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4A0-205 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

What is the OAMP LAN interface?

A.

It is an RJ-45 interface (a common Ethernet port) used for cascading 1830 PSS nodes (e.g., external shelves)

B.

It is an RJ-45 interface (a common Ethernet port) that has to be configured with an IP address for node reachability and management

C.

It is an RJ-45 interface (common Ethernet port) used to connect one or more client ports (e.g., 1Gb/s or legacy 100Mbit/s client flows)

D.

It is an RJ-45 interface (a common Ethernet port) used to export active alarms to an external device, typically equipped with several LEDs

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Question # 7

What is the definition of OSNR?

A.

The OSNR is defined as the ratio between the transmitted optical power and the received optical power over 1 km of fiber including both signal and optical noise.

B.

The OSNR is the ratio between the optical output signal power and the optical input signal power of the device being analyzed.

C.

The OSNR is defined as the ratio between the average optical signal power and the average optical noise power over a specific spectral bandwidth.

D.

The OSNR is defined as the ratio between the optical signal power (including noise) and the optical noise power over a specific spectral bandwidth.

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Question # 8

What is an optical switch?

A.

A device that selectively transfers an optical signal from one port to another.

B.

A device that groups multiple lambdas in one multiplexed signal.

C.

A device that selectively transfers an optical ODU frame from one port to another.

D.

A device that converts optical signal to electrical to allow switching through the electrical matrix, and then again to optical towards the next card (and versa).

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Question # 9

What is the meaning of demand in EPT?

A.

Demand refers to the amount of OTN interfaces within a single network element.

B.

Demand refers to the required capacity of a single network element in terms of bandwidth.

C.

Demand refers to the required number of trails to be automatically created to meet design requirements.

D.

Demand refers to one or more client signal.

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Question # 10

How can a mesh network be upgraded so that more services can be transported?

A.

Configuring new WSS cards is the most effective way to give flexibility and network bandwidth to an existing mesh network.

B.

The Protection and Restoration Combined (PRC) mechanism can enable more bandwidth but only for the protected services.

C.

Upgrading the network to coherent transmission is the only effective way to enable more bandwidth to the existing mesh network.

D.

Upgrading link capacity and/or installing new links provides more bandwidth to the existing mesh network.

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Question # 11

What is the purpose of the NFM-T node synchronization?

A.

The partial or full node synchronization allows several entities/items defined at node level to be retrieved into the NFM-T database (upload).

B.

The partial or full node synchronization allows several entities/items defined at NFM-T level to be written into the node database (download).

C.

The partial or full node synchronization allows several entities/items defined at EPT level to be retrieved into the NFM-T database (upload from design).

D.

The partial or full node synchronization allows several entities/items defined at NFM-T level to be exported into an XML file, to be used as input for EPT (download to design).

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Question # 12

Which of the following statements best describes the definition of PCT?

A.

A tool supporting nodes' automatic provisioning on NFM-T.

B.

A tool to validate internal fiber connectivity on CDC-F 2.0 nodes.

C.

A tool supporting zero-touch power management on PSS-32 equipment.

D.

A tool supporting external links autodiscovery on NFM-T.

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Question # 13

What is the meaning of first, second, and third window in the optical fiber propagation context?

A.

These windows correspond to three different minimum and maximum optical power levels used for optical transmission.

B.

These windows are three different wavelength intervals where the WDM optical transmission occurs.

C.

These three windows are three different angles of incidence of the light injected by the laser into the fiber.

D.

Different optical transmission windows correspond to different safety requirements and rules for the related lasers operating with these windows.

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Question # 14

Which of the following statements about the contentionless feature on a CDC-F node is TRUE?

A.

It represents the ability to support the Fixed Grid standard.

B.

It represents the ability to drop any lambda from any Add/Drop block port.

C.

It represents the ability to reroute lambdas to any direction.

D.

It represents the ability to drop the same wavelength from different degrees.

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Question # 15

What is the function of a pre-amplifier in an optical network?

A.

Through the pre-amplifier, the optical signal is amplified at the receiver side after it travels along the fiber from another node.

B.

Through the pre-amplifier, the optical signal is amplified at the transmitter side before it is sent to the line span.

C.

Through the pre-amplifier, the optical signal is amplified both the receiver side and at the transmitter side.

D.

Through the pre-amplifier, the optical signal is amplified within the node internally to recover internal losses due, for instance, to cascaded filters.

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Question # 16

A user needs to retrieve the active alarm list from a network element. Which command should be issued through an 1830 PSS CLI?

A.

alm

B.

display alarms

C.

show active alarms

D.

retrieve alarms

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Question # 17

Which mechanisms can be put in place to increase network survivability?

A.

Protection, where backup resources are pre-allocated and reserved; or restoration, where each trail can be recovered thanks to a 1+1 protection mechanism

B.

Protection, where backup resources are allocated upon failure; or restoration, where each trail can be recovered thanks to a 1+1 protection mechanism

C.

Protection, where backup resources are allocated upon failure; or restoration, where backup resources are pre-allocated and reserved

D.

Protection, where backup resources are pre-allocated and reserved; or restoration, where backup resources are allocated upon failure.

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