Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?
Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?
How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?
Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?
Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?
What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)
What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)
Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?
On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?
Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?
Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?
Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?
When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)
Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?
Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?
Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?
With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?
Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?
A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.
Which type of phishing attack does this represent?
What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?
On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?
Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?
Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)
Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?
Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?
Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?
Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?
Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?
Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?
What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?
In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?
An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses
Subnet 2: 25 host addresses
Subnet 3: 120 host addresses
Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)
Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?
A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.
Which technology meets this requirement?
Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?
SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)
Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?
Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?
In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?
Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?
In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)
Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?