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CCSK Questions and Answers

Question # 6

What is a key advantage of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in application development?

A.

It removes the need for manual testing.

B.

It eliminates the need for cybersecurity measures.

C.

It enables version control and rapid deployment.

D.

It ensures zero configuration drift by default.

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Question # 7

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a singlecloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities withsimilar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

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Question # 8

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 9

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Question # 10

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

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Question # 11

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 12

What is a core tenant of risk management?

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are inplace, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss ofcustomers.

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Question # 13

What is the primary role of Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

A.

To encrypt data at rest and in transit

B.

Ensure only authorized entities access resources

C.

To monitor and log all user activities and traffic

D.

Ensure all users have the same level of access

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Question # 14

Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Nation-state boundaries

C.

Measured service

D.

Unlimited bandwidth

E.

Hybrid clouds

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Question # 15

What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?

A.

To create isolated virtual networks

B.

To monitor network performance and activity

C.

To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations

D.

To encrypt data for secure transmission

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Question # 16

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

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Question # 17

Which of the following best describes the advantage of custom application level encryption?

A.

It simplifies the encryption process by centralizing it at the network level

B.

It enables ownership and more granular control of encryption keys

C.

It reduces the need for encryption by enhancing network security

D.

It delegates the control of keys to third-party providers

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Question # 18

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

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Question # 19

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenanttechnologies?

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

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Question # 20

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 21

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

A.

Fixed resource allocations

B.

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.

Increased on-premise hardware

D.

Elasticity of cloud resources

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Question # 22

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

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Question # 23

Which of the following is true about access policies in cybersecurity?

A.

They are used to monitor real-time network traffic

B.

They are solely concerned with user authentication methods

C.

They provide data encryption protocols for secure communication

D.

They define permissions and network rules for resource access

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Question # 24

Which of the following best describes the concept of Measured Service in cloud computing?

A.

Cloud systems allocate a fixed immutable set of measured services to each customer.

B.

Cloud systems offer elastic resources.

C.

Cloud systems provide usage reports upon request, based on manual reporting.

D.

Cloud systems automatically monitor resource usage and provide billing based on actual consumption.

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Question # 25

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

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Question # 26

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

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Question # 27

Which two key capabilities are required for technology to be considered cloud computing?

A.

Abstraction and orchestration

B.

Abstraction and resource pooling

C.

Multi-tenancy and isolation

D.

Virtualization and multi-tenancy

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Question # 28

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

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Question # 29

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

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Question # 30

What is the primary function of Privileged Identity Management (PIM) and Privileged Access Management (PAM)?

A.

Encrypt data transmitted over the network

B.

Manage the risk of elevated permissions

C.

Monitor network traffic and detect intrusions

D.

Ensure system uptime and reliability

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Question # 31

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?

A.

Virtualization

B.

Applistructure

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Metastructure

E.

Orchestration

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Question # 32

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

A.

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

B.

IAM failures

C.

Lack of encryption for data at rest

D.

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

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Question # 33

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

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Question # 34

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Question # 35

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

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Question # 36

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

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Question # 37

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

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Question # 38

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

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Question # 39

Which cloud deployment model involves a cloud and a datacenter, bound together by technology to enable data and application portability?

A.

Hybrid cloud

B.

Public cloud

C.

Multi-cloud

D.

Private cloud

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements best reflects the responsibility of organizations regarding cloud security and data ownership?

A.

Cloud providers are responsible for everything under the 'limited O responsibilities clauses.' The customer and the provider have joint accountability.

B.

Cloud providers assume full responsibility for the security obligations, and cloud customers are accountable for overall compliance.

C.

Data ownership rights are solely determined by the cloud provider, leaving organizations with no control or accountability over their data.

D.

Organizations are accountable for the security and compliance of their data and systems, even though they may lack full visibility into their cloud provider's infrastructure.

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Question # 41

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

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Question # 42

What mechanism does passwordless authentication primarily use for login?

A.

SMS-based codes

B.

Biometric data

C.

Local tokens or certificates

D.

OAuth tokens

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Question # 43

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is it crucial to establish a cloud deployment registry?

A.

To maintain a log of all incident response activities and have efficient reporting

B.

To document all cloud services APIs

C.

To list all cloud-compliant software

D.

To track incident support options, know account details, and contact information

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Question # 44

CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in

their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?

A.

Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system-system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.

B.

Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned ormanaged user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.

C.

All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.

D.

None of the above

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Question # 45

In the context of IaaS, what are the primary components included in infrastructure?

A.

Network configuration tools, storage encryption, and virtualization platforms

B.

Compute, network, and storage resource pools

C.

User authentication systems, application deployment services, and database management

D.

Load balancers, firewalls, and backup solutions

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Question # 46

Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 47

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

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Question # 48

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

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Question # 49

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

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Question # 50

Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

A.

High operational costs

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

Limited scalability

D.

Complex deployment pipelines

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Question # 51

What does orchestration automate within a cloud environment?

A.

Monitoring application performance

B.

Manual configuration of security policies

C.

Installation of operating systems

D.

Provisioning of VMs, networking and other resources

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Question # 52

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

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Question # 53

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

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Question # 54

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

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Question # 55

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

A.

Forwarding plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Application plane

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Question # 56

Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 57

What of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of cloud computing?

A.

Broad Network Access

B.

Measured Service

C.

Third Party Service

D.

Rapid Elasticity

E.

Resource Pooling

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Question # 58

Which type of cloud workload would be most appropriate for running isolated applications with minimum resource overhead?

A.

Containers

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

AI Workloads

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Question # 59

What technology is commonly used to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user's device and a private network over the public Internet?

A.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

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Question # 60

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

A.

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

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Question # 61

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 62

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

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Question # 63

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?

A.

The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.

B.

Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.

C.

The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.

D.

Object-based storage in a private cloud.

E.

The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

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Question # 64

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

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Question # 65

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

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Question # 66

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

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Question # 67

Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

A.

Code Review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Functional Testing

E.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

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Question # 68

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

A.

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

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Question # 69

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

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Question # 70

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Question # 71

Which of the following best describes the shift-left approach in software development?

A.

Relies only on automated security testing tools

B.

Emphasizes post-deployment security audits

C.

Focuses on security only during the testing phase

D.

Integrates security early in the development process

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Question # 72

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

A.

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

B.

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

C.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

D.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

E.

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

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Question # 73

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Question # 74

Which of the following best describes an aspect of PaaS services in relation to network security controls within a cloud environment?

A.

They override the VNet/VPC's network security controls by default

B.

They do not interact with the VNet/VPC’s network security controls

C.

They require manual configuration of network security controls, separate from the VNet/VPC

D.

They often inherit the network security controls of the underlying VNet/VPC

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Question # 75

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

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Question # 76

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

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Question # 77

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Question # 78

What is a primary benefit of using Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles/identities provided by cloud providers instead of static secrets?

A.

They lower storage costs

B.

They reduce the risk of credential leakage

C.

They facilitate data encryption

D.

They improve system performance

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Question # 79

Which of the following best describes the primary function of Cloud Detection and Response (CDR) in cybersecurity?

A.

Detect and respond to security threats in the cloud

B.

Manage cloud-based applications

C.

Provide cost management for cloud services

D.

Optimize cloud storage performance

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Question # 80

Why is a service type of network typically isolated on different hardware?

A.

It requires distinct access controls

B.

It manages resource pools for cloud consumers

C.

It has distinct functions from other networks

D.

It manages the traffic between other networks

E.

It requires unique security

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Question # 81

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

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Question # 82

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

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Question # 83

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

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Question # 84

What are the most important practices for reducing vulnerabilities in virtual machines (VMs) in a cloud environment?

A.

Disabling unnecessary VM services and using containers

B.

Encryption for data at rest and software bill of materials

C.

Using secure base images, patch and configuration management

D.

Network isolation and monitoring

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Question # 85

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Question # 86

Which type of security tool is essential for enforcing controls in a cloud environment to protect endpoints?

A.

Unified Threat Management (UTM).

B.

Web Application Firewall (WAF).

C.

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR).

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS).

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Question # 87

What is a key characteristic of serverless functions in terms of execution environment?

A.

They need continuous monitoring by the user

B.

They run on dedicated long-running instances

C.

They require pre-allocated server space

D.

They are executed in isolated, ephemeral environments

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Question # 88

ENISA: “VM hopping” is:

A.

Improper management of VM instances, causing customer VMs to be commingled with other customer systems.

B.

Looping within virtualized routing systems.

C.

Lack of vulnerability management standards.

D.

Using a compromised VM to exploit a hypervisor, used to take control of other VMs.

E.

Instability in VM patch management causing VM routing errors.

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Question # 89

What is the primary purpose of virtual machine (VM) image sources?

A.

To back up data within the VM

B.

To provide core components for VM images

C.

To optimize VM performance

D.

To secure the VM against unauthorized access

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Question # 90

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

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Question # 91

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

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Question # 92

In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

A.

Management plane activity logs

B.

Network perimeter monitoring

C.

Endpoint protection status

D.

Physical hardware access

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Question # 93

What is the purpose of access policies in the context of security?

A.

Access policies encrypt sensitive data to protect it from disclosure and unrestricted access.

B.

Access policies define the permitted actions that can be performed on resources.

C.

Access policies determine where data can be stored.

D.

Access policies scan systems to detect and remove malware infections.

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Question # 94

When leveraging a cloud provider, what should be considered to ensure application security requirements are met?

A.

Fully rely on cloud provider's security features

B.

Cloud providers guarantee complete security compliance

C.

Assume default settings are adequate for all applications

D.

Customize additional security measures to address gaps

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Question # 95

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

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Question # 96

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

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Question # 97

What is a common characteristic of default encryption provided by cloud providers for data at rest?

A.

It is not available without an additional premium service

B.

It always requires the customer's own encryption keys

C.

It uses the cloud provider's keys, often at no additional cost

D.

It does not support encryption for data at rest

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