SY0-601 Questions and Answers

The most likely cause of the issue is that the S/MIME plug-in is not enabled. S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard that allows email users to encrypt and digitally sign their messages. S/MIME uses public key cryptography and certificates to ensure confidentiality, integrity, authenticity, and non-repudiation of email communications. However, S/MIME requires both the sender and the receiver to have compatible email clients and plug-ins that support S/MIME functionality. If the receiver does not have the S/MIME plug-in enabled, they will not be able to decrypt or verify the encrypted message.

Off boarding is a security practice that involves revoking access rights and privileges from employees who leave an organization or change their roles. Off boarding can help address the issue of successful logon attempts to access the departed executive’s accounts by disabling or deleting their accounts, changing passwords, collecting devices, etc., as soon as they leave the organization.

Facial recognition is a type of biometric authentication that uses the unique features of a person’s face to verify their identity. Facial recognition is not something you know or have, but something you are, which is one of the three factors of authentication. Facial recognition can use various methods and technologies, such as 2D or 3D images, infrared sensors, machine learning and more, to capture, analyze and compare facial data. Facial recognition can provide a convenient and secure way to authenticate users on personal mobile devices, as it does not require any additional hardware or input from the user. Facial recognition can also be used in conjunction with other factors, such as passwords or tokens, to provide multi-factor authentication. Verified References:

• Biometrics - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.4 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/ (See Facial Recognition)
• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 2: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, implement identity and access management controls.)
• Biometric and Facial Recognition - CompTIA Security+ Certification (SY0-501) https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-certification/9781789953091/video9_6.html (See Biometric and Facial Recognition)

HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption. HSMaas allows the organization to use its own keys or generate new ones, and to control and manage them centrally regardless of where the data is stored or processed. HSMaas also reduces the latency and complexity of managing multiple encryption keys across different cloud providers, as well as the cost and maintenance of deploying physical HSM devices.

A. Trusted Platform Module. This is not the correct answer, because a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a device, such as a laptop or a server. A TPM does not offer a cloud-based solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

B. laaS. This is not the correct answer, because laaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks, over the internet. laaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

C. HSMaas. This is the correct answer, because HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption across multiple cloud providers.

D. PaaS. This is not the correct answer, because PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides a platform for developing and deploying applications over the internet. PaaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

Submitting the application to QA before releasing it would best help the team ensure the application is ready to be released to production. QA stands for quality assurance, which is a process of testing and verifying that a software product meets the specified requirements and standards. QA can help identify and fix any bugs, errors, vulnerabilities, or performance issues before the software is deployed to the end users. QA can also ensure that the software meets the security objectives and complies with the best practices and regulations.

A risk control self-assessment (RCSA) is a process that allows an organization to identify, evaluate, and mitigate the risks associated with its activities, processes, systems, and products. A RCSA involves asking relevant questions to assess the effectiveness of existing controls and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need improvement. A RCSA also helps to align the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization with its strategic objectives and performance.

The application development teams have been asked to answer questions related to their applications’ security posture, such as whether they receive patches from an external source, contain open-source code, are accessible by external users, or meet the corporate password standard. These questions are part of a RCSA process that aims to evaluate the potential risks and vulnerabilities associated with each application and determine how well they are managed and mitigated.

tail is a Linux command that can be used to display the last part of a file. grep is a Linux command that can be used to search for a pattern in a file or input. The pipe symbol (|) is used to connect two commands and pass the output of one command as the input of another command. The best command for the analyst to use on the syslog server to search for recent traffic to the command-and-control website is tail -500 /logfiles/messages | grep www.comptia.com. This command would display the last 500 lines of the /logfiles/messages file and filter them by the pattern www.comptia.com, which is the domain name of the command-and-control website. This way, the analyst can see any syslog messages that contain the domain name of the malicious website and investigate them further.  2122 [23] References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 11: Explaining Digital Forensics Concepts, page 498; tail (Unix) - Wikipedia; grep - Wikipedia; [How To Use grep Command In Linux / UNIX - nixCraft]

Jailbreaking is the vulnerability that the organization is addressing by adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions or limitations imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking can allow users to install unauthorized applications, customize settings, or access system files. However, jailbreaking can also expose the device to security risks, such as malware, data loss, or warranty voidance. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-jailbreaking https://www.cert blaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

Masking is the process of replacing sensitive data with random characters in the same format, without a way to retrieve the original data. This is different from tokenization, which uses a token server to store the relationship between the original and token values. Obfuscation is a broader term that includes masking, but also other methods such as encryption or hashing. Hashing is a one-way function that converts data into a fixed-length output that cannot be reversed. 

The concept of connecting a user account across the systems of multiple enterprises is best known as federation. Federation is a process that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. For example, a user can use their Google account to sign in to various websites or applications that support federation, without creating separate accounts or passwords for each one. Federation can improve user convenience and security, as well as reduce administrative overhead.

An insider threat is a threat to an organization that comes from negligent or malicious insiders, such as employees, former employees, contractors, third-party vendors, or business partners, who have inside information about cybersecurity practices, sensitive data, and computer systems. The action described in the question is an example of a malicious insider threat, where an employee intentionally misused their authorized access to harm the organization by stealing customer records and diverting funds to their personal bank account. References: What Is an Insider Threat? Definition, Types, and Prevention - Fortinet; What are insider threats? | IBM; What Is an Insider Threat? Definition, Examples, and Mitigations; Insider Threat Mitigation | Cybersecurity and Infrastructure … - CISA

The reason for this is that older versions of Windows may have known vulnerabilities that have been patched in more recent versions. If a company is not regularly patching their systems, they are leaving those vulnerabilities open to exploit, which can allow malware to infect the systems.

It is important to regularly update and patch systems to address known vulnerabilities and protect against potential malware infections. This is an important aspect of proper security management.

Here is a reference to the CompTIA Security+ certification guide which states that "Properly configuring and maintaining software, including patch management, is critical to protecting systems and data."

An employee receiving a gift card request in an email that has an executive’s name in the display field to the email describes a possible business email compromise attack. Business email compromise (BEC) is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to financial or sensitive information, such as accounting, human resources, or executive staff. The attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as a manager, vendor, or client, and requests a fraudulent payment, wire transfer, gift card purchase, or personal information. The attacker may spoof the email address or display name, use a look-alike domain, or compromise a legitimate email account to make the request seem authentic.

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a system that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from multiple sources, such as AV (antivirus), EDR (endpoint detection and response), DLP (data loss prevention), SWG (secure web gateway), WAF (web application firewall), MDM (mobile device management), HIPS (host intrusion prevention system), and CASB (cloud access security broker). A SIEM can help improve the situation by providing a centralized view of the security posture, alerts, and incidents across the organization.

The scenario describes preventive controls, which are designed to stop malicious actors from gaining access to the organization's servers. This includes using multiple access points, such as a lobby, an access control vestibule, and multiple doors leading to the server floor, as well as caging the organization's hardware. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 document, preventive controls are "designed to stop malicious actors from performing a malicious activity or gaining access to an asset." These controls can include technical solutions, such as authentication and access control systems, physical security solutions, such as locks and barriers, and administrative solutions such as policy enforcement.

Privilege creep is the gradual accumulation of access rights beyond what an individual needs to do his or her job. In information technology, a privilege is an identified right that a particular end user has to a particular system resource, such as a file folder or virtual machine. Privilege creep often occurs when an employee changes job responsibilities within an organization and is granted new privileges. While employees may need to retain their former privileges during a period of transition, those privileges are rarely revoked and result in an unnecessary accumulation of access privileges. Privilege creep creates a security risk by increasing the attack surface and exposing sensitive data or systems to unauthorized or malicious users.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/privilege-creep

Disabling remote logins to the NAS likely involved turning off SSH instead of modifying the configuration file. This would prevent users from using SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users' PCs. Source: TechTarget

A replay attack is a form of network attack in which valid data transmission is maliciously or fraudulently repeated or delayed12. This can allow an attacker to compromise a host by resending a previously captured message, such as a password or a session token, that looks legitimate to the receiver1. A replay attack can be prevented by using methods such as random session keys, timestamps, or one-time passwords that expire after use12. A replay attack is different from an integer overflow, which is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an arithmetic operation attempts to create a numeric value that is too large to be represented within the available storage space3. A race condition is another type of software vulnerability that occurs when multiple processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently, and the outcome depends on the order of execution3. A memory leak is a type of software defect that occurs when a program fails to release memory that is no longer needed, causing the program to consume more memory than necessary and potentially affecting the performance or stability of the system3.

 Content management is a security control that can limit the sites that can be accessed by corporate-issued mobile devices. It can also restrict employees from downloading images from company email by filtering or blocking certain types of content1. Geofencing is a security control that can only allow access to internal resources while physically on campus. It can use GPS or other location services to define a virtual boundary around a physical area and enforce policies based on the device’s location2.

References:

1: https://www.cyber.gov.au/resources-business-and-government/maintaining-devices-and-systems/system-hardening-and-administration/web-ha rdening/securing-content-management-systems 2: https://www.makeuseof.com/how-to-secure-your-content-management-system/

SOC2 is a type of audit report that provides assurance on the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of a service organization’s systems. It is based on the Trust Services Criteria developed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA). A SOC2 report can provide proof that customer data is being appropriately protected by the hosted data provider1

https://www.csagroup.org/store/product/50072454/  3: https://www.csagroup.org/store/product/50072454os/  1: https://cloudsecurityalliance.org/blog/2021/08/20/star-testimonial-c sa-star-soc2-from-readiness-to-attestation/

 DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, transfer, or upload sensitive data to a USB drive or other removable media based on predefined policies and rules.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp

Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated

A security administrator needs to add fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage. Which of the following is the best choice to achieve this objective?

A. Multipathing

B. RAID

C. Segmentation

D. 8021.1

Answer: A

to achieve the objective of adding fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage is multipathing1. Multipathing is a technique that allows a system to use more than one path to access a storage device1. This can improve performance by distributing the workload across multiple paths, and also provide fault tolerance by switching to an alternative path if one path fails1. Multipathing can be implemented using software or hardware solutions1.

The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a process for evaluating the security of a system and implementing controls to reduce potential risks associated with it. The RMF process involves categorizing the system, selecting the controls that apply to the system, implementing the controls, and then assessing the success of the controls before authorizing the system. For more information on the NIST Risk Management Framework and other security processes, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying risk mitigation measures, such as controls, policies, or procedures. It reflects the level of uncertainty and potential impact that cannot be completely eliminated by risk management efforts. Residual risk is calculated by subtracting the risk reduction from the inherent risk, or by multiplying the inherent risk by the risk control effectiveness. Residual risk should be compared to the acceptable level of risk to determine if further action is needed or if the risk can be accepted by the management. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Summarizing Risk Management Concepts, page 456; Residual risk - Wikipedia; Residual risk definition and why it’s important - Advisera

The SIEM log shows that the user opened an email attachment named “Invoice.xlsx” and then executed a PowerShell script that downloaded and ran a malicious file from a remote server. This indicates that the attacker was able to bypass the application approve list by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file. This is a common technique used by malware authors to evade detection and deliver their payloads1.

Containers are a method of virtualization that allow you to run multiple isolated applications on a single server. Containers are lightweight, portable, and scalable, which means they can save resources, improve performance, and simplify deployment. Containers also enable centralized monitoring and management of the applications running on them, using tools such as Docker or Kubernetes. Containers are different from edge computing, which is a distributed computing paradigm that brings computation and data storage closer to the location where it is needed. Microservices are a software architecture style that breaks down complex applications into smaller, independent services that communicate with each other. Thin clients are devices that rely on a server to perform most of the processing tasks and only provide a user interface.

A reverse proxy backdoor is a malicious reverse proxy that can intercept and manipulate the traffic between the client and the web server3. This can allow an attacker to access sensitive data or execute commands on the web server.

One possible way to quickly contain the incident with the least amount of impact is to add the application hash to the organization’s blocklist. A blocklist is a list of applications or files that are not allowed to run on a system or network. By adding the application hash to the blocklist, the security engineer can prevent the malicious application from running and communicating with the reverse proxy backdoor.

A DLP solution in monitoring mode is a good first step to deploy for data loss prevention. It allows the IT team to observe and analyze the data flows and activities without blocking or interfering with them. It helps to identify the sources and destinations of sensitive data, the types and volumes of data involved, and the potential risks and violations. It also helps to fine-tune the DLP policies and rules before switching to blocking mode, which can disrupt business operations if not configured properly.

A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its critical functions during and after a disruptive event, such as a natural disaster, pandemic, cyberattack, or power outage. A BCP typically covers topics such as business impact analysis, risk assessment, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, communication plan, testing and training, and maintenance and review. A BCP can help the organization’s executives determine their next course of action by providing them with a clear framework and guidance for managing the crisis and resuming normal operations.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan

Cuckoo is a sandbox that is specifically written to run programs inside and identify any malware. A sandbox is a virtualized environment that isolates the program from the rest of the system and monitors its behavior. Cuckoo can analyze files of various types, such as executables, documents, URLs, and more. Cuckoo can provide a report of the files’ activity against known threats, such as network traffic, file operations, registry changes, API calls, and so on.

A security operations center can implement Cuckoo to execute files to test for malicious activity and generate a report of the analysis. Cuckoo can help the security operations center to detect and prevent malware infections, investigate incidents, and perform threat intelligence.

Wifi Controller

SSID: CORPGUEST

SHARED KEY: Secret

AAA server IP: 192.168.1.20

PSK: Blank

Authentication type: WPA2-EAP-PEAP-MSCHAPv2

Controller IP: 192.168.1.10

Radius Server

Shared Key: Secret

Client IP: 192.168.1.10

Authentication Type: Active Directory

Server IP: 192.168.1.20

Wireless Client

SSID: CORPGUEST

Username: guest01

Userpassword: guestpass

PSK: Blank

Authentication type: WPA2-Enterprise

Containment is the phase where the incident response team tries to isolate and stop the spread of the incident12. Before containing the incident, the team should collect and preserve any evidence that may be useful for analysis and investigation12. This includes documenting the incident details, such as date, time, location, source, and impact12. It also includes establishing a chain of custody, which is a record of who handled the evidence, when, where, how, and why3. A chain of custody ensures the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in court or other legal proceedings3.

A community cloud model describes a scenario where a cloud service is shared among multiple organizations that have common goals, interests, or requirements. A community cloud can be hosted by one of the organizations, a third-party provider, or a combination of both. A community cloud can offer benefits such as cost savings, security, compliance, and collaboration. A police department using the cloud to share information with city officials is an example of a community cloud model.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/community-cloud

Tracert is a command-line tool that shows the route that packets take to reach a destination on a network1. It also displays the time it takes for each hop along the way1. By using tracert, you can see if there is a router or firewall that is blocking or slowing down the traffic between the internal workstation and the specific server1.

Boot attestation is a security feature that enables the computer to verify the integrity of its operating system before it boots. It does this by performing a hash of the operating system and comparing it to the expected hash of the operating system. If the hashes do not match, the computer will not boot and the rootkit will not be allowed to run. This process is also known as measured boot or secure boot.

According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “Secure Boot is a feature of Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) that ensures that code that is executed during the boot process has been authenticated by a cryptographic signature. Secure Boot prevents malicious code from running at boot time, thus providing assurance that the system is executing only code that is legitimate. This provides a measure of protection against rootkits and other malicious code that is designed to run at boot time.”

Lessons learned is a process that would most likely help an organization that has conducted an incident response exercise to improve performance and identify challenges. Lessons learned is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response exercise to identify what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. Lessons learned can help an organization enhance its incident response capabilities, address any gaps or weaknesses, and update its incident response plan accordingly.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/incident/incident-handlers-handbook-33901

EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a technology that monitors, detects, and responds to cyber threats on endpoint devices, such as laptops, desktops, servers, or mobile devices. EDR collects and analyzes data from endpoints to identify suspicious or malicious activities, such as malware installation, file modification, registry changes, network connections, or user actions. EDR also provides tools and capabilities to respond to threats, such as isolating infected devices, blocking malicious processes, removing malware, or restoring files.

Historically, a company has had issues with users plugging in personally owned removable media devices into corporate computers. As a result, the threat of malware incidents is almost constant. EDR would best help prevent the malware from being installed on the computers by detecting the insertion of removable media devices and scanning them for any malicious code or files. EDR would also alert the security team of any potential infection and enable them to take immediate action to contain and remediate the threat.

Impossible travel time is an anomaly detection that indicates a possible compromise of a user account. It occurs when the same user connects from two different countries and the time between those connections is shorter than the time it would take to travel from the first location to the second by conventional means. This suggests that a different user is using the same credentials or that a proxy or VPN is being used to mask the true location. The log activity shows that the user connected from two different IP addresses in different countries (US and Brazil) within a span of 37 minutes, which is impossible to achieve by normal travel. References: Detecting and Remediating Impossible Travel - Microsoft Community Hub; Anomaly detection policies - Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps; Understanding Microsoft 365 Impossible Travel Rules | Blumira

A transit gateway is a network transit hub that can be used to interconnect virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks. A transit gateway can consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments through a single firewall by offering the following features:

• Attachments that can connect one or more VPCs, a Connect SD-WAN/third-party network appliance, an AWS Direct Connect gateway, a peering connection with another transit gateway, or a VPN connection to a transit gateway.
• Transit gateway route table that can include dynamic and static routes that decide the next hop based on the destination IP address of the packet.
• Associations and route propagation that can link each attachment with a route table and dynamically propagate routes to or from a transit gateway route table. References: What is a transit gateway? - Amazon VPC; Network Gateway – AWS Transit Gateway – Amazon Web Services; Configure VPN gateway transit for virtual network peering; AWS — Difference between VPC Peering and Transit Gateway

Risk avoidance is the strategy of eliminating or minimizing exposure to risk by not engaging in an activity or process that may result in a negative outcome. Not installing new software to prevent compatibility errors is an example of risk avoidance, as it avoids the possibility of introducing new vulnerabilities or disrupting existing functionality.

SQLi stands for SQL injection, which is a type of web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL statements on a database server. SQLi can result in data theft, data corruption, denial of service, or remote code execution.

The attacker in the web server log is trying to exploit a SQLi vulnerability by sending a malicious GET request that contains a UNION ALL SELECT statement. This statement is used to combine the results of two or more SELECT queries into a single result set. The attacker is attempting to retrieve user login, user pass, and user email from the wp users table, which is a WordPress database table that stores user information. The attacker may use this information to compromise the WordPress site or the users’ accounts.

Shoulder surfing is a social engineering technique that involves looking over someone’s shoulder to see what they are typing, writing, or viewing on their screen. It can be used to steal passwords, PINs, credit card numbers, or other sensitive information. In this scenario, the contractor used shoulder surfing to overhear the customer’s credit card number during a phone call.

The MITRE ATT&CK framework would best support the analyst’s review of the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) the threat actor was observed using in previous campaigns. The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base that describes the common TTPs used by various threat actors across different stages of an attack lifecycle. The framework can help security analysts understand how adversaries operate, what tools they use, what vulnerabilities they exploit, what indicators they leave behind, etc. The framework can also help security analysts improve their detection and response capabilities by providing recommendations and best practices.

A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts access to data or resources based on the physical location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can be implemented using technologies such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, VPN blocking, etc. A geolocation policy can help the company’s legal department to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries by denying access requests from those countries.

A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company implements a policy to train users on a more secure method of operation best describes a risk reduction technique. Risk reduction is a strategy that aims to lower the likelihood or impact of a risk by implementing controls or mitigations. For example, if a technical control is not feasible or cost-effective, a company can reduce the risk by educating users on how to avoid or handle the threat, such as using strong passwords, avoiding phishing emails, or reporting incidents.

Continuous validation is a process that involves performing regular and automated tests to verify the security and functionality of a system or an application. Continuous validation can help identify and remediate vulnerabilities, bugs, or misconfigurations before they cause any damage or disruption. The security administrator’s activities of performing weekly vulnerability scans on all cloud assets and providing a detailed report are examples of continuous validation.

Non-repudiation is the process of ensuring that a party involved in a transaction or communication cannot deny their involvement. By implementing non-repudiation controls, a cybersecurity analyst can properly track and log user actions, attributing them to a specific individual. This can be achieved through methods such as digital signatures, timestamps, and secure logging mechanisms.

References:

1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/CompTIA%20Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf

2. Stewart, J. M., Chapple, M., & Gibson, D. (2021). CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601. John Wiley & Sons.

Version control is a solution that can help a development team to analyze the deletion or editing of data sets without affecting the original copy. Version control is a system that records changes to a file or set of files over time so that specific versions can be recalled later. Version control can help developers track and manage changes to code, data, or documents, as well as collaborate with other developers and resolve conflicts.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.atlassian.com/git/tutorials/what-is-version-control

The account lockout can be attributed to a brute-force attack. A brute-force attack is a type of attack where an attacker attempts to guess a user's password by continually trying different combinations of characters. In this case, it is likely that the security engineer's account was locked out due to an attacker attempting to guess their password. Backdoor, rootkit, and Trojan attacks are not relevant in this scenario.

Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domains with deliberately misspelled names of well-known websites. The attackers do this to lure unsuspecting visitors to alternative websites, typically for malicious purposes. Visitors may end up at these alternative websites by inadvertently mistyping the name of popular websites into their web browser or by being lured by a phishing scam. The attackers may emulate the look and feel of the legitimate websites and trick users into entering sensitive information or downloading malware.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-typosquatting

SSH is used to securely transfer files to the remote server and is required for SCP to work. Disabling SSH will prevent users from being able to use SCP to transfer files to the server. To enable SSH, the security engineer should modify the SSH configuration file (sshd.conf) and make sure that SSH is enabled. For more information on hardening systems and the security techniques that can be used, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

A snapshot backup is a type of backup that captures the state of a system at a point in time. It is highly time- and storage-efficient because it only records the changes made to the system since the last backup. It also has no impact on production systems because it does not require them to be offline or paused during the backup process. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-snapshot-backup

A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) device is a battery backup system that can provide consistent power levels in case of brownouts or voltage spikes. It can also provide a minimum of 30 minutes runtime following a power outage, depending on the size and load of the device. A network-connected UPS device can also communicate with critical systems and trigger graceful shutdowns if the battery level is low or the power is not restored. 

The security engineer should select a Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) to address the concern. HIDS monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system, such as key files and network traffic, for any suspicious activity. Unlike antivirus software (AV), which relies on known signatures of malware, HIDS can detect anomalies, policy violations, and previously undefined attacks by monitoring system behavior and the network traffic of the device.

References:

1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf

2. Scarfone, K., & Mell, P. (2007). Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS): Recommendations of the National Institute of Standards and Technology. NIST Special Publication 800-94. https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-94.pdf

Containers are a type of virtualization technology that allow applications to run in a secure, isolated environment on a single host. They can be quickly scaled up or down as needed, making them an ideal solution for unpredictable loads. Additionally, containers are designed to be lightweight and portable, so they can easily be moved from one host to another. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Sy0-601 official Text book, page 863.

Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding

Correlation dashboards are tools that allow security analysts to monitor and analyze multiple sources of data and events in real time. They can help identify patterns, trends, anomalies, and threats by correlating different types of data and events, such as network traffic, logs, alerts, and incidents. Correlation dashboards can help investigate network flooding by showing the source, destination, volume, and type of malicious packets and their impact on the network performance and availability. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-correlation-dashboard

SSL/TLS encryption is a method of securing the syslog traffic by using cryptographic protocols to encrypt and authenticate the data. SSL/TLS encryption can prevent eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing of the syslog messages. TCP 6514 is the standard port for syslog over TLS, as defined by RFC 5425. Using this port can ensure compatibility and interoperability with other syslog implementations that support TLS.

CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software tool or service that acts as an intermediary between users and cloud service providers. CASB can help protect data stored in cloud services by enforcing security policies and controls such as encryption, tokenization, authentication, authorization, logging, auditing, and threat detection. Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes called tokens that have no intrinsic value. Tokenization can help prevent data leakage by ensuring that only authorized users can access the original data using a tokenization system.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive data, such as a unique identifier. This means that the data is still present in the system, but the sensitive information itself is replaced with the token. Tokenization is more secure than masking, which only obscures the data but does not eliminate it. DLP is not suitable for this task, as it is designed to prevent the loss or leakage of data from the system. SSL/TLS can be used to secure the transmission of data, but it cannot prevent the data itself from being exposed or reused. For more information, please refer to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives, Section 3.3: Explain the security purpose of authentication, authorization and accounting (AAA) services, and Section 4.7: Explain the purpose and characteristics of various types of encryption.

After the root cause of a security incident has been identified, it is important to take the time to analyze what went wrong and how it could have been prevented. This process is known as “lessons learned” and allows organizations to identify potential improvements to their security processes and protocols. Lessons learned typically involve a review of the incident and the steps taken to address it, a review of the security systems and procedures in place, and an analysis of any potential changes that can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.

shadow IT is the use of IT-related hardware or software by a department or individual without the knowledge or approval of the IT or security group within the organization12. Shadow IT can encompass cloud services, software, and hardware. The main area of concern today is the rapid adoption of cloud-based services1.

According to one source3, shadow IT helps you know and identify which apps are being used and what your risk level is. 80% of employees use non-sanctioned apps that no one has reviewed, and may not be compliant with your security and compliance policies.

Isolating the device is the first thing that a security analyst should do if they suspect that a user’s device might be compromised. Isolating the device means disconnecting it from the network or placing it in a separate network segment to prevent further communication with potential attackers or malicious hosts. Isolating the device can help contain the incident, limit the damage or data loss, preserve the evidence, and facilitate the investigation and remediation.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/incident-response-process/

Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a remote server to provide access to computing resources, an operating system, and centralized configuration and data. Thin clients can reduce the cost, complexity, and security risks of managing multiple devices.

NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technology that allows multiple devices to share a single IP address, allowing them to access the internet while still maintaining security and privacy. VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure, encrypted tunnel between two or more devices, allowing users to access the internet and other network resources securely and privately. Additionally, VPNs can also be used to restrict access to certain websites and services, such as social media sites and external email services.

PKI is a security technology that enables secure communication between two parties by using cryptographic functions. It consists of a set of components that are used to create, manage, distribute, store, and revoke digital certificates. PKI provides a secure way to exchange data between two parties, as well as a trust provider to ensure that the data is not tampered with. It also helps to create a highly scalable solution, as the same certificate can be used for multiple parties.

According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “PKI is a technology used to secure communications between two external parties. PKI is based on the concept of digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the sender and recipient of a message. PKI provides a trust provider to ensure that the digital certificate is valid and has not been tampered with. It also provides a scalable solution, as multiple parties can use the same certificate.”

An SLA or service level agreement is a type of third-party risk management policy that defines the expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer. An SLA typically includes metrics and standards for measuring the quality and performance of the service, as well as penalties or remedies for non-compliance. An SLA can also specify the reporting requirements for data breaches or other incidents that may affect the customer’s security or privacy.

Posture checking and remote wipe are two controls that the security engineer should configure to comply with the corporate mobile device policy. Posture checking is a process that verifies if a mobile device meets certain security requirements before allowing it to access corporate resources. For example, posture checking can check if the device OS is patched up to the latest release and if a screen lock is enabled. Remote wipe is a feature that allows the administrator to erase all data from a mobile device remotely, in case it is lost or stolen. This can prevent unauthorized access to corporate data on the device.

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a technology that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting traffic and authenticating it at both the sender and receiver. It can be used to create secure tunnels between two or more devices, allowing users to access resources securely and privately.

SSL VPN (Secure Sockets Layer Virtual Private Network) is a type of VPN that uses an SSL/TLS connection to encrypt traffic between two or more devices. It is a secure and reliable solution for providing remote access, as all traffic is encrypted and authenticated. Additionally, SSL VPNs can also be used to restrict access to certain websites and services, making them a secure and robust solution for remote access.

EDR solutions are designed to detect and respond to malicious activity on workstations and servers, and they provide a detailed analysis of the incident, allowing organizations to quickly remediate the threat. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, EDR solutions can be used to detect malicious activity on endpoints, investigate the incident, and contain the threat. EDR solutions can also provide real-time monitoring and alerting for potential security events, as well as detailed forensic analysis for security incidents. Additionally, the text book recommends that organizations also implement a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) to alert them to malicious activity on their workstations and servers.

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is a commonly used encryption method for email communications to secure the sensitive data being sent. It allows for the encryption of the entire message or just the sensitive parts. It would be an appropriate solution in this case as it doesn't require additional infrastructure to implement.

ARP poisoning is a technique by which an attacker sends spoofed ARP messages to alter routing on a local area network. It can be used to intercept, modify, or stop data frames, or launch other attacks3 In this scenario, the attacker likely used ARP poisoning to associate their MAC address with the IP address of the time-keeping website, causing the kiosks to send a copy of all the submitted credentials to the attacker’s machine. This explains why only the credentials of the employees who clocked in and out while inside the building were stolen, and why the compromise was not detected by the DNS servers or the website itself4

Telnet is an insecure protocol that transmits data in cleartext over the network. This means that anyone who can intercept the network traffic can read the data, including the username and password of the server administrator. A packet capture tool is a software or hardware device that can capture and analyze network packets. An attacker can use a packet capture tool to steal the password and use it to install malicious software on the server. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-network-security

There are three main models for cloud computing: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS)12. Each model represents a different part of the cloud computing stack and provides different levels of control, flexibility, and management.

According to one source1, a public cloud is a type of cloud deployment where the cloud resources (such as servers and storage) are owned and operated by a third-party cloud service provider and delivered over the Internet. A public cloud can be shared with multiple organizations or users who pay for the service on a subscription or pay-as-you-go basis.

False rejection Short Explanation: A false rejection occurs when a biometric system fails to recognize an authorized user and denies access. This can happen due to poor quality of the biometric sample, environmental factors, or system errors. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/wh at-is-biometrics

The best solution to meet the given requirements is to deploy a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution. PAM solutions allow administrators to create and manage administrative accounts that are assigned to specific users and that have complex passwords. Additionally, PAM solutions provide the ability to enable audit trails and logging on all systems, as well as to set up temporal access for administrative accounts. SAML, ABAC, and CASB are not suitable for this purpose.

Applying patches is the first step to lower the risk to the production hardware, as patches are updates that fix vulnerabilities or bugs in the software or firmware. Patches can prevent attackers from exploiting known vulnerabilities and compromising the production hardware. Applying patches should be done regularly and in a timely manner, following a patch management policy and process. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/patch-management-best-practices

According to Professor Messer’s video1, VDI stands for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure and it is a deployment model where employees use their personal computers to access a virtual machine that runs the company’s operating system and applications.

In the scenario described, the company is implementing a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) deployment model [1]. This allows employees to access the cloud computing environment using their personal computers, while the company manages the operating system. The VDI model is suitable for remote work scenarios because it provides secure and centralized desktop management, while allowing employees to access desktops from any device.

the cat command reads the file and streams its content to standard output. The | symbol connects the output of the left command with the input of the right command. The grep command returns all lines that match the regex. The cut command splits each line into fields based on a delimiter and extracts a specific field.

Impossible travel time is a policy that detects and blocks login attempts from locations that are geographically impossible to reach from the previous login location within a certain time frame. For example, if a user logs in from New York and then tries to log in from Tokyo within an hour, the policy would flag this as impossible travel time and disable the account. This policy helps prevent unauthorized access from compromised credentials or attackers using proxy servers. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 6, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.2: Compare and contrast different types of social engineering techniques 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.4: Implement identity and account management controls 3 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-sign-in-risk- policy#impossible-travel

Uninterruptible power supplies with battery backup would be the most cost-effective solution for the data center to implement to prevent under-voltage events following electrical grid maintenance outside the facility. An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that provides emergency power to a load when the main power source fails or drops below an acceptable level. A UPS with battery backup can help prevent under-voltage events by switching to battery power when it detects a voltage drop or outage in the main power source. A UPS with battery backup can also protect the data center equipment from power surges or spikes.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.apc.com/us/en/faqs/FA158852/

A server farm’s logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.

To determine the sequence of a server farm’s logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:

• Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings.
• Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-manager/view-event-logs

Preventing information exposure is a secure application development concept that aims to block verbose error messages from being shown in a user’s interface. Verbose error messages are detailed messages that provide information about errors or exceptions that occur in an application. Verbose error messages may reveal sensitive information about the application’s structure, configuration, logic, or data that could be exploited by attackers. Therefore, preventing information exposure involves implementing proper error handling mechanisms that display generic or user-friendly messages instead of verbose error messages.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://owasp.org/www-project-top-ten/2017/A6_2017-Security_Misconfiguration

Patch management is a process that involves applying updates or fixes to software to address bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues. Patch management is classified under corrective control type, which is a type of control that aims to restore normal operations after an incident or event has occurred. Corrective controls can help mitigate the impact or damage caused by an incident or event and prevent it from happening again.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/why-third-party-security-is-your-security.html

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help reduce the risk of further exfiltration using file storage sites on the internet by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, upload, or download sensitive data to or from file storage sites based on predefined policies and rules.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp

Username lockout is a security feature that prevents an attacker from brute-forcing user credentials by locking out an account after a certain number of failed login attempts. This can prevent the attacker from harvesting user credentials on a client’s website. The logon screen message that reveals the username does not exist is a security weakness that can help the attacker to guess valid usernames. A better message would be “Invalid username or password”.

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a security solution that enforces access policies for cloud resources and applications, providing visibility, data control and analytics. A CASB can meet the requirements of the company by offering the following benefits:

• Visibility into how teams are using cloud-based services, such as shadow IT assessment and management, granular cloud usage control, and risk visibility.
• Ability to identify when data related to payment cards is being sent to the cloud, such as data loss prevention (DLP) capabilities that can protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized sharing.
• Data availability regardless of the end user’s geographic location, such as inter-Region peering encryption on the AWS global private network or other cloud platforms.
• Single pane-of-glass view into traffic and trends, such as central policy engine, continuous monitoring, and threat prevention. References: What Is a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)? | Microsoft; Top 10 Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) Solutions for 2023; Definition of Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs) - Gartner

Always-on VPN is a feature that enables the active VPN profile to connect automatically on certain triggers, such as user sign-in, network change, or device screen on. This ensures that the devices are always on the company-owned network and protected by the company’s security policies. Always-on VPN also prevents the devices from accessing the internet if the VPN connection is lost or interrupted

A site risk assessment is a document that identifies and evaluates the potential hazards and risks associated with a specific location or activity, such as a chlorine processing facility near a company office. A site risk assessment may include recommendations for mitigating or preventing the identified risks. An environmental impact report is a document that assesses the environmental consequences of a proposed project or action, such as building a new facility or changing a land use. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines the procedures and resources for restoring normal operations after a disruptive event, such as a natural disaster or a cyberattack. A physical risk register is a document that records and tracks the physical risks that may affect an organization, such as fire, theft, vandalism, or sabotage

Dynamic code analysis is a technique that tests and analyzes an application during runtime to identify potential vulnerabilities, errors, or performance issues. Dynamic code analysis can detect problems that may not be visible in the source code or during static analysis, such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or input validation errors. Dynamic code analysis can also simulate real-world scenarios and user inputs to evaluate the behavior and functionality of the application. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Implementing Host Security Solutions, page 246; What is Dynamic Code Analysis?

A syslog server is a centralized log management system that collects, stores, and manages syslog messages generated by various network devices, servers, applications, and other sources. A syslog server can assist the investigators in this case because it can provide an alternative source of log files that may contain evidence of the incident. The privileged user may have deleted the local log files on the server, but not the remote log files on the syslog server. Therefore, the investigators can access the syslog server and analyze the log messages related to the user’s activities and actions

Organized crime is a term that describes groups of criminals who operate in a coordinated and systematic manner to pursue illicit activities for profit. Organized crime groups often use sophisticated tools and techniques to evade law enforcement and exploit vulnerabilities in various sectors, such as finance, transportation, or healthcare. Organized crime groups may also collaborate with other criminal groups or actors to share resources, information, or expertise.

Ransomware as a service (RaaS) is an example of a business model used by organized crime groups to conduct ransomware and extortion attacks. RaaS is an arrangement between an operator, who develops and maintains the tools to power extortion operations, and an affiliate, who deploys the ransomware payload. When the affiliate conducts a successful ransomware and extortion attack, both parties profit. The RaaS model lowers the barrier to entry for attackers who may not have the skill or technical wherewithal to develop their own tools but can manage ready-made penetration testing and sysadmin tools to perform attacks12.

Insider threat is a term that describes individuals who have legitimate access to an organization’s systems or data and use it for malicious purposes, such as theft, sabotage, or espionage. Insider threats may be motivated by various factors, such as greed, revenge, ideology, or coercion. Insider threats may also be unintentional, such as when an employee falls victim to phishing or social engineering.

Hacktivist is a term that describes individuals or groups who use hacking or cyberattacks to promote a political or social cause. Hacktivists may target governments, corporations, or other entities that they perceive as oppressive, corrupt, or unethical. Hacktivists may also use cyberattacks to expose information, disrupt services, or deface websites.

Nation-state is a term that describes a sovereign state that has a centralized government and a defined territory. Nation-state actors are individuals or groups who conduct cyberattacks on behalf of or with the support of a nation-state. Nation-state actors may target other states, organizations, or individuals for various reasons, such as espionage, sabotage, influence, or retaliation.

A SCADA system is a control system architecture that allows high-level supervision of machines and processes, such as those in a water treatment plant. A surveillance system, a smart watch, and a Wi-Fi-enabled thermostat are not examples of SCADA systems, as they do not involve industrial control or data acquisition. 

A service level agreement (SLA) defines response time, escalation points, and performance metrics. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the level and quality of service that will be delivered. An SLA typically includes metrics such as availability, reliability, throughput, latency, security, etc., as well as penalties or remedies for failing to meet them. An SLA also defines how issues will be reported and resolved, how often reviews will be conducted, and how changes will be communicated.

Segmentation is a security technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks or segments based on criteria such as function, role, location, etc. Segmentation can help mitigate the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage by isolating different segments from each other and applying different security policies and controls to each segment. Segmentation can help the security manager to implement a mitigation while maintaining alerting capabilities by separating the smart generator from the internal file server and allowing only necessary communication between them.

If the systems are running unsecure protocols and the company that developed them is no longer in business, it is likely that there are no patches available to remediate the issue. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.6: Given a scenario, implement secure protocols.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 35-36

S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a protocol that enables secure email messages to be sent and received. It provides email encryption, as well as digital signatures, which can be used to verify the authenticity of the sender. S/MIME can be used with a variety of email protocols, including POP and IMAP.

References:

• https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-smime
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition (SY0-601), page 139

The company is implementing privileged access management, which provides just-in-time permissions for administrative functions.

The output of the “netstat -ano” command shows that there are two connections to the same IP address and port number. This indicates that there are two active sessions between the client and server.

The issue of users having to provide their credentials twice to log in is known as a double login prompt issue. This issue can occur due to various reasons such as incorrect configuration of authentication settings, incorrect configuration of web server settings, or issues with the client’s browser.

Based on the output of the “netstat -ano” command, it is difficult to determine the exact cause of the issue. However, it is possible that an attacker is intercepting traffic between the client and server and stealing user credentials. This type of attack is known as C. ARP poisoning.

ARP poisoning is a type of attack where an attacker sends fake ARP messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of another device on the network. This allows them to intercept traffic between the two devices and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.

Emulating the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment is the best option for observing network-based transactions between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. This approach provides an isolated environment for the malware to run, reducing the risk of lateral spread and detection by the adversary. Additionally, the DMZ can be monitored closely to gather intelligence on the adversary's tactics and techniques. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, page 129

To improve the security of the WiFi network and prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network, the configuration options of RADIUS and WPA2-PSK should be enabled. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is an authentication protocol that can be used to control access to the WiFi network. It can provide stronger authentication and authorization than WEP and WPA. WPA2-PSK (WiFi Protected Access 2 with Pre-Shared Key) is a security protocol that uses stronger encryption than WEP and WPA. It requires a pre-shared key (PSK) to be entered on each device that wants to access the network. This helps prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network.

To prevent attacks where the main website is directed to the attacker's web server and allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers, the company should implement SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) to encrypt the communication between the web server and the clients. This will prevent attackers from intercepting and tampering with the communication, and will also help to verify the identity of the web server to the clients.

The attack being conducted is an Evil twin attack. An Evil twin attack involves creating a rogue wireless access point (WAP) with the same Service Set Identifier (SSID) as a legitimate WAP to trick users into connecting to it. Once connected, the attacker can intercept traffic or steal login credentials. The successful login attempts with impossible travel times suggest that an attacker is using a stolen or compromised credential to access the external site to which the sensitive data is being downloaded. The non-standard DHCP configurations and overlapping channels of the WAPs suggest that the attacker is using a rogue WAP to intercept traffic. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.4 Compare and contrast types of attacks, p. 8

User behavior analytics (UBA) would be the best data source to assess the accounts impacted by the attack, as it can identify abnormal activity, such as repeated brute-force attacks and logins from unfamiliar geographic locations, and provide insights into the behavior of the impacted accounts. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7: Incident Response, pp. 338-341

DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver’s cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record, such as an IP address. This results in traffic being diverted to the attacker’s computer (or any other malicious destination).

DNS poisoning can be performed by various methods, such as:

• Intercepting and forging DNS responses from legitimate servers
• Compromising DNS servers and altering their records
• Exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS protocols or implementations
• Sending malicious emails or links that trigger DNS queries with poisoned responses

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:

“DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver’s cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/dns/dns-cache-poisoning/

The Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between the cloud service provider and the organization that stipulates the exact requirements for the cloud provider. It outlines the level of service that the provider must deliver, including the minimum uptime percentage, support response times, and the remedies and penalties for failing to meet the agreed-upon service levels.

Data loss prevention (DLP) solutions can prevent the accidental or intentional loss of sensitive data. DLP tools can identify and protect sensitive data by classifying and categorizing it, encrypting it, or blocking it from being transferred outside the organization's network.

Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) is a deployment model that allows employees to select from a predefined list of devices. It provides employees with flexibility in device preference while allowing the company to maintain control and security over company data and infrastructure. CYOD deployment model provides a compromise between the strict control provided by Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) deployment model and the flexibility provided by Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Securing Application, Data, and Host Security, 6.5 Implement Mobile Device Management, pp. 334-335

The solution that the CISO should choose is Next-generation Secure Web Gateway (SWG), which provides URL filtering and categorization to prevent users from accessing malicious sites, even when they are away from the office. NGFWs are typically cloud-based and offer multiple security layers, including malware detection, intrusion prevention, and data loss prevention. References:

• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-next-generation-secure-web-gateway-ng-swg
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

When hosting applications in the public cloud, there is a risk of shared tenancy, meaning that multiple organizations are sharing the same infrastructure. This can potentially allow one tenant to access another tenant's data, creating a security risk. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

Bug bounty is a type of testing in which an organization offers a reward or compensation to anyone who can identify vulnerabilities or security flaws in their network or applications. The outside security firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability found, which is an example of a bug bounty program.

A proof of concept (PoC) environment can be stood up quickly and is used to demonstrate and model system capabilities and functionality for a fixed, agreed-upon duration of time. This environment can utilize either dummy data or actual data. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

The environment that utilizes dummy data and is most likely to be installed locally on a system that allows it to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build is the development environment. The development environment is used for developing and testing software and applications. It is typically installed on a local system, rather than on a remote server, to allow for easy access and modification. Dummy data can be used in the development environment to simulate real-world scenarios and test the software's functionality. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/27561/development-environment

The best option that describes what is impacted the most by the hackers’ attack and threat would be D. Reputation. Reputation is the perception or opinion that others have about a person or an organization. Reputation can affect the trust, credibility, and success of a person or an organization. In this scenario, if the hackers send the unfavorable pictures to the press, it can damage the reputation of the Chief Executive Officer and the company, and cause negative consequences such as loss of customers, partners, investors, or employees.

SSH stands for Secure Shell Protocol, which is a cryptographic network protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution on a network device12. SSH can encrypt both the authentication information and the data being exchanged between the client and the server2. SSH can be used to access and manage a NAS device remotely3.

A development environment is the environment that is used to develop and test software. It is typically installed locally on a system that allows code to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build. In this environment, dummy data is often utilized to test the software's functionality.

The security analyst is likely observing a Telnet session, as Telnet transmits data in plain text format, including usernames and passwords. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware.

A SIEM is a security solution that helps detect security incidents by monitoring for notable events across the enterprise. A detective control is a control that is designed to detect security incidents and respond to them. Therefore, a SIEM represents a detective control.

Auto-update can help keep the app up-to-date with the latest security fixes and enhancements, and reduce the risk of exploitation by attackers who target outdated or vulnerable versions of the app.

Sandboxing can help isolate the app from other processes and resources on the system, and limit its access and permissions to only what is necessary. Sandboxing can help prevent the app from being affected by or affecting other applications or system components, and contain any potential damage in case of a breach.

A supply chain attack occurs when a third-party supplier or business partner is compromised, leading to an attacker gaining unauthorized access to the targeted organization's network. In this scenario, the dedicated business partner connection to a vendor was used to exfiltrate customer credit card data, indicating that the vendor's network was breached and used as a supply chain attack vector.

SOC 2 (Service Organization Control 2) is a type of audit report that evaluates the controls of service providers to verify their compliance with industry standards for security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. A Type 2 report is based on an audit that tests the effectiveness of the controls over a period of time, unlike a Type 1 report which only evaluates the design of the controls at a specific point in time.

A SOC 2 Type 2 report would provide evidence of the vendor's security controls and how effective they are over time, which can help the security manager assess the vendor's security posture despite the vendor not allowing for a direct audit.

The security manager should request a SOC 2 Type 2 report to assess the security posture of the vendor. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

Account audits are periodic reviews of user accounts to ensure that they are being used appropriately and that access is being granted and revoked in accordance with the organization's policies and procedures. If the compliance team had been conducting regular account audits, they would have identified the users who left the company six months ago and ensured that their access was revoked in a timely manner. This would have prevented the compliance violation caused by these users still having access to the company's systems.

To prevent this compliance violation, the company should implement account audits. An account audit is a regular review of all user accounts to ensure that they are being used properly and that they are in compliance with the company's security policies. By conducting regular account audits, the company can identify inactive or unused accounts and remove access for those users. This will help to prevent compliance violations and ensure that only authorized users have access to the company's systems and data.

The best option that will help to protect the PC from malicious files on the storage device would be A. Change the default settings on the PC. Changing the default settings on the PC can include disabling the autorun or autoplay feature, which can prevent malicious files from executing automatically when the storage device is plugged in. Changing the default settings can also include enabling antivirus software, updating the operating system and applications, and configuring user account control and permissions.

An identity provider (IdP) is responsible for authenticating users and generating security tokens containing user information. A service provider (SP) is responsible for accepting security tokens and granting access to resources based on the user's identity.

The company can use a wildcard certificate to secure its website if it is concerned with convenience and cost. A wildcard certificate can secure multiple subdomains, which makes it cost-effective and convenient for securing the various registered domains.

The retail company should use a wildcard certificate if it is concerned with convenience and cost12. A wildcard SSL certificate is a single SSL/TLS certificate that can provide significant time and cost savings, particularly for small businesses. The certificate includes a wildcard character (*) in the domain name field, and can secure multiple subdomains of the primary domain1

Symmetric encryption allows data to be encrypted and decrypted using the same key. This is useful when the data needs to be accessed and manipulated while still encrypted. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

Reviewing the email event logs can support an investigation for fraudulent submission, as these logs can provide details about the history of emails, including the message content, timestamps, and sender/receiver information. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 3.2 Given a scenario, implement appropriate data security and privacy controls.

Privileged scanning, also known as credentialed scanning, is a type of vulnerability scanning that uses a valid user account to log in to the target host and examine vulnerabilities from a trusted user’s perspective. It can provide more accurate and comprehensive results than unprivileged scanning, which does not use any credentials and only scans for externally visible vulnerabilities.

Detailed Explanation: Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the maximum duration of time that an organization can tolerate data loss in the event of an outage. It identifies the point in time when data recovery must begin, and any data loss beyond that point is considered unacceptable.

The Computer Incident Response Team (CIRT) is responsible for handling incidents and ensuring that the incident response plan is followed. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 9

NFC allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are in close proximity to each other, typically within 5 centimetres. This makes it the most secure connection method for the company's data transfer requirements.

Perfect forward secrecy would ensure that it cannot be used to decrypt all historical data. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is a security protocol that generates a unique session key for each session between two parties. This ensures that even if one session key is compromised, it cannot be used to decrypt other sessions.

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a security solution that protects web applications from various types of attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and others. It is typically deployed in front of web servers to inspect incoming traffic and filter out malicious requests.

To protect the company’s website from malicious web requests over SSL, a decryption certificate is needed to decrypt the SSL traffic before it reaches the WAF. This allows the WAF to inspect the traffic and filter out malicious requests.

ISO 27001 is an international standard that outlines the requirements for an Information Security Management System (ISMS). It provides a framework for managing and protecting sensitive information using risk management processes. Acquiring an ISO 27001 certification assures customers that the organization meets security standards and follows best practices for information security management. It helps to build customer trust and confidence in the organization's ability to protect their sensitive information. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware, p. 7

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A screened subnet is a network segment that can be used for servers that require connections from untrusted networks. It is placed between two firewalls, with one firewall facing the untrusted network and the other facing the trusted network. This setup provides an additional layer of security by screening the traffic that flows between the two networks. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

Geofencing is a location-based technology that allows an organization to define and enforce logical access control policies based on physical location and proximity. Geofencing can be used to grant or restrict access to systems, data, or facilities based on an individual's location, and it can be integrated into a user's device or the infrastructure. This makes it a suitable solution for the pilot project to test the adaptive, user-based authentication method that includes granting logical access based on physical location and proximity.

When allowing mobile BYOD devices to access network resources, using a captive portal for user authentication and authenticating users using OAuth are both best practices for authentication and infrastructure security. A captive portal requires users to authenticate before accessing the network and can be used to enforce policies and restrictions. OAuth allows users to authenticate using third-party providers, reducing the risk of password reuse and credential theft. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 217-218, 225-226

Salting is a technique that adds random data to a password before hashing it. This makes the hash output more unique and unpredictable, and prevents attackers from using precomputed tables (such as rainbow tables) to crack the password hash. Salting also reduces the risk of collisions, which occur when different passwords produce the same hash.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://auth0.com/blog/adding-salt-to-hashing-a-better-way-to-store-passwords/

A biometric scanner uses physical characteristics such as fingerprints to identify an individual user. It is used to ensure that only the authorized user is present when gaining access to a secured area.

To verify that a client-server (non-web) application is sending encrypted traffic, a security analyst can use OpenSSL. OpenSSL is a software library that provides cryptographic functions, including encryption and decryption, in support of various security protocols, including SSL/TLS. It can be used to check whether a client-server application is using encryption to protect traffic. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601