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CAPM Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

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Question # 7

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

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Question # 8

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 9

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

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Question # 10

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

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Question # 11

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

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Question # 12

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 13

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

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Question # 14

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Question # 15

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

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Question # 16

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

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Question # 17

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 18

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

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Question # 19

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

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Question # 20

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

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Question # 21

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 22

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

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Question # 23

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

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Question # 24

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

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Question # 25

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

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Question # 26

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Question # 27

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

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Question # 28

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

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Question # 29

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

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Question # 30

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

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Question # 31

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

A.

There is a cost underrun.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

The project may not meet the deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

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Question # 32

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Question # 33

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Question # 34

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 35

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Question # 36

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 37

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Question # 38

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Question # 39

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

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Question # 40

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Question # 41

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Question # 42

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

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Question # 43

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Question # 44

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

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Question # 45

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

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Question # 46

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

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Question # 47

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Question # 48

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Question # 49

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

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Question # 50

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Question # 51

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

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Question # 52

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Question # 53

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Question # 54

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 55

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

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Question # 56

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 57

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Question # 58

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

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Question # 59

Resource calendars are included in the:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

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Question # 60

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

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Question # 61

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

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Question # 62

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Question # 63

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

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Question # 64

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

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Question # 65

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Question # 66

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 67

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Question # 68

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Question # 69

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

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Question # 70

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Question # 71

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Question # 72

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Question # 73

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Question # 74

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 75

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Question # 76

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Question # 77

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Question # 78

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

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Question # 79

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

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Question # 80

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 81

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

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Question # 82

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

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Question # 83

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Question # 84

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

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Question # 85

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 86

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

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Question # 87

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 88

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

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Question # 89

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

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Question # 90

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

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Question # 91

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Question # 92

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

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Question # 93

Most experienced project managers know that:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

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Question # 94

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

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Question # 95

To which process is work performance information an input?

A.

Administer Procurements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 96

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

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Question # 97

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

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Question # 98

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 99

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

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Question # 100

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

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Question # 101

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Question # 102

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Question # 103

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

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Question # 104

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 105

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

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Question # 106

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Question # 107

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

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Question # 108

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Question # 109

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Question # 110

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Question # 111

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Question # 112

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

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Question # 113

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

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Question # 114

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

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Question # 115

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 116

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

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Question # 117

When is a Salience Model used?

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

Full Access
Question # 118

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

Full Access
Question # 119

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

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Question # 120

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

Full Access
Question # 121

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Full Access
Question # 122

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

Full Access
Question # 123

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

A.

Product

B.

Cost-benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

Full Access
Question # 124

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

Full Access
Question # 125

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

Full Access
Question # 126

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

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Question # 127

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

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Question # 128

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Full Access
Question # 129

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Full Access
Question # 130

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

Full Access
Question # 131

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

Full Access
Question # 132

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 133

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

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Question # 134

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Question # 135

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Process

C.

Project

D.

Program

Full Access
Question # 136

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Full Access
Question # 137

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

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Question # 138

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

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Question # 139

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

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Question # 140

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

Full Access
Question # 141

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Full Access
Question # 142

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Full Access
Question # 143

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Full Access
Question # 144

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 145

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

Full Access
Question # 146

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

Full Access
Question # 147

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Full Access
Question # 148

A Project manager is failing to secure critical equipment on time, and this resulting in delays in the manufacturing of the final product. Which knowledge area is the project manager handling?

A.

Project Resource Management

B.

Project Quality Management

C.

Project Schedule Management

D.

Project integration Management

Full Access
Question # 149

Which of the following items is a technique for data gathering?

A.

Facilitation

B.

Meeting management

C.

Conflict management

D.

Interviews

Full Access
Question # 150

Match the process with its corresponding process group.

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Question # 151

During a project's execution phase, the project manager reviews the communications management plan for communication technology factors. What can affect the choice of communications?

A.

Legal requirements

B.

Politics and power structures

C.

Internal information needs

D.

Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information

Full Access
Question # 152

Which can be used to convert a verified deliverable to an accepted deliverable?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Reporting

C.

Voting

D.

Brainstorming

Full Access
Question # 153

A software development team is pulling work from its backlog to be performed immediately as they become available. What emerging practice for project scheduling is the team using?

A.

Iterative

B.

On-demand

C.

Interactive

D.

Quality

Full Access
Question # 154

How can you describe the role of the project.... of influence concept?

A.

The proiect manager proactivnly interacfS with other project managers creating a positive influence Km fulfilling project needs, working with other managers and sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues and ensunng that the project managemenl plan aligns with the portfolio or program plan

B.

The project manager leads the team, performs communication roles between stakeholders, and uses interpersonal sills to balance conflicting goals

C.

The proiect manager stays informed about current technology developments lakes into account new quality management standards, and uses relevant technical support tools

D.

The proiect manager participates in project management trainings, contributes to the organization professional community sharing knowledge, and maintains subied matter expertise

Full Access
Question # 155

Due to new market conditions a five-year project......need to be updated

Due to new market conditions a five-year project requires a full revision of project objectives. Which components to the stakeholder engagement plan need to be updated?

A.

Scope and impact of change to stakeholders

B.

Project scope and stakeholders goals

C.

Engagement level of key stakeholders

D.

Stakeholders expectations for the project

Full Access
Question # 156

After an internal deliverable review session with the team, the project manager indicates some issues that need to be fixed before submitting the deliverable for formal approval. The project manager will need to manage the additional costs and the required network. How would the project manager define extra costs?

A.

Appraisal costs

B.

Management reserves

C.

Cost of nonconformance

D.

Cost of conformance

Full Access
Question # 157

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Three-point estimating

Full Access
Question # 158

Company A’s accountant sends notification about a change in the company’s tax classification.

What would a project have to be initiated?

A.

To change business and technological strategies

B.

To improve processes and services

C.

To meet regulatory and legal requirements

D.

To satisfy stakeholder requests

Full Access
Question # 159

A project manager is updating their CV or resume and realizes that they need to improve skills related to expertise in the industry and organizational knowledge. Which dimension of PMI’s Talent Triangle best relates to this need to improve?

A.

Strategic and business management skills

B.

Leadership skills

C.

Technical project management

D.

Organizational management

Full Access
Question # 160

Which of the following lists represents trends and emerging practices in Project Risk Management?

A.

Integrated risk management, non-event risks, and project resilience

B.

Representation of uncertainty, strategies for opportunities, and strategies for overall project risk

C.

Dormancy, proximity, and propinquity

D.

Simulation, sensitivity analysis, and decision tree analysis

Full Access
Question # 161

Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with project manager's approval

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 162

What does leadership involve?

A.

Working with others through discussion or debate to guide them from one point to another

B.

Directing another person from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors

C.

Working with a person using expert judgment to develop the technical deliverables

D.

Directing another person to develop the necessary expertise to establish technical deliverables

Full Access
Question # 163

What is an emerging practice in stakeholder engagement?

A.

Confirming that all identified stakeholders are engaged and actually affected by the work

B.

Assuring that team leadership is primarily involved in stakeholder engagement

C.

Ensuring that stakeholders do not change after stakeholder identification

D.

Ensuring that stakeholders most affected by the work are involved as collaborative team partners

Full Access
Question # 164

A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members. Which technique can result in a win-win solution?

A.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

B.

Compromise/Reconcile

C.

Smooth/Accommodate

D.

Withdraw/Avoid

Full Access
Question # 165

What is the key benefit of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Ensures that the informational needs of the project and its stakeholders are met through implementation and the development of artifacts

B.

Ensures that the project includes all the work required and only the work required—to complete the project successfully

C.

Increases the probability and/or impact of positive risks, and decreases the probability and/or Impact of negative risks or issues

D.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves

Full Access
Question # 166

What three strategies are used to respond to threats?

A.

Escalate, accept, and mitigate

B.

Accept share, and avoid

C.

Escalate, transfer, and exploit

D.

Mitigate, accept, and prioritize

Full Access
Question # 167

Which actions should a project manager follow to manage stakeholders?

A.

Identify the key stakeholders and keep them informed at all times.

B.

Identify the stakeholders, planning, managing and monitoring their engagement

C.

Meet and keep informed any person related to the project, at all times

D.

Identify the stakeholders and monitor their level of satisfaction

Full Access
Question # 168

What key component of the project charter defines the conditions for dosing a project phase?

A.

Purpose

B.

Approval requirements

C.

Exit criteria

D.

High-level requirements

Full Access
Question # 169

What tools or techniques are necessary to create the project management plan?

A.

Meetings and data analysis

B.

Expert judgment and data gathering

C.

Interpersonal skills and change control

D.

Data analysis and expert judgment

Full Access
Question # 170

How should the project manager obtain the maximum engagement from stakeholders that have recently changed to become more connected to social media?

A.

Adopt co-creation, sharing responsibilities with stakeholders

B.

Adopt participation of stakeholders in main meetings, listening to their opinion.

C.

Adopt social media tools, improving communication with stakeholders

D.

Adopt involvement of stakeholders in lessons learned sessions, sharing experiences with them

Full Access
Question # 171

What communications management process enables an effective information flow among project stakeholders'?

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Full Access
Question # 172

The project manager is working in the Resource Management process. Which items may the project manager need to include in the team charter?

A.

Cultural norms, roles and responsibilities, and organizational chart

B.

Assumption logs, resource calendars and training schedule

C.

Communication guidelines, conflict resolution process, and team agreements

D.

Company policies, recognition plan, and roles and responsibilities

Full Access
Question # 173

What is the purpose of the Manage Quality process?

A.

To translate the quality management plan into executable quality activities

B.

To monitor and record the results of executed quality management activities

C.

To determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies.

D.

To identify project deliverables and quality requirements and/or standards

Full Access
Question # 174

The project manager and project team are developing approximations of the cost of resources needed to complete the project work. On which process are they working?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Full Access
Question # 175

How is program success measured?

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

Full Access
Question # 176

Which of the following is least influenced by a project manager, according to the project manager's sphere of influence?

A.

Sponsors

B.

Project team

C.

Steering committees

D.

Stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 177

In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with changes?

A.

Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions

B.

Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints

C.

Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders

D.

Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team

Full Access
Question # 178

What benefit does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process offer?

A.

Allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders

B.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environment changes

C.

Provides an actionable plan to interact effectively with stakeholders

D.

Enables the project team to identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder or group of stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 179

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 180

Product requirements specify a functionality that depends upon expertise that is unavailable internally. What process should be implemented to generate a make-or-buy decision?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B Plan Procurement Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

Full Access
Question # 181

What is the purpose of the protect management process groups?

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

Full Access
Question # 182

A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?

A.

Forming

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

Full Access
Question # 183

Which is a key skill set in PMI’s Talent Triangle?

A.

Project excellence and scope management

B.

Strategic and business management

C.

Scope management and business management

D.

Financial management and people management

Full Access
Question # 184

A company has implemented an adaptive project management framework for a new project. When planning for an iteration, how should risks be addressed? Choose two.

A.

Risks should be considered when selecting the content of each iteration.

B.

Risks should be tailored for each iteration.

C.

Risks should be identified, analyzed, and managed during each iteration.

D.

Risks should be documented prior to each iteration.

E.

Risks should be reviewed only once during each iteration.

Full Access
Question # 185

Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?

A.

Evaluates the differences between the communications management plan and the reality of communications in a project

B.

Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met

C.

Ensures that project information is created, collected, and distributed in a timely and appropriate manner

D.

Develops an appropriate approach and plan for communication of project activities

Full Access
Question # 186

What process is included in Project Integration Management?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Control Scope

C.

Control Schedule

D.

Develop Team

Full Access
Question # 187

What is an example of an emerging trend in procurement management?

A.

Online technology enable projects to postpone ordering long lead items until the items are needed

B.

Online technologies allow a project's progress to be viewed by all stakeholders to build better relations

C.

Online procurement tools provide buyers with multiple sources to advertise to sellers.

D.

Online procurement tools provide sellers with designated sources for procurement documents and the resources to complete them.

Full Access
Question # 188

The project manager implemented the stakeholder engagement plan and realized that some uploads should be made. Which components of the project management plan should be modified?

A.

Project charter and stakeholder engagement plan

B.

Risk management plan and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Communications management plan and stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Project charter and communications management plan

Full Access
Question # 189

Development of the benefits management plan occurs in which stage of the project life cycle?

A.

Starting the project

B.

Organizing the project

C.

Completing pre-project work

D.

Executing the product

Full Access
Question # 190

During project execution, a team member has identified and then analyzed an opportunity that

will yield a net saving of 10% and reduce time in the schedule by 20%

Which strategy should the project manager adopt to accommodate this opportunity?

A.

Escalate to upper management to build awareness of the opportunity.

B.

Exploit the opportunity immediately, since the cost saving makes it worthwhile.

C.

Transfer the opportunity to a partner and start a partner contract.

D.

Create a trail of the opportunity before full adoption, because of the risk associated.

Full Access
Question # 191

Which of the following are outputs of define scope process in project scope management

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project Scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

Full Access
Question # 192

The activity tailoring is necessary because:

A.

the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide, this is required for all projects

B.

each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide

C.

the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects

D.

each project is unique, and the project team must plain how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide

Full Access
Question # 193

What method for categorizing stakeholders is suitable for small projects with simple relationships among stakeholders'?

A.

Prioritization

B.

Directions of influence

C.

Salience model

D.

Power/influence grid

Full Access
Question # 194

A project manager was assigned to a project with high uncertainty. What is the recommended method to calculate the project budget?

A.

Detailed estimation

B.

Lightweight estimation

C.

Parametric estimation

D.

A mix of them

Full Access
Question # 195

Which project management process is used by the project manager to ensure that stakeholders receive timely and relevant information?

A.

Plan Communications Management

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Full Access
Question # 196

What is a key benefit of using virtual project teams?

A.

Ensures appropriate behavior, security, and the protection of proprietary information

B.

Reduces the risk of conflict due to interpersonal communications and other interactions

C.

Assures that all team members have a clear and common understanding of the project

D.

Reduces project cost by use of modern technologies allowing seamless team collaboration

Full Access
Question # 197

Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?

A.

Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.

B.

Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.

C.

Create a social network and post news there.

D.

Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.

Full Access
Question # 198

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

A.

Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF>

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF>

Full Access
Question # 199

A project manager Is in the process of working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, and identifying and fostering communication and involvement. Which process does this typically represent?

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Monitor Communications

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Full Access
Question # 200

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Full Access
Question # 201

A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?

A.

Diversity background

B.

Stakeholder's relationships

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Knowledge management

Full Access
Question # 202

Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?

A.

Agile

B.

Predictive

C.

Waterfall

D.

Product

Full Access
Question # 203

According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:

A.

understand the high-level overview of the organization

B.

tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C.

work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery

D.

guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals

Full Access
Question # 204

A project manager is formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. What is an input to this process?

A.

Verified deliverables

B.

Validated deliverables

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Completed change requests

Full Access
Question # 205

In which type of organization does the project manager have the maximum influence

A.

Centralized

B.

Composite

C.

Simple Organic

D.

Multi-divisional

Full Access
Question # 206

A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project. Which analysis is the project manager using?

A.

What-if scenario analysis

B.

Simulation

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

Full Access
Question # 207

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Develop Team

B.

Manage Team

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Resource Management

Full Access
Question # 208

In a large organization, with projects of different types and sizes, what kind of approach or method would be best to use?

A.

Predictive

B.

Adaptive

C.

A mix

D.

Agile

Full Access
Question # 209

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Full Access
Question # 210

Company A has just been notified about a new legal requirement for its business operations. What is the classification of this item?

A.

Internal enterprise environmental factor

B.

Risk register database

C.

External enterprise environmental factor

D.

Organizational process asset

Full Access
Question # 211

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

Full Access
Question # 212

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Bidder conferences

C.

Complexity of procurement

D.

Procurement management plan

Full Access
Question # 213

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

Full Access
Question # 214

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

Full Access
Question # 215

What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the tocus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

Full Access
Question # 216

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

Full Access
Question # 217

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

Full Access
Question # 218

Which of the following technology platforms is most effective for sharing information when managing virtual project teams?

A.

Video conferencing

B.

Audio conferencing

C.

Shared portal

D.

Email/chat

Full Access
Question # 219

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

Full Access
Question # 220

Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?

A.

Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase

B.

Define Activities and Acquire Resources

C.

Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements

D.

Monitor Communications and Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 221

A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified. How many communication channels are available?

A.

8

B.

18

C.

36

D.

40

Full Access
Question # 222

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Full Access
Question # 223

Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder engagement plan?

A.

Risk, resource, and communications management plans

B.

Scope, quality, and resource management plans

C.

Procurement, integration, and risk management plans

D.

Communications, schedule, and cost management plans

Full Access
Question # 224

A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?

A.

Time and material (T8M)

B.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Full Access
Question # 225

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

Full Access
Question # 226

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

Full Access
Question # 227

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

Full Access
Question # 228

Which of the following sets are inputs to the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Project charter and requirements documentation

B.

Project charter and business documents

C.

Project charter and stakeholder requirements

D.

Business documents and requirements traceability matrix

Full Access
Question # 229

How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then in traditional projects?

A.

Less time spent on defining scope early on

B.

More time spent on defining scope early on

C.

Less time spent on scope management process

D.

Project scope management is the same in all projects

Full Access
Question # 230

The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.

What are these elements called?

A.

Project activities

B.

Work packages

C.

Planning packages

D.

Project deliverables

Full Access
Question # 231

What is a tool or technique used in the Control Quality process?

A.

Attribute sampling

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Expert judgment

Full Access
Question # 232

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

Full Access
Question # 233

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

A.

When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

B.

When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit

C.

When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule

D.

When they are from the same unit of the organization

Full Access
Question # 234

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 235

A sponsor asks a project manager to provide a project's expected total costs based on its progress. What formula should the project manager use to determine this?

A.

Earned value (EV) / actual cost (AC)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC) - AC

C.

Budget at completion (BAC) / cost performance index (CPI)

D.

EV - planned value (PV)

Full Access
Question # 236

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

Full Access
Question # 237

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Full Access
Question # 238

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

Full Access
Question # 239

Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?

A.

Data analysis

B.

Leads and lags

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Decomposition

Full Access
Question # 240

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

Full Access
Question # 241

What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?

A.

Design for X (DfX)

B.

Problem solving

C.

Process analysis

D.

Risk report

Full Access
Question # 242

A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion. Which communication method is described?

A.

Push communication

B.

Pull communication

C.

Interactive communication

D.

Stakeholder communication

Full Access
Question # 243

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

A.

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Terms of reference

D.

Change request

Full Access
Question # 244

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Collaborate/problem solve

C.

Withdraw/avoid

D.

Force/direct

Full Access
Question # 245

Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?

A.

Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates

B.

Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

C.

Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and project documents update

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

Full Access
Question # 246

In a project, total float measures the:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Full Access
Question # 247

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Full Access
Question # 248

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

Full Access
Question # 249

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A.

Issue log

B.

Change log

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Change requests

Full Access
Question # 250

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Full Access
Question # 251

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

Full Access
Question # 252

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

Full Access
Question # 253

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Full Access
Question # 254

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Efficient

B.

Effective

C.

Push

D.

Pull

Full Access
Question # 255

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

Full Access
Question # 256

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

Full Access
Question # 257

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Full Access
Question # 258

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Full Access
Question # 259

A regression line is used to estimate:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

Full Access
Question # 260

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Full Access
Question # 261

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

Full Access
Question # 262

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Full Access
Question # 263

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

Full Access
Question # 264

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Full Access
Question # 265

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Full Access
Question # 266

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Full Access
Question # 267

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

Full Access
Question # 268

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

Full Access
Question # 269

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Full Access
Question # 270

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Full Access
Question # 271

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

Full Access
Question # 272

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Full Access
Question # 273

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Full Access
Question # 274

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

Full Access
Question # 275

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

Full Access
Question # 276

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Full Access
Question # 277

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

Full Access
Question # 278

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

Full Access
Question # 279

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

Full Access
Question # 280

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

Full Access
Question # 281

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Full Access
Question # 282

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Full Access
Question # 283

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Full Access
Question # 284

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

Full Access
Question # 285

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Full Access
Question # 286

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Full Access
Question # 287

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Full Access
Question # 288

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Full Access
Question # 289

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

Full Access
Question # 290

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

Full Access
Question # 291

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Full Access
Question # 292

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 293

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

Full Access
Question # 294

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

Full Access
Question # 295

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 296

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Full Access
Question # 297

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

Full Access
Question # 298

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

Full Access
Question # 299

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Full Access
Question # 300

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Full Access
Question # 301

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Full Access
Question # 302

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

Full Access
Question # 303

Project management processes ensure the:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

Full Access
Question # 304

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

Full Access
Question # 305

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

Full Access
Question # 306

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

Full Access
Question # 307

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

Full Access
Question # 308

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

A.

influencing

B.

leadership

C.

motivation

D.

coaching

Full Access
Question # 309

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Full Access
Question # 310

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

Full Access
Question # 311

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Full Access
Question # 312

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

Full Access
Question # 313

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

Full Access
Question # 314

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

Full Access
Question # 315

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 316

Which item is a cost of conformance?

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

Full Access
Question # 317

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

Full Access
Question # 318

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

Full Access
Question # 319

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

Full Access
Question # 320

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

Full Access
Question # 321

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

Full Access
Question # 322

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Full Access
Question # 323

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Full Access
Question # 324

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Full Access
Question # 325

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

Full Access
Question # 326

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Full Access
Question # 327

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

Full Access
Question # 328

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

Full Access
Question # 329

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Full Access
Question # 330

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Full Access
Question # 331

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

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Question # 332

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

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Question # 333

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

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Question # 334

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

A.

project staff assignments

B.

project tea m acquisition

C.

managing conflicting interests

D.

communication methods

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Question # 335

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

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Question # 336

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

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Question # 337

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

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Question # 338

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

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Question # 339

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

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Question # 340

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

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