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CMMC-CCP Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which assessment method describes the process of reviewing, inspecting, observing, studying, or analyzing assessment objects (i.e., specification, mechanisms, activities)?

A.

Test

B.

Assess

C.

Examine

D.

Interview

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Question # 7

Exercising due care to ensure the information gathered during the assessment is protected even after the engagement has ended meets which code of conduct requirement?

A.

Availability

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Information Integrity

D.

Respect for Intellectual Property

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Question # 8

A client uses an external cloud-based service to store, process, or transmit data that is reasonably believed to qualify as CUI. According to DFARS clause 252.204-7012. what set of established security requirements MUST that cloud provider meet?

A.

FedRAMP Low

B.

FedRAMP Moderate

C.

FedRAMP High

D.

FedRAMP Secure

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Question # 9

Which statement BEST describes an assessor's evidence gathering activities?

A.

Use interviews for assessing a Level 2 practice.

B.

Test all practices or objectives for a Level 2 practice

C.

Test certain assessment objectives to determine findings.

D.

Use examinations, interviews, and tests to gather sufficient evidence.

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Question # 10

SC.L2-3 13.14: Control and monitor the use of VoIP technologies is marked as NOT APPLICABLE for an OSC's assessment. How does this affect the assessment scope?

A.

Any existing telephone system is in scope even if it is not using VoIP technology.

B.

An error has been made and the Lead Assessor should be contacted to correct the error.

C.

VoIP technology is within scope, and it uses FlPS-validated encryption, so it does not need to be assessed.

D.

VoIP technology is not used within scope boundary, so no assessment procedures are specified for this practice.

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Question # 11

At which CMMC Level do the Security Assessment (CA) practices begin?

A.

Level 1

B.

Level 2

C.

Level 3

D.

Level 4

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Question # 12

While determining the scope for a company's CMMC Level 1 Self-Assessment, the contract administrator includes the hosting providers that manage their IT infrastructure. Which asset type BEST describes the third-party organization?

A.

ESPs

B.

People

C.

Facilities

D.

Technology

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Question # 13

An OSC lead has provided company information, identified that they are seeking CMMC Level 2, stated that they handle FCI. identified stakeholders, and provided assessment logistics. The OSC has provided the company's cyber hygiene practices that are posted on every workstation, visitor logs, and screenshots of the configuration of their FedRAMP-approved applications. The OSC has not won any DoD government contracts yet but is working on two proposals Based on this information, which statement BEST describes the CMMC Level 2 Assessment requirements?

A.

Ready because there is no need to certify this company until after they win a DoD contract.

B.

Not ready because the OSC is not on contract because they do not know the scope of FCI protection required by the contract.

C.

Not ready because the OSC still lacks artifacts that prove they have implemented all the CMMC Level 2 Assessment requirements.

D.

Ready because all DoD contractors are required to achieve CMMC Level 2; therefore, they are being proactive in seeking certification.

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Question # 14

A Lead Assessor is ensuring all actions have been completed to conclude a Level 2 Assessment. The final Assessment Results Package has been properly reviewed and is ready to be uploaded. What other materials is the Lead Assessor responsible for maintaining and protecting?

A.

Any additional notes and information from the Assessment

B.

A final assessment plan, and a Quality Control report from C3PAO

C.

A final assessment plan, and a letter from the Lead Assessor explaining the process

D.

A final assessment plan, a letter from the Lead Assessor explaining the results, and a Quality Control report from C3PAO

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Question # 15

A test or demonstration is being performed for the Assessment Team during an assessment. Which environment MUST the OSC perform this test or demonstration?

A.

Client

B.

Production

C.

Development

D.

Demonstration

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Question # 16

When assessing SI.L1-3.14.2: Provide protection from malicious code at appropriate locations within organizational information systems, evidence shows that all of the OSC's workstations and servers have antivirus software installed for malicious code protection. A centralized console for the antivirus software management is in place and records show that all devices have received the most updated antivirus patterns. What is the BEST determination that the Lead Assessor should reach regarding the evidence?

A.

It is sufficient, and the audit finding can be rated as MET.

B.

It is insufficient, and the audit finding can be rated NOT MET.

C.

It is sufficient, and the Lead Assessor should seek more evidence.

D.

It is insufficient, and the Lead Assessor should seek more evidence.

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Question # 17

An assessor has been working with an OSC's point of contact to plan and prepare for their upcoming assessment. What is one of the MOST important things to remember when analyzing requirements for an assessment?

A.

Scoping an assessment is easy and worry-free.

B.

The initial plan cannot be changed once agreed upon.

C.

There is a determined amount of time that the OSC's point of contact has to submit evidence and rough order-of-magnitude.

D.

Assessors need to continuously review and update the requirements and plan for the assessment as information is gathered.

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Question # 18

Where can a listing of all federal agencies' CUI indices and categories be found?

A.

32 CFR Section 2002

B.

Official CUI Registry

C.

Executive Order 13556

D.

Official CMMC Registry

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Question # 19

An OSC has requested a C3PAO to conduct a Level 2 Assessment. The C3PAO has agreed, and the two organizations have collaborated to develop the Assessment Plan. Who agrees to and signs off on the Assessment Plan?

A.

OSC and Sponsor

B.

OSC and CMMC-AB

C.

Lead Assessor and C3PAO

D.

C3PAO and Assessment Official

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Question # 20

In preparation for a CMMC Level 1 Self-Assessment, the IT manager for a DIB organization is documenting asset types in the company's SSP The manager determines that identified machine controllers and assembly machines should be documented as Specialized Assets. Which type of Specialized Assets has the manager identified and documented?

A.

loT

B.

Restricted IS

C.

Test equipment

D.

Operational technology

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Question # 21

How does the CMMC define a practice?

A.

A business transaction

B.

A condition arrived at by experience or exercise

C.

A series of changes taking place in a defined manner

D.

An activity or activities performed to meet defined CMMC objectives

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Question # 22

What is objectivity as it applies to activities with the CMMC-AB?

A.

Ensuring full disclosure

B.

Reporting results of CMMC services completely

C.

Avoiding the appearance of or actual, conflicts of interest

D.

Demonstrating integrity in the use of materials as described in policy

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Question # 23

A contractor has implemented IA.L2-3.5.3: Multifactor Authentication practice for their privileged users, however, during the assessment it was discovered that the OSC's standard users do not require MFA to access their endpoints and network resources. What would be the BEST finding?

A.

The process is running correctly.

B.

It is out of scope as this is a new acquisition.

C.

The new acquisition is considered Specialized Assets.

D.

Practice is NOT MET since the objective was not implemented.

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Question # 24

Evidence gathered from an OSC is being reviewed. Based on the assessment and organizational scope, the Lead Assessor requests the Assessment Team to verify that the coverage by domain, practice. Host Unit. Supporting Organization/Unit, and enclaves are comprehensive enough to rate against each practice. Which criteria is the assessor referring to?

A.

Adequacy

B.

Capability

C.

Sufficiency

D.

Objectivity

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Question # 25

On a Level 2 Assessment Team, what are the roles of the CCP and the CCA?

A.

The CCP leads the Level 2 Assessment Team, which consists of one or more CCAs.

B.

The CCA leads the Level 2 Assessment Team, which can include 3 CCP with US Citizenship.

C.

The CCA leads the Level 2 Assessment Team, which can include a CCP regardless of citizenship.

D.

The CCP leads the Level 2 Assessment Team, which can include a CCA. regardless of citizenship.

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Question # 26

A cyber incident is discovered that affects a covered contractor IS and the CDI residing therein. How long does the contractor have to inform the DoD?

A.

24 hours

B.

48 hours

C.

72 hours

D.

96 hours

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Question # 27

An assessor is collecting affirmations. So far, the assessor has collected interviews, demonstrations, emails, messaging, and presentations. Are these appropriate approaches to collecting affirmations?

A.

No, emails are not appropriate affirmations.

B.

No, messaging is not an appropriate affirmation.

C.

Yes, the affirmations collected by the assessor are all appropriate.

D.

Yes, the affirmations collected by the assessor are all appropriate, as are screenshots.

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Question # 28

In scoping a CMMC Level 1 Self-Assessment, it is determined that an ESP employee has access to FCI. What is the ESP employee considered?

A.

In scope

B.

Out of scope

C.

OSC point of contact

D.

Assessment Team Member

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Question # 29

The practices in CMMC Level 2 consist of the security requirements specified in:

A.

NIST SP 800-53

B.

NIST SP 800-171

C.

48 CFR 52.204-21

D.

DFARS 252.204-7012

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Question # 30

The Audit and Accountability (AU) domain has practices in:

A.

Level 1.

B.

Level 2.

C.

Levels 1 and 2.

D.

Levels 1 and 3.

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Question # 31

An employee is the primary system administrator for an OSC. The employee will be a core part of the assessment, as they perform most of the duties in managing and maintaining the systems. What would the employee be BEST categorized as?

A.

Analyzer

B.

Inspector

C.

Applicable staff

D.

Demonstration staff

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Question # 32

A Lead Assessor and an OSC's Assessment Official have agreed to have the Assessment results presented during the final Daily Checkpoint of the OSC's CMMC Level 2 Assessment. Which document MUST the Lead Assessor use to present assessment findings to the OSC?

A.

CMMC POA&M Brief

B.

CMMC Findings Brief

C.

CMMC Assessment Tracker Tool

D.

CMMC Recommended Findings template

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Question # 33

The Advanced Level in CMMC will contain Access Control (AC) practices from:

A.

Level 1

B.

Level 3

C.

Levels 1 and 2

D.

Levels 1, 2, and 3

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Question # 34

A Lead Assessor is preparing to conduct a Readiness Review during Phase 1 of the Assessment Process. How much evidence MUST be gathered for each practice?

A.

A sufficient amount

B.

At least 2 Assessment Objects

C.

Evidence that is deemed adequate

D.

Evidence to support at least 2 Assessment Methods

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Question # 35

The director of sales, in a meeting, stated that the sales team received feedback on some emails that were sent, stating that the emails were not marked correctly. Which training should the director of sales refer the sales team to regarding information as to how to mark emails?

A.

FBI CUI Introduction to Marking

B.

NARA CUI Introduction to Marking

C.

C3PAO CUI Introduction to Marking

D.

CMMC-AB CUI Introduction to Marking

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Question # 36

Which training is a CCI authorized to deliver through an approved CMMC LTP?

A.

CMMC-AB approved training

B.

DoD DFARS and CMMC-AB approved training

C.

NARA CUI training and CMMC-AB approved training

D.

DoD DFARS, NARA CUI, and CMMC-AB approved training

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Question # 37

Where does the requirement to include a required practice of ensuring that personnel are trained to carry out their assigned information security-related duties and responsibilities FIRST appear?

A.

Level 1

B.

Level 2

C.

Level 3

D.

All levels

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Question # 38

Which standard and regulation requirements are the CMMC Model 2.0 based on?

A.

NIST SP 800-171 and NIST SP 800-172

B.

DFARS, FIPS 100, and NIST SP 800-171

C.

DFARS, NIST, and Carnegie Mellon University

D.

DFARS, FIPS 100, NIST SP 800-171, and Carnegie Mellon University

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Question # 39

An organization that manufactures night vision cameras is looking for help to address the gaps identified in physical access control systems. Which certified individual should they approach for implementation support?

A.

CCA of the C3PAO performing the assessment

B.

RP of an organization not part of the assessment

C.

Practitioner of the organization performing the assessment LTP

D.

DoD Contract Official of the organization performing the assessment

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Question # 40

Which CMMC Levels focus on protecting CUI from exfiltration?

A.

Levels 1 and 2

B.

Levels 1 and 3

C.

Levels 2 and 3

D.

Levels 1, 2, and 3

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Question # 41

Within how many days from the Assessment Final Recommended Findings Brief should the Lead Assessor and Assessment Team Members, if necessary, review the accuracy and validity of (he OSC's updated POA&M with any accompanying evidence or scheduled collections?

A.

90 days

B.

180 days

C.

270 days

D.

360 days

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Question # 42

An Assessment Team is conducting interviews with team members about their roles and responsibilities. The team member responsible for maintaining the antivirus program knows that it was deployed but has very little knowledge on how it works. Is this adequate for the practice?

A.

Yes, the antivirus program is available, so it is sufficient.

B.

Yes, antivirus programs are automated to run independently.

C.

No, the team member must know how the antivirus program is deployed and maintained.

D.

No, the team member's interview answers about deployment and maintenance are insufficient.

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Question # 43

During an assessment, which phase of the process identifies conflicts of interest?

A.

Analyze requirements.

B.

Develop assessment plan.

C.

Verify readiness to conduct assessment.

D.

Generate final recommended assessment results.

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Question # 44

Which words summarize categories of data disposal described in the NIST SP 800-88 Revision 1. Guidelines for Media Sanitation?

A.

Clear, purge, destroy

B.

Clear redact, destroy

C.

Clear, overwrite, purge

D.

Clear, overwrite, destroy

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Question # 45

In performing scoping, what should the assessor ensure that the scope of the assessment covers?

A.

All assets documented in the business plan

B.

All assets regardless if they do or do not process, store, or transmit FCI/CUI

C.

All entities, regardless of the line of business, associated with the organization

D.

All assets processing, storing, or transmitting FCI/CUI and security protection assets

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Question # 46

Which term describes the prevention of damage to. protection of, and restoration of computers and electronic communications systems/services, including information contained therein, to ensure its availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and nonrepudiation?

A.

Cybersecurity

B.

Data security

C.

Network security

D.

Information security

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Question # 47

Which domain has a practice requiring an organization to restrict, disable, or prevent the use of nonessential programs?

A.

Access Control (AC)

B.

Media Protection (MP)

C.

Asset Management (AM)

D.

Configuration Management (CM)

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Question # 48

The results package for a Level 2 Assessment is being submitted. What MUST a Final Report. CMMC Assessment Results include?

A.

Affirmation for each practice or control

B.

Documented rationale for each failed practice

C.

Suggested improvements for each failed practice

D.

Gaps or deltas due to any reciprocity model are recorded as met

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Question # 49

A Level 2 Assessment was conducted for an OSC, and the results are ready to be submitted. Prior to uploading the assessment results, what step MUST the C3PAO complete?

A.

Pay an assessment submission fee.

B.

Complete an internal review of the results.

C.

Notify the CMMC-AB that submission is forthcoming.

D.

Coordinate a final briefing between the Lead Assessor and the OSC.

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Question # 50

A C3PAO has completed a Limited Practice Deficiency Correction Evaluation following an assessment of an OSC. The Lead Assessor has recommended moving deficiencies to a POA&M. but the OSC will remain on an Interim Certification. What is the MINIMUM number of practices that must be scored as MET to initiate this course of action?

A.

80 practices

B.

88 practices

C.

100 practices

D.

110 practices

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Question # 51

An assessment procedure consists of an assessment objective, potential assessment methods, and assessment objects. Which statement is part of an assessment objective?

A.

Specifications and mechanisms

B.

Examination, interviews, and testing

C.

Determination statement related to the practice

D.

Exercising assessment objects under specified conditions

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Question # 52

Two network administrators are working together to determine a network configuration in preparation for CMMC. The administrators find that they disagree on a couple of small items. Which solution is the BEST way to ensure compliance with CMMC?

A.

Consult with the CEO of the company.

B.

Consult the CMMC Assessment Guides and NIST SP 800-171.

C.

Go with the network administrator's ideas with the least stringent controls.

D.

Go with the network administrator's ideas with the most stringent controls.

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Question # 53

While conducting a CMMC Assessment, an individual from the OSC provides documentation to the assessor for review. The documentation states an incident response capability is established and contains information on incident preparation, detection, analysis, containment, recovery, and user response activities. Which CMMC practice is this documentation attesting to?

A.

IR.L2-3.6.1: Incident Handling

B.

IR.L2-3.6.2: Incident Reporting

C.

IR.L2-3.6.3: Incident Response Testing

D.

IR.L2-3.6.4: Incident Spillage

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Question # 54

A server is used to store FCI with a cloud provider long-term. What is the server considered?

A.

In scope, because the cloud provider will be storing the FCI data

B.

Out of scope, because the cloud provider stores the FCI data long-term

C.

In scope, because the cloud provider is required to be CMMC Level 2 certified

D.

Out of scope, because encryption is always used when the cloud provider stores the FCI data

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Question # 55

Which NIST SP defines the Assessment Procedure leveraged by the CMMC?

A.

NIST SP 800-53

B.

NISTSP800-53a

C.

NIST SP 800-171

D.

NISTSP800-171a

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Question # 56

What is the MINIMUM required marking for a document containing CUI?

A.

"CUI" must be placed in the header and footer of the document

B.

"WCUI" must be placed in the header and footer of the document

C.

Portion marks must be placed on all sections, parts, paragraphs, etc. known to contain CUI

D.

A cover page must be placed to obscure content with the acronym "CUI" prominently placed

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Question # 57

A company has a government services division and a commercial services division. The government services division interacts exclusively with federal clients and regularly receives FCI. The commercial services division interacts exclusively with non-federal clients and processes only publicly available information. For this company's CMMC Level 1 Self-Assessment, how should the assets supporting the commercial services division be categorized?

A.

FCI Assets

B.

Specialized Assets

C.

Out-of-Scope Assets

D.

Operational Technology Assets

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Question # 58

When are data and documents with legacy markings from or for the DoD required to be re-marked or redacted?

A.

When under the control of the DoD

B.

When the document is considered secret

C.

When a document is being shared outside of the organization

D.

When a derivative document's original information is not CUI

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Question # 59

When assessing SI.L2-3.14.6: Monitor communications for attack, the CCA interviews the person responsible for the intrusion detection system and examines relevant policies and procedures for monitoring organizational systems. What would be a possible next step the CCA could conduct to gather sufficient evidence?

A.

Conduct a penetration test

B.

Interview the intrusion detection system's supplier.

C.

Upload known malicious code and observe the system response.

D.

Review an artifact to check key references for the configuration of the IDS or IPS practice for additional guidance on intrusion detection and prevention systems.

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Question # 60

An OSC receives an email with "CUI//SP-PRVCY//FED Only" in the body of the message Which organization's website should the OSC go to identify what this marking means?

A.

NARA

B.

CMMC-AB

C.

DoD Contractors FAQ page

D.

DoD 239.7601 Definitions page

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Question # 61

What is DFARS clause 252.204-7012 required for?

A.

All DoD solicitations and contracts

B.

Solicitations and contracts that use FAR part 12 procedures

C.

Procurements solely for the acquisition of commercial off-the-shelf

D.

Commercial off-the-shelf sold in the marketplace without modifications

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Question # 62

In many organizations, the protection of FCI includes devices that are used to scan physical documentation into digital form and print physical copies of digital FCI. What technical control can be used to limit multi-function device (MFD) access to only the systems authorized to access the MFD?

A.

Virtual LAN restrictions

B.

Single administrative account

C.

Documentation showing MFD configuration

D.

Access lists only known to the IT administrator

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