220-1202 Questions and Answers

AVPN (Virtual Private Network)creates a secure tunnel between the clerk’s home device and the town server, ensuring private and authenticated access.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“VPNs are essential for remote access to internal resources, providing secure connections over public networks.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Keychainis the built-in macOS utility that manages and stores credentials, including passwords and certificates.

According toQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Keychain Access in macOS is used for managing and storing passwords securely, similar to credential managers in Windows.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The net use command in Windows is used to map (assign) a shared drive from the command line. The syntax typically looks like: net use X: \server\share where X is the drive letter and \server\share is the network path.

A. pathping tests network latency and packet loss.

B. nslookup is used for DNS troubleshooting.

D. tracert shows the route packets take to reach a destination — not for drive mapping.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

These symptoms strongly suggest malware activity—likely from the newly installed app. The first action should be torun a malware scanto detect and isolate malicious software.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Signs of malware infection include rapid battery drain and overheating. The first step should be a malware scan using trusted mobile antivirus apps.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An incident report documents key details such as the cause of the outage, steps taken to resolve it, and measures to prevent recurrence. It is a post-mortem analysis often shared with stakeholders to improve future response.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“An incident report provides a summary of an event that disrupted normal operations and includes a timeline of what occurred, how the issue was diagnosed and fixed, and who was involved in the resolution”.

This is reaffirmed in Travis Everett’s All-in-One Guide:

“Documentation after an incident helps technical teams and management review the situation and learn from it. This is formalized in an incident report”.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.

B. Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.

C. User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.

D. Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity—it’s for accessibility features.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

TheDo Not Disturbsetting in Windows Notification settings allows users to suppress all notification banners and sounds during presentations or video calls.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use Windows ‘Do Not Disturb’ to prevent notifications from interrupting full-screen apps like video conferencing.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) outlines the rules and guidelines for employees or users regarding the appropriate use of company systems, resources, and internet access. It defines permitted and prohibited activities, helping to mitigate security risks and establish clear behavioral expectations.

B. MNDA (Mutual Non-Disclosure Agreement) deals with confidentiality, not usage guidelines.

C. DRM (Digital Rights Management) controls access to copyrighted content.

D. EULA (End User License Agreement) pertains to software licensing, not internal policies.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Most public Wi-Fi networks requireinteraction with a captive portal(e.g., terms of use or login). Dismissing it prevents the user from gaining internet access. Reconnecting and completing the portal page is essential.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Many public hotspots require user acknowledgment or login via a captive portal. Skipping this step results in no internet access.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The user’s issue likely stems from amobile data restriction or cap, especially since uploads work on Wi-Fi but not cellular. Checkingdata usage limitswill help determine if mobile uploads are blocked.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When data-intensive functions fail on mobile networks but not on Wi-Fi, it’s often due to data caps or metered connection limits.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Content filtering allows administrators to block or allow access to websites based on categories (e.g., social media, adult content, streaming). On a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) router, this is often built-in or available via DNS-level filtering, and is the most appropriate method for enforcing browsing policies without needing to touch each individual device.

A. Secure management access protects router admin interfaces but doesn’t control user browsing.

B. Group Policy Editor is a Windows tool, not used on routers.

D. A firewall can block specific IPs or ports, but it doesn't categorize web content.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If unauthorized or non-standard applications are appearing on systems and users are receiving licensing prompts, it’s likely users are installing software themselves. Removing users from the local administrators group will prevent them from installing software without approval and reduce the likelihood of introducing unapproved or malicious programs.

A. Deploying a PKI helps with secure communications but doesn’t address user software installation rights.

C. Blocking suspicious websites is helpful but doesn’t prevent local installations.

D. Stricter UAC may add prompts but can still be bypassed by admin users.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When a spreadsheet becomes very large, opening and processing it requires more memory (RAM). If the system doesn't have sufficient memory, it may fail to load the file properly. Upgrading or increasing the available RAM can resolve performance and loading issues with very large files.

A. Restore points roll back system settings, not individual file content.

C. Defragmentation optimizes disk performance but won’t help with memory issues.

D. Network speed has no effect if the file is stored and opened locally.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

exFATis the only listed file system that supports both read and write access across Windows, macOS, and Linux (with appropriate drivers). It’s optimized for flash storage and external drives.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“exFAT is a lightweight file system with cross-platform read/write support, ideal for use on removable drives when compatibility is essential.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Badge readers are electronic access control systems that require authorized users to scan a badge (e.g., RFID or magnetic strip cards) to gain access to restricted physical locations. These systems typically log all access attempts—successful or denied—providing both detection and recording of access events.

A. Bollards are physical barriers to prevent vehicle access.

B. Video surveillance can record access visually but does not track identity unless integrated with access control systems.

D. A fence restricts access but doesn't detect or record who entered.

An MSDS providessafety and emergency procedures, such as what to do if a battery leaks or catches fire. It is not a technical or setup guide.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“An MSDS contains safety information, including handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to potentially hazardous components like UPS batteries.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.

A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.

C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.

D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Carbon fiber filamentcan producefine particles or fumesduring printing, which may be harmful when inhaled. Wearing anair filter maskis essential to protect the respiratory system.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“When working with advanced materials like carbon fiber, always use appropriate personal protective equipment such as air filter masks to prevent inhalation of dangerous particles.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

AnNDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement)is used to ensure confidentiality of sensitive company information, especially when interacting with external parties.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“An NDA ensures that confidential information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, especially important in external communications.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an OS is no longer receiving updates, it is generally because it has reachedend of life (EOL), meaning the vendor has ceased support.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“End-of-life refers to the point when an OS vendor no longer issues updates or support. Systems at EOL pose security risks and must be upgraded or isolated.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions, Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.

A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.

B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.

C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Spear phishingtargets a specific individual using personalized tactics, as seen in emails impersonating a CEO to deceive a secretary.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“Spear phishing targets specific individuals or roles within an organization using tailored messages to increase success rates.”

The correct syntax for mapping a network drive in Windows is:

net use Z: \\WinNAS\shared

This command connects the specified network share and maps it as drive Z:.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use net use followed by the desired drive letter and the UNC path to map network shares.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The Linux machine likely formatted the drive in a file system like ext4, which Windows cannot natively read. Reformatting the drive toexFATallows cross-platform compatibility.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When migrating data between OSes, using a file system like exFAT ensures compatibility. Windows cannot read Linux-native file systems such as ext4 without third-party tools.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

ApplicationsandLibraryare core system directories in macOS. TheApplicationsfolder contains installed applications. TheLibraryfolder contains support files, preferences, and other system-related files.

From theQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“macOS organizes system and user files into several key folders. Among them, Applications and Library are standard system folders where apps and related files are stored.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

End-user education is crucial after malware removal to prevent recurrence. Teaching safe browsing habits and security awareness completes the remediation cycle.

Mark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manualstates:

“Educating the user after malware remediation is part of the CompTIA malware response methodology. This includes training on phishing and safe practices.”

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Videoconferencingplatforms allow real-time face-to-face communication and are ideal for collaborative training sessions involving remote employees.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Videoconferencing tools such as Zoom or Microsoft Teams are specifically designed for real-time communication and training, making them ideal for executive or large-group meetings.”

Hash values(like SHA256) are published by vendors to verify file integrity. A match confirms the file hasn’t been tampered with.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use hash values to ensure downloaded software matches the vendor’s published version and hasn't been modified.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If internal resources (such as intranet or internal apps) can't be accessed but external sites work, this often points to aDNS issue, where the system isn't resolving internal domain names correctly.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When internet access is functional but internal sites fail to load, the issue usually lies with DNS resolution. Internal resources often require internal DNS servers, which may not be configured correctly.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows workstations to boot over the network and download an OS image from a server. It is ideal for automating mass deployments using baseline images across many machines without the need for physical media.

A. An ISO is a disk image file but requires mounting or physical media.

B. Secure Boot is a security feature, not a method of deploying OS images.

C. USB requires manual installation and is not suitable for automated deployment at scale.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is used to control, monitor, and enforce policies on mobile devices. It allows IT teams to restrict app installations, push approved apps, and monitor device compliance. Deploying MDM would prevent unauthorized applications, such as password crackers, from being installed on company-managed devices.

A. Group Policy is for managing Windows environments and not applicable to smartphones.

B. PAM (Privileged Access Management) controls administrative access, not app installation.

C. Anti-malware can help detect malicious apps but doesn’t prevent their installation proactively.

When DHCP isn’t enabled, static IPs must be assigned manually, so the engineering team provides the IP details.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“If DHCP is unavailable, technicians need the static IP configuration to connect devices to the network.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Thefirst stepin troubleshooting degraded mobile performance is typically arestart. This clears RAM and stops background processes that might be causing issues.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Before taking invasive measures like a factory reset, always restart the device. A reboot clears temporary files and can significantly improve responsiveness.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Single sign-on (SSO)allows users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems without re-entering credentials, which significantly enhances user convenience while maintaining security.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Single sign-on streamlines authentication by allowing users to log in once and access all authorized resources, reducing credential fatigue and improving security.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an OS reaches its end of life (EOL), it no longer receives updates or support, including critical security patches.

From the Quentin Docter Study Guide:

“End-of-life means the manufacturer no longer supports the OS with updates or security patches, which exposes systems to vulnerabilities unless upgraded”.

All-in-One Exam Guide adds:

“End-of-life notifications serve as a final warning that continued use of the OS will be insecure and unsupported. It’s crucial for administrators to plan migration”.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Anincident reportsummarizes what happened during an outage, the timeline, the actions taken, and the resolution, which is exactly what management typically requests post-incident.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Incident reports document the events of an IT issue or outage, including detection, response, and resolution. They are crucial for post-incident review and management accountability.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The amount of installed RAM is the key factor in determining whether a 64-bit OS is needed. A 32-bit operating system cannot effectively address more than 4GB of RAM. Since this system has 16GB of RAM, a 64-bit OS is required to utilize the full memory.

B. An Intel i7 CPU supports both 32-bit and 64-bit OS installations, so it alone doesn’t determine the need.

C. HDD size does not influence OS architecture selection.

D. Ethernet speed is a network consideration and not related to OS architecture.

Azero-day vulnerabilitydemands an emergency change to quickly secure the system, even if downtime is needed.

FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“Emergency changes bypass standard scheduling to quickly address critical vulnerabilities that pose immediate risks.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

After containment and remediation, one of the final steps in incident response is user education. Since the root cause was a phishing attack, it is essential to educate users about identifying phishing attempts, safe browsing practices, and how to handle suspicious communications. This improves overall security posture and helps prevent future incidents.

A. Installing additional tools may be helpful but is a long-term step.

C. Flashing router firmware is not warranted unless the network hardware is known to be compromised.

D. Suggesting more advanced tools might be excessive given that the EDR successfully contained the incident.