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156-315.81 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

St cpmq enable

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Question # 7

Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?

A.

18191

B.

18190

C.

8983

D.

19009

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Question # 8

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

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Question # 9

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

A.

Upon creation of a certificate.

B.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

C.

When an administrator decides to create one.

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

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Question # 10

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

A.

Monitor

B.

CLI.sh

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Question # 11

What component of Management is used tor indexing?

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Question # 12

Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

A.

DASSERVICE

B.

FWD

C.

CPVIEWD

D.

CPD

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Question # 13

The admin is connected via ssh lo the management server. He wants to run a mgmt_dl command but got a Error 404 message. To check the listening ports on the management he runs netstat with the results shown below. What can be the cause for the issue?

A.

Wrong Management API Access setting^for Ihe client IP To correct it go to SmartConsole / Management & Settings / Blades / Management API and press "Advanced Settings..' and choose GUI clients or ALL IP's.

B.

The API didn't run on the default port check it with api status' and add '-port 4434' to the mgmt_clt command.

C.

The management permission in the user profile is mrssing. Go to SmartConsole / Management & Settings I Permissions & Administrators / Permission Profiles. Select the profile of the user and enable 'Management API Login' under Management Permissions

D.

The API is not running, the services shown by netstat are the gaia services. To start the API run 'api start'

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Question # 14

Why would an administrator see the message below?

A.

A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be backed up first before proceeding.

B.

A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.

C.

A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.

D.

A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the Management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.

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Question # 15

Which Operating Systems are supported for the Endpoint Security VPN?

A.

Windows and x86 Solaris

B.

Windows and macOS computers

C.

Windows and SPARC Solaris

D.

Windows and Red Hat Linux

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Question # 16

Bob works for a big security outsourcing provider company and as he receives a lot of change requests per day he wants to use for scripting daily tasks the API services (torn Check Point for the GAIA API. Firstly he needs to be aware if the API services are running for the GAIA operating system. Which of the following Check Point Command is true:

A.

gala_dlish status

B.

status gaiaapi

C.

api_gala status

D.

gala_api status

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Question # 17

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R81 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

A.

Using Web Services

B.

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.

Using CLISH

D.

Using SmartConsole GUI console

E.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems

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Question # 18

Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?

A.

cphaprob set_ccp multicast

B.

cphaconf set_ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast

D.

cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast

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Question # 19

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

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Question # 20

Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R81 gateways is installed during the _______ .

A.

Firewall policy install

B.

Threat Prevention policy install

C.

Anti-bot policy install

D.

Access Control policy install

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Question # 21

Joey want to configure NTP on R81 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

A.

https://

B.

http:// :443

C.

https:// :10000

D.

https:// :4434

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Question # 22

You have enabled “Full Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

A.

Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security Management Server properties and install database.

B.

Data Awareness is not enabled.

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

D.

Logs are arriving from Pre-R81 gateways.

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Question # 23

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulator

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

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Question # 24

R81.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

A.

Versions R77 and higher

B.

Versions R76 and higher

C.

Versions R75.20 and higher

D.

Versions R75 and higher

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Question # 25

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

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Question # 26

How can SmartView application accessed?

A.

http:// /smartview

B.

http:// :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// /smartview/

D.

https:// :4434/smartview/

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Question # 27

Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

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Question # 28

What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

A.

2

B.

1

C.

4

D.

6

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Question # 29

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

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Question # 30

Your manager asked you to check the status of SecureXL, and its enabled templates and features. What command will you use to provide such information to manager?

A.

fw accel stat

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fw acces stats

D.

fwaccel stats

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Question # 31

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

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Question # 32

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

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Question # 33

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:

A.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001

B.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191

C.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.

D.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.

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Question # 34

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

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Question # 35

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

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Question # 36

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

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Question # 37

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

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Question # 38

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

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Question # 39

On R81.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

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Question # 40

Which command shows actual allowed connections in state table?

A.

fw tab –t StateTable

B.

fw tab –t connections

C.

fw tab –t connection

D.

fw tab connections

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Question # 41

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

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Question # 42

Which CLI command will reset the IPS pattern matcher statistics?

A.

ips reset pmstat

B.

ips pstats reset

C.

ips pmstats refresh

D.

ips pmstats reset

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Question # 43

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

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Question # 44

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

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Question # 45

Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?

A.

HTTPS

B.

RPC

C.

VPN

D.

SIC

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Question # 46

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

A.

TCP port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

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Question # 47

SecureXL improves non-encrypted firewall traffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic throughput.

A.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve all traffic.

B.

This statement is false because SecureXL does not improve this traffic but CoreXL does.

C.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve this traffic.

D.

This statement is false because encrypted traffic cannot be inspected.

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Question # 48

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

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Question # 49

Using Web Services to access the API, which Header Name-Value had to be in the HTTP Post request after the login?

A.

X-chkp-sid Session Unique Identifier

B.

API-Key

C.

user-uid

D.

uuid Universally Unique Identifier

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Question # 50

What is the recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days?

A.

Use Multi-Domain Management Server.

B.

Choose different setting for log storage and SmartEvent db

C.

Install Management and SmartEvent on different machines.

D.

it is not possible.

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Question # 51

Which component is NOT required to communicate with the Web Services API?

A.

API key

B.

session ID token

C.

content-type

D.

Request payload

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Question # 52

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links.

Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

A.

SandBlast Threat Emulation

B.

SandBlast Agent

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

SandBlast Threat Extraction

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Question # 53

When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

HTTPS

C.

QOS

D.

VoIP

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Question # 54

Firewall polices must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the GAiA platform if it Firewall software. The Multicast destination assigned by the internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) for VRRP is:

A.

224.0.0.18

B.

224 00 5

C.

224.0.0.102

D.

224.0.0.22

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Question # 55

You need to change the MAC-address on eth2 interface of the gateway. What is the correct way to change MAC-address in Check Point Gaia?

A.

In CLISH run: set interface eth2 mac-addr 11:11:11:11:11:11

B.

In expert-mode run ifconfig eth1 hw 11:11:11:11 11 11

C.

In CLISH run set interface eth2 hw-addr 11 11 11:11:11 11

D.

In expert-mode run: ethtool -4 eth2 mac 11 11:11:11:11:11

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Question # 56

From SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

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Question # 57

Alice & Bob are going to use Management Data Plane Separation and therefore the routing separation needs to be enabled. Which of the following command is true for enabling the Management Data Plane Separation (MDPS):

A.

set mdps split brain on

B.

set mdps split plane on

C.

set mdps mgmt plane on

D.

set mdps data plane off

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Question # 58

What a valid SecureXL paths in R81.10?

A.

F2F (Slow path). Templated Path. PQX and F2V

B.

F2F (Slow path). PXL, QXL and F2V

C.

F2F (Slow path), Accelerated Path, PQX and F2V

D.

F2F (Slow path), Accelerated Path, Medium Path and F2V

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Question # 59

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

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Question # 60

Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

A.

fw tab -t

B.

fw tab -s

C.

fw tab -n

D.

fw tab -k

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Question # 61

How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

A.

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

B.

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

C.

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

D.

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

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Question # 62

: 156

VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?

A.

The Firewall will drop the packets.

B.

The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel.

C.

The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces.

D.

The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down.

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Question # 63

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

A.

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

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Question # 64

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

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Question # 65

Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R81?

A.

SmartConsole

B.

SmartMonitor

C.

SmartEndpoint

D.

SmartDashboard

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Question # 66

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

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Question # 67

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

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Question # 68

An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

A.

He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.

B.

He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.

C.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.

D.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

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Question # 69

Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within:

A.

Summary

B.

Views

C.

Reports

D.

Checkups

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Question # 70

Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?

A.

Takes less than a second to complete

B.

Works on MS Office and PDF files only

C.

Always delivers a file

D.

Takes minutes to complete (less than 3 minutes)

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Question # 71

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enabled which path is handling the traffic?

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

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Question # 72

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

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Question # 73

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

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Question # 74

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

A.

cpinfo –h all

B.

cpinfo –o hotfix

C.

cpinfo –l hotfix

D.

cpinfo –y all

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Question # 75

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode.

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA.

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario.

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance.

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Question # 76

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

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Question # 77

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Question # 78

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Question # 79

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

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Question # 80

What is the benefit of “tw monitor” over “tcpdump”?

A.

“fw monitor” reveals Layer 2 information, while “tcpdump” acts at Layer 3.

B.

“fw monitor” is also available for 64-Bit operating systems.

C.

With “fw monitor”, you can see the inspection points, which cannot be seen in “tcpdump”

D.

“fw monitor” can be used from the CLI of the Management Server to collect information from multiple gateways.

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Question # 81

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

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Question # 82

Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?

A.

SOAP

B.

REST

C.

XLANG

D.

XML-RPC

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Question # 83

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

A.

When a box up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

D.

When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

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Question # 84

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

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Question # 85

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Question # 86

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

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Question # 87

Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.10 SmartConsole application?

A.

IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation.

B.

Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control.

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction.

D.

Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation.

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Question # 88

Which GUI client is supported in R81?

A.

SmartProvisioning

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartView Monitor

D.

SmartLog

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Question # 89

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

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Question # 90

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

A.

HostName:0>show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0>show installer build

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Question # 91

Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

A.

fwm

B.

cpd

C.

cpwd

D.

fwssd

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Question # 92

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

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Question # 93

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

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Question # 94

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

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Question # 95

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

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Question # 96

SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

A.

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

B.

detect only

C.

inline/prevent or detect

D.

as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only

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Question # 97

Which of the following is a task of the CPD process?

A.

Invoke and monitor critical processes and attempts to restart them if they fail

B.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

C.

Log forwarding

D.

Responsible for processing most traffic on a security gateway

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Question # 98

Which 3 types of tracking are available for Threat Prevention Policy?

A.

SMS Alert, Log, SNMP alert

B.

Syslog, None, User-defined scripts

C.

None, Log, Syslog

D.

Alert, SNMP trap, Mail

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Question # 99

Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packet acceleration?

A.

Source address

B.

Protocol

C.

Destination port

D.

VLAN Tag

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Question # 100

Fill in the blanks: A _______ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a ________ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

A.

Formal; corporate

B.

Local; formal

C.

Local; central

D.

Central; local

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Question # 101

What is NOT a Cluster Mode?

A.

Load Sharing Unicast

B.

Load Sharing Multicast

C.

Active-Active

D.

High Availability Multicast

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Question # 102

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

A.

For FTP connections – do not sync

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

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Question # 103

Besides fw monitor, what is another command that can be used to capture packets?

A.

arp

B.

traceroute

C.

tcpdump

D.

ping

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Question # 104

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

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Question # 105

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

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Question # 106

What is the responsibility of SOLR process on R81.10 management server?

A.

Validating all data before it’s written into the database

B.

It generates indexes of data written to the database

C.

Communication between SmartConsole applications and the Security Management Server

D.

Writing all information into the database

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Question # 107

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

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Question # 108

The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

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Question # 109

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

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Question # 110

When using CPSTAT, what is the default port used by the AMON server?

A.

18191

B.

18192

C.

18194

D.

18190

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Question # 111

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

A.

Manage Setting

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway and Servers

D.

Logs and Monitor

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Question # 112

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.10?

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

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Question # 113

Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R81.10 based management.

A.

Gateways & Servers --> Compliance View

B.

Compliance blade not available under R81.10

C.

Logs & Monitor --> New Tab --> Open compliance View

D.

Security & Policies --> New Tab --> Compliance View

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Question # 114

When deploying SandBlast, how would a Threat Emulation appliance benefit from the integration of ThreatCloud?

A.

ThreatCloud is a database-related application which is located on-premise to preserve privacy of company-related data

B.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the CheckPoint customers to form a virtual cloud consisting of a combination of all on-premise private cloud environments

C.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for Check Point customers to benefit from VMWare ESXi infrastructure which supports the Threat Emulation Appliances as virtual machines in the EMC Cloud

D.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the Check Point customers to share information about malicious and benign files that all of the customers can benefit from as it makes emulation of known files unnecessary

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Question # 115

You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

A.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.

cpconfig; reboot required

C.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.

cpconfig; reboot not required

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Question # 116

Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?

A.

cpwd_admin -l

B.

cpwd -l

C.

cpwd admin_list

D.

cpwd_admin list

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Question # 117

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

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Question # 118

Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

A.

Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

B.

Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Automatic Static NAT

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Question # 119

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_”cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

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Question # 120

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Question # 121

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

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Question # 122

What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

A.

Performs OS-level sandboxing for SandBlast Cloud architecture

B.

Ensure the Check Point SandBlast services is running on the end user’s system

C.

If malware enters an end user’s system, the SandBlast Agent prevents the malware from spreading with the network

D.

Clean up email sent with malicious attachments

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Question # 123

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

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Question # 124

What is the order of NAT priorities?

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

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Question # 125

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

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Question # 126

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with __________________ will not apply.

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

3

D.

2

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Question # 127

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

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Question # 128

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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Question # 129

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

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Question # 130

Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?

A.

SmartEvent Maps

B.

SmartEvent

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

SmartConsole Toolbars

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Question # 131

GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:

A.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SFTP access to Internet

B.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have access to Internet.

C.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SSH access to Internet.

D.

The desired CPUSE package is ONLY available in the Check Point CLOUD.

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Question # 132

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

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Question # 133

Office mode means that:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

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Question # 134

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

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Question # 135

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

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Question # 136

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

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Question # 137

How can you grant GAiAAPI Permissions for a newly created user?

A.

Assign the user a permission profile in SmartConsole

B.

Assign the user the admin RBAC role in dish

C.

No need to grant access since every user has access by default.

D.

In bash, use the following command: "gaia_api access --user Tom -enable true"

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Question # 138

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsive, which if these steps should NOT be performed:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

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Question # 139

Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

A.

Destination port

B.

Data type

C.

File attributes

D.

Application

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Question # 140

The back-end database for Check Point R81 Management uses:

A.

DBMS

B.

MongoDB

C.

PostgreSQL

D.

MySQL

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Question # 141

Which SmartEvent component is responsible to collect the logs from different Log Servers?

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

SmartEvent Database

C.

SmartEvent Collector

D.

SmartEvent Correlation Unit

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Question # 142

What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

A.

Stateful Inspection, Firewall Blade, and URL/Application Blade

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall

C.

Firewall Blade, URL/Application Blade, and IPS

D.

Stateful Inspection, URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention

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Question # 143

What is the biggest benefit of policy layers?

A.

To break one policy into several virtual policies

B.

Policy Layers and Sub-Policies enable flexible control over the security policy

C.

They improve the performance on OS kernel version 3.0

D.

To include Threat Prevention as a sub policy for the firewall policy

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Question # 144

You had setup the VPN Community VPN-Stores'with 3 gateways. There are some issues with one remote gateway(1.1.1.1) and an your local gateway. What will be the best log filter to see only the IKE Phase 2 agreed networks for both gateways

A.

action:"Key Install" AND 1.1.1.1 AND Main Mode

B.

action:"Key Install- AND 1.1.1.1 ANDQuick Mode

C.

Blade:"VPN" AND VPN-Stores AND Main Mode

D.

Blade:"VPN" AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

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Question # 145

What are the two ClusterXL Deployment options?

A.

Distributed and Full High Availability

B.

Broadcast and Multicast Mode

C.

Distributed and Standalone

D.

Unicast and Multicast Mode

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Question # 146

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

A.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

B.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

C.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

D.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

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Question # 147

You have used the "set inactivity-timeout 120" command to prevent the session to be disconnected after 10 minutes of inactivity. However, the Web session is being disconnected after 10 minutes. Why?

A.

The idle timeout for the web session is specified with the "set web session-timeout" command.

B.

The number specified is the amount of the idle timeout in seconds rather than in minutes. So you have to use the command "set inactivity-timeout 600" instead.

C.

Probably, you have forgotten to make sure that nobody is accessing the management server via the SmartConsole which locks the management database.

D.

The number of minutes is correct. Probably, you have forgotten to save this setting with the "save config" command.

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Question # 148

SecureXL is able to accelerate the Connection Rate using templates. Which attributes are used in the template to identify the connection?

A.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port

B.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port

C.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port. Pro^col

D.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port. Protocol

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Question # 149

You have used the SmartEvent GUI to create a custom Event policy. What is the best way to display the correlated Events generated by SmartEvent Policies?

A.

Open SmartView Monitor and select the SmartEvent Window from the main menu.

B.

In the SmartConsole / Logs & Monitor --> open the Logs View and use type:Correlated as query filter.

C.

In the SmartConsole / Logs & Monitor -> open a new Tab and select External Apps / SmartEvent.

D.

Select the Events tab in the SmartEvent GUI or use the Events tab in the SmartView web interface.

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Question # 150

The “MAC magic” value must be modified under the following condition:

A.

There is more than one cluster connected to the same VLAN

B.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Multicast for CCP traffic

C.

There are more than two members in a firewall cluster

D.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Broadcast for CCP traffic

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Question # 151

Is it possible to establish a VPN before the user login to the Endpoint Client?

A.

yes, you had to set neo_remember_user_password to true in the trac.defaults of the Remote Access Client or you can use the endpoint_vpn_remember_user_password

attribute in the trac_client_1 .ttm file located in the SFWDIR/conf directory on the Security Gateway

B.

no, the user must login first.

C.

yes. you had to set neo_always_connected to true in the trac.defaults of the Remote Access Client or you can use the endpoint_vpn_always_connected attribute in the

trac_client_1 .ttm file located in the SFWDIR/conf directory on the Security Gateway

D.

yes, you had to enable Machine Authentication in the Gateway object of the Smart Console

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Question # 152

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

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Question # 153

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

A.

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

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Question # 154

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

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Question # 155

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

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Question # 156

What is true of the API server on R81.10?

A.

By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.

B.

By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.

C.

By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).

D.

By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand-alone servers with 8GB of RAM (or more).

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Question # 157

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

A.

R81.10 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.10 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

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Question # 158

With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

A.

Threat Cloud Intelligence

B.

Threat Prevention Software Blade Package

C.

Endpoint Total Protection

D.

Traffic on port 25

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Question # 159

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

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Question # 160

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

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Question # 161

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

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Question # 162

Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment.

Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

A.

Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B.

Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

D.

Server, Protocol, username Password, Path, Comment, Member

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Question # 163

Joey wants to upgrade from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management. He will use Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method to achieve this.

What is one of the requirements for his success?

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

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Question # 164

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:

A.

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

C.

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

D.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

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Question # 165

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

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Question # 166

Which file contains the host address to be published, the MAC address that needs to be associated with the IP Address, and the unique IP of the interface that responds to ARP request?

A.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

B.

/var/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

C.

$CPDIR/conf/local.arp

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp

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Question # 167

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

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Question # 168

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

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Question # 169

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

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Question # 170

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

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Question # 171

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Question # 172

fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?

A.

fwd

B.

cpwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

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Question # 173

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

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Question # 174

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

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Question # 175

Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

15%

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