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156-215.80 Questions and Answers

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156-215.80 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

A.

Upgrade the software version

B.

Open WebUI

C.

Open SSH

D.

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

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Question # 7

Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

A.

SNMP

B.

High alert

C.

Mail

D.

User defined alert

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Question # 8

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

A.

Revisions

B.

Gateway installations

C.

Installation history

D.

Gateway history

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Question # 9

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

A.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

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Question # 10

Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

A.

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

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Question # 11

Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

A.

All options stop Check Point processes

B.

backup

C.

migrate export

D.

snapshot

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Question # 12

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

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Question # 13

Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Advanced Networking Blade

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Question # 14

What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

A.

To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

B.

To reduce the number of rules in the database.

C.

To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.

D.

To hide the gateway from the Internet.

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Question # 15

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

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Question # 16

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

A.

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

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Question # 17

Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?

A.

Read/Write, Read Only

B.

Read/Write, Read only, None

C.

Read/Write, None

D.

Read Only, None

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Question # 18

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

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Question # 19

The following graphic shows:

A.

View from SmartLog for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202

B.

View from SmartView Tracker for logs of destination address 10.1.1.202

C.

View from SmartView Tracker for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202

D.

View from SmartView Monitor for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202

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Question # 20

Fill in the blank: RADIUS protocol uses ______ to communicate with the gateway.

A.

UDP

B.

TDP

C.

CCP

D.

HTTP

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Question # 21

You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration. You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base. You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your user database. How can you do this?

A.

Run fwm dbexport -1 filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -1 filename to import the users.

B.

Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen. Then, run fwm_dbimport.

C.

Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.

D.

Restore the entire database, except the user database.

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Question # 22

Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

A.

Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

B.

Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Automatic Static NAT

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Question # 23

Review the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.

A.

Data Center Layer is an inline layer in the Access Control Policy.

B.

By default all layers are shared with all policies.

C.

If a connection is dropped in Network Layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer.

D.

If a connection is accepted in Network-layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer.

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Question # 24

Can a Check Point gateway translate both source IP address and destination IP address in a given packet?

A.

Yes.

B.

No.

C.

Yes, but only when using Automatic NAT.

D.

Yes, but only when using Manual NAT.

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Question # 25

What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?

A.

CPMI 200

B.

TCP 8080

C.

HTTP 80

D.

HTTPS 443

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Question # 26

Which remote Access Solution is clientless?

A.

Checkpoint Mobile

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

SecuRemote

D.

Mobile Access Portal

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Question # 27

According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a non-managed Check Point Gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):

A.

Gateway

B.

Interoperable Device

C.

Externally managed gateway

D.

Network Node

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Question # 28

What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

A.

Check Point INSPECT Engine

B.

Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

C.

Check Point Update Engine

D.

Check Point Upgrade Installation Service

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Question # 29

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Question # 30

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl miltik pq enable

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Question # 31

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

A.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

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Question # 32

Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

A.

file attributes

B.

application information

C.

destination port

D.

data type information

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Question # 33

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Question # 34

Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.

A.

675, 389

B.

389, 636

C.

636, 290

D.

290, 675

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Question # 35

Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

A.

Pentagon, star, and combination

B.

Star, octagon, and combination

C.

Combined and star

D.

Meshed, star, and combination

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Question # 36

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

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Question # 37

Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.

A.

C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5

B.

C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4

C.

C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5

D.

C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F5

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Question # 38

What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?

A.

In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.

B.

Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.

C.

Define two log servers on the R77 Gateway object. Lof Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.

D.

Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R77 Gateway object.

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Question # 39

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers?

A.

Anti-Malware

B.

IPS

C.

Anti-bot

D.

Anti-Spam

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Question # 40

Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

A.

When Joe logs in, Bob will be log out automatically.

B.

Since they both are log in on different interfaces, they both will be able to make changes.

C.

If Joe tries to make changes, he won't, database will be locked.

D.

Bob will be prompt that Joe logged in.

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Question # 41

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the Best answer.

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency of the gateway.

C.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server dependency.

D.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server Mgmt-interface and has no dependency of the gateway.

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Question # 42

Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?

A.

Asymmetric encryption

B.

Dynamic encryption

C.

Certificate-based encryption

D.

Symmetric encryption

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Question # 43

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfer messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

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Question # 44

What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.

B.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.

C.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule.

D.

If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.

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Question # 45

Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal?

A.

From the Internet

B.

Through internal interfaces

C.

Through all interfaces

D.

According to the Firewall Policy

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Question # 46

On R80.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

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Question # 47

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

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Question # 48

As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?

A.

Remove the service HTTP from the column Service in Rule 4.

B.

Modify the column VPN in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic.

C.

Nothing at all

D.

Modify the columns Source or Destination in Rule 4

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Question # 49

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance

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Question # 50

Harriet wants to protect sensitive information from intentional loss when users browse to a specific URL: https://personal.mymail.com, which blade will she enable to achieve her goal?

A.

DLP

B.

SSL Inspection

C.

Application Control

D.

URL Filtering

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Question # 51

Web Control Layer has been set up using the settings in the following dialogue:

Consider the following policy and select the BEST answer.

A.

Traffic that does not match any rule in the subpolicy is dropped.

B.

All employees can access only Youtube and Vimeo.

C.

Access to Youtube and Vimeo is allowed only once a day.

D.

Anyone from internal network can access the internet, expect the traffic defined in drop rules 5.2, 5.5 and 5.6.

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Question # 52

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer.

A.

Publish or discard the session.

B.

Revert the session.

C.

Save and install the Policy.

D.

Delete older versions of database.

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Question # 53

Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

A.

Support for IPv6

B.

Granular access control

C.

Strong user authentication

D.

Secure connectivity

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Question # 54

ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp.

How will you describe the new “Publish” button in R80 Management Console?

A.

The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes a copy to the Check Point of R80, and then saves it to the R80 database.

B.

The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud of R80 and but does not save it to the R80

C.

The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to all other administrator sessions and saves it to the Database.

D.

The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to the new Unified Policy session and saves it to the Database.

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Question # 55

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

A.

Security questions

B.

Check Point password

C.

SecurID

D.

RADIUS

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Question # 56

Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R77 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.

A.

SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status

B.

SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor

C.

SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate

D.

Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI

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Question # 57

Where do you verify that UserDirectory is enabled?

A.

Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked

B.

Verify that Global Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.

C.

Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.

D.

Verify that Global Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.

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Question # 58

What is also referred to as Dynamic NAT?

A.

Automatic NAT

B.

Static NAT

C.

Manual NAT

D.

Hide NAT

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Question # 59

Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN?

A.

Scalability to accommodate user groups

B.

Centralized management

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Strong data encryption

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Question # 60

Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?

A.

Check Point Host has no routing ability even if it has more than one interface installed.

B.

When you upgrade to R80 from R77.30 or earlier versions, Check Point Host objects are converted to gateway objects.

C.

Check Point Host is capable of having an IP forwarding mechanism.

D.

Check Point Host can act as a firewall.

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Question # 61

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to “First”, what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

A.

Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.

B.

Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.

C.

Track log column is set to none.

D.

Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.

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Question # 62

Message digests use which of the following?

A.

DES and RC4

B.

IDEA and RC4

C.

SSL and MD4

D.

SHA-1 and MD5

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Question # 63

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

A.

Monitor

B.

CLI.sh

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Question # 64

Fill in the blank: A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and is located before the first and before last rules in the Rule Base.

A.

Firewall drop

B.

Explicit

C.

Implicit accept

D.

Implicit drop

E.

Implied

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Question # 65

Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?

A.

show configuration all

B.

show confd configuration

C.

show confd configuration all

D.

show configuration

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Question # 66

You are going to upgrade from R77 to R80. Before the upgrade, you want to back up the system so that, if there are any problems, you can easily restore to the old version with all configuration and management files intact. What is the BEST backup method in this scenario?

A.

backup

B.

Database Revision

C.

snapshot

D.

migrate export

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Question # 67

Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.

A.

Main

B.

Authentication

C.

Quick

D.

High Alert

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Question # 68

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error 'no proposal chosen' is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related log entries are present. Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

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Question # 69

Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

A.

Perpetual and Trial

B.

Plug-and-play and Evaluation

C.

Subscription and Perpetual

D.

Evaluation and Subscription

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Question # 70

Fill in the blank: A _______ is used by a VPN gateway to send traffic as if it were a physical interface.

A.

VPN Tunnel Interface

B.

VPN community

C.

VPN router

D.

VPN interface

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Question # 71

Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Host

C.

Security Management object

D.

Network

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Question # 72

Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?

A.

“Encrypt” action in the Rule Base

B.

Permanent Tunnels

C.

“VPN” column in the Rule Base

D.

Configuration checkbox “Accept all encrypted traffic”

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Question # 73

Which authentication scheme requires a user to possess a token?

A.

TACACS

B.

SecurID

C.

Check Point password

D.

RADIUS

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Question # 74

What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the Distributed deployment option?

A.

degrades performance as the Security Policy grows in size

B.

requires additional Check Point appliances

C.

requires additional software subscription

D.

increases cost

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Question # 75

The security Gateway is installed on GAiA R80 The default port for the WEB User Interface is _______ .

A.

TCP 18211

B.

TCP 257

C.

TCP 4433

D.

TCP 443

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Question # 76

Administrator Kofi has just made some changes on his Management Server and then clicks on the Publish button in SmartConsole but then gets the error message shown in the screenshot below.

Where can the administrator check for more information on these errors?

A.

The Log and Monitor section in SmartConsole

B.

The Validations section in SmartConsole

C.

The Objects section in SmartConsole

D.

The Policies section in SmartConsole

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Question # 77

Choose what BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection.

A.

If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the matching continues to the next Layer.

B.

If a packet matches an inline layer, it will continue matching the next layer.

C.

If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the packet will be matched against the Implicit Clean-up Rule.

D.

If a packet does not match a Network Policy Layer, the matching continues to its inline layer.

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Question # 78

Fill in the blank: The R80 feature ________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

A.

Block Port Overflow

B.

Local Interface Spoofing

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

D.

Adaptive Threat Prevention

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