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CCSK Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

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Question # 7

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

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Question # 8

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

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Question # 9

When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

A.

The CSP server facility

B.

The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud

C.

The network components controlled by the CSP

D.

The CSP office spaces

E.

Their own virtual instances in the cloud

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Question # 10

What is a key component of governance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining roles and responsibilities

B.

Standardizing technical specifications for security control

C.

Defining tools and technologies

D.

Enforcement of the Penetration Testing procedure

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Question # 11

Audits should be robustly designed to reflect best practice, appropriate resources, and tested protocols and standards. They should also use what type of auditors?

A.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud customer

B.

Independent auditors

C.

Certified by CSA

D.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud provider

E.

None of the above

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Question # 12

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 13

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 14

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

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Question # 15

What is critical for securing serverless computing models in the cloud?

A.

Disabling console access completely or using privileged access management

B.

Validating the underlying container security

C.

Managing secrets and configuration with the least privilege

D.

Placing serverless components behind application load balancers

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Question # 16

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

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Question # 17

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

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Question # 18

CCM: In the CCM tool, “Encryption and Key Management” is an example of which of the following?

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

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Question # 19

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 20

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

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Question # 21

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a singlecloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities withsimilar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

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Question # 22

How does cloud adoption impact incident response processes in cybersecurity?

A.

It only affects data storage and not incident response

B.

It has no significant impact on incident response processes

C.

It simplifies incident response by consolidating processes

D.

It introduces different processes, technologies, and governance models

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Question # 23

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

A.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

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Question # 24

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 25

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

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Question # 26

What's the best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications?

A.

By implementing end-to-end encryption and multi-factor authentication

B.

By conducting regular security audits and updates

C.

By deploying intrusion detection systems and monitoring

D.

By integrating security at the architectural and design level

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Question # 27

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

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Question # 28

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

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Question # 29

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 30

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

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Question # 31

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 32

What of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of cloud computing?

A.

Broad Network Access

B.

Measured Service

C.

Third Party Service

D.

Rapid Elasticity

E.

Resource Pooling

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Question # 33

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes

A.

Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity.

B.

An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters.

C.

An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes.

D.

Attributes are made unique by their identities.

E.

Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

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Question # 34

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Question # 35

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

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Question # 36

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

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Question # 37

Which of the following best describes the advantage of custom application level encryption?

A.

It simplifies the encryption process by centralizing it at the network level

B.

It enables ownership and more granular control of encryption keys

C.

It reduces the need for encryption by enhancing network security

D.

It delegates the control of keys to third-party providers

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Question # 38

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Question # 39

Which of the following statements best reflects the responsibility of organizations regarding cloud security and data ownership?

A.

Cloud providers are responsible for everything under the 'limited O responsibilities clauses.' The customer and the provider have joint accountability.

B.

Cloud providers assume full responsibility for the security obligations, and cloud customers are accountable for overall compliance.

C.

Data ownership rights are solely determined by the cloud provider, leaving organizations with no control or accountability over their data.

D.

Organizations are accountable for the security and compliance of their data and systems, even though they may lack full visibility into their cloud provider's infrastructure.

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Question # 40

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Question # 41

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

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Question # 42

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

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Question # 43

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

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Question # 44

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

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Question # 45

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

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Question # 46

What's the difference between DNS Logs and Flow Logs?

A.

They represent the logging of different networking solutions, and DNS Logs are more suitable for a ZTA implementation

B.

DNS Logs record domain name resolution requests and responses, while Flow Logs record info on source, destination, protocol

C.

They play identical functions and can be used interchangeably

D.

DNS Logs record all the information about the network behavior, including source, destination, and protocol, while Flow Logs record users' applications behavior

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Question # 47

Which term describes any situation where the cloud consumer does

not manage any of the underlying hardware or virtual machines?

A.

Serverless computing

B.

Virtual machineless

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Provider managed

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Question # 48

What item below allows disparate directory services and independent security domains to be interconnected?

A.

Coalition

B.

Cloud

C.

Intersection

D.

Union

E.

Federation

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Question # 49

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

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Question # 50

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

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Question # 51

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Question # 52

What key characteristic differentiates cloud networks from traditional networks?

A.

Cloud networks are software-defined networks (SDNs)

B.

Cloud networks rely on dedicated hardware appliances

C.

Cloud networks are less scalable than traditional networks

D.

Cloud networks have the same architecture as traditional networks

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Question # 53

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Question # 54

CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in

their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?

A.

Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system-system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.

B.

Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned ormanaged user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.

C.

All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.

D.

None of the above

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Question # 55

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Question # 56

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

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Question # 57

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

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Question # 58

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

A.

Application logic

B.

Access controls

C.

Encryption solutions

D.

Physical destruction

E.

Asset management and tracking

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Question # 59

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

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Question # 60

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 61

Which of the following best describes a benefit of using VPNs for cloud connectivity?

A.

VPNs are more cost-effective than any other connectivity option.

B.

VPNs provide secure, encrypted connections between data centers and cloud deployments.

C.

VPNs eliminate the need for third-party authentication services.

D.

VPNs provide higher bandwidth than direct connections.

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Question # 62

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

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Question # 63

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

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Question # 64

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

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Question # 65

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

A.

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

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Question # 66

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

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Question # 67

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 68

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

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Question # 69

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Question # 70

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

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Question # 71

Which factor is typically considered in data classification?

A.

CI/CD step

B.

Storage capacity requirements

C.

Sensitivity of data

D.

Data controller

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Question # 72

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

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Question # 73

Which term describes the practice in cloud compliance where a customer acquires a set of pre-approved regulatory or standards-based controls from a compliant provider?

A.

Automated compliance

B.

Attestation inheritance

C.

Audit inheritance

D.

Compliance inheritance

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Question # 74

For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?

A.

Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment

B.

Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts

C.

Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use

D.

Service-level agreements between all parties

E.

Full API access to all required services

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Question # 75

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

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Question # 76

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Question # 77

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

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Question # 78

Which approach is commonly used by organizations to manage identities in the cloud due to the complexity of scaling across providers?

A.

Decentralization

B.

Centralization

C.

Federation

D.

Outsourcing

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Question # 79

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

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Question # 80

Which of the following best describes the concept of AI as a Service (AIaaS)?

A.

Selling Al hardware to enterprises for internal use

B.

Hosting and running Al models with customer-built solutions

C.

Offering pre-built Al models to third-party vendors

D.

Providing software as an Al model with no customization options

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Question # 81

What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit

blast radius with laaS an PaaS?

A.

Configuring secondary authentication

B.

Establishing multiple accounts

C.

Maintaining tight control of the primary account holder credentials

D.

Implementing least privilege accounts

E.

Configuring role-based authentication

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Question # 82

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

A.

Infrastructures as a Service

B.

A Private Cloud

C.

A Community Cloud

D.

A Hybrid Cloud

E.

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

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Question # 83

What is the primary benefit of Federated Identity Management in an enterprise environment?

A.

It allows single set credential access to multiple systems and services

B.

It encrypts data between multiple systems and services

C.

It segregates user permissions across different systems and services

D.

It enhances multi-factor authentication across all systems and services

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Question # 84

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

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Question # 85

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

A.

Discovery

B.

Custody

C.

Subpoena

D.

Risk Assessment

E.

Scope

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Question # 86

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

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Question # 87

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.

Containers

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Question # 88

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

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Question # 89

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

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Question # 90

What Identity and Access Management (IAM) process decides to permit or deny a subject access to system objects like networks, data, or applications?

A.

Authorization

B.

Federation

C.

Authentication

D.

Provisioning

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Question # 91

Which type of AI workload typically requires large data sets and substantial computing resources?

A.

Evaluation

B.

Data Preparation

C.

Training

D.

Inference

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