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CAPM Questions and Answers

Question # 6

The project manager needs to obtain proposals on costs of supplies purchased from an external source. In order to conduct this in a fair and unbiased way, what should the project manager conduct?

A.

Procurement conference

B.

Stakeholder conference

C.

Bidder conference

D.

Stakeholder meeting

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Question # 7

What organizational process asset (OPA) can impact a project?

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Preapproved supplier lists

C.

Physical environmental elements

D.

Legal restrictions

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Question # 8

An adaptive team's velocity dropped significantly in the last sprint due to the planned vacation of two team members. The project sponsor wants to know how many more sprints it would take to complete the remaining project.

How should the project manager calculate the anticipated velocity for future sprints?

A.

Add a 30% buffer to the velocity to calculate future velocity.

B.

Calculate the average of the past five sprints to predict future velocity.

C.

Change the adaptive tool that the team is using to calculate velocity.

D.

Use the velocity of the last sprint, as it is the most recent one to share.

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Question # 9

Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description

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Question # 10

A project team is evaluating criteria to determine project viability. Which of these activities will provide insight into making a go/no-go decision to start the project?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Cost of quality (COQ)

D.

Lessons learned

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Question # 11

A project manager proactively meets with other project managers who manage other projects in the same program. To minimize the impact that other projects within the program may have on their project of what should the project manager be aware?

A.

Demands on the same resources

B.

Requirements that impact the scope

C.

Uncertainty of emerging issues

D.

Project charter

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Question # 12

What characteristic of servant leadership supports resource management in an agile environment?

A.

Lecturing

B.

Construing

C.

Measuring

D.

Coaching

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Question # 13

On which type of project.... only after the final iteration?

On wtiich type of project lite cycle is ihe deliverable produced trough a series of ileralrons considering thai the deliverable ts completed only after the Imal iteration?

A.

Incremental life cycle

B.

Predictive life cycle

C.

Iterative life cycle

D.

Adaptive life cycle

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Question # 14

The project manager has following information about duration for an activity:

* Most likely [tM] - 15 days

* Pessimistic [tP] - 20 days

* Optimistic [tO] - 10 days

What is the estimated duration of this activity, according to the triangular distribution technique?

A.

10 days

B.

15 days

C.

12.5 days

D.

5 days

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Question # 15

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager 's sphere of influence on a project?

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

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Question # 16

How should the project manager obtain the maximum engagement from stakeholders that have recently changed to become more connected to social media?

A.

Adopt co-creation, sharing responsibilities with stakeholders

B.

Adopt participation of stakeholders in main meetings, listening to their opinion.

C.

Adopt social media tools, improving communication with stakeholders

D.

Adopt involvement of stakeholders in lessons learned sessions, sharing experiences with them

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Question # 17

On a clinical trial project, the project manager is worried about maintaining control of the project. The project manager decides to use a requirements traceability matrix. What is the advantage of using this tool?

A.

Project costs will be controlled.

B.

Scope creep will be prevented.

C.

Project closure will be established.

D.

Resource allocation will be kept to a minimum.

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Question # 18

When executing a project, a recently hired subject matter expert (SME) who reviewed the execution progress remarked that the schedule could be crashed and that the schedule was not assessed properly. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Update the schedule baseline

B.

Review the schedule baseline

C.

Initiate a change request

D.

Update the risk register

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Question # 19

During a project team meeting, one of the team members suggested a product functionality that would immensely benefit the customer. The project manager documents the request for later analysis. What is this an example of?

A.

Monitoring the traceability matrix

B.

Managing the scope

C.

Maintaining the product backlog

D.

Managing the cost benefit

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Question # 20

What is the primary purpose of Project Scope Management?

A.

Determining and managing stakeholder needs

B.

Contorting the status of the product scope and managing changes to its be seine

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project

D.

Differentiating between the product scope and project scope

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Question # 21

A project's business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won't have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

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Question # 22

Due to organizational changes, a new product owner joins a project The product owner wants to review the process used to obtain team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work.

What process should the project manager review with the product owner?

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Plan Resource Management

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Control Resources

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Question # 23

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project.

Which of the following elements is the team using?

A.

Definition of ready (DoR)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

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Question # 24

Which project management process is used by the project manager to ensure that stakeholders receive timely and relevant information?

A.

Plan Communications Management

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

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Question # 25

A project manager is managing a small project that has a time constraint. What should the project manager do to ensure the delivery is on time?

A.

Increase quality review cycles.

B.

Schedule the tasks in parallel.

C.

Schedule the tasks in sequence.

D.

Expand the scope of the project.

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Question # 26

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

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Question # 27

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

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Question # 28

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 29

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

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Question # 30

For what project management process is work performance information an output?

A.

Implement Risk Responses

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Plan Quality Management

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Question # 31

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Question # 32

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

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Question # 33

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

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Question # 34

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

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Question # 35

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

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Question # 36

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

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Question # 37

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 38

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

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Question # 39

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

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Question # 40

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

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Question # 41

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Question # 42

During project planning, team members seemed clear on deliverables. However, as the project progressed deeper into the execution phase, team members expressed the need for smaller components to better understand what must be delivered.

What should the project manager do?

A.

Inform the stakeholders that the stakeholder register needs to be recreated, as the team does not understand the requirements.

B.

Share the project management plan with the team members again to bring them up to speed on the requirements.

C.

Schedule additional meetings with the customer to explain the requirements for each deliverable at length.

D.

Revisit the work breakdown structure (WBS) again during execution, as the WBS can be defined at different points in the project.

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Question # 43

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

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Question # 44

During the project planning process, which three of the following stakeholders are required to take part in the risk assessment meeting? (Choose three)

A.

End user

B.

Product owner

C.

Subject matter experts (SMEs)

D.

Project sponsor

E.

Project team

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Question # 45

Company A’s accountant sends notification about a change in the company’s tax classification.

What would a project have to be initiated?

A.

To change business and technological strategies

B.

To improve processes and services

C.

To meet regulatory and legal requirements

D.

To satisfy stakeholder requests

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Question # 46

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

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Question # 47

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Question # 48

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

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Question # 49

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 50

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

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Question # 51

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A.

Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B.

Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.

C.

Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.

D.

Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

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Question # 52

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

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Question # 53

An element of the project scope statement is:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

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Question # 54

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

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Question # 55

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

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Question # 56

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

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Question # 57

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

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Question # 58

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

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Question # 59

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

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Question # 60

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

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Question # 61

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Question # 62

Typical outcomes of a project include:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

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Question # 63

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

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Question # 64

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Question # 65

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

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Question # 66

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 67

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Question # 68

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

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Question # 69

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Question # 70

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

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Question # 71

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

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Question # 72

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 73

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Question # 74

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 75

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

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Question # 76

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

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Question # 77

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Question # 78

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

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Question # 79

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Question # 80

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 81

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

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Question # 82

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

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Question # 83

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 84

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

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Question # 85

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Question # 86

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

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Question # 87

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

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Question # 88

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

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Question # 89

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

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Question # 90

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

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Question # 91

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

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Question # 92

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

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Question # 93

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 94

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Question # 95

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

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Question # 96

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

A.

Coaching

B.

Avoidance

C.

Consensus

D.

Influencing

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Question # 97

A practitioner organized a requirements workshop with the client's frontline application users. The users explained that one of the challenges of the current application is that they must click on each input before entering data, which happens thousands of times a day.

Which technique did the practitioner use to identify this pain point?

A.

System thinking

B.

User acceptance testing

C.

Decision-making

D.

Active listening

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Question # 98

Which procurement management process includes obtaining seller response, seller selection, and contract awarding?

A.

Plan Procurement

B.

Manage Procurement

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Perform Procurement

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Question # 99

A project manager is performing the procurement management process with three vendors The project team is reviewing the requests for proposal (RFPs).

What type of procurement document is the RFP?

A.

Bid document

B.

Statement of work (SOW)

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Independent cost estimate

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Question # 100

What is an emerging practice in stakeholder engagement?

A.

Confirming that all identified stakeholders are engaged and actually affected by the work

B.

Assuring that team leadership is primarily involved in stakeholder engagement

C.

Ensuring that stakeholders do not change after stakeholder identification

D.

Ensuring that stakeholders most affected by the work are involved as collaborative team partners

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Question # 101

Which can be used to convert a verified deliverable to an accepted deliverable?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Reporting

C.

Voting

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 102

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float. What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

A.

75-100%

B.

0-25%

C.

25-50%

D.

50-75%

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Question # 103

What tool or technique is primarily used to plan risk responses'?

A.

Risk categorization

B.

Project risk document updates

C.

Strategies for overall project risk

D.

Risk management plan

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Question # 104

A team member, who is close to an influential stakeholder, has joined the project team. The stakeholder is routing requests for multiple reports through the new team member, and the team member reaches out to the project manager regarding this. What should the project manager do first?

A.

Forward the status reports to the stakeholder.

B.

Manage stakeholder engagement.

C.

Consult the communications management plan.

D.

Update the communications management plan.

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Question # 105

What key component of the project charter defines the conditions for dosing a project phase?

A.

Purpose

B.

Approval requirements

C.

Exit criteria

D.

High-level requirements

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Question # 106

A project manager is responsible for delivering new software for their company. Based on previous experiences, the project manager decides to use the dynamic systems development method (DSDM). The project manager will use this method to prioritize the scope to meet project constraints.

Which elements are included in the DSDM framework?

A.

Cost, time, quality, and functionality

B.

Schedule, risk, integration, and features

C.

Time, integration, cost, and deliverables

D.

Cost, requirements, schedule, and outputs

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Question # 107

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure effective requirements elicitation. What should the business analyst do?

A.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

B.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

C.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

D.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

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Question # 108

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

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Question # 109

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

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Question # 110

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

Full Access
Question # 111

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

Full Access
Question # 112

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Full Access
Question # 113

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Process

C.

Project

D.

Program

Full Access
Question # 114

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Full Access
Question # 115

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

Full Access
Question # 116

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

Full Access
Question # 117

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 118

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 119

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Full Access
Question # 120

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A.

Three-point estimates

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Bottom-up estimating

Full Access
Question # 121

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Full Access
Question # 122

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

Full Access
Question # 123

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

Full Access
Question # 124

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 125

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Full Access
Question # 126

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 127

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Full Access
Question # 128

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Full Access
Question # 129

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

Full Access
Question # 130

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

Full Access
Question # 131

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Full Access
Question # 132

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Full Access
Question # 133

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Full Access
Question # 134

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

Full Access
Question # 135

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Full Access
Question # 136

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

Full Access
Question # 137

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

Full Access
Question # 138

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Full Access
Question # 139

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

Full Access
Question # 140

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

Full Access
Question # 141

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Full Access
Question # 142

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Full Access
Question # 143

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

Full Access
Question # 144

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Full Access
Question # 145

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Full Access
Question # 146

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Full Access
Question # 147

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

Full Access
Question # 148

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Full Access
Question # 149

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Full Access
Question # 150

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Full Access
Question # 151

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

Full Access
Question # 152

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

Full Access
Question # 153

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

Full Access
Question # 154

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Full Access
Question # 155

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Full Access
Question # 156

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Full Access
Question # 157

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

Full Access
Question # 158

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

Full Access
Question # 159

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

Full Access
Question # 160

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Full Access
Question # 161

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 162

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

Full Access
Question # 163

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

Full Access
Question # 164

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Full Access
Question # 165

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

Full Access
Question # 166

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

Full Access
Question # 167

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Full Access
Question # 168

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

Full Access
Question # 169

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Full Access
Question # 170

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

Full Access
Question # 171

A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project. Which diagram should the project manager reference?

A.

A diagram in which resource optimization has been applied.

B.

A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.

C.

A diagram in which a predefined series of activities has been organized.

D.

A diagram which shows a combination of resource and time optimization.

Full Access
Question # 172

Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder engagement plan?

A.

Risk, resource, and communications management plans

B.

Scope, quality, and resource management plans

C.

Procurement, integration, and risk management plans

D.

Communications, schedule, and cost management plans

Full Access
Question # 173

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

Full Access
Question # 174

What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

B.

Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational process assets

Full Access
Question # 175

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

Full Access
Question # 176

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

Full Access
Question # 177

A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.

Which strategies should the project manager take into account for risk management in this environment?

A.

Occasionally identify, evaluate, and classify risks.

B.

Review requirements and cross-functional project teams.

C.

Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently.

D.

Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization.

Full Access
Question # 178

What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?

A.

Design for X (DfX)

B.

Problem solving

C.

Process analysis

D.

Risk report

Full Access
Question # 179

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

Full Access
Question # 180

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

A.

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Terms of reference

D.

Change request

Full Access
Question # 181

A project manager uses their networking skills to build agreement with a difficult stakeholder. What level of influence did the project manager apply?

A.

Project level

B.

Organizational level

C.

Industry level

D.

Influential level

Full Access
Question # 182

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

A.

Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF>

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF>

Full Access
Question # 183

A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders. What is this an example of?

A.

Informal communication

B.

Internal communication

C.

Formal communication

D.

Horizontal communication

Full Access
Question # 184

Project reporting is a tool that is most closely associated with which process?

A.

Communicate Plan

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Report Performance

D.

Control Communications

Full Access
Question # 185

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

Full Access
Question # 186

Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?

A.

Data analysis

B.

Leads and lags

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Decomposition

Full Access
Question # 187

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

Full Access
Question # 188

When project requirements are documented in user stones then prioritized and refined just prior to construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?

A.

Iterative scheduling with backlog

B.

On-demand scheduling

C.

Life cycle scheduling with backlog

D.

Defining Iterative activities

Full Access
Question # 189

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

Full Access
Question # 190

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

Full Access
Question # 191

Which tools and techniques will a project manager use to develop a project charter?

A.

Project manager experience, expert judgment, scope statement, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned database. Interpersonal and team skills, cost baseline, and meetings

C.

Expert judgment, data gathering. scope statement, schedule baseline, and meetings

D.

Expert judgment, data gathering. interpersonal and team skills, and meetings

Full Access
Question # 192

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Interpersonal skills

C.

Team agreements

D.

Communication skills

Full Access
Question # 193

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?

A.

Collective decision making

B.

Multicriteria decision analysis

C.

Mind mapping

D.

Affinity diagram

Full Access
Question # 194

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Bidder conferences

C.

Complexity of procurement

D.

Procurement management plan

Full Access
Question # 195

What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

A.

Expert judgment and data gathering

B.

Networking and storytelling

C.

Data analysis and decision making

D.

Prototypes and product analysis

Full Access
Question # 196

Match the project manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role.

Full Access
Question # 197

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

Full Access
Question # 198

Which tool should a project manager consider to deal with multiple sources of risk?

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Issue log

D.

Stakeholder register

Full Access
Question # 199

A sponsor asks a project manager to provide a project's expected total costs based on its progress. What formula should the project manager use to determine this?

A.

Earned value (EV) / actual cost (AC)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC) - AC

C.

Budget at completion (BAC) / cost performance index (CPI)

D.

EV - planned value (PV)

Full Access
Question # 200

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

Full Access
Question # 201

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project's components. What should be included in the WBS?

A.

Activity dependencies

B.

Work package risks

C.

Description of work

D.

Resource estimates

Full Access
Question # 202

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

A.

Hybrid methodologies

B.

Risk register updates

C.

Outsourced project resources

D.

Reliance on lessons learned documents

Full Access
Question # 203

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

Full Access
Question # 204

What is a tool or technique used in the Control Quality process?

A.

Attribute sampling

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Expert judgment

Full Access
Question # 205

Why is tailoring required in a project?

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.

Full Access
Question # 206

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

Full Access
Question # 207

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

Full Access
Question # 208

Which of the following are processes associated with Project Cost Management?

A.

Develop Costs. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget. Control Costs

B.

Develop Budget, Determine Budget, Determine Risks, Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs. Determine Budget. Control Costs

D.

Plan Budget Management. Determine Budget, Create Cost Accounts. Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 209

A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth /accommodate

C.

Collaborate/problem solve

D.

Compromise/ reconcile

Full Access
Question # 210

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

Full Access
Question # 211

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

A.

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.

B.

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.

C.

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.

D.

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.

Full Access
Question # 212

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?

A.

Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.

B.

Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project.

C.

Train the team members in project skill sets.

D.

Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member.

Full Access
Question # 213

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Full Access
Question # 214

Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

A.

Planning and risk management skills

B.

Communication and time management skills

C.

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.

Strategic and business management skills

Full Access
Question # 215

An important project stakeholder has low risk tolerance. Which type ot communication should a project manager use to provide this stakeholder with a difficult update?

A.

Informal conversation

B.

Face-to-face meeting

C.

Short email update

D.

Written report

Full Access
Question # 216

Company A has just been notified about a new legal requirement for its business operations. What is the classification of this item?

A.

Internal enterprise environmental factor

B.

Risk register database

C.

External enterprise environmental factor

D.

Organizational process asset

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Question # 217

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

A.

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

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Question # 218

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

A.

When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

B.

When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit

C.

When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule

D.

When they are from the same unit of the organization

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Question # 219

Directing another person to get from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors and the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well is related to?

A.

Influence and challenge

B.

Innovation and administration

C.

Leadership and management

D.

Engagement and guidance

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Question # 220

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

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Question # 221

Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?

A.

Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.

B.

Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.

C.

Create a social network and post news there.

D.

Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.

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Question # 222

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Question # 223

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?

A.

Interactive

B.

Push

C.

Verbal

D.

Oral

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Question # 224

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

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Question # 225

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

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Question # 226

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

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Question # 227

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

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Question # 228

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 229

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 230

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Question # 231

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

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Question # 232

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

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Question # 233

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

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Question # 234

The product scope description is used to:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

Full Access
Question # 235

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 236

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

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Question # 237

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Question # 238

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

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Question # 239

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Full Access
Question # 240

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 241

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

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Question # 242

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

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Question # 243

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

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Question # 244

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 245

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Question # 246

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Question # 247

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Full Access
Question # 248

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Project management processes

D.

Project scope management plan

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Question # 249

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 250

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Question # 251

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

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Question # 252

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

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Question # 253

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

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Question # 254

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Full Access
Question # 255

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

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Question # 256

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

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Question # 257

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

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Question # 258

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

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Question # 259

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Bottom-up estimating

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Question # 260

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Full Access
Question # 261

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Full Access
Question # 262

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 263

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

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Question # 264

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Full Access
Question # 265

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Full Access
Question # 266

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

Full Access
Question # 267

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Full Access
Question # 268

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Full Access
Question # 269

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

Full Access
Question # 270

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A.

negotiation

B.

organizational theory

C.

meeting

D.

networking

Full Access
Question # 271

Which process uses expert judgment to manage project resources?

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Both A and B

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Question # 272

A subject matter expert (SME) was recently assigned to a project to manage the new compliance requirement. The SME claimed that the activity's prioritization needed to change and the schedule could be cut to mitigate the effect of this new compliance need.

How should the project manager proceed?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment with the team.

C.

Update the schedule to include compliance.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

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Question # 273

Leadership and management are often used interchangeably. Which of the following is leadership more involved in?

A.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using authoritarian power

B.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using positional power

C.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using relational power

D.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using autocratic power

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Question # 274

A recently hired project manager is looking for templates to use for projects on which they will work. To what category of enterprise environmental factors should the project manager refer?

A.

Resource availability

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Academic research

D.

Corporate knowledge base

Full Access
Question # 275

What method for categorizing stakeholders is suitable for small projects with simple relationships among stakeholders'?

A.

Prioritization

B.

Directions of influence

C.

Salience model

D.

Power/influence grid

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Question # 276

During the execution of a project, a stakeholder asks a project manager whether the project is falling behind or ahead of its baseline schedule. The project manager calculates the earned value analysis (EVA) schedule variance and it comes out to be zero. Which of the following is correct about the EVA schedule variance?

A.

It is calculated incorrectly, as it cannot be zero for an in-flight project; otherwise the project is completed.

B.

Change it to a negative value to show that the project is falling behind.

C.

Zero is a perfectly valid value for an in-flight project; hence share the zero value with the stakeholder.

D.

Change it to a positive value to show that the project is ahead of its baseline schedule.

Full Access
Question # 277

A quality management plan describes how the project and product scopes are managed in accordance with which of the following items?

A.

Product sponsor's expectation of organizational quality

B.

Historical quality standards and past organizational projects

C.

Organizational quality policies, stakeholder expectations, and historical data

D.

Organizational quality policies, standards, and methodologies

Full Access
Question # 278

Which of the following does a portfolio combine?

A.

Projects, change management, and operations

B.

Projects, programs, and risks

C.

Projects, programs, and operations

D.

Operations, strategies, and business continuity

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Question # 279

What is the primary benefit of the Manage Quality process?

A.

Increases the probability of meeting quality objectives

B.

Enhances the performance of the product berg created

C.

Defines quality roles and responsibilities

D.

Ensures that the project is completed as originally planned

Full Access
Question # 280

Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?

A.

Conflict management

B.

Stakeholder mapping

C.

Advertising plan

D.

Developing team

Full Access
Question # 281

An adaptive team is working on a mobile banking application. The team conducted their sprint demo, which included 12 stories that were completed. This was the last sprint before the product was to be launched in the beta phase. One of the attendees from marketing noticed that a requested enhancement to share on social media was still in the product backlog.

Why was the product still determined to be ready for delivery?

A.

The development team ran out of time and did not pull the social media story from the backlog.

B.

The development team completed all of the stories identified by the product owner as having the highest customer value.

C.

The sprint demo went smoothly and the team did not find any open issues.

D.

The social media story is a marketing priority and less important than other priorities.

Full Access
Question # 282

The project manager is working in the Resource Management process. Which items may the project manager need to include in the team charter?

A.

Cultural norms, roles and responsibilities, and organizational chart

B.

Assumption logs, resource calendars and training schedule

C.

Communication guidelines, conflict resolution process, and team agreements

D.

Company policies, recognition plan, and roles and responsibilities

Full Access
Question # 283

How is program success measured?

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

Full Access
Question # 284

What is the equation to calculate cost variance (CV)?

A.

CV = EV / BAC

B.

CV = EV - AC

C.

CV = EV - BAC

D.

CV = EV / AC

Full Access
Question # 285

Which of the following are outputs of define scope process in project scope management

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project Scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

Full Access
Question # 286

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Full Access
Question # 287

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

Full Access
Question # 288

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

Full Access
Question # 289

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Full Access
Question # 290

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

A.

-2,000

B.

0

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Full Access
Question # 291

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

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Question # 292

The chart below is an example of a:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

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Question # 293

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

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Question # 294

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

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Question # 295

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Full Access
Question # 296

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

Full Access
Question # 297

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

Full Access
Question # 298

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Full Access
Question # 299

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Full Access
Question # 300

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

Full Access
Question # 301

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

Full Access
Question # 302

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

Full Access
Question # 303

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Full Access
Question # 304

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

Full Access
Question # 305

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Policies and procedures

C.

Project files from previous projects

D.

Lessons learned from previous projects

Full Access
Question # 306

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Full Access
Question # 307

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

Full Access
Question # 308

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

Full Access
Question # 309

A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Stakeholder participation.

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Full Access
Question # 310

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

Full Access
Question # 311

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Full Access
Question # 312

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Full Access
Question # 313

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

Full Access
Question # 314

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Full Access
Question # 315

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 316

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

Full Access
Question # 317

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Full Access
Question # 318

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

Full Access
Question # 319

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Question # 320

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Question # 321

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 322

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

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Question # 323

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 324

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

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Question # 325

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

A.

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.

Contain the standard activity list.

C.

Document and support the project change requests.

D.

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

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Question # 326

Which item is a cost of conformance?

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

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Question # 327

High-level project risks are included in which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

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Question # 328

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

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Question # 329

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

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Question # 330

Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Project reports

B.

Issue log

C.

Lessons learned documentation

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 331

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

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Question # 332

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Question # 333

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

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Question # 334

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Question # 335

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Question # 336

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Question # 337

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Question # 338

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

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Question # 339

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

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Question # 340

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

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Question # 341

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

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Question # 342

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 343

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

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Question # 344

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

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Question # 345

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Question # 346

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Question # 347

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Question # 348

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Question # 349

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Question # 350

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

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Question # 351

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 352

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Question # 353

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

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Question # 354

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Question # 355

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

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Question # 356

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Question # 357

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

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Question # 358

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

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Question # 359

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

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Question # 360

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Question # 361

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Question # 362

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Question # 363

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 364

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Question # 365

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Question # 366

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

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Question # 367

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Question # 368

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Question # 369

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Question # 370

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Question # 371

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Question # 372

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

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Question # 373

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Question # 374

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Question # 375

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Question # 376

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

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Question # 377

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Question # 378

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 379

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 380

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

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Question # 381

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

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Question # 382

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 383

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Question # 384

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

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Question # 385

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Question # 386

During project selection, which factor is most important?

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

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Question # 387

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

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Question # 388

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Question # 389

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

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Question # 390

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 391

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

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Question # 392

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Question # 393

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Question # 394

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 395

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Question # 396

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

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Question # 397

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Question # 398

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Question # 399

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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