SOA-C03 Dumps with Practice Exam Questions Answers

Per the AWS Cloud Operations and Security Automation documentation, Security Hub integrates with Amazon EventBridge to publish findings in real time. These events can trigger automated responses using AWS Lambda functions or AWS Systems Manager Automation runbooks.

In this scenario, the correct CloudOps approach is to configure the existing EventBridge rule to invoke a Lambda function that inspects the event payload, identifies the affected security group, and removes the offending inbound rule (e.g., port 21 open to 0.0.0.0/0).

This event-driven remediation provides continuous compliance and eliminates manual intervention. Cron jobs (Options B and C) contradict event-driven design and add operational overhead. Stopping instances (Option A) doesn’t address the root cause — the insecure security group.

Thus, Option D aligns with AWS best practices for automated security remediation through EventBridge and Lambda.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract of AWS CloudOps Doocuments:

EC2 Instance Connect Endpoint (EIC Endpoint) enables SSH to instances in private subnets without public IPs and without needing to traverse the public internet. CloudOps guidance explains that you deploy the endpoint in the same VPC/subnet as the targets, then allow inbound SSH on the instance security group from the endpoint’s security group. Access is governed by IAM—administrators must have Instance Connect permissions; while the example uses a broad policy, the key mechanism is EIC in the private subnet plus SG rules scoped to the endpoint. Systems Manager Session Manager can provide shell access without SSH, but the requirement explicitly states “connect through SSH,” making EIC the purpose-built solution. Options B and D misuse Systems Manager for SSH and propose unnecessary SG changes or incorrect endpoint placement; Option C places the endpoint in a public subnet, which is not required for private SSH access. Therefore, creating an EC2 Instance Connect endpoint in the private subnet and updating SGs accordingly meets the requirement while keeping the instance non-internet-exposed.

The AWS Cloud Operations and Infrastructure-as-Code documentation specifies that when using AWS CloudFormation, resources are created in parallel by default unless explicitly ordered using DependsOn.

If a custom resource (Lambda) depends on another resource (like an EC2 instance) to exist before execution, a DependsOn attribute must be added to enforce creation order. This ensures the EC2 instance is launched and available before the custom resource executes its automation logic.

Updating the service token (Option B) doesn’t affect order of execution. The cfn-response module (Option C) handles callback communication but not sequencing. Fn::If (Option D) is for conditional creation, not dependency control.

Therefore, Option A is correct — adding a DependsOn attribute guarantees that CloudFormation provisions the EC2 instance before executing the Lambda custom resource.

According to the AWS Cloud Operations and Networking documentation, instances in a private subnet do not have a direct route to the internet gateway and thus require a NAT gateway for outbound internet access.

The correct configuration is to create a NAT gateway in the public subnet, associate an Elastic IP address, and then update the private subnet’s route table to send all 0.0.0.0/0 traffic to the NAT gateway. This enables instances in the private subnet to initiate outbound connections while keeping inbound traffic blocked for security.

Placing the NAT gateway inside the private subnet (Options C or D) prevents connectivity because it would not have a route to the internet gateway. Configuring routes from the public subnet to the NAT gateway (Option B) does not serve private subnet traffic.

Hence, Option A follows AWS best practices for enabling secure, managed, outbound-only internet access from private resources.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract of AWS CloudOps Documents:

The correct answer is C because selective CloudFront invalidation ensures that only updated JavaScript files are refreshed across edge locations. AWS CloudOps documentation explains that invalidations remove cached objects so that CloudFront fetches the latest version from the origin on the next request.

Invalidating only changed files minimizes cost, reduces operational impact, and avoids unnecessary origin requests. This approach ensures users always receive the latest application assets without degrading backend performance.

Option A is incorrect because setting TTLs to 0 forces CloudFront to query the origin for every request, increasing load on the ALB and EC2 instances. Option B is inefficient and costly because invalidating all files is unnecessary. Option D removes the benefits of CloudFront caching and increases latency.

AWS CloudOps best practices recommend targeted invalidations during deployments to balance performance, cost, and correctness.