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IIA-CRMA Questions and Answers

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IIA-CRMA Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following is not a standard technique that the chief audit executive (CAE) would use to provide evidence of supervisory review of working papers?

A.

The CAE initials and dates every working paper after it has been reviewed.

B.

The CAE completes an engagement working paper checklist.

C.

The CAE prepares a memorandum discussing the results of the working paper review.

D.

The CAE utilizes an external third party to make an objective recommendation after each working paper review.

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Question # 7

A new chief audit executive (CAE) of a large internal audit activity (IAA) is dissatisfied with the current amount and quality of training being provided to the staff and wishes to implement improvements. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions would best help the CAE reach this objective?

A.

Require that all staff obtain a minimum of two relevant audit certifications.

B.

Perform a gap analysis of the IAA's existing knowledge, skills and competencies.

C.

Engage a consultant to benchmark the IAA's training program against its peers.

D.

Assign one experienced manager to better coordinate staff training and development activities.

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Question # 8

Which of the following is the most effective strategy to manage the risk of foreign exchange losses due to sales to foreign customers?

A.

Hire a risk consultant.

B.

Implement a hedging strategy.

C.

Maintain a large foreign currency balance.

D.

Insist that customers only pay in a stable currency.

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Question # 9

A credit card company detects potential errors in credit card numbers by checking whether all entered numbers contain the correct amount of digits. This is an example of which of the following IT controls?

A.

Logic test.

B.

Check digits.

C.

Data integrity tests.

D.

Balancing control activities.

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Question # 10

Which of the following would be the most appropriate first step for the board to take when developing an effective system of governance?

A.

Determine the organization's overall risk appetite.

B.

Establish a governance committee.

C.

Delegate authority to members of senior management.

D.

Identify key stakeholders and their expectations.

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Question # 11

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

A.

A monitoring process.

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process.

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Question # 12

A manufacturing organization discovers that the waste water released has failed to meet permitted limits.

Which control function will be least effective in correcting the issue?

A.

Performing a chemical analysis of the water, prior to discharge, for components specified in the permit.

B.

Posting signs that tell employees which substances may be disposed of via sinks and floor drains within the facility.

C.

Diluting pollutants by flushing sinks and floor drains daily with large volumes of clean water.

D.

Establishing a preventive maintenance program for the pretreatment system.

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Question # 13

Which of the following is a weakness of observation as audit evidence?

A.

It cannot be used to test the completeness assertion.

B.

It cannot be used to test the existence assertion.

C.

It cannot be used to test the occurrence assertion.

D.

It cannot be relied upon because the evidence is not persuasive.

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Question # 14

Which of the following activities should the chief audit executive perform to ensure compliance with an organization's code of conduct?

A.

Act as an adviser to the committee responsible for reviewing violations of the code.

B.

Review and adjudicate all violations of the code of conduct.

C.

Lead the committee responsible for the oversight of the code.

D.

Implement a system of procedures to inform all employees of the code.

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Question # 15

Which of the following statements accurately describes an internal auditor's responsibility with regard to due professional care?

A.

An internal auditor should express an opinion only when consensus with top management has been achieved.

B.

An internal auditor's opinion should be based on experience and free of all bias.

C.

An internal auditor's opinion should be based on factual evidence.

D.

An internal auditor's opinion should be limited to the effectiveness of internal controls.

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Question # 16

What is the primary benefit to the internal audit activity for undertaking an internal quality assessment?

A.

To help the internal audit activity complete its annual assurance plan.

B.

To identify inefficiencies within the internal audit team.

C.

To help improve the overall quality of the internal audit activity's work.

D.

To identify key risks and areas of concern within the organization.

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Question # 17

A fraud investigation was completed by management, and a proven fraud was communicated to relevant authorities. According to MA guidance, which of the following roles would be most appropriate for the internal audit activity to undertake after the investigation?

A.

Plan employee sessions and team building strategies for the organization to improve awareness of fraud among employees.

B.

Review the investigation and implement any improvements to the process.

C.

Conduct lessons learned sessions to ascertain how the fraud occurred and which controls failed.

D.

Determine why The fraud was not detected earlier and design controls to strengthen early detection.

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Question # 18

Which of the following types of social responsibilities is voluntary and guided purely by the organization's desire to make social contributions?

A.

The bottom of the pyramid responsibility.

B.

Innovative responsibility.

C.

Ethical responsibility.

D.

Discretionary responsibility.

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Question # 19

A chief audit executive (CAE) learns that the brother-in-law of a senior auditor who audits the procurement process was hired as the head of the procurement department six months prior. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

A.

The CAE should not interfere because there is no evidence that a conflict of interest has occurred.

B.

The CAE should remind the senior auditor of his obligation to be objective and impartial.

C.

The CAE should change the senior auditor's assignment and take corrective action for the auditor's failure to disclose the conflict of interest.

D.

The CAE should require the senior auditor to disclose the relationship in writing before continuing his responsibility for monitoring procurement.

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Question # 20

Which of the following is the most significant disadvantage of using checklists to evaluate internal controls?

A.

They serve as a reminder of what controls should exist in a process.

B.

They require yes/no responses to specific questions, not open-ended responses.

C.

They do not capture all controls that may exist.

D.

They are useful in assessing risk.

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Question # 21

Which type of objectives can best be described as broad goals that promote the effective and efficient use of resources?

A.

Strategic objectives.

B.

Operational objectives.

C.

Reporting objectives.

D.

Compliance objectives.

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Question # 22

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes processes and tools typically used in ongoing internal assessments?

A.

Benchmarking of the internal audit activity's practices and performance.

B.

Report of internal assessment results, response plans, and outcomes.

C.

Analysis of performance metrics such as cycle times.

D.

Self-assessments and surveys of stakeholder groups.

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Question # 23

While reviewing the workpapers of a new auditor, the auditor in charge discovered that additional audit procedures might be necessary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be most relevant for the auditor in charge to consider when making this decision?

A.

Resource management.

B.

Coordination.

C.

Due professional care.

D.

Engagement supervision.

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Question # 24

An internal audit manager of a furniture manufacturing organization is planning an audit of the procurement process for kiln-dried wood. The procurement department maintains six procurement officers to manage 24 different suppliers used by the organization.

Which of the following controls would best mitigate the risk of employees receiving kickbacks from suppliers?

A.

The periodic rotation of procurement officers' assignments to supplier accounts.

B.

A pre-award financial capacity analysis of suppliers.

C.

An automated computer report, organized by supplier, of any invoices for the same amount.

D.

Periodic inventories of kiln-dried wood at the organization's warehouse.

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Question # 25

According to the HA Code of Ethics, which of the following statements best describes the principle of competency?

A.

Internal auditors shall perform their work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility.

B.

Internal auditors shall perform their work in accordance with the Standards.

C.

Internal auditors shall perform their work in accordance with the law and make disclosures expected by the law.

D.

Internal auditors shall be prudent in the use of information acquired while performing their work.

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Question # 26

Which of the following control activities is the most effective to ensure users' levels of access are appropriate for their current roles?

A.

The human resources department generates a monthly list of terminated and transferred employees and requests IT to update the user access as required.

B.

Standardized user access profiles are developed and the appropriate access profiles are automatically assigned to new or transferred employees.

C.

System administrator rights are assigned to one user in each department who can update user access of terminated or transferred employees immediately.

D.

Department managers are required to perform periodic user access reviews of relevant systems and applications.

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Question # 27

Which of the following items should the chief audit executive disclose to senior management regarding the results of the internal audit activity's quality assessments?

A.

The internal audit activity's plan for resource allocation.

B.

The amount of the organization's potential loss prevented by the risk-based auditing of the internal audit activity.

C.

The number of audits from the annual internal audit plan that were completed last year.

D.

The qualifications and independence of the assessment Team.

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Question # 28

According to IIA guidance, the results of a formal quality assessment should be reported to which of the following groups?

A.

The audit committee and senior management.

B.

The audit committee and the external auditors.

C.

Senior management and management of the audited area.

D.

Senior management and the external auditors.

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Question # 29

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

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Question # 30

According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes the activity that helps ensure risk responses are carried out effectively?

A.

Objective setting.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Event identification.

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Question # 31

An IT contractor applied for an internal audit position at a bank. The contractor worked for the bank's IT security manager two years ago. If the audit manager interviewed the contractor and wants to extend a job offer, which of the following actions should the chief audit executive pursue?

A.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and state that the individual is free to perform IT audits, including security.

B.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, as it would be a conflict of interest.

C.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, but state that the individual is not allowed to work on IT security audits for one year.

D.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and ask the individual to apply again in one year.

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Question # 32

Reviewing prior audit reports and supporting workpapers before an engagement starts enables an internal auditor to do which of the following?

1. To understand better the activity and processes that will be audited.

2. To identify the audit procedures that will be used during the engagement.

3. To ensure that matters of greatest vulnerability will be addressed.

4. To use the information obtained as evidence in the current engagement.

A.

4 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Question # 33

According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles would be appropriate for an internal auditor regarding fraud risk?

1. Identification.

2. Mitigation.

3. Remediation.

4. Reduction.

A.

1 only. |

B.

1 and 4 only.

C.

1, 3, and 4 only.

D.

1,2, 3, and 4.

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Question # 34

While attending a conference, an internal auditor won an all-expense paid trip sponsored by a vendor of the internal auditor's organization.

Which of the following actions are most appropriate for the auditor to take?

A.

Consult with an immediate supervisor and notify the organization's audit committee.

B.

Consult with an immediate supervisor and review the organization's ethics policy.

C.

Give the prize to a friend or family member and notitfy the organization's audit committee.

D.

Give the prize to a friend or family member and review the organization's ethics policy.

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Question # 35

A computer system automatically locks a user's account after three unsuccessful attempts to log on.

Which type of control does this scenario represent?

A.

Corrective control.

B.

Preventive control.

C.

Detective control.

D.

Compensating control.

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Question # 36

The internal audit supervisor is reviewing the workpapers prepared by the staff. According to the Standards, which of the following statements regarding workpaper supervision is not true?

A.

Review notes of questions that arise during the review process must be retained.

B.

Dating and initialing each workpaper provides evidence of review.

C.

Workpaper review allows for staff training and development.

D.

Workpapers may be amended during the review process.

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Question # 37

During an account receivables audit, an internal auditor found a significant number of input errors resulting in a $500, 000 balance understatement.

Which of the following is the most important question the internal auditor should ask to develop an appropriate recommendation for this finding?

A.

Who?

B.

How?

C.

Why?

D.

When?

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Question # 38

A chief audit executive (CAE) of an international charity reports functionally to the audit committee of the board of directors and administratively to the charity's chief financial officer (CFO).

Which of the following would impair the internal audit function's independence?

A.

The CFO determines the scope of internal audit work in the accounting department.

B.

The CFO manages the accounting of the budget for the internal audit function.

C.

The CFO administers the annual evaluation process for the internal auditors.

D.

The CFO provides feedback on the CAE's audit reports.

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Question # 39

Which of the following is a valid statement about the use of visual observations during an audit engagement?

1. Visual observations can be used to detect ineffective controls, idle resources, and safety hazards.

2. Visual observations can be used during both preliminary survey and fieldwork stages of the audit engagement.

3. Visual observations can provide unsubstantiated facts to management if the internal auditor believes the information is useful.

4. Visual observations can assist an auditor in determining if a material observation should be communicated through informal means to the organization’s senior management.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Question # 40

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies a potential internal control weakness?

A.

The same employee who receives cash from customers prepares a prelisting of cash receipts.

B.

The same employee who records cash receipts in the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger ensures that the ledger automatically updates the information.

C.

The same employee who restrictively endorses checks received from customers prepares the bank's check deposit slips.

D.

The same employee who makes deposits at the bank prepares the monthly bank reconciliation.

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Question # 41

According to The MA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework, which of the following areas of training would best assist the internal audit activity in improving its use of tools and techniques?

A.

Negotiation and conflict resolution.

B.

Project management.

C.

Financial accounting.

D.

Ethics and fraud.

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Question # 42

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of results from an external quality assessment of the internal audit activity?

A.

The external assessment results are reported upon completion in confidence directly to the board, and senior management is advised only of the recommendations and improvement action plans.

B.

The results of self-assessments with independent external validation are shared with the board upon completion, and monitoring of recommended improvements must be reported monthly.

C.

The external assessment results are communicated upon completion to senior management and the board, but action plans for recommended improvements do not have to be reported.

D.

The requirements for reporting quality assessment results are the same for external assessments and self-assessments with independent external validation.

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