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CAPM Questions and Answers

Question # 6

A project team is starting to work on a project based on a Kanban approach. In order to frame the capacity of the team's workflow at any moment, the project manager will need to restrict the maximum amount of activities to be performed.

Which element will the project manager handle?

A.

Capacity limit

B.

Pull system

C.

Work in progress

D.

Virtual board

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Question # 7

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

A.

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.

The scope management plan.

C.

Work performance reports.

D.

Change requests.

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Question # 8

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Efficient

B.

Effective

C.

Push

D.

Pull

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Question # 9

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

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Question # 10

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

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Question # 11

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

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Question # 12

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

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Question # 13

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

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Question # 14

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

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Question # 15

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Question # 16

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

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Question # 17

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

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Question # 18

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

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Question # 19

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

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Question # 20

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Question # 21

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

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Question # 22

When should quality planning be performed?

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

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Question # 23

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

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Question # 24

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Question # 25

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 26

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

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Question # 27

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

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Question # 28

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

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Question # 29

A regression line is used to estimate:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

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Question # 30

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

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Question # 31

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

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Question # 32

In which of the risk management processes is the processes is the project charter used as an input?

A.

Palm Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

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Question # 33

All testing on a project has been performed successfully and all acceptance criteria have been met. What is the next step?

A.

Set up a meeting with the sponsor.

B.

Set up a go/no-go meeting.

C.

Wait for the next sprint.

D.

Deliver the product.

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Question # 34

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager. What should the project manager do to address this issue?

A.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

B.

Apply emotional intelligence (EI) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team's issues.

C.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

D.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

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Question # 35

A project's business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won't have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

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Question # 36

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

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Question # 37

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

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Question # 38

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Question # 39

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Question # 40

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

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Question # 41

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Question # 42

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

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Question # 43

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

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Question # 44

What does an S-curve from a Monte Carlo analysis show?

A.

Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome

B.

Individual project risks or uncertainties that have the most potential impact on outcome

C.

Best alternative out of the possible solutions, incorporating associated risks and opportunities

D.

Diagram for all project uncertainties and their influence over a period of time

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Question # 45

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 46

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

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Question # 47

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

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Question # 48

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Question # 49

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

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Question # 50

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

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Question # 51

During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?

A.

Change request

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Lessons learned

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Question # 52

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

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Question # 53

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

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Question # 54

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

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Question # 55

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

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Question # 56

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

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Question # 57

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Question # 58

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Question # 59

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 60

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Question # 61

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

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Question # 62

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

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Question # 63

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 64

Which tool should a project manager consider to deal with multiple sources of risk?

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Issue log

D.

Stakeholder register

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Question # 65

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Question # 66

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

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Question # 67

What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the tocus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

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Question # 68

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

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Question # 69

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Question # 70

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

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Question # 71

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 72

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?

A.

Training and establishing ground rules

B.

Networking activities and estimating team resources

C.

Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

D.

Recruit new team members and training

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Question # 73

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

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Question # 74

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

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Question # 75

A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.

Which strategies should the project manager take into account for risk management in this environment?

A.

Occasionally identify, evaluate, and classify risks.

B.

Review requirements and cross-functional project teams.

C.

Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently.

D.

Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization.

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Question # 76

A team was hired to develop a next generation drone. The team created a prototype and sent it to the customer for testing. The feedback collected was used to refine the requirements. What technique is the team using?

A.

Early requirements gathering

B.

Feedback analysis

C.

Progressive elaboration

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 77

Stakeholder identification and engagement should begin during what phase of the project?

A.

After the project management plan is completed

B.

After the stakeholder engagement plan is completed

C.

As soon as the project charter has been approved

D.

After the communications management plan is completed

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Question # 78

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

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Question # 79

What charts and (igures should project managers use during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Tornado diagrams and influence diagrams

B.

Detectability bubble charts and probability and impact matrix

C.

Hierarchical charts and burndown charts

D.

Flow charts and responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) charts

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Question # 80

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

A.

Discussing with management

B.

Escalating to the sponsors

C.

Engaging regularly with stakeholders

D.

Engaging only with decision makers

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Question # 81

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

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Question # 82

A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?

A.

Diversity background

B.

Stakeholder's relationships

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Knowledge management

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Question # 83

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

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Question # 84

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?

A.

Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.

B.

Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project.

C.

Train the team members in project skill sets.

D.

Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member.

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Question # 85

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

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Question # 86

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

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Question # 87

A team member, who is close to an influential stakeholder, has joined the project team. The stakeholder is routing requests for multiple reports through the new team member, and the team member reaches out to the project manager regarding this. What should the project manager do first?

A.

Forward the status reports to the stakeholder.

B.

Manage stakeholder engagement.

C.

Consult the communications management plan.

D.

Update the communications management plan.

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Question # 88

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

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Question # 89

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Question # 90

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 91

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Question # 92

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

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Question # 93

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

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Question # 94

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

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Question # 95

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

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Question # 96

What does expert judgment provide as an input to the resource management plan?

A.

Geographic distribution of facilities and resources

B.

Physical resource management policies and procedures

C.

Estimated lead times based on lessons learned

D.

Templates for the resource management plan

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Question # 97

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 98

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

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Question # 99

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

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Question # 100

Company A has just been notified about a new legal requirement for its business operations. What is the classification of this item?

A.

Internal enterprise environmental factor

B.

Risk register database

C.

External enterprise environmental factor

D.

Organizational process asset

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Question # 101

The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?

A.

Take control of all decisions and product planning.

B.

Build a team that can respond to changes within a collaborative, decision-making environment.

C.

Promote a team with a narrow specialization within a hierarchical environment.

D.

Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.

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Question # 102

How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?

A.

Look at the quality metrics.

B.

Validate the scope.

C.

Review the quality checklist.

D.

Conduct a quality audit.

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Question # 103

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Question # 104

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Question # 105

Project reporting is a tool that is most closely associated with which process?

A.

Communicate Plan

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Report Performance

D.

Control Communications

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Question # 106

Which format can a network diagram take?

A.

Flow chart

B.

Control chart

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Cause-and-effect diagram

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Question # 107

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurement Management

C.

Analyze Procurements

D.

Control Procurements

Full Access
Question # 108

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Full Access
Question # 109

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Full Access
Question # 110

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Full Access
Question # 111

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

Full Access
Question # 112

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Full Access
Question # 113

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

Full Access
Question # 114

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

Full Access
Question # 115

In an agile and adaptive project, which scope management entity invokes stakeholder engagement?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Create work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Scope Baseline

Full Access
Question # 116

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

Full Access
Question # 117

Which is the correct hierarchy in a project environment, from most to least Inclusive?

A.

Projects, portfolios, then programs

B.

Portfolios, programs, then projects

C.

Portfolios, projects, then programs

D.

Projects, programs, then portfolios

Full Access
Question # 118

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 119

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

A.

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.

B.

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.

C.

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.

D.

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.

Full Access
Question # 120

What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?

A.

Design for X (DfX)

B.

Problem solving

C.

Process analysis

D.

Risk report

Full Access
Question # 121

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

Full Access
Question # 122

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

Full Access
Question # 123

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Full Access
Question # 124

A project manager held a meeting and listed all team members' ideas for improving the product on a white board. What data gathering technique did the project manager apply?

A.

Focus groups

B.

Interviews

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Delphi technique

Full Access
Question # 125

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Full Access
Question # 126

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Full Access
Question # 127

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Question # 128

Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?

A.

Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.

B.

Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.

C.

Create a social network and post news there.

D.

Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.

Full Access
Question # 129

Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Project charter, business documents, and project management plan

B.

Agreements, scope baseline, and project management plan

C.

Project charter, business case, and project management plan

D.

Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan

Full Access
Question # 130

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Full Access
Question # 131

In a large organization, with projects of different types and sizes, what kind of approach or method would be best to use?

A.

Predictive

B.

Adaptive

C.

A mix

D.

Agile

Full Access
Question # 132

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Full Access
Question # 133

The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?

A.

Technical project management skills

B.

Time management skills

C.

Strategic and business management skills

D.

Leadership skills

Full Access
Question # 134

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

Full Access
Question # 135

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

Full Access
Question # 136

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Full Access
Question # 137

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

Full Access
Question # 138

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

Full Access
Question # 139

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Full Access
Question # 140

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

Full Access
Question # 141

Which of the following technology platforms is most effective for sharing information when managing virtual project teams?

A.

Video conferencing

B.

Audio conferencing

C.

Shared portal

D.

Email/chat

Full Access
Question # 142

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Full Access
Question # 143

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Full Access
Question # 144

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

Full Access
Question # 145

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Full Access
Question # 146

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Full Access
Question # 147

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

Full Access
Question # 148

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Full Access
Question # 149

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

Full Access
Question # 150

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

Full Access
Question # 151

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

Full Access
Question # 152

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Full Access
Question # 153

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

Full Access
Question # 154

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 155

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Full Access
Question # 156

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

Full Access
Question # 157

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Full Access
Question # 158

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

Full Access
Question # 159

What is the total float of the critical path?

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

Full Access
Question # 160

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Full Access
Question # 161

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Full Access
Question # 162

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Full Access
Question # 163

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Full Access
Question # 164

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

Full Access
Question # 165

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Full Access
Question # 166

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

Full Access
Question # 167

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

Full Access
Question # 168

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

Full Access
Question # 169

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 170

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Full Access
Question # 171

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

Full Access
Question # 172

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Full Access
Question # 173

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Full Access
Question # 174

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

Full Access
Question # 175

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Full Access
Question # 176

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

Full Access
Question # 177

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Full Access
Question # 178

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Full Access
Question # 179

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

Full Access
Question # 180

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Full Access
Question # 181

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Full Access
Question # 182

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Full Access
Question # 183

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

Full Access
Question # 184

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

A.

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.

Contain the standard activity list.

C.

Document and support the project change requests.

D.

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Full Access
Question # 185

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Full Access
Question # 186

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

Full Access
Question # 187

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Full Access
Question # 188

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

Full Access
Question # 189

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

Full Access
Question # 190

During project selection, which factor is most important?

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

Full Access
Question # 191

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

Full Access
Question # 192

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

Full Access
Question # 193

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

Full Access
Question # 194

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Network diagrams

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Full Access
Question # 195

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Full Access
Question # 196

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

Full Access
Question # 197

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Full Access
Question # 198

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Full Access
Question # 199

When is a Salience Model used?

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

Full Access
Question # 200

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

Full Access
Question # 201

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

Full Access
Question # 202

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Full Access
Question # 203

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Full Access
Question # 204

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Full Access
Question # 205

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Full Access
Question # 206

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

Full Access
Question # 207

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

Full Access
Question # 208

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Full Access
Question # 209

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

Full Access
Question # 210

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Full Access
Question # 211

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

Full Access
Question # 212

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

Full Access
Question # 213

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Full Access
Question # 214

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Full Access
Question # 215

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

Full Access
Question # 216

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

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Question # 217

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 218

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

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Question # 219

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

Full Access
Question # 220

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 221

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Full Access
Question # 222

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

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Question # 223

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Question # 224

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

Full Access
Question # 225

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 226

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

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Question # 227

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

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Question # 228

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

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Question # 229

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 230

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Question # 231

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Question # 232

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Question # 233

Drag the five stages of team development on the left onto the blocks on the right to place them in sequential order.

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Question # 234

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

A.

Hybrid methodologies

B.

Risk register updates

C.

Outsourced project resources

D.

Reliance on lessons learned documents

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Question # 235

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

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Question # 236

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Question # 237

The chart below is an example of a:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

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Question # 238

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

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Question # 239

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 240

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 241

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Question # 242

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Question # 243

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Full Access
Question # 244

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Full Access
Question # 245

Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

A.

Need to lower production costs to remain competitive

B.

Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

C.

Need to submit the monthly production report

D.

Need to define next month's production goals

Full Access
Question # 246

Projects programs subsidiary portfolios.... objectives refer to?

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives refers to?

A.

Operations Management

B.

Project Management

C.

Program Management

D.

Portfolio Management

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Question # 247

Which sentence summarizes the salience model?

A.

Classifies stakeholders based on assessment ol Iheir power, urgency and legitimacy

B.

A chart in which the Stakeholders are ropiosented as dots according to then level ol power and influence

C.

A three-dimensional model that ran be useful to engage the stakeholder community

D.

Classifies stakeholders and the project toam by the impact of their work in the project

Full Access
Question # 248

During a sprint demo, the customer says that one of the user stories is not ready for customer use. Which checklist should the team look at to find out what has been missed for the user story?

A.

Burndown chart

B.

Velocity chart

C.

Definition of ready (DoR)

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

Full Access
Question # 249

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

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Question # 250

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

Full Access
Question # 251

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Question # 252

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

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Question # 253

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Question # 254

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Full Access
Question # 255

On a clinical trial project, the project manager is worried about maintaining control of the project. The project manager decides to use a requirements traceability matrix.

What is the advantage of using this tool?

A.

Scope creep will be prevented.

B.

Resource allocation will be kept to a minimum.

C.

Project closure will be established.

D.

Project costs will be controlled.

Full Access
Question # 256

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Full Access
Question # 257

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

Full Access
Question # 258

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Full Access
Question # 259

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

Full Access
Question # 260

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

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Question # 261

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Full Access
Question # 262

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Full Access
Question # 263

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 264

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

Full Access
Question # 265

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 266

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Full Access
Question # 267

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

Full Access
Question # 268

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Full Access
Question # 269

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Control Risks

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 270

A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project. Which analysis is the project manager using?

A.

What-if scenario analysis

B.

Simulation

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

Full Access
Question # 271

A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?

A.

Initiating Process Group

B.

Planning Process Group

C.

Executing Process Group

D.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Full Access
Question # 272

According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:

A.

understand the high-level overview of the organization

B.

tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C.

work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery

D.

guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals

Full Access
Question # 273

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Full Access
Question # 274

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

Full Access
Question # 275

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

Full Access
Question # 276

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Full Access
Question # 277

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

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Question # 278

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

Full Access
Question # 279

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Full Access
Question # 280

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

Full Access
Question # 281

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

Full Access
Question # 282

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Full Access
Question # 283

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Full Access
Question # 284

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

Full Access
Question # 285

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

Full Access
Question # 286

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

Full Access
Question # 287

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 288

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

Full Access
Question # 289

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Full Access
Question # 290

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

Full Access
Question # 291

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

Full Access
Question # 292

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

Full Access
Question # 293

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Full Access
Question # 294

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

Full Access
Question # 295

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A.

Teaming agreements

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

Full Access
Question # 296

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Full Access
Question # 297

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Full Access
Question # 298

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Full Access
Question # 299

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

Full Access
Question # 300

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Full Access
Question # 301

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Full Access
Question # 302

Leadership and management are often used interchangeably. Which of the following is leadership more involved in?

A.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using authoritarian power

B.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using positional power

C.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using relational power

D.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using autocratic power

Full Access
Question # 303

A few project team members are having issues understanding the requirements as described. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

A.

Review the requirements traceability matrix and set up a meeting with the business analyst and key stakeholders.

B.

Review the requirements traceability matrix, the business analysis communications management plan, and set up a meeting with the business analyst and key stakeholders.

C.

Review the business analysis communications management plan and set up a meeting with the business analyst and key stakeholders.

D.

Review the project management plan and set up a meeting with the project manager and key stakeholders.

Full Access
Question # 304

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

Full Access
Question # 305

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

A.

realigned.

B.

performed.

C.

improved.

D.

controlled.

Full Access
Question # 306

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Full Access
Question # 307

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

Full Access
Question # 308

Which element does a project charter contain?

A.

Management reserves

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Stakeholder list

D.

Stakeholder register

Full Access
Question # 309

During a virtual kick-off session, the project sponsor highlights the significance of the project to the company. What message should be conveyed to the team in this meeting?

A.

Bonuses based on accomplishment criteria

B.

New working contract with more benefits

C.

Promotion opportunities with this project

D.

Assignment of key roles and responsibilities

Full Access
Question # 310

Which of the following lists represents trends and emerging practices in Project Risk Management?

A.

Integrated risk management, non-event risks, and project resilience

B.

Representation of uncertainty, strategies for opportunities, and strategies for overall project risk

C.

Dormancy, proximity, and propinquity

D.

Simulation, sensitivity analysis, and decision tree analysis

Full Access
Question # 311

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A.

Cyclic

B.

Progressive

C.

Repetitive

D.

Iterative

Full Access
Question # 312

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

Full Access
Question # 313

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

Full Access
Question # 314

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 315

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

Full Access
Question # 316

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Full Access
Question # 317

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Full Access
Question # 318

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

Full Access
Question # 319

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Full Access
Question # 320

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Full Access
Question # 321

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

Full Access
Question # 322

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 323

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

Full Access
Question # 324

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

Full Access
Question # 325

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Question # 326

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

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Question # 327

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

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Question # 328

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

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Question # 329

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

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Question # 330

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

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Question # 331

In the project charter process, which three of the following are discussed during meetings held with stakeholders? (Choose three) D Cost

A.

High-level deliverables

B.

Success criteria

C.

Project objectives

D.

Phase transitions

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Question # 332

Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?

A.

Verify Deliverables

B.

Validate Deliverables

C.

Review Deliverables

D.

Analyze Deliverables

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Question # 333

An executive sponsor wants to be briefed on how the product will change over time. Which document should the business analyst use to prepare their presentation?

A.

Project charter

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product requirements

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Question # 334

What tools or techniques can be used in all cost management processes'?

A.

Decision making and expert judgment

B.

Expert judgment and data analysis

C.

Data analysis and meetings

D.

Meetings and cost aggregation

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Question # 335

A business analyst sent multiple meeting requests via instant message to a subject matter expert (SME) working in another country but did not receive a response. What should the business analyst do to reduce the likelihood of this occurring in the future with other stakeholders distributed across multiple locations?

A.

Ask each stakeholder for their preferred communication method.

B.

Confirm the time zone and work days in each location.

C.

Check with the IT department to see if there is a technical issue.

D.

Assume the meeting request is accepted unless declined.

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Question # 336

Why is working in iterations usually more time-consuming than using a predictive life cycle?

A.

Timeboxing increases the time needed to accomplish tasks.

B.

Iterations are longer than the execution phase of a traditional project.

C.

Having a minimum viable product first can take more time.

D.

It takes time to understand what the project needs to deliver.

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Question # 337

What is the common factor among portfolios, programs, and projects, regardless of the hierarchy within an organization?

A.

Resources and stakeholders

B.

Operations and performance

C.

Subsidiary projects

D.

Project manager

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Question # 338

In what type of organizational structure does a project manager develop their role and work with a team assigned by job function?

A.

Matrix - strong

B.

Matrix - balanced

C.

Virtual

D.

Functional

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Question # 339

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

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Question # 340

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 341

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

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Question # 342

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Actual cost

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Question # 343

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Question # 344

Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Affinity diagram

C.

Tree diagram

D.

Activity network diagram

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Question # 345

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

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Question # 346

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

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Question # 347

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Question # 348

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

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Question # 349

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

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Question # 350

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

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Question # 351

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

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Question # 352

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

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Question # 353

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

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Question # 354

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A.

Three-point estimates

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Bottom-up estimating

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Question # 355

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

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Question # 356

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

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Question # 357

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

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Question # 358

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Question # 359

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

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Question # 360

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Question # 361

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

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Question # 362

A project manager is working on project cost management. The following information is current.

* Planned value = 30

* Actual cost = 35

* Earned value = 28

Considering this data, which project indicator is correct?

A.

Schedule Variance (SV) = 2

B.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.80

C.

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 1.93

D.

Cost Variance (CV) = 7

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Question # 363

A project team working on an automobile manufacturing project is detailing the parts needed for a car door design. The door is composed of several parts that have to be developed in sequence, as the frame is needed before other parts can be designed and built. What activity is the team involved in?

A.

Creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Identifying risks and issues in the project

C.

Developing a stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Developing a communications management plan

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Question # 364

Which is a method of prototyping that creates a functioning representation of the final finished product to the user?

A.

Low-fidelity prototyping

B.

High-fidelity prototyping

C.

Data prototyping

D.

Report prototyping

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Question # 365

A project team has completed the first iteration and the testing manager approved the test report, indicating that the acceptance criteria have been met. The manager of the business unit that will use the new product is asking for additional functionality before approving the rollout for their team.

What should the project manager do next?

A.

Escalate this issue to the project sponsor.

B.

Reschedule the rollout to start with another business unit.

C.

Reschedule the rollout to include the new requirements.

D.

Escalate this issue to the project management office (PMO).

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Question # 366

Recently, the government published a new tax law giving companies one year to implement the changes. A project was initiated to change the accounting system. Which delivery approach is most suitable in this context?

A.

Predictive, because of the high risk that the company can be fined.

B.

Predictive, because the requirements are clearly defined up-front.

C.

Adaptive, because the government will provide constant feedback.

D.

Adaptive, because the changes have never been implemented before.

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Question # 367

In the Control Quality process, which tools and techniques techniques can be applied to verify deliverable?

A.

Statistical sampling, inspection, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned register, control charts, and product evaluation

C.

Checklists, retrospective documents, and approved change requests

D.

Black box tests, questionnaires and surveys, and lessons learned register

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Question # 368

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

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Question # 369

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members knows their roles and responsibilities.

What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

A.

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

B.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

D.

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

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Question # 370

A project team for a marketing company is acquiring leaflets and materials from competitors. The team is working on a project to release new products, and they are trying to get ideas on how to most efficiently market these new products.

Which activity is the project team conducting?

A.

Project execution

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Project initiation

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Question # 371

A new game development process must have three versions. Each version is to be developed in approximately five iteration cycles with a duration of one month each. This will help this small enterprise to have a return on investment (ROI) as the project runs from the first cycle. Which methodology should the project manager adopt and implement in the project?

A.

Feature-driven development (FDD) as it will deliver product segments and the milestones are controlled by the development manager.

B.

Kanban as it will provide flexibility to the team for working at their own pace in the time frame requested.

C.

Scrum as it uses sprints and retrospectives, maximizing time delivery and the value of the product.

D.

Extreme Programming (XP) as it will help deliver more quickly since developers will work in pairs.

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Question # 372

Which project life cycle follows a plan reviewed and approved by the stakeholders?

A.

Predictive

B.

Adaptive

C.

Iterative

D.

Incremental

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Question # 373

Which set of tools and techniques is useful for estimating activity durations for the project schedule?

A.

Brainstorming, Monte Carlo simulation, analogous estimation

B.

Three-point estimation, resources leveling, iteration burndown chart

C.

Milestone charts, parametric estimation, schedule baseline

D.

Parametric estimation, three-point estimation, meetings

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Question # 374

Which is an aspect of the requirements management plan?

A.

Detailed project scope statement

B.

Creation of work breakdown strucure (WBS)

C.

Impact analysis

D.

Duration for implementation

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Question # 375

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

B.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery timeline.

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Question # 376

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

A.

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

B.

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

C.

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

D.

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

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Question # 377

Match each tool or technique with its corresponding Project Cost Management process.

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Question # 378

While working in an adaptive environment, a business analyst is collaborating with other roles in drafting a product roadmap. Which three roles are involved in establishing the product roadmap? (Choose three)

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Portfolio manager

C.

End user

D.

Program manager

E.

Internal inspector

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Question # 379

A software development team is pulling work from its backlog to be performed immediately as they become available. What emerging practice for project scheduling is the team using?

A.

Iterative

B.

On-demand

C.

Interactive

D.

Quality

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Question # 380

What is the main purpose of Project Quality Management?

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Question # 381

A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members. Which technique can result in a win-win solution?

A.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

B.

Compromise/Reconcile

C.

Smooth/Accommodate

D.

Withdraw/Avoid

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Question # 382

Which of the following is the key construction to controlling the costs and achieving the schedule in projects with high variability?

A.

Learn methods

B.

collaborative teams

C.

Generalizing specialists

D.

Knowledge sharing

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Question # 383

Which roles does the project manager resemble best?

A.

Orchestra conductor

B.

Facilities supervisor

C.

Functional manager

D.

School principal

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Question # 384

Given the following information, what is the schedule variance (SV) for this project?

Early start date (ES): 16 weeks

Actual time: 12 weeks

Schedule performance index (SPI): 1.3

A.

5

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 385

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

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Question # 386

Product requirements specify a functionality that depends upon expertise that is unavailable internally. What process should be implemented to generate a make-or-buy decision?

A.

Conduct ProcurementsB Plan Procurement Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

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Question # 387

A project is composed of three phases that are implemented in parallel without affecting one another. The baselines for each individual phase have been approved by the major stakeholders, and there is a minimal ability to vary the baselines during the execution of the project.

Which methodology did the project manager adopt?

A.

Incremental approach

B.

Predictive approach

C.

Hybrid approach

D.

Iterative approach

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Question # 388

How can you describe the role of the project.... of influence concept?

A.

The proiect manager proactivnly interacfS with other project managers creating a positive influence Km fulfilling project needs, working with other managers and sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues and ensunng that the project managemenl plan aligns with the portfolio or program plan

B.

The project manager leads the team, performs communication roles between stakeholders, and uses interpersonal sills to balance conflicting goals

C.

The proiect manager stays informed about current technology developments lakes into account new quality management standards, and uses relevant technical support tools

D.

The proiect manager participates in project management trainings, contributes to the organization professional community sharing knowledge, and maintains subied matter expertise

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Question # 389

During the execution of a predicted project, the need for a new product feature has been proposed by the customer. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Decline any request by the customer and continue the project as initially planned.

B.

Accept the customer's request and continue with elicitation of the new product features.

C.

Investigate the possibility of using the management reserve to pay for the extra hours the team will need to work.

D.

Investigate the effect that such an integration will have on the project plan and propose a change request.

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Question # 390

Development of the benefits management plan occurs in which stage of the project life cycle?

A.

Starting the project

B.

Organizing the project

C.

Completing pre-project work

D.

Executing the product

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Question # 391

Which three techniques can be estimate costs?

A.

Financing, bottom-up estimating, and expert judgment

B.

Cost aggregation, analogous estimating, and financing

C.

Expert judgment, financing, and cost aggregation

D.

Expert judgment, analogous estimating, and bottom-up estimating

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