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Practitioner Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?

A.

Cloud

B.

Physical

C.

Virtual

D.

Containerized

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Question # 7

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

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Question # 8

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

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Question # 9

Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?

A.

an intranet-accessed contractor’s system that was compromised

B.

exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability

C.

access by using a third-party vendor’s password

D.

a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator’s password

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Question # 10

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

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Question # 11

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

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Question # 12

Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

A.

UDP

B.

MAC

C.

SNMP

D.

NFS

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Question # 13

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

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Question # 14

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

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Question # 15

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

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Question # 16

Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

A.

It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.

B.

It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.

C.

It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.

D.

It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.

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Question # 17

Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?

A.

You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.

B.

You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.

C.

You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.

D.

You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.

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Question # 18

Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?

A.

Cyber threat protection

B.

Inspection of all traffic

C.

Least privileges access control

D.

Network segmentation

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Question # 19

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

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Question # 20

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

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Question # 21

Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?

A.

Group policy

B.

Stateless

C.

Stateful

D.

Static packet-filter

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Question # 22

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

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Question # 23

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

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Question # 24

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

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Question # 25

Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?

A.

SaaS

B.

FWaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

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Question # 26

Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

A.

Statistical-based

B.

Knowledge-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Anomaly-based

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Question # 27

In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

On-premises

D.

IaaS

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Question # 28

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

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Question # 29

How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?

A.

costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources

B.

slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development

C.

reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code

D.

prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code

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Question # 30

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

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Question # 31

If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?

A.

The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.

B.

The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.

C.

The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.

D.

The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.

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Question # 32

What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

A.

Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not

B.

Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor

C.

Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

D.

Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS

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Question # 33

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

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Question # 34

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

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Question # 35

Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)

A.

They can be accessed by traffic from the internet.

B.

They are located in the internal network.

C.

They can expose servers in the internal network to attacks.

D.

They are isolated from the internal network.

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Question # 36

What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?

A.

They enable companies to use cloud-native tools and methodologies.

B.

They are used for data storage in cloud environments.

C.

They serve as a template manager for software applications and services.

D.

They are used to orchestrate virtual machines (VMs) in cloud environments.

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Question # 37

Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?

A.

Elastic scalability

B.

5G

C.

External dynamic lists

D.

Log export

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Question # 38

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

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Question # 39

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

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Question # 40

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

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Question # 41

Match the description with the VPN technology.

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Question # 42

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

A.

URL category

B.

Custom signatures

C.

Decryption policy

D.

Application group

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Question # 43

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

A.

Frame

B.

Segment

C.

Packet

D.

Data

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Question # 44

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

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Question # 45

Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

A.

Star Topology

B.

Spine Leaf Topology

C.

Mesh Topology

D.

Bus Topology

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Question # 46

What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)

A.

Securing individual devices

B.

Matching risks to signatures

C.

Scanning for excessive logins

D.

Analyzing access management logs

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Question # 47

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

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Question # 48

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

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Question # 49

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

A.

User-ID

B.

Device-ID

C.

App-ID

D.

Content-ID

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Question # 50

Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?

A.

Proxy

B.

Stateful

C.

Stateless

D.

Application

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Question # 51

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

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Question # 52

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

A.

Cortex XSOAR

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

AutoFocus

D.

Cortex XDR

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Question # 53

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

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Question # 54

A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Question # 55

From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?

A.

Unit 52

B.

PAN-DB

C.

BrightCloud

D.

MineMeld

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Question # 56

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

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Question # 57

What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)

A.

Lateral movement

B.

Communication with covert channels

C.

Deletion of critical data

D.

Privilege escalation

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Question # 58

Which statement describes DevOps?

A.

DevOps is its own separate team

B.

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the softwaredelivery process

C.

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

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Question # 59

Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

A.

Knowledge-based

B.

Signature-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Database-based

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Question # 60

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

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Question # 61

Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

A.

technique

B.

patch

C.

vulnerability

D.

exploit

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Question # 62

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

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Question # 63

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

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Question # 64

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

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Question # 65

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

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Question # 66

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

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Question # 67

Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?

A.

DDoS

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

Command-and-control (C2)

D.

Port evasion

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Question # 68

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

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