Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?
In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?
Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?
Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?
Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)
On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?
What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?
Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?
Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?
Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?
Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?
Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?
Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?
In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)
How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?
Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?
If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?
Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)
What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?
Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?
An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses
Subnet 2: 25 host addresses
Subnet 3: 120 host addresses
An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.
What can be created to dynamically block these websites?
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?
What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)
Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?
Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?
Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?
Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?
Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?
Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)
A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?
From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?
What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)
Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?
Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?
Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?
Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?
Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?