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Practitioner Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

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Question # 7

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

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Question # 8

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

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Question # 9

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

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Question # 10

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

A.

Real-time protection from threats

B.

Alerts for new code introduction

C.

Integration with threat feeds

D.

Continuous monitoring of resources

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Question # 11

Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?

A.

Proxy

B.

Stateful

C.

Stateless

D.

Application

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Question # 12

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

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Question # 13

What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)

A.

Completely isolated system

B.

Scripting of manual tasks

C.

Consistent incident handling

D.

Long-term retention of logs

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Question # 14

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

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Question # 15

What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)

A.

Lateral movement

B.

Communication with covert channels

C.

Deletion of critical data

D.

Privilege escalation

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Question # 16

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

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Question # 17

What is the key to “taking down” a botnet?

A.

prevent bots from communicating with the C2

B.

install openvas software on endpoints

C.

use LDAP as a directory service

D.

block Docker engine software on endpoints

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Question # 18

On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?

A.

endpoint-based firewall

B.

strong user passwords

C.

full-disk encryption

D.

software patches

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Question # 19

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

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Question # 20

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

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Question # 21

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

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Question # 22

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

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Question # 23

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

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Question # 24

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

A.

decrypt the infected file using base64

B.

alert system administrators

C.

quarantine the infected file

D.

delete the infected file

E.

remove the infected file’s extension

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Question # 25

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

A.

API

B.

Code security

C.

Virtualization

D.

IRP

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Question # 26

Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

A.

DNS Security

B.

URL Filtering

C.

WildFire

D.

Threat Prevention

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Question # 27

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

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Question # 28

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

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Question # 29

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

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Question # 30

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

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Question # 31

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

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Question # 32

A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.

Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

A.

Whaling

B.

Vishing

C.

Pharming

D.

Angler phishing

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Question # 33

What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

A.

Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

B.

Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

C.

Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

D.

Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

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Question # 34

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

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Question # 35

Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?

A.

use of non-standard ports

B.

port hopping

C.

hiding within SSL encryption

D.

tunneling within commonly used services

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Question # 36

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

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Question # 37

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

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Question # 38

What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?

A.

To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices

B.

To ingest alert data from network devices

C.

To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices

D.

To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture

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Question # 39

Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?

A.

SIM

B.

SIEM

C.

UEBA

D.

SOAR

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Question # 40

Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?

A.

3G

B.

Z-wave

C.

802.11ax

D.

C-band

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Question # 41

Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?

A.

Containerized

B.

Serverless

C.

Air-gapped

D.

SaaS

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Question # 42

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

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Question # 43

Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?

A.

Cyber threat protection

B.

Inspection of all traffic

C.

Least privileges access control

D.

Network segmentation

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Question # 44

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

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Question # 45

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

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Question # 46

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

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Question # 47

In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

A.

False-positive

B.

True-negative

C.

False-negative

D.

True-positive

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Question # 48

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

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Question # 49

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

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Question # 50

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

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Question # 51

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

A.

endpoint antivirus software

B.

strong endpoint passwords

C.

endpoint disk encryption

D.

endpoint NIC ACLs

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Question # 52

A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.

Which technology meets this requirement?

A.

SIEM

B.

MDM

C.

EDR

D.

ADEM

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Question # 53

Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

A.

Global Protect

B.

WildFire

C.

AutoFocus

D.

STIX

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Question # 54

Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

A.

It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.

B.

It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.

C.

It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.

D.

It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.

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Question # 55

SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)

A.

People

B.

Accessibility

C.

Processes

D.

Understanding

E.

Business

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Question # 56

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

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Question # 57

Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Stateless packet inspection

C.

Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

D.

Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)

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Question # 58

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

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Question # 59

Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

A.

Authorization

B.

Allowance

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

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Question # 60

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

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Question # 61

Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?

A.

Data decompression

B.

Registered certificates

C.

Morphing code

D.

Low traffic volumes

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Question # 62

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

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Question # 63

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

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Question # 64

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

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Question # 65

In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

On-premises

D.

IaaS

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Question # 66

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

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Question # 67

Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?

A.

Github

B.

Jira

C.

Atom.io

D.

Jenkins

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Question # 68

Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

A.

CSPM

B.

ASM

C.

EDR

D.

CVVP

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