PMI-ACP Questions and Answers

The correct answer is C – Conduct retrospectives at the end of every sprint.

According to the Agile framework, regular retrospectives are a key practice to inspect and adapt the process. If team members have concerns about the Scrum Master's processes, the appropriate time and space to bring up and resolve such issues is the Sprint Retrospective.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a time-boxed event that enables the team to inspect itself and create a plan for improvements to be enacted during the next iteration. It provides a structured opportunity for feedback and reflection.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5, Iteration Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths further adds:

“Teams must take ownership of their process. The role of the agile leader, such as a Scrum Master, is to facilitate improvement via mechanisms like retrospectives. They are not responsible for enforcing process, but for enabling continuous improvement.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A may undermine the team's self-organization and brings hierarchy into team-level process adjustments.

B may address some confusion, but doesn’t actively involve the team in process improvement.

D is inappropriate—sprint planning is for work planning, not process feedback.

Therefore, the most agile-appropriate and validated solution is: C

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The correct answer is A – Cross-train some members in the automation framework to broaden their capacity with that skill. Agile teams are cross-functional and self-organizing. Cross-training helps build resilience, reduce skill bottlenecks, and ensure continuous delivery without unnecessary delays or dependence.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Cross-training improves team performance and flexibility. Agile encourages developing T-shaped skills—broad knowledge across functions and deep knowledge in one.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Cross-Functionality)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“High-performing agile teams actively cross-train to address skill gaps and reduce dependencies. This enhances velocity and self-sufficiency.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B undermines team self-management and is not the PO’s responsibility.

C delays the needed skill improvement.

D sacrifices quality and value.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – The duration of feedback cycles has increased.

In Agile, quick feedback is crucial to success. An increase in feedback cycle time indicates breakdowns in communication, delayed decision-making, or weak collaboration—all of which are signs that a distributed team may not be functioning effectively.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Distributed teams require more intentional efforts to maintain communication and reduce feedback loops. Lag in feedback reduces responsiveness and impedes value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Agile Team Communication)

Mike Griffiths highlights:

“One of the key risks in distributed teams is the degradation of feedback speed. Long feedback cycles result in slower adaptation and lost opportunities.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A (more emails) is neutral—could be communication, not dysfunction.

C (increased velocity) is a positive sign.

D (rescheduling meetings) is an adjustment, not necessarily dysfunction.

Answer: B

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To prevent the prioritization meeting from turning into a brainstorming session, the product owner should ensure that user stories are well-defined before they are added to the backlog. By reviewing the items with the product owner’s teammates (or stakeholders) beforehand, the product owner can clarify the details of the stories and ensure they are properly defined. This allows the team to focus on prioritization during the meeting, rather than spending time clarifying vague requests. This proactive approach improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the prioritization process.

The correct answer is B – Discuss the value of the change for the project with the customer.

Agile encourages ongoing collaboration with the customer, even if changes occur late in development. The contractor should not immediately reject or escalate the request. Instead, the first step is to assess the value of the requested change, collaborate on its importance, and then determine the best path forward—whether through backlog reprioritization or contractual adjustment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile welcomes changes in requirements, even late in development. Collaborate with the customer to explore the value of the change and its impact on schedule, cost, and scope.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Delivering Value Frequently)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Before resorting to contract changes or governance processes, teams should talk with the customer to understand the reason behind the change and its value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are suboptimal:

A assumes the change must go through legal channels without exploring its business value.

C may be necessary later but not as a first step.

D passively ignores the change and risks stakeholder dissatisfaction.

Answer: B

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The scrum master should first remind the team of the purpose and goals of each scrum event (such as the daily standup, sprint planning, sprint review, and retrospective) to ensure that they remain focused on their intended outcomes. The scrum master can then implement a policy that ensures discussions that deviate from the scope of the event are stopped. This approach keeps the team on track, prevents time-wasting conversations, and helps maintain the efficiency of the events.

This method empowers the team to stay focused on what is essential for each event and encourages self-management while still providing room for relevant discussions. In doing so, the team can achieve the desired outcomes of each scrum event without unnecessary delays.

In this case, the risk description for "Incomplete requirements specification" has been identified as a high likelihood and high impact risk. To mitigate this, the most appropriate strategy would be to conduct thorough requirements analysis and validation. This ensures that the integration of the new tool with the customer relationship management system aligns with the business objectives and avoids misunderstandings or gaps in the product requirements, which could cause delays or rework later in the project. This step addresses the core challenge of ensuring the product meets the business needs and integrates smoothly with existing systems.

Understandingproduct vision and customer goalsis foundational to agile. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1 Agile Mindset and Values), early engagement helps teamsconnect their work to real customer outcomes, which increasesmotivation, alignment, and value delivery.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset) also notes thatclear understanding of business goalsensures that team members build the right thing—not just build things right.

Option Ais correct: aligning the team with the product’s purpose drivesvalue-oriented thinking.

Option Bis secondary—understanding comes before acceptance.

Option Cis unrealistic and not the goal of this meeting.

Option Dmay occur, but the main benefit is deeper alignment with value.

The correct answer is B – Set expectations regarding the appropriate level of details requested during this stage. In Agile, early project stages are focused on vision, strategy, and high-level planning, not detailed documentation. The agile practitioner must educate stakeholders on progressive elaboration and set realistic expectations about how information is delivered over time.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“In the early stages of an agile project, requirements and plans are intentionally kept at a high level. Agile practitioners work closely with stakeholders to set appropriate expectations and explain how details will emerge iteratively.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.4 – Agile Project Initiation and Stakeholder Expectations)

Mike Griffiths reinforces this:

“During project inception, agile practitioners should clarify that detailed specifications evolve through iterative planning. Setting appropriate expectations is critical to building trust and maintaining alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 2 – Agile Principles and Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A contradicts agile principles of just-in-time elaboration.

C is too rigid and may alienate stakeholders.

D abdicates responsibility and doesn’t help manage expectations.

Answer: B

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According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement), managing stakeholder expectations starts with establishing ashared visionand involving stakeholders in key activities likeiteration reviews. This ensures transparency, feedback, and alignment on progress and priorities.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)supports the idea that acommon vision and shared goalsfoster trust and improve stakeholder relationships.

Option Ais correct: a shared vision and active involvement lead to better stakeholder alignment.

Option BandCare partially right butlimit collaborationor dismiss stakeholder input.

Option Dis inconsistent with agile’s emphasis onopen, continuous communication.

The Scrum Master should help ensure that stakeholders understand Agile principles and terms correctly to facilitate smooth decision-making. Organizing training sessions is an effective way to address misunderstandings and create awareness around Agile values. By ensuring all stakeholders are on the same page, the team can move forward with a shared understanding, which is critical for successfully implementing Agile methodologies. This approach promotes long-term buy-in and alignment, rather than simply pushing for a decision without proper education or consensus.

The correct answer is D — Engaged key stakeholders periodically to collect requirements.

Agile is based on frequent stakeholder collaboration. Continuous engagement ensures evolving needs are captured and prevents misalignment. Waiting for planning meetings or demos is too late to catch missing input.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams ensure stakeholder engagement is ongoing throughout the project. This helps validate requirements and prevent surprises during reviews.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Stakeholders should be consulted early and often. Relying on static requirements leads to gaps. Agile teams maintain constant feedback loops.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is too early and one-time.

B may help but is reactive.

C is a predictive approach inconsistent with agile.

Answer: D

Agile relies onregular retrospectivesto reflect, adapt, andimplement improvements. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives), teams should continuouslyinspect their processandcollectively own the changesneeded to improve. This supports a culture of learning and accountability.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)encourages frequent retrospectives that includeopen discussion and shared responsibilityfor change implementation.

Option Ais correct: holding retrospectives and collaborating on actions promotes ownership and progress.

Option Bneglects process change.

Option Climits transparency and team collaboration.

Option Daddresses trust but not the recurring problems.

In agile, when uncertainty exists around a technical or functional aspect of work, the team can use aspike—a time-boxed research or prototyping activity—to explore the unknown. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 User Stories and Spikes),spikes are ideal when the team lacks information or confidenceabout a proposed solution and needs to experiment before committing.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)explains thatspikes are used to investigate technical approaches, prove concepts, or explore new technologies, and they provide the team with the insight and confidence needed to proceed with less risk.

Option Ais correct because a spike would allow the team to explore the new framework in a controlled way.

Other options such asIshikawa diagrams (B),pre-mortems (C), andtrend analysis (D)are useful in other contexts, but not suitable for increasing confidence in new technical implementation approaches.

With a limited budget of $17,000 remaining, the product owner should prioritize features that provide the most value to the customer. This means considering the business needs, customer feedback, and potential value of each feature rather than focusing solely on completing all planned features. Features like the Reporting Module, which have not started and have a high estimated cost, might need to be reconsidered or deferred based on priority. By assessing which features deliver the most value to stakeholders and aligning with the overall objectives, the product owner can make the most efficient use of the remaining budget.

In Scrum, theproduct owneris the primary point of contact betweenstakeholders and the development team. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3: Roles and Responsibilities), the Scrum Master ensures thatcommunications flow properlyand protects the team from distractions.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes the importance of having asingle point of contactfor stakeholder feedback to avoid miscommunication and overload.

Option Ais correct: redirecting communication through the product owner keeps the team focused and the backlog structured.

Option Bis unprofessional and discourages stakeholder engagement.

Option Cbypasses review and prioritization—backlog management should be intentional.

Option Dcould blur roles and bypass proper channels.

DevOps is a methodology that focuses on enhancing collaboration between development and operations teams to create a continuous feedback loop and speed up the delivery process. The key to enabling and sustaining a fast workflow is the establishment of a culture of collaboration, supported by the right tools and processes that allow for continuous delivery. This culture helps break down silos between teams, leading to faster and more efficient workflows that can continuously deliver value to customers.

The correct answer is B — The stakeholder who can prevent the project from achieving its goals.

Stakeholder prioritization is based on power and influence. Those who can significantly impact or block project success (positively or negatively) should be prioritized. This ensures their concerns are addressed and their support is cultivated early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholder engagement is critical in agile. The team must identify those who have the most influence over project outcomes and ensure early and frequent communication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Stakeholder Engagement)

PMBOK® Guide:

“Stakeholder prioritization involves assessing who has the greatest influence on project success.”

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The correct answer is D – Facilitate a just-in-time exploration of the functionality by the customer and the team.

Agile promotes emergent planning and just-in-time elaboration. When a customer cannot clearly define how a feature should function, collaborative exploration at the point of need (just-in-time) ensures shared understanding, timely feedback, and minimized waste.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“User stories are deliberately kept light to encourage conversation. These conversations often occur just before the story is scheduled for development—known as just-in-time elaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Preparation and Refinement)

Andy Crowe also explains:

“Agile teams defer detail until the last responsible moment. This supports flexibility and better understanding through collaboration. Facilitating exploration sessions when needed helps clarify expectations and reduce uncertainty.”

(Andy Crowe, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Value Delivery)

Why other options are less suitable:

A may be helpful for technical uncertainty, but the issue here is lack of functional clarity from the customer.

B (iteration 0) is more of a preparatory stage; it is not typically used mid-project.

C suggests decomposition but without resolving the lack of understanding; it assumes the problem is granularity, not clarity.

Hence, the correct agile action is to engage collaboratively at the point of need: D

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In an agile environment, conflicts are seen as opportunities for collaboration and finding the best solution. The project manager should help the team by restating the positions of the team members to clarify their viewpoints and identify common ground. This approach encourages active listening, fosters understanding, and helps the team focus on shared goals rather than individual positions. Once the commonalities are identified, the team can collaboratively find a resolution that benefits the project, leveraging diverse perspectives to improve the outcome.

Given the global distribution of the stakeholders and their high interest in the project (as indicated in the stakeholder power/interest grid), a dynamic feedback platform is the most effective way to ensure consistent engagement. By leveraging collaboration tools that allow asynchronous feedback, the team can accommodate stakeholders in different time zones, reducing the delay in obtaining feedback and helping to speed up the decision-making process. This approach ensures that all stakeholders can contribute when it’s convenient for them, without the need for synchronized meetings, thus improving overall engagement and decision-making efficiency.

The correct answer is A – To participate in establishing a shared vision as a member of the team.

Stakeholder engagement ensures alignment between the team and business needs. Early and continuous involvement helps define product vision, clarify priorities, and ensure that the delivered product meets customer expectations.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engaging stakeholders early and often increases transparency, encourages shared ownership, and ensures that the product being developed aligns with business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Projects are more successful when stakeholders co-create the product vision and maintain involvement. Agile teams encourage active participation to ensure delivery of value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why other options fall short:

B (acceptance criteria) is mainly defined by the Product Owner, not all stakeholders.

C is typically owned by the development team.

D is not a core stakeholder responsibility in Agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – The customer changed requirements. Agile teams embrace change, especially when it improves the product’s value. Customer-driven changes to requirements are the most common and legitimate reason for adjusting project plans in agile, supported by rolling wave planning and continuous backlog refinement.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects anticipate changes in requirements. The product backlog is continuously updated to reflect new insights and customer needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Rolling Wave Planning)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“In agile, planning is dynamic. The most common source of change is evolving customer requirements, which lead to changes in scope and prioritization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A is unrelated and unrealistic.

C is useful but doesn’t directly alter the project plan.

D is ambiguous and doesn’t reflect business-driven change.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D – Meet with project stakeholders to review the backlog and determine if the scope should be adjusted. Agile emphasizes continuous stakeholder collaboration and delivering maximum value. If the remaining backlog may not contribute significant value, it’s prudent for the Product Owner to reassess scope and validate changes with stakeholders.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engage stakeholders continuously to review priorities and business value. If the product delivers sufficient value earlier than anticipated, the scope may be reduced or the project closed.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Early delivery of value allows teams to stop work that no longer serves business objectives. This requires transparent communication with stakeholders to validate scope adjustments.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A assumes authority without consulting stakeholders.

B doesn’t address the possible need for scope reduction.

C skips stakeholder validation before deployment decisions.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is D – Reestimate all stories including values for A, B, and C. Agile promotes empirical process control, meaning teams adapt based on what they learn. When significant deviations are found in actual effort vs. story point estimates, the team should revisit and refine their estimation process, including reestimating stories to better align with reality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimates are revisited based on experience. Teams inspect and adapt during retrospectives, using data to improve future estimation accuracy.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When estimates prove inaccurate, teams should reestimate affected stories. Estimating is a collaborative process, and learning from past deviations is a key part of adaptive planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may distort estimation by comparison and not correct the root issue.

B manipulates velocity data and violates agile principles of transparency.

C attempts to “force fit” effort rather than inspect and adapt.

Answer: D

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Servant leadership is about supporting the team, empowering them, and ensuring they have what they need to succeed. The team leader should focus on removing impediments that block the team's progress. By doing so, the leader enables the team to work more efficiently and effectively, without being obstructed by recurring issues. This aligns with the servant leadership mindset of putting the team's needs first and helping them reach their goals.

Sprint planning or any task-level technical meeting should involve thedevelopment team and the product owner, as they are the key players in delivering and clarifying work. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3: Agile Roles and Responsibilities)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), the Scrum Master facilitates the meeting, while thedevelopment teamandproduct ownercollaborate on the details.

Option Dis correct: the core team (developers) and product owner are the correct participants for story elaboration and commitment.

Option AandCinvolve the customer and sponsor unnecessarily for a technical planning meeting.

Option Bincludes "key stakeholders," which may be overkill unless specific business input is needed.

Kaizen is a Japanese term that means "continuous improvement," which is a fundamental principle in Agile. It focuses on making incremental, continuous improvements to enhance processes and quality. Standup meetings and retrospective meetings are common Agile practices that support Kaizen. Standup meetings provide a daily check-in to ensure the team is aligned, while retrospectives allow the team to reflect on the sprint, identify areas for improvement, and make adjustments. Continuous improvement is at the core of Kaizen, and these practices enable the team to refine their processes over time, leading to better product quality and customer satisfaction.

In Agile, transparency and communication within the team are key. The team member should log the concern into the risk register to formally track the issue and share it with the team at the next standup. This allows the entire team to discuss and assess the situation collaboratively, ensuring that the concern is addressed and managed collectively. This approach aligns with the self-organizing nature of Agile teams, where team members are responsible for working together to find solutions.

The correct answer is C – Use class of service. In Kanban, the Class of Service (CoS) model is a key technique for prioritization and flow management. It helps teams decide which work items should be expedited, delayed, or treated as standard. Using CoS enables teams to handle tasks based on urgency, business value, and risk.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Classes of service define the rules by which work is selected, prioritized, and delivered. They help make prioritization policies explicit and transparent to stakeholders and team members.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Kanban and Flow-Based Approaches)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Class of service models—such as ‘Expedite’, ‘Fixed Delivery Date’, ‘Standard’, or ‘Intangible’—allow teams to prioritize tasks by business value, risk, and urgency. This is particularly useful in Kanban systems where items flow continuously.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Kanban Practices)

Option A (involving the product owner) is more applicable to Scrum teams; Kanban teams often have shared ownership of flow.

Option B (reviewing WIP limits) affects flow but doesn’t guide task prioritization.

Option D (measuring lead time) helps with process analysis but not immediate prioritization.

Answer: C

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The principles of Extreme Programming (XP) focus on improving software quality and responsiveness to changing customer requirements. The key principles include:

Rapid feedback: Getting feedback quickly from customers or stakeholders to ensure that the development process is on track.

Assume simplicity: Focusing on simplicity in the design and code to avoid overengineering and to ensure the software is easy to understand and modify.

Incremental change: Delivering software in small, manageable increments that can be easily adjusted based on feedback.

Embrace change: Being flexible and adaptable, especially in response to new requirements or changes in technology or business needs.

Quality work: Ensuring high-quality software by emphasizing practices such as automated testing, continuous integration, and refactoring.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), stories areonly marked complete if they meet the Definition of Done (DoD) and are accepted by the product owner and stakeholders. If the customer (or their representative) raises a legitimate concern during the review, the story should be treated asincompleteuntil consensus is reached or it meets expectations.

Option Ais correct: if the story does not meet customer expectations, it should be reprioritized for the next sprint or refined.

Option BandDincorrectly assume that product owner or team authority overrides customer feedback.

Option Csuggests discarding the story, which is inappropriate if the customer still needs the functionality.

Stakeholder feedback is critical in agile, and the goal isdelivering value, not simply completing a checklist.

Continuous delivery is a key practice in DevOps, ensuring that code is always in a deployable state. This practice allows for faster, more reliable releases, promoting automation and consistent feedback loops in the development process. It helps teams to iterate quickly and deploy changes frequently, which is a hallmark of DevOps.

The correct answer is C — Ask probing questions to other team members to encourage dissenting viewpoints.

Agile coaches foster team collaboration and help surface diverse opinions. When one member dominates, the coach should use facilitation techniques to ensure equal voice. Encouraging quieter team members to contribute through thoughtful questions promotes balanced participation and trust.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches foster an environment of trust and collaboration. When team dynamics are unbalanced, the coach helps ensure psychological safety and equal participation.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths:

“Coaches use powerful questions to draw out quieter team members and help build a culture where everyone feels heard and valued.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect choices:

A is extreme and non-collaborative.

B ignores the coach’s facilitative responsibilities.

D is reactive and too late.

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A spike is a time-boxed research activity used in Agile to explore uncertainties or unknowns, such as dependencies in this case. If the product owner is unsure about the risks related to migrating to a new version of a database, they can request a spike from the team. This will allow the team to investigate the dependencies, assess potential risks, and gather the necessary information to move forward with the user story. This helps reduce uncertainty and makes it easier to make informed decisions about the next steps.

The correct answer is C – Schedule a story grooming session with the product owner before sprint planning. Story grooming (backlog refinement) ensures that stories are ready, appropriately detailed, and understood before planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Backlog refinement sessions are a key practice where the team, facilitated by the Scrum Master, ensures that backlog items are well-defined and sized appropriately for future planning. These sessions reduce ambiguity and promote shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Backlog refinement allows stories to be clarified, split, and estimated ahead of planning. Agile practitioners ensure backlog items meet the Definition of Ready (DoR) before sprint planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A delays collaboration and is too passive.

B lacks product owner involvement.

D is a sizing technique, not a requirement clarification method.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A – Perform value stream analysis to eliminate the processes with wastage. Value stream mapping is a lean and agile technique used to identify and eliminate non-value-adding activities, optimize flow, and increase delivery efficiency—especially crucial when facing tight deadlines.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Value stream mapping is used to analyze the flow of materials and information required to bring a product or service to a consumer. It helps teams eliminate waste and improve speed and quality.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.4 – Continuous Improvement and Feedback Loops)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Value stream analysis is a lean technique that helps agile teams identify delays, bottlenecks, and handoffs that waste time. When velocity lags behind expectations, understanding the end-to-end process is essential to improvement.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Option B (removing high-risk stories) may introduce more long-term risk and undermine value.

Option C suggests manipulating metrics instead of addressing root causes.

Option D may help identify risks early, but it doesn’t address why velocity is low.

Answer: A

The correct answer is C — Conducted an end-of-phase demonstration.

Agile emphasizes continuous feedback. Regular demonstrations (e.g., sprint reviews or product demos) allow stakeholders, including the customer, to inspect the product increment and provide real-time feedback. Had the team demoed the product, they might have discovered the deficiencies before release.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“A demo or review allows stakeholders to inspect the product increment and provide feedback. Demonstrations reduce the risk of unmet expectations and confirm that the team is building the right product.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.7 – Reviews and Demos)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile avoids large, end-of-phase validations. Instead, customer feedback is solicited at the end of every iteration through structured demos. This allows for early course correction and alignment with expectations.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A is a waterfall artifact and not aligned with agile workflows.

B is analysis-heavy and doesn’t ensure real stakeholder feedback.

D (retrospective) improves process, not product validation.

Answer: C

Value stream mapping is a powerful tool in Agile and Lean methodologies used to visualize and analyze the flow of materials and information across the entire process. By mapping the current state, the team can identify bottlenecks, delays, and inefficiencies, especially when multiple teams are involved in sequential activities. Once these gaps and constraints are identified, the team can work on improving the process, such as by finding ways to increase the number of systems migrated per day from two to three, thus improving overall efficiency.

The correct answer is D — Help establish the next sprint's goal.

The sprint goal provides a shared objective and guides the selection and execution of user stories. It is established collaboratively between the product owner and the development team at the start of sprint planning and precedes task decomposition or estimation.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team collaborates with the product owner during sprint planning to define a sprint goal. The sprint goal gives the team clarity and focus on what it intends to achieve during the sprint.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Iteration Planning)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Effective planning starts with understanding the desired outcome of the sprint. The sprint goal aligns the team and informs prioritization and task breakdown.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A prematurely assigns tasks, which goes against Agile’s collaborative ethos.

B and C happen later in the sprint planning process after defining the sprint goal.

Answer: D

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Frequent feedback is key to agile success. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Sprint Review and Feedback)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), thesprint review (demo)is the primary event designed to obtain feedback from stakeholders. If stakeholders are unresponsive,increasing the opportunities for engagement, such as byscheduling more demos or review checkpoints, encourages their involvement.

Option Dis correct: demos provide structured opportunities to collect feedback.

Option Amight increase delivery cadence but doesn't guarantee feedback.

Option Bis inappropriate—daily stand-ups are for the team.

Option Cviolates role responsibilities—estimation is owned by the team, not stakeholders.

In Agile, change is considered a natural part of the process, as requirements evolve based on feedback and new insights. The Scrum Master should help the team understand that changes are an opportunity to improve the product and deliver more value to the stakeholders. While it's important to manage changes effectively, it's also crucial to communicate that continuous improvement and adaptation are integral parts of Agile practices. The Scrum Master should foster a positive environment where change is seen as a way to better meet the customer's needs rather than a hindrance to performance.

The correct answer is A — Lead the team and help them to constantly improve the processes in the project.

The Scrum Master is responsible for ensuring that retrospective action items are tracked and followed up on. While the team owns the improvement actions, the Scrum Master provides support, accountability, and facilitation to ensure that continuous improvement happens.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Scrum Master facilitates continuous improvement by helping the team reflect, identify actions, and ensure those actions are implemented.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Retrospectives are only effective if outcomes are tracked. The Scrum Master ensures improvement ideas are not forgotten and become part of the team’s evolution.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B uses a confrontational tone—contrary to servant leadership.

C implies micro-management and contradicts self-organization.

D avoids responsibility for facilitating improvements.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is B – Manage communication between all team members and the customer to promote effective and transparent collaboration. Agile values open, direct, and frequent communication, particularly between team members and stakeholders. Transparency, collaboration, and shared understanding reduce misunderstandings and promote customer satisfaction.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile values individuals and interactions over processes and tools. Frequent, open, and direct communication with stakeholders is essential. Agile teams are encouraged to engage stakeholders frequently to ensure alignment and transparency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Agile fosters transparency and trust through direct communication. Information should flow freely between all team members and stakeholders to facilitate quick feedback and mutual understanding.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A and C limit communication and transparency.

D is useful for conflict resolution, but not for broad issue management or stakeholder communication.

Answer: B

────────────────────────────────────

Iteration reviews (or sprint reviews) are designed to demonstratecompleted, potentially shippable product increments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance), the purpose of the iteration review is toshowcase work that meets the Definition of Done (DoD)and to receivestakeholder feedback. Demonstrating incomplete or in-progress stories can mislead stakeholders about progress and reduce trust in the team.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)emphasizes the importance of showing only completed work to maintain transparency and clarity in stakeholder communication.

Option Ais correct: only completed stories should be demoed to ensure expectations are managed effectively.

Option BandCare not part of the typical iteration review agenda unless explicitly required.

Option Dis incorrect, as it blurs the line between done and in-progress work.

In Agile, building increments and ensuring early feedback are key to delivering value quickly and meeting tight deadlines. By focusing on delivering a minimum viable product (MVP), the team can provide the customer with a version of the product that delivers essential functionality early, which allows for feedback and adjustments before the final version is released. This approach helps the team stay within the limited budget and timeline while ensuring that they are delivering the most important features first. Additionally, early customer feedback ensures that the team is on track to meet the project goals and allows for the rapid adaptation of the product.

The correct answer is B – Lack of shared knowledge of user stories.

Distributed teams face challenges in collaboration, knowledge sharing, and communication. Without regular interaction, team members may not fully understand user stories, acceptance criteria, or customer needs. This leads to misalignment and potentially lower-quality outputs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Distributed teams face barriers to communication and knowledge sharing. Agile teams must use collaboration tools and practices to ensure that all members share an understanding of the user stories and priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Agile Team Communication)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Remote Agile teams must work harder to ensure clarity in user stories and maintain shared understanding. Without this, misunderstandings increase.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A (frequent integration) is a benefit, not a risk.

C is irrelevant to Agile effectiveness.

D is less common with Agile roles clearly defined (PO, SM, Dev Team).

Answer: B

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The correct answer is A – Add code cleanup activities to the product backlog and request prioritization by the product owner. In Agile, technical debt should be made visible and managed like any other backlog item. The product owner is responsible for backlog prioritization and must balance feature delivery with quality-related tasks.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Technical debt should be made transparent and included in the product backlog. Teams should advocate for addressing it, and the product owner prioritizes its resolution based on the impact to future work.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Technical Debt)

Mike Griffiths’ guidance reinforces this:

“Technical debt erodes long-term productivity and must be tracked and addressed. Agile teams collaborate with product owners to prioritize and schedule code cleanup or refactoring activities.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B and C bypass the product owner’s prioritization role.

D delays action unnecessarily and misrepresents Agile’s emphasis on transparency and early resolution.

Answer: A

The correct answer is B – Create a team norms document to set participation guidelines. Establishing team norms improves psychological safety, trust, and collaborative behavior. It provides a structured way to handle differences of opinion and ensure equal contribution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Team norms or working agreements are guidelines created by the team to set expectations for behavior, participation, and communication. These norms are agreed upon early and revisited as needed to support healthy collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“High-performing agile teams create shared agreements that clarify roles, expectations, and behavior. When team conflict or disconnects arise, practitioners should guide the team to revisit or develop such norms.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A lacks structure and may not address the root issue.

C delays resolution and misuses the stand-up’s purpose.

D waits too long to act; issues should be addressed immediately, not deferred.

Answer: B

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The Scrum Master should act as a facilitator and protect the team from unnecessary distractions that do not add value. By attending the meetings in place of the team members, the Scrum Master can assess the meetings' value and determine if they are essential to the team's progress. If the meetings are unnecessary or inefficient, the Scrum Master can work with stakeholders to improve or remove them, ensuring that the team’s time is used productively and that they can focus on delivering value.

Velocity is a measure of how much work a team completes in a given sprint, typically measured in story points or other units of effort. While velocity can be useful for tracking progress and forecasting future work, it has some limitations when it comes to accurate capacity planning.

Velocity can vary from sprint to sprint due to multiple factors, such as the complexity of the tasks, interruptions, or even external influences. This variability can make it difficult to predict how much work a team can handle in future sprints, leading to inaccurate capacity planning.

The correct answer is C – Share information via interactive methods such as a brainstorming session.

Agile promotes collaboration, continuous stakeholder engagement, and open communication. When a stakeholder lacks understanding, the practitioner should use interactive techniques like brainstorming, user story workshops, or product visioning sessions. These methods foster transparency, build trust, and allow stakeholders to co-create the product vision.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Effective stakeholder engagement relies on interactive communication methods such as workshops, demos, and feedback sessions to ensure alignment and transparency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Interactive, face-to-face collaboration provides the richest communication. Agile favors dialogue over documentation to enhance shared understanding.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options are less ideal:

A (status emails) are passive and limited in effectiveness.

B may violate Scrum guidelines—daily standups are not intended for stakeholders.

D delays engagement and limits collaboration to after-the-fact review.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is D – Ask the team to decide if the task should be reassigned. In agile, the Scrum Master serves as a servant leader and facilitator, not a manager. Task decisions are made by the team through collaboration and self-organization.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams self-organize and make decisions collaboratively. The Scrum Master facilitates discussion and decision-making but does not dictate task assignments.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Empowerment and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“The Scrum Master’s role is to empower the team to find their own solutions and make informed decisions that support sprint goals. When adjustments are needed, the team should decide how to proceed.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A undermines self-management and may create fear or pressure.

B implies outside control instead of team autonomy.

C ignores opportunity for improvement and team input.

Answer: D

The correct answer is C – Refer to the remaining prioritized backlog items. Agile planning is iterative and based on the product backlog’s prioritization. During iteration planning, once the team has identified most story points to be delivered, it should refer back to the product backlog and select the next highest-priority user stories to fill in the remaining capacity, considering the team’s historical velocity.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Iteration planning begins with the team reviewing the prioritized backlog items. Based on their velocity, they determine how many stories can be completed. Teams select stories from the top of the backlog and stop when they reach their capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Iteration Planning)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“Agile teams rely on a prioritized backlog maintained by the product owner. Iteration planning involves pulling the highest-priority stories into the sprint until the team reaches its forecasted velocity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options are incorrect:

A is counter to adaptive planning and proactive engagement.

B focuses on technical feasibility, not business priority.

D ignores prioritization and may add low-value work.

Answer: C

To kick off the project, especially when the idea is not yet clear, the agile lead should focus on understanding the needs and challenges of the end users—HR in this case. By applying the empathy map technique, the team can gather insights into the users' experiences, needs, and pain points. This helps in building a more focused and user-centered approach to solving the problem, which is the foundation for developing a product backlog. Engaging stakeholders early and understanding the problem space will clarify the project direction and lay the groundwork for creating meaningful user stories.

The correct answer is C – The users can help the team understand if the feature adds value, avoiding the risk of building the wrong product.

Prototyping in agile serves as a lightweight modeling technique that supports discovery and stakeholder validation. It helps clarify uncertain requirements, encourages collaboration, and ensures that the solution being developed meets user needs and delivers value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Prototypes allow teams to explore solutions before committing to full development. They support value delivery by engaging users early to verify what is needed.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Exploring and Confirming Requirements)

Also:

“Engaging stakeholders in early solution validation through techniques such as wireframes or mockups reduces the risk of developing the wrong product.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Delivering Value Frequently)

Mike Griffiths reinforces this approach:

“Prototyping enhances discovery. It supports feedback loops that validate whether a feature adds value before it's built—especially useful when requirements are unclear.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are less correct:

A is a secondary benefit but not the primary goal of prototyping.

B is speculative and does not reflect the sponsor's actual recommendation.

D misrepresents the purpose of prototyping, which is for discovery, not accelerated deployment.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C – Meet with the team to discuss the issue and identify specific actions to reduce or eliminate the issue. Agile coaches facilitate team self-management, guide reflection, and encourage the team to solve performance issues collaboratively. Open discussion fosters ownership and accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches guide teams through self-reflection and help them identify root causes of issues. Coaches support team-driven resolutions to behavioral and performance problems.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Agile Coaching and Team Performance)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Effective agile leadership involves enabling the team to identify and resolve their own challenges. Top-down directives may harm morale and self-organization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance and Coaching)

Incorrect options:

A and B bring in external control, undermining team autonomy.

D is punitive and contradicts agile principles of empowerment and trust.

Answer: C

To improve the team’s productivity, it is essential to keep both the product backlog and the iteration backlog up to date. The product backlog contains the overall product features and requirements, while the iteration backlog focuses on the work planned for the current iteration. Ensuring that both backlogs are updated as issues and new tasks arise will help maintain clarity and avoid confusion, enabling the team to prioritize and track progress more effectively. This will also help minimize delays and rework, as the team will have a clear, accurate view of what needs to be done and what has been accomplished.

The correct answer is C — All stakeholders are responsible for identifying risks during standups, retrospectives, and other team meetings.

Agile promotes collective ownership. Risk identification and mitigation are shared responsibilities involving the entire team, including the product owner, developers, and other stakeholders. Agile meetings (e.g., stand-ups, retrospectives) are excellent forums for surfacing risks early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“In agile projects, everyone is responsible for identifying and managing risk. Teams inspect frequently, enabling early detection and resolution of issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Risk management is embedded in agile events. Teams don’t defer risk analysis to a specialist—they collaborate continuously to identify, discuss, and respond to risks.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A ignores active risk management needs.

B assumes individual rather than shared responsibility.

D misrepresents the PO’s role—risks may appear in the backlog, but management is team-based.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is D – Encourage the team member to use experimentation/spikes for continuous improvement and help the team understand why it is important. Agile encourages learning and experimentation through techniques like spikes (time-boxed research or exploration activities).

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages teams to experiment and learn continuously. Time-boxed spikes can be used to investigate alternative designs, reduce uncertainty, and support informed decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes and Uncertainty Reduction)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Spikes are short, time-limited investigations into a design or technical approach. They are a vital part of agile development for reducing risk, exploring alternatives, and enabling innovation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A and C discourage innovation and agility.

B defers action rather than enabling real-time learning.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A — Foster stronger communication by hosting cross-organizational meetings between the two teams.

Integration issues often result from mismatched expectations, lack of alignment, or asynchronous collaboration. A practical solution is to improve communication via cross-functional and cross-team meetings, which support transparency, alignment, and shared understanding.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Strong communication is essential in hybrid environments. Agile practitioners must foster collaboration between diverse teams to ensure integration points are clear and timely.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 — Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“When agile and non-agile teams must work together, agile leaders facilitate boundary-spanning conversations to ensure mutual understanding and coordinated delivery.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 — Team Performance)

Other options:

B oversimplifies the solution and may create unnecessary disruptions.

C contradicts agile's principle of just-enough documentation.

D is rarely practical in hybrid or large-scale environments.

Answer: A

—

The first priority for the Scrum Master should be to ensure the project has a dedicated, cross-functional team. Scrum teams are self-organizing and cross-functional, meaning they have all the skills needed to complete the work without relying on external resources. The Scrum Master should focus on forming a team that can collaboratively work on the product development, ensuring they are committed to the project and understand their roles and responsibilities within the Scrum framework. This is essential for the team to be effective and aligned with the Scrum principles, ensuring that they can deliver value in iterative cycles.

The correct answer is B — Balance risk reduction and value-adding activities in the next iteration.

Agile recommends actively managing risks as part of iteration planning. While delivering customer value remains a top priority, severe risks should be mitigated as early as possible. The team should consider allocating capacity in the next sprint to reduce risk while still maintaining delivery focus.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams incorporate risk mitigation work into iteration planning. Teams should prioritize high-impact risks early and balance risk management with delivering customer value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Agile Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Agile does not separate risk management into a different process—it is embedded within backlog prioritization. Addressing risk early can prevent downstream impacts, and teams must weigh risk vs. value regularly.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A disrupts current iteration goals and contradicts agile time-boxing.

C ignores the severity of the risk.

D escalates unnecessarily—agile promotes team-level decision-making first.

Answer: B

—

Agile promotestransparency and ongoing communicationwith all stakeholders, including legal and compliance teams. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communications), one of the Scrum Master's responsibilities is tokeep stakeholders informedof project progress and projections using tools like burnup/burndown charts, velocity trends, or product roadmaps.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes thatsharing the trajectoryof progress and scope delivery builds trust and provides clarity to non-technical stakeholders.

Option Cis correct: sharing actual progress and trends with legal ensures alignment and transparency.

Option Amisplaces the responsibility—it's the stakeholders who need visibility.

Option Bshifts product decisions prematurely.

Option Dassumes satisfaction trumps contractual obligations—this can cause legal issues.

The correct answer is C – Invite the new release manager to the sprint demo and ask for help. Agile encourages stakeholder collaboration and visibility. Sprint reviews (also known as demos) are key opportunities for stakeholders, including release managers, to engage directly with the team and provide feedback. Since the issue is related to environmental instability and the new release manager is a key stakeholder, involving them in the sprint review enables mutual understanding and sets the stage for collaboration.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use the sprint review to present completed work to stakeholders and receive direct feedback. It is also an opportunity to engage stakeholders who can influence the delivery environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile encourages frequent stakeholder collaboration. Sprint reviews should include key stakeholders who are responsible for operational and release matters to ensure alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Options A and D are passive approaches and may not lead to effective communication. Option B (attending daily standups) may be helpful but is not the best opportunity for strategic involvement compared to a sprint demo.

Answer: C

=========

When the team is facing difficulties in estimating the scope of work due to unclear or ambiguous requirements, the product owner should collaborate closely with the client to ensure that the requirements are clear and well-defined. By refining the product backlog with more detailed and clarified requirements, the product owner can help the team generate more accurate estimates and better understand the scope of work. This is a fundamental step in ensuring the team can properly plan and execute the project on time.

Agile emphasizestransparency and team self-organization. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Self-Organizing Teams)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), a common practice is tomake work and issues visible to everyoneand allow the team to collaboratively manage their workflow. Using ashared workspace or boardhelps prevent redundant efforts and improves efficiency.

Option Dis correct: shared visibility and self-allocation promote team ownership.

Option Amisuses the backlog—issues aren't typically prioritized by customers.

Option Bis directive and may reduce collaboration.

Option Cfocuses on analysis, not immediate resolution or coordination.

The correct answer is C — Introduce agile principles and processes, then make the change an experiment to obtain buy-in.

Agile transformation succeeds when it is driven through team engagement and experimentation, not top-down enforcement. Experimentation aligns with the principle of “failing fast” and encourages teams to experience the value of agile themselves before full adoption.

PMI Agile Practice Guide explains:

“To support organizational change, leaders should create safe-to-fail experiments to allow teams to explore and adopt agile in a non-threatening way. Buy-in emerges through shared learning, not forced compliance.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Organizational Change and Culture)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Effective agile leaders lead through influence and create an environment of experimentation and learning. Mandates create resistance, but pilots and feedback loops drive acceptance.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Answer A speaks only to executive buy-in. Answer B is directive and not collaborative. Answer D imposes agile through training but skips experiential learning and feedback.

Answer: C

=================================

At this point in the planning process, the team has not yet gathered enough data to provide a precise release date. The team's velocity (the amount of work they can complete in each iteration) has not been established, and the team needs some iterations to stabilize and gather insights. However, they can offer a broad range based on the current understanding of the backlog and priorities. This allows the sponsor to have a rough expectation while also managing the uncertainty involved at this stage in the process.

In Agile, changes are expected and are part of the iterative process. The product owner should take the opportunity to coach the stakeholder on agile principles, explaining how continuous feedback, flexibility, and adaptability are core to delivering value in an Agile project. Instead of pushing back on changes, the product owner can help the stakeholder understand that responding to change helps improve the product and better meet user needs. This helps align the stakeholder's expectations with Agile practices and fosters better collaboration throughout the project.

The Definition of Done (DoD) is a shared understanding of what it means for work to be considered complete. It is typically defined by the project sponsor and project team in collaboration. The DoD outlines the criteria that must be met for user stories, features, or tasks to be considered done, ensuring alignment between stakeholders and the development team. While the product owner, Scrum master, and stakeholders may influence the criteria, the final agreement on what constitutes "done" is determined by the project team and sponsor.

A user story that is too large to complete in one sprint is considered anepic. Agile teams shouldsplit it into smaller, valuable, testable stories. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Decomposition)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)recommendbreaking down large storiesand renegotiating sprint scopecollaborativelywith the product owner.

Option Cis correct: this aligns withcollaborative planning and story decomposition.

Option Ais rigid and dismisses collaboration.

Option Bpromotes unsustainable practices.

Option Dviolates the principle offixed-length iterations.

The correct answer is B — Hold regular retrospectives and have team members commit to specific actions.

Regular retrospectives enable the team to continuously reflect and adapt their processes and product based on new challenges or insights. Commitment to specific action items ensures accountability and fosters a culture of learning and responsiveness.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should hold regular retrospectives to identify areas for improvement and define concrete actions. These actions are tracked and reviewed in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Continuous improvement is a core agile value. Retrospectives allow teams to evaluate their performance and commit to actionable improvements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is a waterfall mindset.

C lacks structured reflection and accountability.

D is a poor coding practice and anti-pattern.

Answer: B

—

The correct answer is D — Ask the agile practitioner to facilitate a story-writing workshop.

When stakeholders have conflicting inputs, a collaborative approach such as a story-writing workshop enables the team to converge on a shared understanding. The agile practitioner (Scrum Master or Agile Coach) plays a key role in facilitating these sessions to ensure productive dialogue and alignment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide explains:

“Facilitated workshops, including story-writing workshops, help surface differences in stakeholder needs and create alignment through structured collaboration. Agile practitioners often lead these sessions to ensure neutrality and focus.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 — Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths’ book adds:

“Agile practitioners support product owners in building and refining the backlog, especially when multiple viewpoints or conflicts exist. Facilitated workshops ensure transparency and a collaborative environment.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is incorrect because the practitioner’s role is to facilitate, not write the stories.

B is a good idea, but the product owner should not delegate facilitation to the team.

C may assist with clarification but won’t help resolve conflict or prioritize across stakeholders.

Answer: D

—

Managing technical debt is crucial for the long-term health of the project. The most effective approach is to include technical debt tasks in every sprint, ensuring that the debt is addressed incrementally without disrupting the flow of new feature development. By treating technical debt as a priority alongside new features, the team can reduce the impact of technical debt over time, maintain product quality, and align with stakeholder expectations. Continuous review of the impact ensures that the team is making informed decisions and balancing both short-term delivery and long-term maintainability. This approach also allows the team to meet performance expectations and customer satisfaction more consistently.

To effectively address blockers and minimize their occurrence, the team should first analyze the root causes of the blockers. By grouping them and identifying patterns, the team can understand the common causes of delays and take targeted actions to eliminate or mitigate these issues. This practice aligns with continuous improvement in Agile, where teams reflect on their processes, identify areas of inefficiency, and adapt their workflow to reduce future blockers and lead times. This approach allows the team to address the underlying issues and make process improvements that benefit future sprints.

Transparency is key in agile. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communications)emphasizes the use ofinformation radiators—visual displays such as task boards, burndown charts, or Kanban boards thatimmediately communicate project status. These tools make progress visible to all stakeholders without needing detailed documentation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)reinforces thatcollocated displays or shared online boardsreduce misunderstandings and keep stakeholders aligned.

Option Dis correct: a public project board offersreal-time visibilityand promotes transparency.

Option Acontradicts agile by emphasizing documentation over working software.

Option Blimits visibility to a subset of stakeholders and is passive.

Option Cdisrupts the team’s daily focus—stand-ups are not intended for stakeholder participation.

Agile empowers teams to beself-organizing and self-managing. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6)andMike Griffiths' PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), the agile coach or Scrum Master facilitates the process but shouldencourage the team to resolve internal issues themselves. This develops ownership, team maturity, and accountability.

The team coach’s role is tosupport, not solve. Escalating issues unnecessarily or bypassing the team undermines agile principles. Therefore,Option Cis correct: the coach should encourage the team to address and resolve the issue internally, stepping in only if the team cannot resolve it themselves.

The agile lead is emphasizing the importance of creating a safe environment for disagreement, which encourages constructive conflict. In Agile, this is crucial because it allows team members to openly express differing opinions and perspectives. Such discussions often lead to better decision-making by surfacing various viewpoints and potential solutions. When teams feel safe to disagree, it fosters creativity, innovation, and problem-solving without fear of retribution. This aligns with Agile principles of collaboration, transparency, and continuous improvement.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2.2), one of the key responsibilities of the agile practitioner is toactively engage stakeholdersthroughout the development cycle—not just during review meetings. Agile frameworks promote continuous collaboration and frequent feedback. Merely attending sprint reviews is passive participation and may lead to missed alignment on expectations.

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)that stakeholder satisfaction requires more than periodic visibility—it requiresongoing interactionand inclusion in decision-making and backlog refinement sessions. This deepens shared understanding and reduces the risk of late-stage surprises.

Hence, answerBis correct because proactivestakeholder engagement with the product ownerfosters mutual understanding, timely feedback, and course correction—ensuring the product aligns with expectations.

The correct answer is A – Lead time, throughput, and due date performance. These are key flow-based metrics used in Kanban systems to monitor performance, efficiency, and predictability of delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Kanban systems rely heavily on flow metrics to measure performance and identify bottlenecks. Key Kanban metrics include lead time, throughput, and cycle time. These metrics provide insights into how quickly work is flowing through the system.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Kanban System Metrics)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Kanban teams track cumulative flow, lead time, and throughput to ensure steady and predictable delivery. Due date performance is used to evaluate commitments and reliability.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B refers to tools and principles, not performance metrics.

C includes practices not specific to Kanban metrics.

D includes some Scrum metrics, such as burndown, but not Kanban-centric ones.

Answer: A

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Knowledge sharing and organizational learning are core elements of scaling agile. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 8.4 Organizational Change Management)and thePMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 10.2 Manage Communications), the project manager shouldactively disseminate lessons learned, best practices, and project outcomesto promote agile adoption across the organization.

Mike Griffiths reinforces in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)thatcontinuous feedback loops and transparent communicationare essential to agile transformation success.

Option D is correct because regular meetings specifically focused onsharing outcomes and learningfrom the pilot project helpembed agile valuesand improve future implementations.

The team's primary role is to estimate and define the work items in the product backlog. In an Agile environment, the team collaborates with the product owner to break down user stories into manageable tasks, providing effort estimates (such as story points) to help guide future iterations. The team also works with the product owner to refine and clarify requirements when needed, ensuring that the work is well understood and ready for execution.

The correct answer is A — Practicing the servant leadership style of working with an agile team.

Servant leadership is foundational to Agile. The agile project leader serves the team by removing impediments, supporting their needs, and promoting transparency. Using information radiators and being involved in team progress reflects servant leadership in action.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders act as servant leaders. They support the team, remove obstacles, and foster a transparent, collaborative environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching and Servant Leadership)

Mike Griffiths:

“Servant leadership is about enabling the team to succeed. Agile leaders serve by ensuring the team has what it needs, while maintaining visibility through information radiators.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

B and C are valid Agile behaviors but not the most specific or complete match.

D references feedback loops but not leadership style.

Answer: A

—

Velocity is a team-specific, relative measureof work done in a sprint and should not be used to compare teams. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Estimation and Velocity)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)highlight that aconsistent and predictable velocityis more valuable than simply trying to exceed estimates, which can lead toovercommitment or burnout.

Option Cis correct: predictability and consistency are hallmarks of agile maturity.

Option AandBfalsely equate velocity across teams.

Option Dvalues overperformance, which may underminesustainable pace.

The presence of asingle point of knowledgeis a significant risk in agile teams. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Team Structure and Cross-functionality)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), agile teams shouldavoid role silosand promoteknowledge sharing. Adding another database administrator helps with bothworkload distributionandknowledge retentionthrough pairing or mentoring.

Option Cis correct: it ensuresredundancy and knowledge spread, reducing project risk.

Option Adoes not address knowledge transfer or team development.

Option Bremoves the knowledge resource, worsening the risk.

Option Dlimits knowledge-sharing and still creates a bottleneck.

The correct answer is C – Facilitate a retrospective to identify areas of improvement.

In Agile, mistakes are viewed as learning opportunities. The Scrum Master should create a safe environment where the team can reflect, discuss issues openly, and identify ways to prevent similar mistakes in the future.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives provide a regular forum for teams to inspect and adapt. Teams discuss what went well, what didn’t, and how to improve. This supports continuous learning and performance enhancement.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Iteration Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Mistakes are inevitable; agile teams embrace them to improve. Retrospectives are essential for structured reflection and action planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why other options are less appropriate:

A may reinforce outdated or flawed processes.

B may help in quality control but does not address the mistake constructively.

D promotes fear and competition, which undermines team trust and collaboration.

Answer: C

The correct answer is D – Implement a spike to enhance creativity by experimenting with new techniques and process ideas in order to discover more efficient and effective ways of working.

A spike is a time-boxed research or prototyping activity used to explore uncertainty, investigate a technology, or gain deeper knowledge of an implementation. Spikes are especially useful when a team lacks familiarity with certain technologies, as they reduce risk and support better estimation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are a type of exploration that agile teams use when they are uncertain about a technology or technique. They are time-boxed research efforts aimed at reducing risk and improving future delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Spikes allow the team to gain knowledge needed to understand a technical or design problem. They are particularly useful when the team lacks domain or technical experience and are often used to improve estimation accuracy.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options fall short:

A and B manipulate iteration length without addressing the core problem (lack of technical knowledge).

C increases overhead without solving the learning gap or preventing the root cause (rework).

Answer: D

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answers and comprehensive explanations drawn from authoritative sources including the PMI Agile Practice Guide, PMBOK® Guide, Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, and Andy Crowe’s PMI-ACP Exam materials.

══════════════════════════════════════════════════

The correct answer is D – Planning poker.

Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique commonly used in Agile projects. During this technique, team members discuss user stories, clarify details, and independently assign story points. The facilitator (often the Scrum Master) ensures balanced participation. This process encourages team collaboration and reduces estimation bias.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Planning poker is a common estimation technique where team members discuss the story, then individually provide estimates using a card deck, reaching consensus over multiple rounds.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation Techniques)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Planning poker is based on Wideband Delphi and allows teams to converge on estimates through discussion and consensus. It is particularly useful for relative estimation of story points.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options are incorrect:

A (Lessons learned) applies to retrospective activities, not estimation.

B (Wideband Delphi) is the foundation of planning poker but is more formal and anonymous.

C (Formal point counting) is not a standard Agile estimation technique.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Non-functional requirements should have been added to the definition of done. Non-functional requirements such as performance, security, or usability criteria apply across stories and should be included in the Definition of Done (DoD) to ensure consistent delivery of quality attributes.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The definition of done should incorporate quality standards, including non-functional requirements. This ensures these standards are consistently applied across all deliverables.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Non-functional requirements are often best represented in the DoD so they’re applied universally. Without this, teams may deliver functionality that lacks necessary quality characteristics.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A would help but isn’t sufficient for global system qualities.

B is suitable for specific stories but doesn’t ensure consistency across the product.

D is helpful but doesn’t guarantee alignment with quality standards.

Answer: C

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The agile lead should evaluate the team's capacity and help them select user stories that align with around 80% of their available capacity for the iteration. This approach takes into account potential issues or interruptions and helps ensure the team is not overcommitting. By selecting user stories based on a realistic understanding of the team’s capacity, the team is more likely to meet their commitments and avoid incomplete work. This method promotes sustainable work practices and helps the team maintain a predictable velocity over time.

The correct answer is A – Educate the QA manager that in agile, quality is integrated from the beginning to the end of the project. Agile emphasizes “built-in” quality through test-first approaches, continuous integration, and Definition of Done. Addressing resistance through education helps clarify that quality is a core part of Agile—not an afterthought.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile does not remove quality controls; rather, it integrates them throughout the development process. Quality is everyone’s responsibility and is embedded through practices such as TDD, automated testing, and continuous feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Quality and Agile)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“In Agile, quality is not sacrificed. It is a fundamental principle. Teams ensure quality by defining acceptance criteria, using continuous integration, and practicing test-first development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B may be helpful tactically, but doesn’t address the underlying concern.

C misrepresents technical debt.

D places too much QA responsibility on the product owner.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D – Provide a delivery range based on the team's estimated velocity.

In Agile, planning is iterative and inherently uncertain. Rather than committing to a fixed schedule, it is best practice to provide a forecasted delivery window based on the team’s actual measured velocity. This reflects the inspect-and-adapt mindset of Agile.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams forecast delivery using velocity ranges derived from completed work. Ranges reflect uncertainty and promote realistic expectations with stakeholders.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Planning with ranges rather than fixed commitments respects the uncertainty of estimates and the empirical nature of Agile delivery. Forecasts should be based on velocity trends and updated iteratively.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are less suitable:

A suggests triangulating data but wrongly implies a precise commitment.

B is more of a work preparation activity, not a planning technique.

C (analogous estimation) is better suited for initial planning, not for an in-progress agile project with real velocity data.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is D — By advising the team to remain committed and focused on project goals.

Agile teams should remain focused on the sprint or iteration goals once committed. Outside demands, even from senior stakeholders, can distract the team and cause scope creep or reduced quality. The agile coach plays a vital role in protecting the team from such disruptions and reinforcing their commitment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders help teams focus on delivering committed work. Coaches work to eliminate distractions and protect the team from external interferences.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths:

“One of the coach’s roles is to guard the team’s focus. When unrelated demands arise, the coach should guide the team to stay aligned with the current sprint goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A encourages unsustainable practices.

B implies hierarchy not present in Scrum or Agile.

C misuses estimation and undermines trust.

Answer: D

—

Tounderstand the needs of different user types, agile teams usepersonasandextreme charactersto represent a range of users, including edge cases. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Requirements and Personas)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), personas help teams build empathy and ensure that stories reflect actual user roles—not just generic assumptions.

Option Dis correct: personas and extreme characters ensureinclusive and realistic story coverage.

Option AandBfocus on communication and sequencing but not user diversity.

Option C(process flows) is more technical and doesn’t solve the misalignment with user perspectives.

The correct answer isC – Encourage the team to more frequently interact with all stakeholders. When an agile team is struggling to meet commitments, one key cause is often alack of communication or feedbackfrom key stakeholders. Increasing interaction helps align the team's priorities, clarify requirements, and improve ownership and accountability.

From thePMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams that engage in regular, open communication with stakeholders are better able to align with the evolving needs of the business and take ownership of their commitments. Agile coaches support this behavior by facilitating frequent interactions and improving team dynamics.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Bookreinforces this:

“Encouraging frequent stakeholder interaction fosters a sense of ownership in the team. Agile coaches guide teams to seek clarity through communication rather than rely on assumptions.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance and Coaching)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A– Involving the sponsor in team-level performance issues may undermine team self-organization.

B– Providing a list of deliverables doesn’t address the root cause (lack of communication or clarity).

D– Upfront product design goes against agile principles and does not improve team ownership or delivery capability.

Answer: C

When the team determines that the highest-priority item will take longer than expected in the current sprint, it is essential to engage the product owner. The product owner is responsible for maintaining the product backlog and defining the priority of work items. By scheduling a meeting with the product owner, the team can collaboratively reassess the priorities and make adjustments based on the evolving understanding of the work required.

The product owner can help determine if the current high-priority item should be moved to the next sprint or if other adjustments to the backlog are needed. This ensures that the team is always focused on delivering the most valuable work within the given sprint time frame. Engaging with the product owner fosters collaboration and ensures alignment between the team and stakeholders, maintaining flexibility and focus on delivering customer value.

In this situation, the most practical solution is to reduce the scope of the release to meet the deadline. Since one team member will be absent, causing a reduction in velocity, the team may not be able to complete all planned work in the time remaining. By reducing the scope, the team can focus on delivering the most critical features for the industry fair and ensure that the release is still valuable and on time. This aligns with Agile principles of prioritizing the most valuable work and delivering iteratively based on available capacity.

The correct answer is A – Use an information radiator to help increase the transparency of work for key stakeholders.

Information radiators (such as Kanban boards, burndown charts, and story maps) make work status visible to the entire team and stakeholders in real-time, improving communication without additional meetings or reporting overhead.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use information radiators to promote transparency, show progress, and increase stakeholder engagement without adding administrative burden.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths confirms:

“Effective agile environments display work status where everyone can see it. Visual indicators allow stakeholders and team members to remain informed without direct queries.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Monitoring and Control)

Other options explained:

B creates unnecessary manual effort.

C may disrupt team rhythm; daily stand-ups are sufficient in Scrum.

D encourages siloed behavior and contradicts collaboration.

Answer: A

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The scrum master should emphasize the core principles of agile, which are centered around collaboration, delivering value incrementally, and fostering a shared mindset among the team. In an agile environment, success is not only about following processes but about the team working together towards a common goal, adapting to change, and continuously delivering value to customers. These principles are the foundation of agile methodologies and essential for teams that are new to agile to understand.

The correct answer is D – Ensured that the team was comprised of cross-functional, generalized specialists.

Agile teams are expected to be cross-functional and self-sufficient. A lack of a required skill that halts progress typically points to an improperly constructed team. Building teams with broad (T-shaped) skills ensures they can collectively deliver value without external dependencies.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are ideally composed of cross-functional members who have both depth in a specialty and breadth across disciplines. This enables the team to self-organize and deliver complete increments of value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“Agile favors generalized specialists or T-shaped professionals who can collaborate across functions. This improves agility, resilience, and continuity within iterations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are insufficient:

A is a reactive strategy; proactive skill assessment is preferred.

B may delay critical features unnecessarily.

C creates external dependencies, which agile seeks to avoid.

Answer: D

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A key agile principle is that user stories should includeclear acceptance criteria, which must bereviewed and accepted by the product owner. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Acceptance Criteria)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), acceptance criteria ensure that the team and product ownershare a clear understandingof what constitutes “done.”

Option Ais correct: having the product owner validate acceptance criteria ensures alignment.

Option Baddresses technical quality but not stakeholder dissatisfaction.

Option Cunfairly shifts blame without addressing communication.

Option Dgoes against agile’s iterative and flexible nature.

In agile,teams are empowered to identify and solve problems collaboratively. When a technical concern arises, such as a limitation in the current technology stack, it is common practice to initiate aspikeor research activity to explore alternative solutions. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Spikes and Technical Investigation)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), the best approach is to encourage theteam to investigate the issuecollaboratively.

Option Ais correct: engaging the team in research fosters ownership and solution-based thinking.

Option Bcircumvents team decision-making and undermines self-organization.

Option Cis premature—this is a technical issue, not a user requirement.

Option Dmay be helpful, but action should start with the team exploring options.

Stakeholder participation, especially during sprint reviews, iscritical to agile success. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes the importance ofactively engaging stakeholdersthroughout the project lifecycle, particularly during key ceremonies like sprint reviews, where feedback shapes the product.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)states that stakeholders need tounderstand the value of their inputand how it influences product direction. The agile practitioner or Scrum Master should educate and influence stakeholders bydemonstrating the tangible impact of their participation.

Option Dis correct: aligning stakeholders with thebenefits of engagementfosters participation.

Option A,B, andCare passive substitutes and don’t address the root issue of stakeholder disengagement.

The correct answer is B – Ensured the early engagement of key stakeholders. Agile emphasizes early and continuous stakeholder involvement. In this case, engaging enterprise architects and standards stakeholders early in the design process would have helped detect conflicts before sprint execution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Key stakeholders should be engaged early in the development cycle to ensure alignment with organizational policies, standards, and expectations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Involving stakeholders early helps mitigate the risk of late surprises and rework. Enterprise architects should be consulted during backlog grooming or prior to sprint planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A is reactive and escalatory.

C presumes the standards are flawed without analysis.

D ignores necessary compliance and does not solve the issue proactively.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is B – A product backlog should be created to list the project requirements from all of the project stakeholders.

In Agile, the product backlog serves as a living document where requirements, user stories, and stakeholder feedback are continuously refined. It is the central mechanism for capturing and prioritizing stakeholder needs and ensuring that business value is delivered incrementally.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The product backlog is a prioritized list of work for the development team that is derived from stakeholder input, user stories, and emerging needs. It evolves as the project progresses and stakeholder feedback is incorporated.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Product backlogs provide transparency into stakeholder priorities. They enable the team to continuously align work with customer expectations and business needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A refers to the traditional project charter, which is not commonly updated throughout the agile life cycle.

C is a misunderstanding—the Agile Manifesto is a set of principles, not a project-specific document.

D misuses user stories; stories are used for functional requirements, not stakeholder profiles.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D – Assume the team member's tasks to meet iteration goals and notify the Product Owner. Agile teams are self-organizing and accountable. High-performing teams take ownership of shared goals and redistribute work as needed to maintain commitment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams collaborate to deliver sprint goals, adapting to changes such as unavailability of team members. They adjust workload and communicate impacts transparently.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“When team composition changes, the team must redistribute work to ensure delivery. Ownership, trust, and flexibility are core traits of high-performing agile teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A signals dysfunction and abdicates team responsibility.

B implies external management of team staffing.

C violates the principle of self-organization.

The correct answer is C – The team realized that some stories were underestimated relative to other stories and reestimated as needed.

According to the data in the chart:

Backlog started at 500 points.

Points steadily decreased by 25 points per iteration for the first 3 iterations, reflecting normal velocity.

At the end of iteration 4, the backlog increased from 425 to 450 points (a 25-point jump), which indicates an increase in estimated remaining work.

In Agile, backlog point totals can increase when work is reestimated—typically because items were originally underestimated or new complexity is discovered. Reestimation reflects the evolving understanding of requirements and is a core principle of adaptive planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimates may change as the team learns more. Agile teams inspect and adapt their understanding of the work during iteration planning and refinement. Story reestimation is normal and may result in backlog point increases.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Estimation)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Backlogs are dynamic. Teams may reestimate stories during grooming or retrospectives if they find that original estimates were off. This helps maintain planning accuracy and backlog integrity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Estimation and Backlog Refinement)

Incorrect options:

A refers to external factors not reflected in the backlog points.

B would be better handled by new backlog items, not inflating prior estimates.

D suggests increased scope/output, which would add stories but not necessarily reestimate existing ones.

Answer: C

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To reduce stakeholder risk and encourage early investment in high-risk/high-reward projects, agile recommends breaking the solution intosmall, incremental deliverablescalledMinimally Marketable Features (MMFs). According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Roadmap and MMFs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), delivering MMFs early allows the business to realize value quickly, validate assumptions, and reduce risk—especially helpful for uncertain or experimental projects.

Option Bis correct: MMFs demonstrate business value early, promoting trust and investment confidence.

Option A (PPC)andD (EV)are traditional project tracking metrics, not suited for early-stage agile investment justification.

Option C(story points) is used forcapacity planning, not financial justification.

When considering an increase in scope, it's important to first align with the organization's higher-level objectives. Seeking executive approval on the approach ensures that the change is in line with organizational priorities and gets the necessary buy-in from key stakeholders. Additionally, determining the purpose and value proposition helps clarify the benefits of the new scope, ensuring the team focuses on delivering value that is clear and beneficial to the organization. These actions are critical before making any further decisions or changes.

The correct answer is A – Speak to the agile lead about the concerns.

Agile encourages transparency, collaboration, and open communication across all levels of the team. If a team member identifies a risk or concern, the most agile-aligned approach is to raise it directly and constructively with the agile lead or Scrum Master, who is responsible for protecting the team and facilitating problem-solving.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams promote a culture of openness where team members are encouraged to speak up and raise concerns. Effective leadership listens and collaborates to resolve issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset)

Mike Griffiths further adds:

“Team members should be empowered to express concerns and challenge assumptions respectfully. Continuous communication and feedback improve project outcomes.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are not ideal:

B promotes blind compliance, which is contrary to agile empowerment.

C suggests overwork, which contradicts sustainable pace.

D may escalate unnecessarily without first engaging the proper leadership channel.

Answer: A

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A product roadmap is a high-level visual representation of a product's development strategy, highlighting upcoming product releases and the features or goals that will be included in each release. By displaying the roadmap, the agile project manager is ensuring that all stakeholders are aligned on what the product will deliver and when, helping to manage expectations and communicate progress. This is essential for ensuring that everyone involved in the project has a shared understanding of the product's direction and key milestones.

To prevent the issue of the customer declining to accept the final deliverable after the demo, the project manager should prioritize frequent releases and feedback loops. By releasing new features or updates frequently, customers have the opportunity to provide feedback earlier in the process, which allows for adjustments to be made during development rather than at the end. This iterative process ensures that the final product better aligns with the customer's expectations and requirements.

The correct answer is C – Explain that the Kanban board enables the team to complete the work and increases transparency on work that is not done.

Agile values transparency, visibility, and collaboration. Kanban boards are a form of information radiator—tools that openly display the team’s workflow, work-in-progress (WIP), and progress toward goals. Their visibility helps stakeholders and the team remain aligned and encourages accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use information radiators such as Kanban boards to provide transparency and make status, bottlenecks, and priorities visible to all. This fosters trust, communication, and quick decision-making.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Visibility into progress and issues enhances communication and alignment across stakeholders. Information radiators like task boards or Kanban boards are vital tools for agile success.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Tools and Techniques)

Other options are inappropriate:

A and D compromise transparency and contradict agile values.

B misstates the purpose of the Kanban board—it’s not about assigning work post-completion.

Answer: C

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The project lead should focus on creating a safe environment where all team members feel comfortable expressing their opinions without fear of judgment or repercussions. This can be achieved by encouraging open communication, showing appreciation for diverse perspectives, and actively ensuring that everyone's voice is heard. A safe environment fosters trust and collaboration, which is essential for the team's success. While other options may help in certain contexts, building a culture of safety and trust is the most effective long-term strategy to encourage team members to speak up.

Reducing test automation in agileundermines quality and slows down feedback loops, contradicting agile principles. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Quality Management in Agile Projects)andPMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 8.1), agile projects aim forbuilt-in quality, and test automation is critical in achieving that.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery) strongly advocates fortest automation to support sustainable developmentand improve predictability, quality, and speed. Rather than comply blindly with the product owner’s request, the agile practitioner shouldengage stakeholdersand clarify the long-term trade-offs of reducing quality practices.

Option Ais correct: consulting stakeholders ensures transparency, alignment, and helps prevent short-sighted compromises that could undermine the product.

TheMoSCoW method(Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have) is aprioritization techniquecommonly used in agile to determine which stories deliver the most value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Prioritization Techniques)lists MoSCoW as one of the methods used by product owners and teams toprioritize backlog items.

Option Ais correct: MoSCoW is a proven agile prioritization method.

Option Bis used forestimation, not prioritization.

Option Cis not a standard agile prioritization method.

In Scrum, the goal is to have open discussions during estimation, where all team members, including junior developers, can express their thoughts and assumptions. The Scrum Master should encourage the junior developers to keep their estimations because these can highlight different perspectives, constraints, or assumptions that others may not have considered. This helps create a more comprehensive understanding of the work and fosters a collaborative environment. It also builds confidence in junior team members, allowing them to contribute more effectively and learn from their peers in the process.

The correct answer is A – Jointly meet with the team and product owner to discuss options and determine the end date. Agile promotes collaborative decision-making. When significant changes in performance arise, discussions should occur between the team and product owner to assess impact, explore value delivery, and make informed decisions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams regularly review performance trends. Changes in velocity should prompt discussions between the team and product owner to evaluate implications and opportunities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Release Planning)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Forecasting must remain collaborative. Teams and product owners work together to determine whether to ship early, expand scope, or adjust timelines.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

B skips stakeholder collaboration.

C assumes backlog expansion without value validation.

D contradicts agile principles of delivering value early.

Answer: A

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Distributed or remote teams are common in modern agile environments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.4 Working with Distributed Teams)and thePMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 10.1), the agile practitioner mustenable effective collaboration among all team members regardless of location. The guide recommends usingvideo conferencing, collaborative workspaces, shared boards, and communication toolsto simulate the benefits of co-location.

Mike Griffiths, in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), supports the use ofcollaboration toolsto foster team cohesion and support agile values like communication and transparency, even when teams cannot be physically co-located.

Option Ais correct: collaboration tools bridge the gap in distributed environments.

Option BandDpromote siloing or team hierarchy, which undermines agile unity.

Option Cmoves away from agile values by emphasizing documentation over interaction.

Velocity is a measure of the amount of work a team can handle during a sprint, typically measured in story points. While it can fluctuate slightly from sprint to sprint, the goal is to have velocity stabilize over time, as this helps in forecasting future sprints and planning. An increase in velocity from 27 to 35 could indicate an improvement in the team's capacity to deliver, which should be celebrated if it aligns with the team's capabilities. However, a stable velocity over time is what typically matters for predictability and planning.

Spikes are valuable for reducing uncertainty, but agile discouragesspending multiple sprints solely on spikeswithout delivering value. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Exploration)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), learning and delivery should occurconcurrentlywhenever possible. Teams should strive toinclude high-priority deliverables alongside spikes, particularly in early sprints, to build momentum and maintain stakeholder engagement.

Option Cis correct: executing high-priority stories in parallel with spikes promotes learning and value delivery.

Option AandDsupport spikes but ignore the risk ofdelayed value.

Option Bis valid but administrative; the better choice is to avoid needing prolonged spike sprints at all.

The correct answer is D – Use the team's historical velocity to calculate a range of features that can be delivered. Agile emphasizes forecasting over commitment, and this is achieved through empirical data such as velocity. Providing a range based on historical velocity allows for realistic planning while acknowledging uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile forecasting is based on empirical data. Teams use their past velocity to forecast how much work they can complete in a given time frame. This forecast is typically expressed as a range to account for variability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Forecasting)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Rather than commit to fixed scope, agile teams use historical velocity and prioritized backlogs to forecast delivery. Forecasts are probabilistic, not promises.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Estimation and Forecasting)

Incorrect options:

A violates agile’s core value of responding to change over following a fixed plan.

B delays valuable forecasting data.

C implies commitment rather than forecast.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Ask the team to discontinue developing the component. Agile empowers the product owner to make real-time scope decisions based on changing customer needs. If a feature no longer delivers value, continuing it violates agile's principle of maximizing value and minimizing waste—even if partially complete.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile welcomes changing requirements—even late in development. The product owner’s role is to ensure that the team focuses on work that delivers the most business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value Prioritization and Scope Management)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“If a component is deemed unnecessary, even mid-development, the product owner has the authority to reprioritize the backlog and halt the work. Agile values responding to change over following a fixed plan.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A suggests unnecessary bureaucracy; agile favors decentralized, empowered decision-making.

B ignores the updated feedback and would create waste.

D is redundant since the sponsor already communicated disinterest; the product owner can act.

Answer: C

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Security features are typically considerednon-functional requirements (NFRs), which should be captured in theproduct backlogand prioritized accordingly. As per thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Product Backlog)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), any requested functionality—whether business- or system-level—must beclearly defined as a backlog itemso the team can plan for it.

Option Ais correct: security requirements should beadded to the backlog and prioritizedlike other features.

Option Bmay come later if implementation is unclear, but first, the work must be defined and logged.

Option CandDrepresent clarification steps but don’t directlysupport implementationas backlog management does.

The most effective way to address and correct defects while maintaining predictability and capacity is by working with the team to establish clear coding and quality standards, as well as comprehensive testing policies. By setting these explicit rules, the team will have a shared understanding of the quality expectations and testing requirements, which will help prevent defects from escaping into production. This approach focuses on building quality into the process, rather than reacting to defects after they occur, and supports the long-term goal of improving software quality and predictability without overburdening the team.

The correct answer is C – Risk-value quadrant. This technique is a prioritization matrix that helps teams identify and rank backlog items by evaluating their business value against their risk. This ensures early delivery of high-value and high-risk features, supporting fail-fast learning and reducing uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The risk-value matrix helps prioritize features by plotting them based on business value and implementation risk. High-value/high-risk items are often addressed first.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The risk-value quadrant is a powerful tool to guide agile prioritization. It ensures the most valuable and uncertain items are tackled early to deliver insights quickly.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is used for estimation, not prioritization.

B is a scheduling concept, not a prioritization method.

D refers to story quality (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable), not prioritization.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A because an Agile leader, such as a Scrum Master, is a servant-leader and facilitator. The Scrum Master supports the development team by helping remove impediments and facilitating healthy team dynamics. When there is misalignment or interpersonal conflict, the Scrum Master should help the team explore the root causes and encourage self-directed resolution.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches facilitate conflict resolution by helping individuals understand each other’s perspectives and guiding them to collaborative solutions. The goal is to promote team ownership of outcomes and reinforce healthy communication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.3 – Facilitating Agile Practices)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“The role of the Scrum Master is not to direct or micromanage the team, but to facilitate communication and remove barriers that prevent team members from collaborating effectively. In conflict scenarios, the Scrum Master should help the team uncover the root issue, then allow them to resolve it constructively.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Option B is slightly less effective than A because it escalates to the whole team before trying a focused resolution.

Option C abdicates responsibility and may allow conflict to worsen.

Option D contradicts agile’s emphasis on self-organizing teams.

Answer: A

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In this situation, the scrum master has already escalated the issue to upper management without resolution, so it's important to collect empirical data to further demonstrate the impact of the external dependency. This data can be used to show the consequences of the dependency on the project’s progress, helping upper management understand the severity of the issue. By influencing management and making them accountable for ensuring the external team delivers, the scrum master helps ensure the problem is addressed at a higher level, which is critical for long-term resolution.

When a feature is too large to fit into a sprint, agile recommendsdecomposing it into smaller user storiesor increments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and MVPs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), teams should break down epics or large stories intoMinimum Viable Product (MVP)segments and deliver value incrementally.

Option Ais correct: this enables the team to deliver value sooner and iteratively build on it.

Option Bdelays addressing customer concerns.

Option Csacrifices overall product balance.

Option Dviolates time-boxing principles in Scrum and agile.

The correct answer is C – Work with the team to create a solution for disseminating team knowledge throughout the company.

Agile values shared learning and continuous improvement. A lack of accessible organizational knowledge is a systemic issue. The agile practitioner should help the team implement lightweight, repeatable knowledge-sharing practices—such as wikis, communities of practice, or internal retrospectives.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Organizational learning is an essential part of agile culture. Sharing information across teams enables continuous improvement and avoids repeated mistakes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.1 – Organizational Learning)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Coaching agile teams includes promoting knowledge sharing mechanisms across the organization. Practices like open reviews, documentation wikis, or retrospective reports can help teams learn from each other.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A suggests reporting but may become overhead without solving the core issue.

B avoids organizational improvement by isolating the team.

D brings in external help when the issue can be resolved internally.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A — Teach the team the appropriate agile principle, obtain consensus, and drive adoption.

Agile values “working software over comprehensive documentation.” However, this does not mean eliminating all documentation, but rather focusing on documentation that delivers value.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams should regularly question whether the work being done adds value, including documentation. If documentation does not serve a current need or stakeholder, it should be minimized or eliminated.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 — Agile Manifesto)

Mike Griffiths further supports this in his exam prep book:

“Agile team members are encouraged to surface inefficiencies and suggest improvements. This is an example of continuous improvement and shared responsibility.”

Option A aligns with both the Agile Manifesto and the principle of team empowerment. Options B, C, and D either avoid accountability or introduce hierarchy that agile teams seek to minimize.

Answer: A

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Theproduct owneris responsible formaintaining and prioritizing the product backlogbased on stakeholder input. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Product Backlog and Prioritization)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), when a sponsor is dissatisfied, the product owner should confirm that their needs are clearly prioritized and represented in the backlog.

Option Bis correct: ensuring priorities are accurately captured aligns delivery with stakeholder expectations.

Option Ais reactive and not productive.

Option Cpresumes funding is the issue without confirming alignment.

Option Dundermines the product owner’s role.

The correct answer isBbecause agile approaches prioritizecontinuous stakeholder engagement,collaboration, andadaptive communicationstrategies. When stakeholder roles are redefined due to an organizational restructure, the agile team should proactively and directly engage with the newly impacted stakeholders to clarify expectations, responsibilities, and to maintain alignment with evolving needs.

ThePMI Agile Practice Guidestates:

“Engaging stakeholders directly and frequently fosters a shared understanding of objectives and priorities. Two-way communication, such as conversations and collaboration sessions, is preferred over one-way communication such as reports or status updates.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

In addition,Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Booksupports this approach by highlighting:

“An agile team should regularly revisit and refresh stakeholder analysis. When changes occur in the stakeholder landscape, it's essential to revalidate stakeholder needs through open, two-way communication, rather than assuming static roles.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Stakeholder Engagement)

Options A, C, and D fail to incorporate agile’s emphasis ondirect engagement and collaboration. Option D, while partially correct, lacks the proactive communication componentthat agile requires. Option C suggests a passive communication method (email), which is discouraged in agile practices for important stakeholder interactions.

Therefore, the best agile-aligned choice is: B

The correct answer is C – The Product Owner, since their vision is the basis for the acceptance criteria.

The Product Owner is responsible for defining the product backlog items, including their acceptance criteria. They represent the customer and stakeholders, and ensure that the backlog items deliver business value. During backlog refinement, the PO provides clarity to the team when questions arise.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The product owner defines and prioritizes the product backlog and is responsible for ensuring user stories and acceptance criteria are clear and understood by the team.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“The product owner is the central point for decisions related to backlog items. Their role is to ensure that requirements and acceptance criteria reflect the desired outcome and stakeholder expectations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are incorrect:

A (Sponsor) is too high-level and not involved in story-level discussions.

B (Scrum Master) facilitates the process, not the requirements.

D (Developer) implements the story but does not define acceptance.

Answer: C

The correct answer is B — Chair a weekly team retrospective focusing on identifying areas for continuous improvement.

Retrospectives are a core Agile practice used to inspect and adapt the team’s process, foster self-improvement, and enhance performance. If productivity is flat, the best approach is to collaboratively reflect with the team to uncover bottlenecks, identify areas for experimentation, and implement process adjustments.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a key feedback loop that allow the team to assess their performance and decide how to improve it. The retrospective is a cornerstone for continuous improvement and high-performing teams.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Rather than externally imposed metrics, agile teams should drive performance improvements through retrospectives where they inspect their own work and collectively identify opportunities for efficiency.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is diagnostic but insufficient for process improvement without team involvement.

C introduces hierarchy and undermines team empowerment.

D introduces extrinsic motivation, which may damage team collaboration and intrinsic ownership.

Answer: B

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Agile teams areself-organizingand should strive forconsensus-based decision making. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.1 Team Empowerment)supports facilitative leadership where leadersguide decision-making, not override it. Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)emphasizes that leaders shouldfoster collaboration and respectdiverse views to prevent disengagement.

Option Ais correct: encouraging consensus builds ownership, trust, and engagement.

Option BandCstill place control with the leader, reducing team empowerment.

Option Dis too passive; agile leaders participate actively as facilitators.

The correct answer is C – The team should discuss their definition of done (DoD) and make changes to ensure there is common understanding of the acceptance criteria.

A shared understanding of what “done” means ensures consistent quality across team members. When this understanding is missing, defects and inconsistencies arise. The Definition of Done (DoD) should be reviewed and updated collaboratively to set a clear standard for completeness and quality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Definition of Done provides a shared understanding of when work is complete. This includes quality criteria, testing, and documentation. It should be revisited regularly to maintain alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Quality issues often result from unclear or inconsistent DoD. Revisiting and refining it ensures consistent expectations across the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A (TDD) may help, but won’t solve the fundamental alignment issue.

B accepts a problem without resolving it.

D imposes a process without team collaboration, which is not agile.

Answer: C

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