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

D.

The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

Full Access
Question # 220

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

A.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 221

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 221

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

Question # 221

B)

Question # 221

C)

Question # 221

D)

Question # 221

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 222

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Event Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

Full Access
Question # 223

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

A.

Exchange

B.

2-way

C.

Full

D.

Init

Full Access
Question # 224

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 224

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

A.

modify helto interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Full Access
Question # 225

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 225

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 226

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 226

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Full Access
Question # 227

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Full Access
Question # 228

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

Full Access
Question # 229

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

Full Access
Question # 230

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

A.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

B.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

C.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

D.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

E.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

Full Access
Question # 231

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Full Access
Question # 232

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

A.

DHCP

B.

STP

C.

SNMP

D.

DNS

Full Access
Question # 233

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 233

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

A.

Add the default-information originate command on R2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

Full Access
Question # 234

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

Full Access
Question # 235

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

Question # 235

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 236

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Question # 236

Full Access
Question # 237

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

Full Access
Question # 238

What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

A.

wireless connections provide the sole access method to services

B.

onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components

C.

services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

D.

physical workstations are configured to share resources

Full Access
Question # 239

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

A.

200

B.

301

C.

404

D.

500

Full Access
Question # 240

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

A.

Unicode

B.

base64

C.

decimal

D.

ASCII

Full Access
Question # 241

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 242

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

A.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

Full Access
Question # 243

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

A.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

C.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless device on the network.

D.

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

Full Access
Question # 244

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Helto packets

Full Access
Question # 245

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 245

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

Full Access
Question # 246

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

A.

Device(Config)#lldp run

B.

Device(Config)#cdp run

C.

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D.

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Full Access
Question # 247

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 247

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW1. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Question # 247

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 248

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

A.

Internet Group Management Protocol

B.

Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

C.

Cisco Discovery Protocol

D.

Neighbor Discovery Protocol

Full Access
Question # 249

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 249

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Full Access
Question # 250

Which protocol uses the SSL?

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Full Access
Question # 251

An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?

A.

Password complexity enable

B.

confreg 0x2142

C.

Login authentication my-auth-list

D.

service password-encryption

Full Access
Question # 252

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 252

Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )

Question # 252

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 253

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

A.

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

B.

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

C.

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

D.

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

E.

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Full Access
Question # 254

Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.

Question # 254

Full Access
Question # 255

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Question # 255

Full Access
Question # 256

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

Full Access
Question # 257

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 257

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

Question # 257

B)

Question # 257

C)

Question # 257

D)

Question # 257

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 258

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

A.

It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.

B.

It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.

C.

It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

D.

It places the port in the err-disabled state after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.

Full Access
Question # 259

Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

A.

full mesh

B.

Point-to-point

C.

hub-and-spoke

D.

router-on-a-stick

Full Access
Question # 260

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 260

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Full Access
Question # 261

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 261

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Full Access
Question # 262

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Full Access
Question # 263

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Full Access
Question # 264

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 264

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

Full Access
Question # 265

What is a function performed by a web server?

A.

provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

B.

send and retrieve email from client devices

C.

authenticate and authorize a user ' s identity

D.

securely store files for FTP access

Full Access
Question # 266

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 266

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172.1.1.1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Full Access
Question # 267

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 267

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Full Access
Question # 268

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

A.

VLAN ID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

Full Access
Question # 269

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 269

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

A.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

B.

This is a root bridge.

C.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

D.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

E.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

Full Access
Question # 270

What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?

A.

00-00-0C-07-AD-89

B.

00-00-5E-00-01-0a

C.

00-07-C0-70-AB-01

D.

00-C6-41-93-90-91

Full Access
Question # 271

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

Full Access
Question # 272

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 272

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

Question # 272

B)

Question # 272

C)

Question # 272

D)

Question # 272

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 273

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 273

For security reasons, automatic Neighbor Discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all Neighbor Discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit Neighbor Discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Question # 273

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 274

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

A.

when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy

B.

to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache

C.

to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free

D.

to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices

Full Access
Question # 275

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 275

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Full Access
Question # 276

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 276

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

Full Access
Question # 277

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 277

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

Full Access
Question # 278

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 278

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Full Access
Question # 279

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Question # 279

Full Access
Question # 280

Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)

A.

Backup device configurations to encrypted USB drives for secure retrieval

B.

maintain network equipment in a secure location

C.

Use a cryptographic keychain to authenticate to network devices

D.

Place internal email and file servers in a designated DMZ

E.

Disable unused or unnecessary ports, interfaces and services

Full Access
Question # 281

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 282

Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

Question # 282

Full Access
Question # 283

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

Full Access
Question # 284

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

Question # 284

B)

Question # 284

C)

Question # 284

D)

Question # 284

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 285

Which two wireless security standards use Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity ' ? (Choose two.)

A.

WPA2

B.

WPA3

C.

Wi-Fi 6

D.

WEP

E.

WPA

Full Access
Question # 286

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 287

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 287

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Full Access
Question # 288

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 288

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Full Access
Question # 289

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Full Access
Question # 290

Question # 290

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

Question # 290

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 291

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Full Access
Question # 292

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

A.

propagates VLAN information between switches

B.

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

C.

provides DDoS mitigation

D.

rate-limits certain traffic

Full Access
Question # 293

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)

A.

crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024

B.

transport input all

C.

crypto key generate rsa usage-keys

D.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048

E.

transport Input ssh

Full Access
Question # 294

After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?

Question # 294

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 295

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

A.

core and WAN

B.

access and WAN

C.

distribution and access

D.

core and distribution

Full Access
Question # 296

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 296

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1

Which configuration must be used?

A)

Question # 296

B)

Question # 296

C)

Question # 296

D)

Question # 296

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 297

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

Full Access
Question # 298

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 298

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Full Access
Question # 299

Question # 299

Full Access
Question # 300

An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?

A)

Question # 300

B)

Question # 300

C)

Question # 300

D)

Question # 300

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 301

Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Question # 301

Full Access
Question # 302

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 302

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

Full Access
Question # 303

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 303

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for new hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

Question # 303

B)

Question # 303

C)

Question # 303

D)

Question # 303

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 304

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Full Access
Question # 305

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 305

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Full Access
Question # 306

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 306

What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

A.

Set PMF to Required.

B.

Enable MAC Filtering.

C.

Enable WPA Policy.

D.

Set Fast Transition to Enabled

Full Access
Question # 307

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 307

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

Question # 307

B)

Question # 307

C)

Question # 307

D)

Question # 307

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 308

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 308

Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?

A.

192.168.7.4

B.

192.168.7.7

C.

192.168.7.35

D.

192.168.7.40

Full Access
Question # 309

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 309

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Full Access
Question # 310

Question # 310

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to configure router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

Question # 310

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access