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CCSK Questions and Answers

Question # 6

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

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Question # 7

What is the primary focus during the Preparation phase of the Cloud Incident Response framework?

A.

Developing a cloud service provider evaluation criterion

B.

Deploying automated security monitoring tools across cloud services

C.

Establishing a Cloud Incident Response Team and response plans

D.

Conducting regular vulnerability assessments on cloud infrastructure

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Question # 8

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

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Question # 9

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

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Question # 10

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

A.

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.

Establishing a governance hierarchy

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Question # 11

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

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Question # 12

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

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Question # 13

What's the difference between DNS Logs and Flow Logs?

A.

They represent the logging of different networking solutions, and DNS Logs are more suitable for a ZTA implementation

B.

DNS Logs record domain name resolution requests and responses, while Flow Logs record info on source, destination, protocol

C.

They play identical functions and can be used interchangeably

D.

DNS Logs record all the information about the network behavior, including source, destination, and protocol, while Flow Logs record users' applications behavior

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Question # 14

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

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Question # 15

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

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Question # 16

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

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Question # 17

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

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Question # 18

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

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Question # 19

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Question # 20

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

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Question # 21

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 22

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

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Question # 23

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

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Question # 24

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

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Question # 25

Which type of security tool is essential for enforcing controls in a cloud environment to protect endpoints?

A.

Unified Threat Management (UTM).

B.

Web Application Firewall (WAF).

C.

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR).

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS).

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Question # 26

In the context of FaaS, what is primarily defined in addition to functions?

A.

Data storage

B.

Network configurations

C.

User permissions

D.

Trigger events

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Question # 27

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

A.

Continuous Monitoring

B.

Federation

C.

Segregation of Duties

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

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Question # 28

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

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Question # 29

Which factor is typically considered in data classification?

A.

CI/CD step

B.

Storage capacity requirements

C.

Sensitivity of data

D.

Data controller

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Question # 30

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

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Question # 31

Which practice best helps mitigate security risks by minimizing root/core access and restricting deployment creation?

A.

Enforcing the principle of trust and eventually verily on demand'

B.

Disabling multi-factor authentication for staff and focusing on decision makers' accounts

C.

Deploying applications with full access and applying restrictions based on the need to object

D.

Enforcing the principle of least privilege

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Question # 32

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

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Question # 33

What is a primary benefit of consolidating traffic through a central bastion/transit network in a hybrid cloud environment?

A.

It minimizes hybrid cloud sprawl and consolidates security.

B.

It reduces the need for physical network hardware.

C.

It increases network redundancy and fault tolerance.

D.

It decreases the latency of data transfers across the cloud network.

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Question # 34

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

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Question # 35

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 36

Which of the following best describes the concept of Measured Service in cloud computing?

A.

Cloud systems allocate a fixed immutable set of measured services to each customer.

B.

Cloud systems offer elastic resources.

C.

Cloud systems provide usage reports upon request, based on manual reporting.

D.

Cloud systems automatically monitor resource usage and provide billing based on actual consumption.

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Question # 37

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 38

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

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Question # 39

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Question # 40

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

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Question # 41

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

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Question # 42

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

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Question # 43

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

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Question # 44

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Question # 45

What is a cloud workload in terms of infrastructure and platform deployment?

A.

A network of servers connected to execute processes

B.

A collection of physical hardware used to run applications

C.

A single software application hosted on the cloud

D.

Application software deployable on infrastructure/platform

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Question # 46

In the context of Software-Defined Networking (SDN), what does decoupling the network control plane from the data plane primarily achieve?

A.

Enables programmatic configuration

B.

Decreases network security

C.

Increases hardware dependency

D.

Increases network complexity

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Question # 47

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

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Question # 48

In the context of cloud workload security, which feature directly contributes to enhanced performance and resource utilization without incurring excess costs?

A.

Fixed resource allocations

B.

Unlimited data storage capacity

C.

Increased on-premise hardware

D.

Elasticity of cloud resources

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Question # 49

In securing virtual machines (VMs), what is the primary role of using an “image factory" in VM deployment?

A.

To encrypt data within VMs for secure storage

B.

To facilitate direct manual intervention in VM deployments

C.

To enable rapid scaling of virtual machines on demand

D.

To ensure consistency, security, and efficiency in VM image creation

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Question # 50

What are the key outcomes of implementing robust cloud risk management practices?

A.

Ensuring the security and resilience of cloud environments

B.

Negotiating shared responsibilities

C.

Transferring compliance to the cloud service provider via inheritance

D.

Reducing the need for compliance with regulatory requirements

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Question # 51

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

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Question # 52

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 53

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Question # 54

What is the primary purpose of cloud governance in an organization?

A.

To increase data transfer speeds within the cloud environment

B.

To reduce the cost of cloud services

C.

To ensure compliance, security, and efficient management aligned with the organization's goals

D.

To eliminate the need for on-premises data centers

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Question # 55

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Question # 56

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

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Question # 57

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

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Question # 58

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

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Question # 59

CCM: In the CCM tool, “Encryption and Key Management” is an example of which of the following?

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

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Question # 60

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

A.

Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure

B.

Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings

C.

Enforce isolation and configure the security settings

D.

Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

E.

Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads

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Question # 61

What is resource pooling?

A.

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 62

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

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Question # 63

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 64

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

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Question # 65

Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Nation-state boundaries

C.

Measured service

D.

Unlimited bandwidth

E.

Hybrid clouds

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Question # 66

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 67

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

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Question # 68

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do?

A.

Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.

B.

Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.

C.

You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.

D.

Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.

E.

Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

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Question # 69

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

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Question # 70

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 71

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 72

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

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Question # 73

ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios:

A.

Data protection

B.

Professional negligence

C.

Globalization

D.

Intellectual property

E.

Outsourcing services and changes in control

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Question # 74

What is a potential concern of using Security-as-a-Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Lack of visibility

B.

Deployment flexibility

C.

Scaling and costs

D.

Intelligence sharing

E.

Insulation of clients

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Question # 75

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

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Question # 76

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

A.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

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Question # 77

How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

A.

Single key for all data owners

B.

One key per data owner

C.

Multiple keys per data owner

D.

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

E.

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

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Question # 78

The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 79

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Question # 80

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

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Question # 81

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

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Question # 82

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Question # 83

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Question # 84

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Question # 85

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

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Question # 86

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

A.

False

B.

True

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