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CCSK Questions and Answers

Question # 6

In the IaaS shared responsibility model, which responsibility typically falls on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

Encrypting data at rest

B.

Ensuring physical security of data centers

C.

Managing application code

D.

Configuring firewall rules

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Question # 7

Why is it essential to include key metrics and periodic reassessment in cybersecurity governance?

A.

To meet legal requirements and avoid fines

B.

To ensure effective and continuous improvement of security measures

C.

To document all cybersecurity incidents and monitor them overtime

D.

To reduce the number of security incidents to zero

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Question # 8

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

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Question # 9

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

A.

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

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Question # 10

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

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Question # 11

After an incident has been identified and classified, which activity is typically performed during the Containment, Eradication, and Recovery phase of incident response?

A.

Documenting lessons learned and finalizing reports

B.

Restoring systems to operational status while preventing recurrence

C.

Monitoring network traffic for anomalies

D.

Identifying and classifying security threats

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Question # 12

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

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Question # 13

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

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Question # 14

In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

A.

Management plane activity logs

B.

Network perimeter monitoring

C.

Endpoint protection status

D.

Physical hardware access

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Question # 15

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Question # 16

Which approach is commonly used by organizations to manage identities in the cloud due to the complexity of scaling across providers?

A.

Decentralization

B.

Centralization

C.

Federation

D.

Outsourcing

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Question # 17

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 18

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

A.

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

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Question # 19

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

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Question # 20

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

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Question # 21

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

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Question # 22

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 23

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

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Question # 24

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

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Question # 25

What is the primary purpose of Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems in a cloud environment?

A.

To encrypt data to ensure its confidentiality

B.

To govern identities' access to resources in the cloud

C.

To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity

D.

To provide a backup solution for cloud data

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Question # 26

Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

A.

High operational costs

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Limited scalability

D.

Complex deployment pipelines

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Question # 27

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

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Question # 28

How can the use of third-party libraries introduce supply chain risks in software development?

A.

They are usually open source and do not require vetting

B.

They might contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited

C.

They fail to integrate properly with existing continuous integration pipelines

D.

They might increase the overall complexity of the codebase

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Question # 29

Which of the following best describes the shared responsibility model in cloud security?

A.

Cloud providers handle physical infrastructure security while customers handle workload security.

B.

Cloud providers handle both infrastructure and workload security.

C.

Neither cloud providers nor customers are responsible for security.

D.

Customers handle both infrastructure and workload security.

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Question # 30

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

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Question # 31

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logsfor threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

A.

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.

Parallel processing approach

C.

Streamlined single-filter method

D.

Unfiltered bulk analysis

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Question # 32

What is one significant way Artificial Intelligence, particularly Large Language Models, is impacting IT and security?

A.

Eliminating the need for encryption

B.

Replacing all IT personnel

C.

Automating threat detection and response

D.

Standardizing software development languages

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Question # 33

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

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Question # 34

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 35

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 36

What is the primary advantage of implementing Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery/Deployment (CI/CD) pipelines in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Replacing the need for security teams.

B.

Slowing down the development process for testing.

C.

Automating security checks and deployments.

D.

Enhancing code quality.

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Question # 37

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

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Question # 38

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

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Question # 39

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

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Question # 40

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

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Question # 41

According to NIST, what is cloud computing defined as?

A.

A shared set of resources delivered over the Internet

B.

A model for more-efficient use of network-based resources

C.

A model for on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources

D.

Services that are delivered over the Internet to customers

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Question # 42

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

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Question # 43

What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit

blast radius with laaS an PaaS?

A.

Configuring secondary authentication

B.

Establishing multiple accounts

C.

Maintaining tight control of the primary account holder credentials

D.

Implementing least privilege accounts

E.

Configuring role-based authentication

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Question # 44

Which of the following best describes the concept of AI as a Service (AIaaS)?

A.

Selling Al hardware to enterprises for internal use

B.

Hosting and running Al models with customer-built solutions

C.

Offering pre-built Al models to third-party vendors

D.

Providing software as an Al model with no customization options

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Question # 45

What is the primary benefit of Federated Identity Management in an enterprise environment?

A.

It allows single set credential access to multiple systems and services

B.

It encrypts data between multiple systems and services

C.

It segregates user permissions across different systems and services

D.

It enhances multi-factor authentication across all systems and services

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Question # 46

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

A.

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

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Question # 47

Which of the following best describes the primary function of Cloud Detection and Response (CDR) in cybersecurity?

A.

Detect and respond to security threats in the cloud

B.

Manage cloud-based applications

C.

Provide cost management for cloud services

D.

Optimize cloud storage performance

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Question # 48

Which cloud storage technology is basically a virtual hard drive for instanced or VMs?

A.

Volume storage

B.

Platform

C.

Database

D.

Application

E.

Object storage

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Question # 49

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

A.

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.

They track cloud administrative activities

D.

They report on user activities within applications

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Question # 50

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

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Question # 51

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

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Question # 52

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

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Question # 53

What is resource pooling?

A.

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 54

When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 55

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

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Question # 56

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 57

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 58

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Question # 59

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Question # 60

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of image factories in the context of virtual machine (VM) management?

A.

Automating the VM image creation processes

B.

Managing network configurations for VMs

C.

Providing backup solutions for VM images

D.

Enhancing security of VM images

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Question # 61

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

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Question # 62

CCM: The Cloud Service Delivery Model Applicability column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Mappings to well-known standards and frameworks

B.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

C.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

D.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Question # 63

Which factor is typically considered in data classification?

A.

CI/CD step

B.

Storage capacity requirements

C.

Sensitivity of data

D.

Data controller

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Question # 64

Why is it important to plan and coordinate response activities for incidents affecting the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

It eliminates the need for monitoring systems

B.

It ensures a systematic approach, minimizing damage and recovery time

C.

It guarantees that no incidents will occur in the future

D.

It reduces the frequency of security audits required

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Question # 65

What are the key outcomes of implementing robust cloud risk management practices?

A.

Ensuring the security and resilience of cloud environments

B.

Negotiating shared responsibilities

C.

Transferring compliance to the cloud service provider via inheritance

D.

Reducing the need for compliance with regulatory requirements

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Question # 66

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes

A.

Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity.

B.

An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters.

C.

An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes.

D.

Attributes are made unique by their identities.

E.

Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

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Question # 67

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

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Question # 68

Why is it important for Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) to document security controls?

A.

It allows CSPs to reduce operational costs and increase security efficiency

B.

It ensures transparency and accountability for security measures

C.

It reduces the frequency for regular independent audits

D.

It helps CSPs enhance their marketing strategies and relationship with policymakers

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Question # 69

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

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Question # 70

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

A.

Infrastructures as a Service

B.

A Private Cloud

C.

A Community Cloud

D.

A Hybrid Cloud

E.

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

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Question # 71

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

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Question # 72

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

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Question # 73

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

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Question # 74

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

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Question # 75

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

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Question # 76

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

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Question # 77

Which of the following statements best defines the "authorization" as a component of identity, entitlement, and access management?

A.

The process of specifying and maintaining access policies

B.

Checking data storage to make sure it meets compliance requirements

C.

Giving a third party vendor permission to work on your cloud solution

D.

Establishing/asserting the identity to the application

E.

Enforcing the rules by which access is granted to the resources

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Question # 78

CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?

GRM 06 – Policy GRM 07 – Policy Enforcement GRM 08 – Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 – Policy Reviews GRM 10 – Risk Assessments GRM 11 – Risk Management Framework

A.

Governance and Retention Management

B.

Governance and Risk Management

C.

Governing and Risk Metrics

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Question # 79

What does Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) primarily use to control access to applications?

A.

Geolocation data exclusively

B.

Username and password

C.

IP address and port number

D.

Identity, device, and contextual factors

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Question # 80

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

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Question # 81

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

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Question # 82

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

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Question # 83

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

A.

Forwarding plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Application plane

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Question # 84

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Question # 85

What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

A.

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

B.

Increases the speed of deployment to production

C.

Improves runtime performance of the application

D.

Enhances the user interface of the application

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Question # 86

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

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Question # 87

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

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Question # 88

If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 89

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

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Question # 90

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 91

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

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Question # 92

Which of the following is a common risk factor related to misconfiguration and inadequate change control in cybersecurity?

A.

Failure to update access controls after employee role changes

B.

Lack of sensitive data encryption

C.

Lack of 3rd party service provider specialized in patch management procedures

D.

Excessive SBOM focus

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Question # 93

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

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Question # 94

What is a commonly used method by which hybrid cloud integrates data centers with public cloud?

A.

Using VPN or dedicated links

B.

Using peer-to-peer networks

C.

Using local area network (LAN)

D.

Using satellite connections

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Question # 95

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

A.

Discovery

B.

Custody

C.

Subpoena

D.

Risk Assessment

E.

Scope

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Question # 96

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

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Question # 97

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 98

Why is it essential to embed cloud decisions within organizational governance?

A.

Speeds up cloud service adoption significantly

B.

Reduces the complexity of implementing cloud solutions

C.

Gives IT department autonomous control over cloud resources

D.

Ensures alignment with business objectives and risk management

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Question # 99

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

A.

Application logic

B.

Access controls

C.

Encryption solutions

D.

Physical destruction

E.

Asset management and tracking

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