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PMI-001 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Question # 7

Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Functional manager supported by the project manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 8

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 9

Organizations perceive risks as:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Question # 10

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Question # 11

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

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Question # 12

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Question # 13

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B.

Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment

C.

Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

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Question # 14

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

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Question # 15

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

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Question # 16

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Question # 17

Which of the following is a tool or technique for the Plan Procurements process?

A.

Bidder conferences

B.

Proposal evaluation techniques

C.

Contract types

D.

Contract change control systems

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Question # 18

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Question # 19

The Cost Management processes and their associated tools and techniques are usually selected during which of the following?

A.

Project finance management

B.

Project cost estimation

C.

Project life cycle definition

D.

Project plan development

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Question # 20

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

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Question # 21

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

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Question # 22

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 23

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Question # 24

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Question # 25

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

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Question # 26

Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?

A.

Project management

B.

Program management

C.

Portfolio management

D.

Relationship management

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Question # 27

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 28

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Question # 29

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 30

What do composite organizations involve?

A.

Functional and project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Question # 31

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 32

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Question # 33

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

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Question # 34

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

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Question # 35

Which of the following tools and techniques are utilized in the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Product analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Inspection

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Question # 36

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 37

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

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Question # 38

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Question # 39

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Question # 40

Project management processes ensure the:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

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Question # 41

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

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Question # 42

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Question # 43

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

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Question # 44

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 45

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Question # 46

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

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Question # 47

High-level project risks are included in which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

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Question # 48

Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes?

A.

Time series

B.

Judgmental

C.

Econometric

D.

Simulation

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Question # 49

Which items are components of a project management plan?

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

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Question # 50

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Question # 51

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 52

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

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Question # 53

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

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Question # 54

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

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Question # 55

The end point of a project phase can be referred to as:

A.

project failure

B.

closing process

C.

stage gate

D.

lifecycle

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Question # 56

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Question # 57

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

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Question # 58

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Question # 59

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

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Question # 60

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Question # 61

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Question # 62

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

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Question # 63

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

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Question # 64

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

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Question # 65

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

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Question # 66

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

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Question # 67

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

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Question # 68

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

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Question # 69

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Question # 70

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

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Question # 71

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

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Question # 72

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

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Question # 73

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

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Question # 74

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Question # 75

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 76

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

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Question # 77

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

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Question # 78

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

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Question # 79

Which of the following is used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team members?

A.

Hierarchical-type charts (HTC)

B.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

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Question # 80

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

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Question # 81

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 82

What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

D.

Contract Statement of Work (SOW)

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Question # 83

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 84

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

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Question # 85

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Question # 86

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Question # 87

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 88

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

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Question # 89

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 90

The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:

A.

Collect Requirements.

B.

Conduct Procurements.

C.

Estimate Activity Durations.

D.

Estimate Activity Resources.

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Question # 91

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

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Question # 92

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

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Question # 93

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

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Question # 94

Which item is a cost of conformance?

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

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Question # 95

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

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Question # 96

Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

A.

Schedule Analysis

B.

Checklist Analysis

C.

Assumption Analysis

D.

Cost-Benefit Analysis

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Question # 97

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

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Question # 98

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

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Question # 99

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 100

The Administer Procurements process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Executing

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Question # 101

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

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Question # 102

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

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Question # 103

Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and cost are:

A.

Contingency reserves.

B.

Management reserves.

C.

Authorized budgets.

D.

Cost baselines.

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Question # 104

For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for:

A.

Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly.

B.

Informing the project sponsor about which processes are going to be used.

C.

Tailoring the processes to fit the abilities of the organization.

D.

Determining which particular processes are appropriate.

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Question # 105

Which of the following is an example of push communication?

A.

Intranet sites

B.

Video conferencing

C.

Knowledge repositories

D.

Press releases

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Question # 106

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

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Question # 107

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 108

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Question # 109

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

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Question # 110

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

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Question # 111

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

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Question # 112

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

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Question # 113

Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?

A.

Budget forecast

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Activity cost estimate

D.

Three-point estimate

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Question # 114

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

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Question # 115

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

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Question # 116

An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:

A.

deliverable

B.

assumption

C.

constraint

D.

exclusion

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Question # 117

Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles although spending little or no time meeting face to face?

A.

Co-location team

B.

Virtual team

C.

Departmental team

D.

Consultant team

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Question # 118

How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

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Question # 119

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Question # 120

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Question # 121

Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?

A.

Recommended corrective actions

B.

Recommended preventive actions

C.

Risk audits

D.

Risk reassessments

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Question # 122

Typical outcomes of a project include:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

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Question # 123

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 124

What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 125

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Question # 126

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

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Question # 127

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Question # 128

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

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Question # 129

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Question # 130

Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Policy

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Quality Planning

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Question # 131

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 132

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 133

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

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Question # 134

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Question # 135

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

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Question # 136

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Question # 137

Organizational process assets can be divided into which of the following two categories?

A.

Project files and corporate knowledge base

B.

Templates, and processes and procedures

C.

Standards, and processes and procedures

D.

Corporate knowledge base and processes and procedures

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