220-1202 Questions and Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Credential managers or password vaults (e.g., Windows Credential Manager, KeePass, or LastPass) store passwords securely. The integrity of such tools heavily depends on the strength of the master password protecting the vault. If compromised, all saved credentials could be exposed. Therefore, setting a secure master password is crucial.

A. Login time restrictions are general user account settings, not specific to credential managers.

C. TPM is used more commonly for full disk encryption, not specifically required for password managers.

D. The lock screen protects general access but does not protect stored credentials alone.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Thefirst stepin troubleshooting degraded mobile performance is typically arestart. This clears RAM and stops background processes that might be causing issues.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Before taking invasive measures like a factory reset, always restart the device. A reboot clears temporary files and can significantly improve responsiveness.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This is likely arogue antivirusor scareware tactic. The user shouldnot click "OK"and instead check Windows Security (or third-party antivirus) status and ensure real-time protection is enabled.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“Users should verify security center settings if receiving suspicious pop-ups. Clicking unknown software updates can install malware. It’s safer to validate protection through legitimate system tools.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An incident report documents key details such as the cause of the outage, steps taken to resolve it, and measures to prevent recurrence. It is a post-mortem analysis often shared with stakeholders to improve future response.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“An incident report provides a summary of an event that disrupted normal operations and includes a timeline of what occurred, how the issue was diagnosed and fixed, and who was involved in the resolution”.

This is reaffirmed in Travis Everett’s All-in-One Guide:

“Documentation after an incident helps technical teams and management review the situation and learn from it. This is formalized in an incident report”.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

User offboarding involves disabling the departing user's access to company systems and facilities. Two key tasks typically include:

Deactivating physical access credentials (e.g., key fobs or badges) to prevent unauthorized entry (B).

Suspending or disabling the user’s email account to prevent future use and to retain business communications (D).

A. Quarantining a hard drive is not standard unless malware or legal issues are involved.

C. Purging PII must follow legal retention policies; it's not typically an immediate offboarding task.

E. Disabling network ports may be relevant in some cases but is not a standard offboarding step.

F. Blocking MAC addresses is not typical unless the device is considered a security threat.

Online collaboration tools (for example, Microsoft 365/OneDrive, Google Workspace/Drive) typically store documents in cloud storage and rely on a sync client to make those files appear locally on each device. If the user can’t see the document on the laptop, the most direct remediation is to synchronize the remote (cloud) folder so the document downloads to the laptop and stays consistent across devices. The All-in-One guide explains that productivity platforms are “designed to be synchronized across multiple devices,” allowing work to be paused on one device and resumed on another, and that many sync problems come down to configuration or a partial sync that leaves data not fully downloaded. It also notes that enabling/adjusting synchronization settings is often the fix. Quentin Docter similarly describes synced files becoming accessible through File Explorer once server/client synchronization is configured and highlights “Documents” as a common sync data type. Mike Meyers reinforces that file services like OneDrive/Google Drive use an installed app on each device to specify what gets synchronized.

To prevent unauthorized physical access to a mobile device, the company must ensure the device locks quickly and requires an authentication factor before anyone can use it. PIN authentication directly blocks access by requiring a passcode to unlock the device—Quentin Docter lists PIN lock as one of the primary “screen lock” methods used to secure mobile devices, explaining it as the most common unlock method (typically 4–6 digits, sometimes alphanumeric).

Screen timeout (auto-lock) reduces the window in which an unattended phone remains usable; the All-in-One guide notes that systems can be set to an automatic timeout and screen lock, requiring credentials after a short period of inactivity. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces that you should “protect your data from access by putting a good screen lock on the device,” and that these locks commonly require a password/PIN/pattern/biometric to regain access after locking.

Hotspots, VPN, antivirus, and location services are valuable, but they do not primarily stop someone holding the device from opening it and accessing data.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile OS updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with specific apps, including corporate email clients. The most likely resolution is to check for and apply an update to the affected application, especially if it hasn’t been updated to support the latest OS version.

B. Registering with MDM might be required for access but wouldn’t address app crashes due to incompatibility.

C. A third-party client might help, but it’s not the best first step if the default app is expected to work.

D. Clearing the cache can help resolve some minor issues, but updating the app directly addresses compatibility concerns.

The correct answer is B. The SATA HDD power cable is disconnected, because RAM upgrades require opening the case, which can easily result in accidentally loosening or disconnecting internal cables. If the system cannot detect the boot drive, it will display a “No boot device found” error.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, one of the first troubleshooting steps after hardware changes is to verify that all internal cables—especially SATA data and power cables—are securely connected. A disconnected drive will not be detected by the BIOS or UEFI firmware.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that boot order changes are less likely unless the technician explicitly modified BIOS settings. Similarly, reformatting a drive would not occur during a RAM upgrade.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that physical connection issues are among the most common causes of boot failures following hardware maintenance. A disconnected power cable prevents the hard drive from spinning up, making it invisible to the system.

Because the issue appeared immediately after opening the case for a RAM upgrade, the most likely cause is a disconnected SATA power cable, making B the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The symptoms suggest abrowser hijacker. Thefirst stepsshould be toremove any malicious extensionsandreset the startup pageto restore normal behavior.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Browser hijackers often install as extensions and change homepage settings. Removing these extensions and resetting the startup configuration typically resolves the issue.”

The correct answer is B. Task Manager, because Task Manager allows technicians to view, manage, and terminate running processes, including those that are frozen or unresponsive. If an application process is already running but not responding, launching it again will fail until the existing process is stopped.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Task Manager is the primary Windows tool for troubleshooting application hangs, excessive resource usage, and nonresponsive programs. Technicians can end the task and relaunch the application cleanly.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Resource Monitor provides detailed performance metrics but is not optimized for quickly terminating frozen applications. Event Viewer logs errors but does not resolve active process issues.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that Registry Editor should never be used for live application troubleshooting due to the risk of system instability.

Because the issue involves an unresponsive background process, Task Manager is the fastest and safest tool to resolve the problem, making B the correct answer.

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS, which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x)

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Memory usage is critically high, suggesting many applications or background processes. Closing unnecessary programs will immediately free up RAM.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“High memory usage with moderate CPU load usually means too many applications are open. Close unnecessary apps or use Task Manager to end processes.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If internal resources (such as intranet or internal apps) can't be accessed but external sites work, this often points to aDNS issue, where the system isn't resolving internal domain names correctly.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When internet access is functional but internal sites fail to load, the issue usually lies with DNS resolution. Internal resources often require internal DNS servers, which may not be configured correctly.”

The correct syntax for mapping a network drive in Windows is:

net use Z: \\WinNAS\shared

This command connects the specified network share and maps it as drive Z:.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use net use followed by the desired drive letter and the UNC path to map network shares.”

The correct answer is B. SSID configuration, because controlling SSID visibility and behavior directly affects which wireless networks devices can see and attempt to join. In shared office environments, multiple Wi-Fi networks may be present, increasing the risk of users accidentally connecting to the wrong network.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSIDs define how wireless networks are advertised and discovered. By modifying SSID settings—such as disabling broadcast or restricting auto-join behavior—technicians can prevent devices from attempting to connect to unauthorized or unintended networks.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that MDM solutions often preconfigure approved wireless profiles. Adjusting SSID configuration ensures devices only recognize and connect to sanctioned networks, reducing accidental associations and security risks.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that IP filtering, content filtering, and port forwarding are network traffic control mechanisms. They do not prevent a device from seeing or attempting to connect to nearby Wi-Fi networks.

Because the goal is to prevent accidental Wi-Fi access, not filter traffic after connection, modifying SSID configuration is the correct and most effective solution.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In a domain environment, printers are typically deployed via a print server. Users can browse available printers on the server and install them directly.

All-in-One Exam Guidementions:

“In a corporate domain, printers are managed via a centralized print server. Users can select the desired printer from the server’s shared list.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The recurring print issue suggests theprint spooler service is not set to start automatically, causing it to stop between sessions. Ensuring it is set tostart automaticallyand manuallystarting the servicewill resolve the issue.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“The print spooler is essential for print services. If it isn’t configured to start automatically, users may experience recurring failures.”

“Manually starting the service or setting it to 'Automatic' in the Services panel resolves persistent print availability problems.”

The correct answer is D. Roaming profiles, because roaming profiles allow users to log in to any domain-joined workstation and automatically access their personal settings, documents, and configuration without storing data locally on each machine. This is ideal for environments with hot-desking or shared workstations.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, roaming profiles store user data centrally on a server rather than on individual computers. When a user logs in, their profile is loaded; when they log out, changes are saved back to the server. This minimizes data duplication and reduces the risk of data being left behind on shared systems.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that roaming profiles improve security by preventing sensitive user data from being permanently stored on multiple endpoints. This also simplifies backup and recovery, since user data resides in a centralized location.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that portable drives introduce data loss risks, cloud email only addresses messaging data, and certificate storage does not manage user profiles or documents.

Because the goal is to maintain data security while allowing mobility and minimizing data transfer, roaming profiles are the most appropriate solution, making D the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. net use, which is the Windows command-line utility used to display, create, and remove mapped network drives and SMB (Server Message Block) connections. When working remotely through command-line interfaces, technicians often rely on net use to quickly verify which network shares are currently connected.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that SMB is the protocol Windows uses for file and printer sharing, and mapped drives are maintained through SMB sessions. The net use command lists all active connections, including the drive letter, remote UNC path, and connection status.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide highlights that net use is especially valuable for remote troubleshooting because it does not require a graphical interface. This makes it ideal when administering multiple systems via command prompt or remote shell.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that systeminfo displays OS and hardware details, hostname only shows the system name, and nslookup is used for DNS queries. None of those commands provide information about mapped SMB shares.

Since the task is to verify existing SMB mappings, net use is the only command that directly fulfills this requirement, making C the correct answer.

The correct answers are C. GPT and E. NTFS. The GUID Partition Table (GPT) partitioning scheme is required because it supports more than four primary partitions and disks larger than 2TB. Since the SSD is 4TB and requires at least five primary partitions, MBR is not suitable.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, MBR is limited to four primary partitions and a maximum disk size of 2TB. GPT removes these limitations and is required for modern systems using UEFI firmware, including Windows 11.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Windows installations on large disks should use GPT in combination with NTFS, which is the preferred Windows file system due to its support for large files, permissions, encryption, and reliability features.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that FAT16 cannot support large volumes, XFS is a Linux file system, and APFS is designed for Apple systems. None of these are appropriate for a Windows 11 installation.

Because the requirement involves disk size, partition count, and Windows compatibility, the correct combination is GPT for partitioning and NTFS for the file system, making C and E the correct answers.

The correct answer is A. gpedit.msc, which opens the Local Group Policy Editor. Group Policy allows administrators to configure and enforce security-related settings, including screensaver timeout, password protection, and automatic locking, across systems or user accounts.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Group Policy is commonly used to enforce security policies such as inactivity timeouts, especially in departments handling sensitive data like finance or HR.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that screensaver timeout settings can be configured under User Configuration → Administrative Templates → Control Panel → Personalization, ensuring systems lock automatically after a defined period of inactivity.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that tools like certmgr.msc manage certificates, devmgmt.msc manages hardware devices, and perfmon.msc monitors system performance. None of these tools control user security policies.

Because the requirement is to enforce a shorter screensaver timeout for security, Group Policy Editor is the correct and professional tool, making A the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. Remove account administrative rights, because unauthorized software installation is most commonly possible when users have local administrator privileges. In Windows environments, installing most applications requires elevated permissions. If users are members of the local Administrators group, they can bypass many built-in security controls and install software without IT approval.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, the principle of least privilege is fundamental to endpoint security. Users should only be granted the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions. Removing administrative rights prevents users from installing unapproved applications and significantly reduces malware risk.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that while technologies like firewalls, SmartScreen, and Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) provide important layers of protection, they do not directly stop users from installing software if they already have administrative access. EDR detects and responds to threats, but it does not prevent intentional installation by privileged users.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that controlling user permissions is the most effective preventive control against unauthorized changes to a system. Removing admin rights stops the root cause rather than reacting after installation occurs.

Therefore, to prevent future unauthorized software installations, removing account administrative rights is the most direct and effective solution, making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an iOS device approaches full storage capacity, performance can be significantly impacted. iOS requires a buffer of free space to perform background processes efficiently.

From theAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“iOS devices need several gigabytes of free space to maintain optimal performance. Near-full storage can cause sluggish operation and failures in updates or background tasks.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) define the mandatory steps and expectations technicians must follow during support calls. This includes documentation standards such as logging user info, asset details, and issue descriptions in the ticketing system. Implementing SOPs ensures consistency and accountability.

A. SLAs define response/resolution times but not documentation practices.

B. Call categories organize types of issues but don't guide technician actions.

D. Knowledge base articles provide solutions to known problems but don't ensure proper ticket documentation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The amount of installed RAM is the key factor in determining whether a 64-bit OS is needed. A 32-bit operating system cannot effectively address more than 4GB of RAM. Since this system has 16GB of RAM, a 64-bit OS is required to utilize the full memory.

B. An Intel i7 CPU supports both 32-bit and 64-bit OS installations, so it alone doesn’t determine the need.

C. HDD size does not influence OS architecture selection.

D. Ethernet speed is a network consideration and not related to OS architecture.

The correct answer is B. diskmgmt.msc, which opens the Disk Management console in Windows. Disk Management is the primary built-in tool used to create, delete, resize, and format disk partitions.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that disk partitioning is commonly used to separate data for organizational, security, and backup purposes. Disk Management allows technicians to divide a single physical drive into multiple logical volumes, such as one partition for the operating system and another for user data.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide states that diskmgmt.msc provides a graphical interface for managing partitions, drive letters, file systems, and volumes without requiring third-party tools. This makes it the preferred and safest option for partitioning tasks on Windows systems.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that tools like perfmon.msc monitor performance, lusrmgr.msc manages user accounts, and devmgmt.msc handles hardware devices. None of these tools can modify disk partitions.

Because the task specifically involves creating partitions, Disk Management is the correct and only appropriate tool, making B the correct answer.

The best option is to create a lower-security network exclusively for the console. Many retro or legacy gaming consoles only support older Wi-Fi security standards such as WPA or even WEP, and they cannot connect to modern WPA2 or WPA3 networks. Downgrading the entire primary network would significantly weaken overall security, which is not recommended in any environment.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that legacy devices often lack firmware support for modern encryption standards and should be isolated rather than integrated directly into secure networks. Creating a separate SSID with reduced security limits exposure while still allowing connectivity for the unsupported device.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that lowering security settings on a primary router—even temporarily—introduces unnecessary risk. Switching encryption modes back and forth can also cause configuration instability and expose the network during the downgrade window.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further reinforces the concept of network segmentation as a best practice. By creating a dedicated network for legacy or insecure devices, administrators reduce the attack surface and prevent lateral movement to sensitive systems.

Using a wired Ethernet adapter may not be supported by the console, and adding an older router introduces unmanaged vulnerabilities. Therefore, isolating the console on a separate, lower-security wireless network is the safest and most practical solution.

The correct answer is A. DLP (Data Loss Prevention), because DLP solutions are specifically designed to detect, monitor, and prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive data outside an organization. Information exfiltration occurs when confidential data is improperly transferred, leaked, or stolen, either intentionally or accidentally.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, DLP technologies enforce policies that restrict how data can be shared via email, cloud services, removable media, or network transfers. DLP systems can block, quarantine, or alert administrators when sensitive data patterns—such as credit card numbers or personal identifiers—are detected leaving the organization.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that DLP focuses on data protection, not user authentication or device management. While IAM controls access to resources and MDM manages mobile devices, neither directly prevents data from being exfiltrated once access is granted.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that SAML is an authentication framework and does not monitor data movement.

Because the question specifically addresses information exfiltration, the security control designed to prevent it is Data Loss Prevention, making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the user's files and demands a payment (ransom) for the decryption key. When a user receives a message stating that their files are encrypted and cannot be accessed, ransomware is the most likely cause. The attacker’s goal is to hold the data hostage until the victim pays to restore access.

A. Keylogger records keystrokes and doesn’t encrypt files.

C. Phishing is a social engineering tactic to gather credentials, not to encrypt data.

D. Cryptominer uses system resources to mine cryptocurrency, not encrypt files.

The correct answer is B. Kerberos token, because Kerberos authentication relies heavily on precise system time synchronization between clients, servers, and the Key Distribution Center (KDC). Kerberos uses time-stamped tickets to prevent replay attacks, and even small time discrepancies can cause authentication failures.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Kerberos requires clocks on all participating systems to be synchronized within a narrow tolerance (typically five minutes). If system time is inaccurate, Kerberos will reject authentication requests, resulting in login failures and access denial.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Kerberos tokens include timestamps to ensure tickets are valid only for a short time window. This security design protects against attackers reusing captured authentication data.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that time synchronization issues are a common cause of Kerberos-related login problems in domain environments. Services like TACACS+, RADIUS, and WPA do not depend on strict system time synchronization in the same way Kerberos does.

Because Kerberos authentication cannot function correctly without accurate system time, B is the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

TheDo Not Disturbsetting in Windows Notification settings allows users to suppress all notification banners and sounds during presentations or video calls.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use Windows ‘Do Not Disturb’ to prevent notifications from interrupting full-screen apps like video conferencing.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier—often a steel or concrete post—designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.

A. PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.

B. Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn’t physically prevent entry.

C. Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Operating systems periodically reach a status known as "end of life" (EOL), at which point the developer (e.g., Microsoft, Apple) ceases to provide security updates, patches, or technical support. When this happens, the OS becomes vulnerable and non-compliant with security best practices, which is why organizations typically receive advance notifications from vendors or support teams.

A. Manufacturer support expiration only applies to hardware, not OS patching.

C. Security software may be upgraded or removed, but that does not affect patching the OS itself.

D. The release of a new version doesn’t automatically stop updates for the current version.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an OS reaches its end of life (EOL), it no longer receives updates or support, including critical security patches.

From the Quentin Docter Study Guide:

“End-of-life means the manufacturer no longer supports the OS with updates or security patches, which exposes systems to vulnerabilities unless upgraded”.

All-in-One Exam Guide adds:

“End-of-life notifications serve as a final warning that continued use of the OS will be insecure and unsupported. It’s crucial for administrators to plan migration”.

1st CLI Resolution

copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.