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156-315.80 Questions and Answers

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156-315.80 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

What is UserCheck?

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

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Question # 7

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Question # 8

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

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Question # 9

Which statements below are CORRECT regarding Threat Prevention profiles in SmartDashboard?

A.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule Only.

B.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule only.

C.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

D.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

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Question # 10

Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

A.

Accept; redirect

B.

Accept; drop

C.

Redirect; drop

D.

Drop; accept

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Question # 11

Check Point Support in many cases asks you for a configuration summary of your Check Point system. This is also called:

A.

cpexport

B.

sysinfo

C.

cpsizeme

D.

cpinfo

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Question # 12

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

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Question # 13

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

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Question # 14

The Correlation Unit performs all but the following actions:

A.

Marks logs that individually are not events, but may be part of a larger pattern to be identified later.

B.

Generates an event based on the Event policy.

C.

Assigns a severity level to the event.

D.

Takes a new log entry that is part of a group of items that together make up an event, and adds it to an ongoing event.

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Question # 15

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 16

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

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Question # 17

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Question # 18

On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

A.

Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration

B.

Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user.

C.

Obligatory usage of Captive Portal.

D.

The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication.

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Question # 19

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

A.

Run cprestart from clish

B.

After upgrading the hardware, increase the number of kernel instances using cpconfig

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Hyperthreading must be enabled in the bios to use CoreXL

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Question # 20

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R80.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R80?

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

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Question # 21

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

A.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

B.

Shared User Certificates

C.

Shared Secret Passwords

D.

Unique Passwords

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Question # 22

SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

A.

Management Dashboard

B.

Gateway

C.

Personal User Storage

D.

Behavior Risk Engine

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Question # 23

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

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Question # 24

In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?

A.

TXT, XML and CSV

B.

PDF and TXT

C.

PDF, HTML, and XML

D.

PDF and HTML

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Question # 25

Fill in the blank: A ________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.

A.

Clientless remote access

B.

Clientless direct access

C.

Client-based remote access

D.

Direct access

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Question # 26

What is the difference between an event and a log?

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

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Question # 27

What is the valid range for Virtual Router Identifier (VRID) value in a Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) configuration?

A.

1-254

B.

1-255

C.

0-254

D.

0 – 255

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Question # 28

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

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Question # 29

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

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Question # 30

Where you can see and search records of action done by R80 SmartConsole administrators?

A.

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.

In SmartAuditLog View

D.

In Smartlog, all logs

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Question # 31

Selecting an event displays its configurable properties in the Detail pane and a description of the event in the Description pane. Which is NOT an option to adjust or configure?

A.

Severity

B.

Automatic reactions

C.

Policy

D.

Threshold

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Question # 32

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

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Question # 33

If there are two administration logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available or other administrators? (Choose the BEST answer.)

A.

Publish or discard the session.

B.

Revert the session.

C.

Save and install the Policy.

D.

Delete older versions of database.

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Question # 34

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

A.

fw ctl sdstat

B.

fw ctl affinity –l –a –r –v

C.

fw ctl multik stat

D.

cpinfo

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Question # 35

The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

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Question # 36

You have enabled “Full Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

A.

Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security Management Server properties and install database.

B.

Data Awareness is not enabled.

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

D.

Logs are arriving from Pre-R80 gateways.

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Question # 37

Fill in the blanks. There are ________ types of software containers: ___________.

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

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Question # 38

For Management High Availability, which of the following is NOT a valid synchronization status?

A.

Collision

B.

Down

C.

Lagging

D.

Never been synchronized

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Question # 39

What command lists all interfaces using Multi-Queue?

A.

cpmq get

B.

show interface all

C.

cpmq set

D.

show multiqueue all

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Question # 40

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

A.

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.

Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot

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Question # 41

True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.

A.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

B.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.

C.

True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

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Question # 42

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia at one time?

A.

Infinite

B.

One

C.

Three

D.

Two

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Question # 43

Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Server showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?

A.

$FWDIR/database/fwauthd.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauth.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/state/fwauthd.conf

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Question # 44

Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

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Question # 45

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

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Question # 46

Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

A.

GUI Client, Security Gateway, WebUI Interface

B.

GUI Client, Security Management, Security Gateway

C.

Security Gateway, WebUI Interface, Consolidated Security Logs

D.

Security Management, Security Gateway, Consolidate Security Logs

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Question # 47

What are the available options for downloading Check Point hotfixes in Gala WebUI (CPUSE)?

A.

Manually, Scheduled, Automatic

B.

Manually, Automatic, Disabled

C.

Manually, Scheduled, Disabled

D.

Manually, Scheduled, Enabled

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Question # 48

Firewall polices must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the GAiA platform if it Firewall software. The Multicast destination assigned by the internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) for VRRP is:

A.

224.0.0.18

B.

224 00 5

C.

224.0.0.102

D.

224.0.0.22

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Question # 49

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Question # 50

How would you enable VMAC Mode in ClusterXL?

A.

Cluster Object -> Edit -> ClusterXL and VRRP -> Use Virtual MAC

B.

fw ctl set int vmac_mode 1

C.

cphaconf vmac_mode set 1

D.

Cluster Object -> Edit -> Cluster Members -> Edit -> Use Virtual MAC

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Question # 51

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

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Question # 52

When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

HTTPS

C.

QOS

D.

VoIP

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Question # 53

Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment.

Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

A.

Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B.

Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

D.

Server, Protocol, username Password, Path, Comment, Member

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Question # 54

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

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Question # 55

Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

A.

Firewall

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Application Control

D.

Threat Extraction

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Question # 56

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

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Question # 57

What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?

A.

Rule 7 was created by the ‘admin’ administrator in the current session

B.

8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation

C.

The rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the ‘admin’ administrator

D.

Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator

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Question # 58

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

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Question # 59

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

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Question # 60

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny Template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

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Question # 61

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

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Question # 62

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

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Question # 63

What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

A.

If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy.

B.

There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT

C.

You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules

D.

On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a stateful manner

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Question # 64

What command would show the API server status?

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Question # 65

What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

A.

Capsule Workspace

B.

Capsule Mail

C.

Capsule VPN

D.

Secure Workspace

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Question # 66

What is the correct command to observe the Sync traffic in a VRRP environment?

A.

fw monitor –e “accept[12:4,b]=224.0.0.18;”

B.

fw monitor –e “accept port(6118;”

C.

fw monitor –e “accept proto=mcVRRP;”

D.

fw monitor –e “accept dst=224.0.0.18;”

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Question # 67

What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

A.

Performs OS-level sandboxing for SandBlast Cloud architecture

B.

Ensure the Check Point SandBlast services is running on the end user’s system

C.

If malware enters an end user’s system, the SandBlast Agent prevents the malware from spreading with the network

D.

Clean up email sent with malicious attachments

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Question # 68

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

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Question # 69

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

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