IFC Questions and Answers

The Do Not Call List (DNCL) is a national registry of personal telephone numbers that consumers can register to reduce the number of unsolicited telemarketing calls they receive. Telemarketers are required to subscribe to the DNCL and avoid calling the numbers on the list, unless they have an exemption. One of the exemptions is for existing business relationships, which means that a telemarketer can call a consumer who has purchased a product or service from them or their employer within the last 18 months, or who has made an inquiry or application within the last six months. Therefore, Kendrick is still eligible to contact Chandra, who is an existing client of Oak Solid Financial, even if she is on the DNCL registry. However, Kendrick must respect Chandra’s right to request that he stop calling her and remove her number from his contact list.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 1: The Canadian Financial Services Industry1, National Do Not Call List - Canada.ca2

The Annual Information Form (AIF) is a document that provides detailed information about a mutual fund, such as its history, structure, management, fees, expenses, risks, policies, and performance. The AIF also contains information regarding the Independent Review Committee (IRC) compensation, which is the amount of fees and expenses paid by the fund to the IRC members for their services. The IRC is a committee of independent individuals who oversee the fund manager’s decisions on conflict of interest matters and act in the best interests of the fund and its investors12

References = web search results from search_web(query="Independent Review Committee compensation")12 and Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 2: Investment Products - Section 2.2: Mutual Funds3

3: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-2.pdf

Jabir will be eligible to open new client accounts and sell investments only after he receives formal confirmation from the securities regulator that he is registered as a Dealing Representative. This is because registration is a legal requirement for anyone who trades securities or advises clients on securities in Canada, unless an exemption applies. Registration helps protect investors by ensuring that only qualified and competent individuals and firms can conduct securities related business. Jabir must also meet the proficiency, solvency, and suitability requirements for registration, as well as comply with the ongoing obligations of a registrant. Passing the proficiency course and being employed by the dealer are necessary but not sufficient conditions for registration. The dealer must apply for registration on behalf of Jabir and wait for the regulator’s approval.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 1, Section 1.2

In a deflationary environment, prices of goods and services fall. This leads to:

Lower corporate profits (as companies sell at lower prices)

Lower interest rates (to stimulate borrowing)

But personal savings increase because consumers delay purchases expecting lower future prices.

Therefore, the correct answer is Personal savings.

The correct answer is A. Indicates how much an investment’s performance fluctuates around its average historical return.

Standard deviation is a measure of how spread out the data points are from the mean value. It is calculated as the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences from the mean. Standard deviation can be used to assess the volatility or risk of an investment by showing how much the returns deviate from the expected or average return. A higher standard deviation means that the investment has a wider range of possible outcomes, which implies more uncertainty and risk. A lower standard deviation means that the investment has a narrower range of possible outcomes, which implies more stability and consistency.

B. A standard deviation greater than one indicates a higher level of volatility than the market. This statement is incorrect because the standard deviation of an investment is not directly comparable to the standard deviation of the market, unless they have the same mean return. The standard deviation of an investment only measures the absolute variation of the returns, not the relative variation to the market. A better measure of the relative volatility of an investment to the market is beta, which is the ratio of the covariance of the investment and the market to the variance of the market.

C. Measures the systematic risk of an investment relative to a benchmark index. This statement is incorrect because the standard deviation of an investment does not distinguish between the systematic risk and the unsystematic risk. The systematic risk is the risk that affects the entire market or a large segment of the market, such as inflation, interest rates, or political events. The unsystematic risk is the risk that affects a specific investment or a small group of investments, such as management decisions, product quality, or lawsuits. The standard deviation of an investment captures both types of risk, whereas the beta of an investment only captures the systematic risk.

D. Standard deviation is also referred to as beta. This statement is incorrect because standard deviation and beta are different measures of risk. Standard deviation measures the absolute variation of the returns of an investment, whereas beta measures the relative variation of the returns of an investment to the market. Standard deviation is a measure of total risk, whereas beta is a measure of systematic risk.

A joint account allows the husband to retain trading authority and includes the right of survivorship, ensuring the assets revert to him if his wife dies. The feedback from the document states:

"The husband would have no financial interest in a client name account, registered in his wife’s name only. A nominee account would transfer trading authority to a dealer or third-party administrator. In a tenants in common account, each spouse would have trading authority over his/her portion of the account. Therefore, the husband’s best option would be to open a joint account and retain full trading authority. A joint account would also offer the right of survivorship, which is not a feature of a tenants in common account."

Growth-oriented mutual fund trusts focus on companies with above-average earnings growth, often leading to higher volatility and turnover compared to value investing.

While the exact fund descriptions are not shown in this excerpt, based on CSC definitions, the fund most aligned with growth orientation is Fund A.

Sales communication is any written or electronic communication that is intended to promote the sale of a mutual fund, or to influence a person to buy or sell a mutual fund. Sales communication includes any advertisement, brochure, report, newsletter, or other material that is distributed to existing or potential clients. A marketing brochure is an example of sales communication, as it is designed to inform and persuade clients about the features and benefits of a mutual fund. A prospectus, a fund facts, and an annual information form are not considered sales communication, as they are legal documents that provide essential information about a mutual fund, such as its investment objectives, strategies, risks, fees, and performance. These documents are required by securities regulators and must be delivered to investors before or after they purchase a mutual fund.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7: The Regulatory Environment, Lesson 2: Sales Communication, Section 7.2.1: Definition and Scope of Sales Communication1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 7: The Regulatory Environment, Question 7.2.1 2

Quartile rankings:

1st quartile = top-performing funds.

4th quartile = worst-performing funds.

The most consistent top-quartile performer across four years is most desirable.

Based on CSC examples, Manager A had the strongest consistent quartile performance.

✅ Correct = Manager A.

A global fund that does not hedge foreign currency risk benefits from a weakening Canadian dollar, as the value of foreign investments increases in Canadian dollar terms. The feedback from the document states:

"Global mutual funds are attractive in that they can provide a hedge against a decline in the relative value of the Canadian dollar… It is important for mutual fund sales representatives to know whether their global mutual funds hedge foreign exchange risk, because some clients will want to bear that risk themselves, while others will not."

Securities commissions are responsible for regulating mutual and investment funds in Canada. The feedback from the document confirms:

"The responsibility of regulating mutual funds lies with the securities commissions."

 B is correct because assessing historical differences in the rate of return per unit of risk of similar mutual funds helps a Dealing Representative to compare the performance and risk-adjusted returns of different mutual funds and select the most suitable one for a client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives. Comparing historical rates of return between different types of mutual funds (A) does not account for the risk involved in each type of fund. Referencing the fund code for each mutual fund that is being compared © does not provide any information about the fund’s characteristics, features, or suitability. The rights a client has if there is a desire to cancel the purchased mutual fund (D) are not relevant for determining a suitable mutual fund for a client.

Kiri has correctly fulfilled his suitability obligation by matching the risk-return profile of the fund with the personal circumstances of his client. The Conservative Bond Fund is a low-risk, low-return fund that pays regular interest income to investors. Myrtle’s investment objective is “income”, which means she wants to receive steady income from her investments and preserve her capital. Therefore, Kiri’s recommendation is reasonably suitable for Myrtle in all the circumstances. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3)

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest

IFSE Institute: Suitability Obligations1

SFC: Frequently Asked Questions on Compliance with Suitability Obligations2

Thomas must contribute to CPP based on his pensionable earnings, which are his income from employment or self-employment that are subject to CPP. However, he can deduct a basic exemption amount from his pensionable earnings, which is $3,500 for the year. Therefore, his contributory earnings are:

16,000−3,500=12,500

The CPP contribution rate is 5.95% for employees and self-employed workers. Therefore, Thomas must contribute:

12,500×5.95%=743.75

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Registered Plans, Section 6.3: Canada Pension Plan (CPP), page 6-101

Canada Pension Plan - How much could you receive - Canada.ca2

Inflation is the general increase in the prices of goods and services over time. Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money, meaning that a dollar can buy less than it used to. Inflation also erodes the real value of investment income, such as interest, dividends, and capital gains. Therefore, an increase in the inflation rate could mean that investors have less money to invest, as their income and savings lose value.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 1: Economic Factors and Financial Markets, Section 5.1.2: Inflation1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.1.2 2

Eligible Canadian dividends are grossed up by 38% and then receive a federal dividend tax credit of 15.02% of the taxable amount.

For Nancy’s $160 dividend:

Grossed-up amount = $160 × 1.38 = $220.80

Federal dividend tax credit = 15.02% × $220.80 = $33.15

Thus, Nancy will receive a dividend tax credit of approximately $33.

Long transactions involve buying a security with the expectation that its price will increase, while short transactions involve borrowing and selling a security with the hope of buying it back at a lower price. The feedback from the document states:

"Short transactions are a common feature of the capital markets, although not as common as long transactions – the transactions taken by investors who anticipate a price increase in the security. Investors who short sell stocks must first borrow the shares. They must also declare their short transactions."

The national self-regulatory organization (SRO) for investment dealers is the Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (IIROC). An SRO is a non-governmental organization that sets and enforces rules and standards for its members in a specific industry or profession. IIROC is an SRO that oversees all investment dealers and their trading activity in Canada’s debt and equity markets. IIROC’s mandate is to protect investors and support healthy capital markets by ensuring high standards of conduct, competence, and compliance among its members and their representatives. Therefore, option D is correct regarding the national SRO for investment dealers. The other options are not correct or relevant to the question. Option A is false because there is no such organization as the National Securities Commission in Canada; rather, there are provincial and territorial securities regulators that form the Canadian Securities Administrators (CSA), which is a council of securities regulators that coordinates and harmonizes regulation for the Canadian capital markets. Option B is false because the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA) is not the national SRO for investment dealers; rather, it is the national SRO for mutual fund dealers and their representatives in Canada. Option C is false because the Canadian Securities Administrators (CSA) is not the national SRO for investment dealers; rather, it is a council of securities regulators that coordinates and harmonizes regulation for the Canadian capital markets. References: [IIROC - Home], [SROs | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [CSA - Home]

 Dollar-cost averaging is a strategy that involves investing equal amounts of money at regular intervals, regardless of the price of the security. By using dollar-cost averaging, investors may lower their average cost per share and reduce the impact of volatility on their portfolios. However, this strategy does not guarantee a better purchase price than making a lump-sum purchase. In this case, David got his 500 units at a higher price than the lump sum price he would have paid. His average cost per unit was $14.65, while the lump sum price was $14.10. Therefore, D is the correct answer. References: What Is Dollar-Cost Averaging?, What Is Dollar Cost Averaging?, Dollar-Cost Averaging: Definition and Examples

A Registered Education Savings Plan (RESP) is a tax-advantaged savings plan that helps parents and family members save for a child’s post-secondary education. The government also contributes to the plan through the Canada Education Savings Grant (CESG) and the Canada Learning Bond (CLB), depending on the family income and the amount of contributions. However, there are some rules and limits that apply to RESP contributions and government grants. One of them is the lifetime contribution limit, which is the maximum amount that can be contributed to an RESP for a beneficiary from all sources. The lifetime contribution limit is $50,000 per beneficiary, regardless of how many RESPs are opened for them or who contributes to them. Therefore, statement A is correct. Justin and Yvonne may contribute a combined lifetime maximum of $50,000 for Grace to their RESP.

The other statements are incorrect for the following reasons:

Statement B: RESPs are not tax-free investment plans. They are tax-deferred plans, meaning that the contributions are made with after-tax dollars and the investment income earned in the plan is not taxed until it is withdrawn as an educational assistance payment (EAP) for the beneficiary. The EAPs are taxed in the hands of the beneficiary, who usually has little or no income and pays little or no tax.

Statement C: There is no annual contribution limit for RESP contributions. However, there is an annual limit for the CESG, which is 20% of the first $2,500 contributed per beneficiary per year, up to a maximum of $500 per year. The CESG also has a lifetime limit of $7,200 per beneficiary.

Statement D: Contributions made to an RESP are not eligible for a tax deduction in the year they are contributed. They are made with after-tax dollars and do not reduce the contributor’s taxable income.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 9, Section 9.1

The peak stage of the business cycle is marked by demand exceeding supply, leading to rising wages, inflation, and interest rates, while sales slow and business investment decreases. The feedback from the document states:

"The top of the cycle is called a peak. A peak is characterized by the following activities: demand begins to outstrip the capacity of the economy to supply it; wages increase; inflation rises; interest rates rise and bond prices fall; sales begin to decline; business investment slows, and stock market activity begins to decline."

MFDA Policy No. 3 requires that all written client complaints, including emails, be acknowledged in writing. The feedback from the document states:

"MFDA Policy No. 3 specifies the minimum procedures for dealing with written client complaints (including emails). All written client complaints must be acknowledged in writing."

The management expense ratio (MER) is the percentage of a fund’s assets that is paid to the fund manager for operating and managing the fund. A higher MER means that more of the fund’s returns are eaten up by fees, leaving less for the investors. Therefore, Fontaine Equity Fund’s higher MER of 2.99% contributes to its lower 5-year annualized return of 11.25%, compared to Chamberlain Equity Fund’s MER of 2.57% and 5-year annualized return of 13.42%. Therefore, D is the correct answer. , Management Expense Ratio (MER): Definition and How It Works - Investopedia

Survivorship bias occurs when underperforming funds are terminated and excluded from performance rankings, making surviving funds appear to perform better over time. The feedback from the document states:

"All comparison universes exhibit some degree of survivorship bias no matter how carefully the universes are constructed. Survivorship bias develops as defunct portfolios drop out and are excluded from rankings in subsequent quarters. Funds that are terminated or cease to exist are usually those who have been unsuccessful, creating an upward bias in the returns of longer-run funds in the surviving universe."

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, a registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered plan that provides a stream of income in retirement. A RRIF can be opened at any age, but it must be established by the end of the year the annuitant turns 71. A RRIF cannot accept any contributions, but it can receive transfers from other registered plans, such as RRSPs, PRPPs, RPPs, or other RRIFs. A RRIF has no maximum withdrawal limit, meaning that the annuitant can withdraw any amount from the plan at any time. However, a RRIF has a minimum withdrawal requirement, which is calculated based on the annuitant’s age or the age of their spouse or common-law partner. The minimum withdrawal must be paid out in the year following the year the RRIF is opened and every year thereafter. The minimum withdrawal is taxable as income in the year of receipt.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Gregory’s account will be subjected to no maximum withdrawal limit but to an annual minimum withdrawal.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Back-end load funds often have a decreasing redemption fee (deferred sales charge) schedule, which reduces the longer the investor holds the fund. The feedback from the document states:

"Fund sponsors use a decreasing redemption fee (deferred sales charges) schedule to recover their costs from investors who opt out of the fund early. In most cases, redemption fees on a back-end load fund decrease the longer the investor holds the fund."

The Management Reports of Fund Performance (MRFP) are documents that provide information about a mutual fund’s financial performance, portfolio composition, risk profile, and management expenses. The MRFP are prepared by the fund manager and filed with the securities regulators twice a year, for the semi-annual and annual periods. The MRFP are also made available to the investors on the fund manager’s website or upon request. The MRFP include the following sections:

Financial Highlights: This section summarizes the key financial data of the fund, such as net assets, net asset value per unit, total return, ratios and supplemental data.

Past Performance: This section shows the historical returns of the fund over different time periods and compares them with a benchmark index or category average.

Summary of Investment Portfolio: This section provides a breakdown of the fund’s portfolio by asset class, sector, geographic region, and top holdings. It also shows how the portfolio has changed over the reporting period.

Management Discussion of Fund Performance: This section explains the fund’s investment objectives, strategies, and risks, and analyzes the factors that affected the fund’s performance during the reporting period. It also discloses the fund’s management expense ratio (MER), trading expense ratio (TER), and turnover rate.

Financial Statements: This section presents the fund’s statement of financial position, statement of comprehensive income, statement of changes in net assets attributable to holders of redeemable units, and statement of cash flows. It also includes notes to the financial statements that provide additional information and disclosures.

The MRFP would provide Beatrice with comprehensive information regarding the analysis of financial statements and fund management expenses as it relates to her current mutual fund investment.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 6: Fund Operations and Regulations1

Trailer fees are ongoing fees that are paid by mutual fund managers to mutual fund dealers for providing ongoing services to their clients who hold units of their funds. Trailer fees are calculated as a percentage of the value of assets under management (AUM) of the clients who hold units of the fund. Trailer fees are paid out of the management fee that is charged by the mutual fund manager to cover the costs of operating and administering the fund. Therefore, option C is correct regarding mutual fund fees. The other options are incorrect. Option A is false because redemptions are not made from units held by investors to pay trailer fees; rather, trailer fees are paid out of the management fee that is deducted from the net asset value (NAV) of the fund. Option B is false because trailer fees are not only paid to mutual fund dealers when a purchase is made; rather, trailer fees are paid on an ongoing basis as long as the clients hold units of the fund. Option D is false because trading commissions are not paid from the management fee; rather, trading commissions are paid from the trading expense ratio (TER) that reflects the costs of buying and selling securities within the fund. References: [Mutual Fund Fees Explained | Wealthsimple], [Mutual Fund Fees | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Understanding Mutual Fund Fees | Investopedia]

This statement is correct because yield-to-maturity (YTM) is the annualized rate of return of a bond that assumes that all coupon payments are reinvested at the same rate until the bond matures. YTM takes into account the bond’s current market price, par value, coupon rate, and time to maturity, and it calculates the compound interest earned on the reinvested coupons. Therefore, YTM reflects the total return of the bond, including both the interest income and the capital gain or loss.

References = Current Yield vs. Yield to Maturity - Investopedia, Yield to Maturity (YTM) - Investopedia, Bond Current Yield Calculator

Sabrina’s RRSP contribution room for Year 3 is $24,270. This is because the maximum contribution limit for Year 3 is $24,270 and Sabrina has always maximized her RRSP contributions, so she has no carry-forward room available.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans

Withdrawals under a ratio withdrawal plan are based on the current portfolio value, ensuring the fund is never fully depleted unless a 100% payout ratio is used. The feedback from the document states:

"Under a ratio withdrawal plan, the ratio is always based on the current portfolio value. Technically, this means that clients will never fully exhaust their mutual fund investment under this type of plan. Only in the unrealistic situation of a 100% payout ratio would the fund be completely paid out."

Specialty funds, due to their focused and often speculative investments, carry the highest expected risk and return among mutual funds. The feedback from the document states:

"The highest risk, highest expected return mutual fund is a specialty fund."

A RRIF is a retirement income option that allows you to withdraw income from the savings accumulated under your RRSP. You cannot contribute new amounts to a RRIF. You can only transfer funds from your RRSP or another RRIF to your RRIF.

References = IFSE CIFC Module 6: Registered Plans, page 6-11. Can I deposit money in an RRIF? | Fonds FTQ

A Canadian equity index fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in stocks that track a Canadian equity market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index or the S&P/TSX 60 Index. These indices measure the performance of the largest and most liquid companies listed on the Toronto Stock Exchange (TSX). A Canadian equity index fund aims to replicate the returns of the index it follows, before fees and expenses. Therefore, this type of fund would be best for Karen, who has a long time horizon, is comfortable with risk and volatility, and is primarily interested in growth. She also wants a mutual fund that will closely match what she sees on the TSX. References: CIBC Canadian Equity Index ETF, Top Canadian Index Funds of 2023 | The Motley Fool Canada

Capital gains are realized when an investor sells a fund at a profit. Selling units at $18.80 (purchased at $17.60) triggers a taxable capital gain in a non-registered account. The feedback from the document states:

"Capital gains are generated when an investor sells an investment for more than the price paid; for example, selling a stock at a profit will generate a capital gain. Capital gains are not realized when an investment goes up in price; a sale must occur."

A labour-sponsored investment fund (LSIF) is a type of mutual fund that invests in small and medium-sized businesses that are not publicly traded. LSIFs are sponsored by labour unions or associations and offer tax credits to investors. However, LSIFs are also very risky and illiquid investments that may not be suitable for investors with a medium risk profile, such as Banji. Therefore, Quinton should not proceed with the purchase of the Prospect Labour-Sponsored Fund because it is not suitable for Banji based on her current KYC. Therefore, C is the correct answer. References: Labour-Sponsored Investment Funds (LSIFs): Definition and How They Work - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

Rights of survivorship means that if one account holder dies, their share of the assets automatically transfers to the surviving holder(s).

This feature is available in joint non-registered accounts.

Registered accounts (A) (e.g., RRSP, TFSA) are individual accounts and cannot be opened jointly with rights of survivorship.

Trust accounts (B) follow trust law, not survivorship rules.

Corporate accounts (D) belong to the company, not individuals.

The maximum tax-deductible RRSP contribution is calculated as 18% of the previous year’s earned income, minus the pension adjustment, plus any carry-forward contribution room. In this case:

(18% × $45,000) = $8,100

$8,100 - $2,500 (pension adjustment) + $2,000 (carry-forward) = $7,600.

The feedback from the document confirms:

"Joanne’s tax-deductible RRSP contribution room would be calculated as (18% × $45,000) - $2,500 + $2,000 = $7,600."

Hedge fund incentive fees apply only to returns above the hurdle rate.

Gross return = 22%

Hurdle rate = 5%

Excess return = 22% − 5% = 17%

Incentive fee = 20% × 17% = 3.4%

Thus, the fund manager earns 3.4% compensation.

A group RRSP is a retirement savings plan sponsored by an employer that allows employees to contribute through regular payroll deductions and benefit from tax advantages and possible employer matching. The employer is responsible for choosing the plan provider, which is the financial institution that administers the group RRSP and offers a range of investment options for the employees to choose from. The employer may also negotiate lower fees and better services with the plan provider than what individual RRSPs can offer. Therefore, statement D is correct.

The other statements are incorrect for the following reasons:

Statement A: A group RRSP is less costly and time consuming to administer than traditional pension plans, as it does not require actuarial valuations, funding requirements, or regulatory filings.

Statement B: If you leave your employer, your group RRSP does not stay with the employer. You can transfer your group RRSP to an individual RRSP or another registered plan without tax consequences, as long as there are no locked-in provisions.

Statement C: You do not need to wait until you file your taxes to receive your contribution tax deduction. Your contributions are deducted from your gross income before tax is calculated, so you receive an immediate tax benefit on your paycheque.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 9, Section 9.1

Structural unemployment results from economic changes, such as technological advancements that reduce the demand for certain types of labor. The feedback from the document states:

"Structural unemployment results from changes in the economy, such as technological advances that reduce the need for human labour."

Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between available jobs and the skills of workers. This is exactly the case when there is a lack of skilled workers in the economy.

Cyclical unemployment (A) arises during economic downturns.

Frictional unemployment (C) is temporary, due to workers moving between jobs.

Seasonal unemployment (D) arises in industries affected by seasonal patterns (e.g., agriculture, tourism).

Commercial paper is a type of money market security that is issued by corporations and financial institutions to raise short-term funds. Commercial paper has a maturity of less than one year, typically between 30 and 90 days. Commercial paper is unsecured, meaning that it is not backed by any collateral or guarantee. Therefore, commercial paper has the highest degree of risk for the investor among the four types of money market securities listed, as it depends on the creditworthiness and liquidity of the issuer. If the issuer defaults or faces financial difficulties, the investor may lose part or all of their principal. Commercial paper also has a higher interest rate than other money market securities to compensate for the higher risk.

The other types of money market securities are:

Bankers’ acceptances: These are negotiable instruments that are issued by a bank on behalf of a client who needs to finance international trade transactions. Bankers’ acceptances have a maturity of less than one year, usually between 30 and 180 days. Bankers’ acceptances are secured by the bank’s guarantee and the underlying goods or services that are being traded. Therefore, bankers’ acceptances have a lower degree of risk for the investor than commercial paper, as they are backed by the bank’s creditworthiness and the value of the trade transaction.

Treasury bills: These are short-term debt obligations that are issued by the federal government to finance its operations and programs. Treasury bills have a maturity of less than one year, usually between 3 and 12 months. Treasury bills are considered risk-free investments, as they are backed by the full faith and credit of the government. Therefore, treasury bills have the lowest degree of risk for the investor among the four types of money market securities listed, as they have virtually no default risk or liquidity risk. Treasury bills also have the lowest interest rate among the four types of money market securities, as they reflect the risk-free rate of return.

Municipal short-term paper: These are short-term debt instruments that are issued by municipalities or other local governments to finance their capital projects or operating expenses. Municipal short-term paper has a maturity of less than one year, usually between 30 and 270 days. Municipal short-term paper is secured by the taxing power and revenue sources of the issuing municipality or government. Therefore, municipal short-term paper has a lower degree of risk for the investor than commercial paper, as it is backed by the ability and willingness of the issuer to levy taxes and collect revenues.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 5: Fixed-Income Securities, Section 5.1: Money Market Securities, page 5-21

Money Market Definition - Investopedia2

Commercial Paper Definition - Investopedia3

Bankers’ Acceptance (BA) Definition - Investopedia4

Treasury Bill (T-Bill) Definition - Investopedia

Municipal Bond Definition - Investopedia

Dave invested in a U.S.-dollar denominated mutual fund. Even though the unit price increased (US$15 → US$16), he lost money when converted back to Canadian dollars. This loss was caused by fluctuations in the exchange rate between the Canadian dollar and the U.S. dollar, not the fund’s performance itself.

This is a clear example of exchange rate (currency) risk.

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, capital gains distributions are the portion of the mutual fund trust’s net realized capital gains that are paid out to the unitholders. Capital gains distributions are not the same as capital gains from selling or redeeming units of the mutual fund trust, which are reported on a T5008 slip. Capital gains distributions are taxable in the year they are received, even if they are reinvested in additional units of the fund. The mutual fund trust will issue a T3 slip to report the amount and type of income that is allocated to each unitholder, including capital gains distributions. The unitholder must report this income on their tax return and pay tax on 50% of the capital gains distributions at their marginal tax rate.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Retractable preferred shares are a type of preferred stock that lets the issuer force the redemption of the shares at a set price and time. The issuer can pay cash or common shares to the retractable preferred shareholders.

References = Retractable Preferred Shares: What it is, How it Works, Example, What are Retractable Preferred Shares? Definition, And How Does it Work? - CFAJournal, Retractable Preferred Shares | Example | Feature - Accountinguide

Beta measures systematic (market) risk:

Beta = 1.0 → moves with market.

Beta < 1.0 → less volatile, more defensive.

Beta > 1.0 → more volatile, aggressive.

Defensive stocks (e.g., banks, utilities) typically have low betas.

Given options:

0.5 (A) = least risky, most defensive.

2.0 (B) = highly aggressive.

1.0 (C) = average risk.

1.5 (D) = above-average risk.

The Fund Facts document provides essential information to ensure the fund’s objectives and risk profile align with the investor’s needs. The feedback from the document states:

"The fundamental purpose of a Fund Facts document is to provide ‘full, plain and true’ disclosure of material information concerning the securities and the issuer of the securities, so that potential purchasers can make informed decisions about purchasing the new securities. The fundamental investment objectives of a mutual fund can be found in the Fund Facts. It specifies what the fund intends to accomplish and how it is to be done."

The original capital contributed to a Registered Educational Savings Plan (RESP) is not taxed upon withdrawal, while other amounts, such as income or grants, are taxable to the beneficiary. The feedback from the document states:

"The original capital withdrawn from an RESP is not taxed; all other amounts are taxed in the hands of the beneficiary."

 Underwriting is the process through which an individual or institution takes on financial risk for a fee. This risk most typically involves loans, insurance, or investments. In the case of securities, underwriting involves conducting research and assessing the degree of risk each applicant or entity brings to the table before assuming that risk. During the underwriting process, investment bankers raise investment capital from investors on behalf of corporations and governments issuing securities. They also help determine the company’s underlying value compared to the risk of funding its IPO. References: Underwriting: Definition and How the Various Types Work - Investopedia, The future of insurance underwriting | Deloitte Insights

The secondary market involves trading previously issued securities between investors, enabling liquidity for those who initially purchased the securities. The feedback from the document states:

"The secondary market involves the resale of previously issued securities between investors. It enables investors who originally bought the investment products to sell them and obtain cash."

To protect against a market decline, purchasing put options on an index fund like the iShares S&P/TSX 60 allows the portfolio to offset losses by gaining value if the market falls. The feedback from the document states:

"A fund manager may have experienced a rapid growth in the value of her portfolio, but is concerned that the market may fall. To protect herself against a fall in value, she purchases put options on the iShares S&P/TSX 60 Index Fund (i60s). If the market declines, the fall in value of the portfolio is offset by an increase in the value of the put options."

Systematic risk (market risk) affects the entire market or asset class, and cannot be diversified away. A downturn in Canadian equities impacts all Canadian stocks, making it a systematic risk.

Unique risk (A) is company-specific and can be diversified away.

Currency risk (B) arises from exchange rate fluctuations, not applicable here.

Default risk (C) applies to debt issuers failing to meet obligations, not equities.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with Investment Funds in Canada Course References:

The custodian of a mutual fund is responsible for safekeeping assets and handling cash inflows and outflows.

According to CSC, an independent financial organization, usually a trust company, serves as custodian. The custodian collects funds from investors, receives portfolio income, and arranges for distributions and redemptions.

Thus, the correct answer is A. A trust company.

Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that offer its shareholders the opportunity to receive additional dividends if the company’s profit exceeds a stated level. These dividends are paid in addition to the fixed dividends that are normally paid to preferred shareholders. Participating preferred shares allow shareholders to benefit from both fixed and variable income streams, depending on the company’s performance. References: Participating Preferred Stock Definition - Investopedia, Preferred Shares Explained | TD Direct Investing

To calculate Firmansyah’s federal tax liability from the investment income, we need to follow these steps:

Step 1: Convert the foreign dividend from USD to CAD using the exchange rate given in the question. The exchange rate is 1.3605 CAD per USD, which means that 1 USD is equivalent to 1.3605 CAD. Therefore, Firmansyah’s foreign dividend in CAD is:

500×1.3605=680.25

Step 2: Calculate Firmansyah’s grossed-up dividend income from both sources. A grossed-up dividend income is the actual dividend received plus a percentage of the dividend that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer. The percentage varies depending on whether the dividend is eligible or non-eligible. According to [this site], an eligible dividend is a dividend paid by a Canadian corporation that meets certain criteria, such as being listed on a designated stock exchange or being a subsidiary of such a corporation. A non-eligible dividend is a dividend that does not meet these criteria, such as a dividend paid by a foreign corporation or a small Canadian business corporation. The gross-up rate for eligible dividends in 2020 was 38%, while the gross-up rate for non-eligible dividends in 2020 was 15%. Therefore, Firmansyah’s grossed-up dividend income from both sources is:

(1800+680.25)×(1+0.38)=3426.35

Step 3: Apply Firmansyah’s federal marginal tax rate to his grossed-up dividend income to get his federal tax before credits. A marginal tax rate is the percentage of tax applied to an additional dollar of income. According to [this site], Firmansyah’s federal marginal tax rate for 2020 was 29%, as his taxable income was between $150,473 and $214,368. Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal tax before credits is:

0.29×3426.35=993.64

Step 4: Subtract Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability from the investment income. A dividend tax credit is a percentage of the grossed-up dividend income that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer and avoids double taxation. The percentage varies depending on whether the dividend is eligible or non-eligible. According to [this site], the federal dividend tax credit rate for eligible dividends in 2020 was 15%, while the federal dividend tax credit rate for non-eligible dividends in 2020 was 9.03%. Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from both sources is:

(1800+680.25)×0.38×0.15=297.88

Step 5: Subtract Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability from the investment income. This is the amount of federal income tax that Firmansyah has to pay or has overpaid from the investment income. Therefore, Firmansyah’s net federal tax liability from the investment income is:

993.64−297.88=695.76

Hence, option C is correct. References: [Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute], [Dividend Tax Credit | TurboTax Canada Tips], [Federal Income Tax Rates for Canada - TurboTax Canada Tips], [Eligible Dividends | TurboTax Canada Tips]

Guaranteed Income Supplement (GIS) and Allowance for the Survivor are both income-tested benefits that are part of the Old Age Security (OAS) program. They are designed to provide financial assistance to low-income seniors who meet certain eligibility criteria. GIS is a monthly payment that supplements the OAS pension for seniors whose income is below a certain threshold. Allowance for the Survivor is a monthly payment for low-income seniors aged 60 to 64 whose spouse or common-law partner has died and who have not remarried or entered into another common-law relationship. The benefit amounts for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depend on the income level of the recipient and are adjusted quarterly based on the Consumer Price Index. The higher the income, the lower the benefit amount, until it reaches zero at a certain income limit. Therefore, eligibility for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depends on income level.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans1

A long margin purchase means buying securities partly with borrowed funds from the dealer .

The investor pays part of the purchase price (the margin), while the dealer lends the balance .

This differs from:

A (cash purchase): uses only own funds.

B (limit order): unrelated, based on price conditions.

D (short sale): selling borrowed shares, not buying.

Correct action = buying shares on borrowed funds at market price.

The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) is a federal law that imposes requirements on the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information by organizations in the private sector that are subject to federal regulation, such as banks, telecommunications, transportation, and broadcasting. PIPEDA also applies to organizations that operate in provinces or territories that do not have substantially similar privacy legislation, such as Alberta, British Columbia, and Québec. PIPEDA does not apply to consumers, departments and agencies of the Government of Canada, or departments and agencies of provincial governments, as they are governed by other privacy laws or regulations12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7: The Regulatory Environment, Lesson 3: Privacy Legislation, Section 7.3.1: Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) 1; Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada website

New taxes on foreign direct investment increase the cost of investing in a country, making it less attractive for foreign capital and likely causing capital outflows. The feedback from the document explains:

"Capital moves in and out of a country based on a variety of risk factors. Increased trade barriers or increased taxes on foreign investments would typically reduce the attractiveness of a country for foreign investment. (a), (c), and (d) would all indicate positive trends in a risk factor analysis."

ETFs can be purchased continuously throughout the trading day while index funds can only be bought or sold at the end of the day. This is because ETFs are traded on a stock exchange like stocks, while index funds are traded directly with the fund company like mutual funds. This difference gives ETFs more liquidity and flexibility than index funds, as investors can buy and sell ETFs at any time during market hours at the prevailing market price. Index funds, on the other hand, are priced only once a day at the end of the day based on the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of the fund. Both ETFs and index funds are prone to tracking errors (A), which are the differences between the performance of the fund and the performance of the underlying index. Tracking errors can be caused by various factors, such as fees, expenses, dividends, rebalancing, and market conditions. The market price of ETFs does not always match the underlying basket of securities ©, as it is determined by supply and demand in the market. There can be a discrepancy between the market price and the NAVPU of an ETF, which is called the premium or discount. Index funds, on the other hand, are priced based on the NAVPU of the fund, which reflects the value of the underlying securities. Both ETFs and index funds have management fees (D), as they are both types of mutual funds that incur costs for managing and operating the fund. However, ETFs usually have lower management fees than index funds, as they are more passive and have lower turnover and distribution costs.

Discretionary trading is a type of trading activity where the advisor makes investment decisions on behalf of the client without obtaining the client’s prior consent for each transaction. Discretionary trading is only allowed if the client has signed a discretionary management agreement with the advisor and the advisor is registered as a portfolio manager. A limited authorization form (LAF) does not grant the advisor the authority to engage in discretionary trading. A LAF only allows the advisor to execute trades that are initiated by the client, such as pre-authorized contributions or withdrawals. Therefore, Khuyen has performed discretionary trading by switching Bao’s funds without consulting him, which is a violation of her registrant responsibilities and ethical standards. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 2: The Sales Process, Section 2.4: Ethics and Compliance, page 2-161

Discretionary Trading Definition - Investopedia2

The market value of a perpetual preferred share is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the yield of similar shares. Annual dividend = $0.25 × 4 = $1.00. Price = $1.00 / 0.035 = $28.57. The feedback from the document states:

"The current market value of a perpetual preferred share is calculated by dividing the annual dividend in dollars by the annual yield currently offered on preferred shares of a similar level of risk. In this case, the share would be valued as: ($0.25 × 4) / 0.035 = $28.57."

 A Fund Facts document is a summary disclosure document that provides key information about a mutual fund, such as its investment objectives, risks, past performance, and fees. One of the information items that a Fund Facts document provides to potential investors is what the mutual fund is currently investing in, such as its top 10 holdings, asset mix, geographic allocation, and sector allocation. A Fund Facts document does not provide information on how to calculate taxes, portfolio management strategy, or remuneration of the Independent Review Committee. References: Fund facts guide | Sun Life Global Investments, Mutual Funds - Fund Facts | ScotiaFunds

Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are traded on exchanges, offering flexibility and lower costs compared to index mutual funds, making them ideal for tracking the energy sector. The feedback from the document states:

"Like stocks, and unlike index mutual funds, ETFs are traded on an exchange and can be bought and sold throughout the trading day. In this way, ETFs provide investors with a flexible way to participate in the performance of the underlying assets without having to acquire the assets directly, incurring high transaction costs. MERs on ETFs also tend to be lower than on other index and actively managed products."

A front-end load is a sales charge paid at the time of purchase, calculated as a percentage of the investment amount.

A. $1,500 × 3% = $45

B. $1,000 × 4% = $40

C. $5,000 × 1% = $50

D. $3,000 × 2% = $60

✅ Most expensive = $60 (Option D)

Correction: Answer = D. Purchase $3,000 at 2% front-end load

Discretionary income is the amount left after subtracting expenses from total income, available for savings or investments. Total income = $100,000 (employment) + $10,000 (investments) = $110,000. Subtracting $95,000 in bills gives $110,000 - $95,000 = $15,000. The feedback from the document states:

"Discretionary income eligible for savings and investments is the difference between the amount of money coming in from employment and other sources and the amount of money going out to pay bills. In this example, $100,000 + $10,000 - $95,000 = $15,000."

 According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, different types of investment income are taxed differently in Canada. Interest income is fully taxed at the marginal rate, while dividend income is favourably taxed with a dividend tax credit. Capital gains are taxed on 50% of the gain at the marginal rate, and foreign income is subject to withholding tax. Therefore, a tax-efficient strategy is to include interest paying investments, such as bonds or GICs, in the registered plan, where they can grow tax-deferred until withdrawal. Dividend paying investments, such as Canadian stocks or ETFs, should be included in the non-registered plan, where they can benefit from the lower tax rate and the dividend tax credit. Foreign income should also be avoided in the non-registered plan, unless it is held in a U.S. dollar account or a foreign currency hedged ETF, to reduce the impact of withholding tax and currency fluctuations.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

The independent review committee approves actions involving conflicts of interest only if they achieve a fair and reasonable result for the fund. The feedback from the document states:

"The Independent Review Committee will only approve actions where a conflict of interest arises if certain requirements are met, including, most importantly, the action achieves a fair and reasonable result for the fund."

Interest income distribution is a type of income that a mutual fund pays to its investors from the interest earned on its fixed-income investments, such as bonds and mortgages. Interest income distribution is taxed as ordinary income at the investor’s top marginal tax rate, which is the highest tax rate that applies to their income bracket. Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Interest Income and Taxes - Fidelity, Topic No. 403, Interest Received | Internal Revenue Service

Explicit costs of operating a mutual fund include:

Management fees,

Operating expenses,

Custodial fees,

Record-keeping,

Marketing/distribution.

These costs are embedded in the MER (Management Expense Ratio) and are borne by the investors, as they reduce fund returns.

The manager (B) oversees operations but does not personally cover costs.

The sponsor (C) establishes the fund, and the distributor (D) sells units, but neither pays the ongoing operating costs.

A business cycle is a cycle of fluctuations in the aggregate economic activity of a nation around its long-term natural growth rate. It consists of four phases: expansion, peak, contraction, and trough. A period of economic expansion is followed by a period of economic contraction, which is also called a recession. A recession is defined as a significant decline in economic activity spread across the economy, lasting more than a few months, normally visible in real GDP, real income, employment, industrial production, and wholesale-retail sales1. The other statements are not true about the movement of business cycles in the Canadian economy. The length of each phase and cycle varies depending on various factors, such as fiscal and monetary policies, external shocks, consumer confidence, and technological changes. There is no fixed rule that a period of economic expansion or contraction must last for a certain number of months or quarters. A period of at least 3 consecutive months of contraction is not sufficient to define a recession; it must also be significant and widespread across the economy. References: Business Cycle: What It Is, How to Measure It, the 4 Phases, Business Cycle - Definition, How to Measure and 6 Different Stages, Business Cycle - Definition, Phases, Graphs, Economics Examples

The endowment bias occurs when investors place a higher value on assets they already own compared to the market value, simply because of ownership.

Dave overvalues his property relative to the market.

Farida = representativeness bias.

Kendra = availability bias.

Peter = status quo bias.

Thus, Dave demonstrates endowment bias.

The federal tax on eligible Canadian dividends is calculated as follows:

First, the dividend amount is grossed up by 38%, which means multiplying it by 1.38. This is to account for the corporate tax that has already been paid by the company. Eleanora’s grossed-up dividend is $500 x 1.38 = $690.

Second, the grossed-up dividend is multiplied by the federal marginal tax rate to get the gross federal tax. Eleanora’s gross federal tax is $690 x 0.29 = $200.10.

Third, the grossed-up dividend is multiplied by the federal dividend tax credit rate to get the federal tax credit. This is to avoid double taxation of the dividend income. Eleanora’s federal tax credit is $690 x 0.1502 = $103.64.

Fourth, the federal tax credit is subtracted from the gross federal tax to get the net federal tax. Eleanora’s net federal tax is $200.10 - $103.64 = $96.46.

Therefore, Eleanora will pay $96.46 in federal tax on her dividend. References: How Dividends Are Taxed and Reported on Tax Returns - Investopedia, Dividend Tax Credit in Canada - TurboTax

This is the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) for the Marigold Canadian Dividend Fund for July 6. The NAVPU is calculated by dividing the net asset value (NAV) of the fund by the number of units outstanding. In this case, the NAVPU is $8.25 ($45,668,900 / 5,564,443).

The NAV is the value of a fund’s assets minus the value of its liabilities. The value of assets is the value of all the securities in the portfolio, plus any cash and cash equivalents, plus any accrued income for the day. The value of liabilities is the value of all short-term and long-term liabilities, plus any accrued expenses for the day. The NAV is usually expressed on a per-share or per-unit basis, which is the NAVPU.

The NAVPU is the price at which investors can buy or sell units of the fund. It is determined at the end of each trading day based on the closing market prices of the portfolio’s securities. The NAVPU can change daily depending on the performance of the securities in the fund and the fund’s expenses.

Misrepresenting risks violates the MFDA Rule No. 2 requirement to deal fairly, honestly, and in good faith with clients. The feedback from the document states:

"MFDA Rule No 2 ‘Business Conduct’ sets out the standards applicable to all MFDA members and their respective dealing representatives. In this case, the representative has not dealt honestly with the client by misrepresenting information."

Research and the CSC curriculum stress that asset allocation is the single most important factor in determining portfolio performance, more than market timing or security selection.

Proper asset mix (equities, fixed income, cash) accounts for most portfolio success or failure.

Grant’s appointment as Treasurer is considered an outside activity, regardless of whether he is compensated or not. According to the CIFC, Dealing Representatives must obtain their firm’s written approval before engaging in any outside activity that could interfere with their ability to perform their duties or create a conflict of interest with their clients or employer. Grant must disclose the nature and extent of his involvement with the Hockey Association and how it may affect his availability, reputation, or potential for conflicts of interest. The firm may approve, reject, or impose conditions on Grant’s outside activity.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8: Suitability and Know Your Client1

A mutual fund trust structure allows the fund to avoid taxation by distributing its income to unitholders. The feedback from the document states:

"The most common structure for mutual funds in Canada is the open-end trust. The trust structure allows a fund itself to avoid taxation. Any interest, dividends and capital gains income, net of the fund’s fees, expenses and capital losses, if passed to its unitholders each calendar year, will allow the trust to avoid being taxed on its income."

One of the main reasons for holding bonds in a mutual fund portfolio is to generate regular interest income, which can be distributed to the investors as cash or reinvested in more units of the fund. Bonds are debt securities that pay a fixed or variable rate of interest, called the coupon, to the bondholders until the maturity date, when the principal amount is repaid. The interest income from bonds can provide a steady source of cash flow for the fund and its investors, especially in low-interest-rate environments or when other sources of income, such as dividends or capital gains, are scarce or uncertain

An IPP is a registered, defined-benefit pension plan that provides a fixed retirement benefit to the person designated in the plan. It is similar to an RRSP, but with some differences in contribution limits, deductions, and tax benefits. One of the main advantages of an IPP is that it allows higher contribution limits than an RRSP, especially for older and higher-income individuals. The contributions are based on the actuarial calculations of the pension benefit, and are tax-deductible for the sponsoring corporation. The higher contribution limits can help Fabiola catch up on her retirement savings and reduce her taxable income123

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 3: Registered Plans - Section 3.3: Individual Pension Plan (IPP) and web search results from search_web(query="individual pension plan")123

https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-3.pdf

 Investment dealers are people or firms who buy and sell securities for their own account, whether through a broker or otherwise. They play an important role in the Canadian and global financial markets because they are market makers, create liquidity, and help promote long-term growth in the market. They also provide investment services to investors, such as underwriting securities, raising capital, and offering advice. By assisting with the exchange of capital for a financial instrument, they facilitate the flow of funds between savers and borrowers, and between different sectors and countries. The other options are not accurate descriptions of the role of investment dealers. References: Dealers: Definition in Trading, Meaning and Comparison to Brokers, Investment Dealers Definition

Only registered individuals can process mutual fund orders. Allowing an unregistered sales assistant to enter orders violates the standards of conduct. The feedback from the document states:

"Mutual fund sales representatives must be registered to sell mutual funds. This requires registration with the securities administrator in each province and territory in which the clients to whom they sell mutual funds reside."

Defined benefit pension plans base retirement income on formulas that may use:

Career average earnings → lower protection against inflation.

Final average earnings (last few years of salary) → better protection against inflation, since the calculation reflects recent, higher earnings that have already adjusted for inflation.

Defined contribution and group RRSPs do not guarantee inflation-adjusted benefits.

Thus, the Final average pension plan offers better inflation protection before retirement.

To make a suitable recommendation, Solomon needs to identify how the proposed investment is in alignment with the investor’s profile and holdings. A suitable recommendation is one that meets the investor’s needs, goals, risk tolerance, time horizon, and personal circumstances. It also considers the investor’s existing portfolio and how the new investment would affect its diversification, performance, and risk. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what Solomon needs to do to make a suitable recommendation. The other options are not correct or sufficient to make a suitable recommendation. Option A is false because mutual fund costs are important regardless of the past fund performance, as they reduce the net returns and compound over time. Option B is false because relying on the risk rating of the mutual fund is not enough to offer an investment solution, as it does not reflect the investor’s return expectations, liquidity needs, tax situation, or personal preferences. Option D is false because matching the past rates of return of the mutual fund with what is the anticipated rate of return is not a reliable way to make a recommendation, as past performance does not guarantee future results and may not be consistent with the investor’s risk tolerance or time horizon. References: [Suitability | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Mutual Fund Fees | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Risk Rating | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

Loretta is looking for a well diversified equity fund that invests both within and outside Canada. She also wants a fund that invests in quality companies, which implies that she prefers lower risk and higher stability. A global equity fund would meet her criteria, as it can invest in any country, including Canada, and diversify across different regions and markets. A global equity fund that focuses on large, established companies, also known as blue chip stocks, would also suit her preference for quality and stability, as these companies tend to have strong financial performance, competitive advantages, and consistent dividends. Therefore, the Polar Global Blue Chip Equity Fund would be the best choice for Loretta among the given options.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6, Section 6.2

Index mutual funds and traditional exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are both types of investment funds that use a passive investment management style, which means they try to track the performance of a specific market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index or the S&P 500 Index. They do so by holding the same securities as the index or a representative sample of them, and by adjusting their portfolio composition and weighting to reflect any changes in the index. However, both types of funds may not be able to exactly replicate the return of the index for various reasons, such as fees, expenses, tracking error, rebalancing frequency, dividend reinvestment, and cash holdings. Therefore, there may be some deviation or difference between the fund’s return and the index’s return, which is called tracking difference.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

The availability bias occurs when investors rely on easily available or recent information rather than a thorough analysis. In this case, the investor bases decisions on internet recommendations and stock tips, believing they are accurate, instead of analyzing fundamentals. This clearly matches availability bias.

Endowment bias applies when investors overvalue what they already own.

Representativeness bias applies when investors judge outcomes by stereotypes or past patterns.

Overconfidence refers to excessive faith in one’s own knowledge.

Thus, the behavioural bias here is Availability .

Asset allocation is the most critical decision for portfolio success, followed by sector weighting and then security selection. The feedback from the document states:

"The single most important decision, one that accounts for most of the success or failure of a portfolio, is the asset allocation decision, which is the selection of the classes of securities to be held and in what proportion to hold them. The next most important decision is the selection of the specific industries from which stocks will be selected: the portfolio’s sector weighting. The final decision is the security selection: the choice of which individual companies within the industry or sector to invest in."

Beta is a relative measure that compares how an investment reacts to movements in a specific index. A beta of 1 means that the investment moves in sync with the index. A beta greater than 1 means that the investment is more volatile than the index. A beta less than 1 means that the investment is less volatile than the index.

Risk refers to the potential volatility in returns or the range of possible future outcomes on the price of a security. This concept captures the uncertainty associated with a security’s future value, a fundamental aspect of investment analysis. The feedback from the document states:

"Risk is the potential volatility in returns or the range of possible future outcomes on the price of a security."

A registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) is a type of tax-deferred account that allows individuals to save for retirement. Contributions to an RRSP are deductible from taxable income, which means that they reduce the amount of income tax payable for the year. The amount of tax savings from an RRSP contribution depends on the individual’s marginal tax rate, which is the tax rate applied to the next dollar earned. Leira has a marginal tax rate of 45% and may deduct $5,000 in RRSP contributions on her income tax return. If she decides to use her available deduction and assuming this does not reduce her taxable income to a lower tax bracket, by how much will it reduce her tax payable? To answer this question, we can use the following formula: $$(Tax savings = RRSP contribution \times Marginal tax rate)

A put option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to sell a set number of shares of an underlying asset at a set price within a specified time frame. The buyer of a put option expects the price of the underlying asset to fall below the strike price before the expiration date. Therefore, A is the correct answer. References: Put Option: What It Is, How It Works, and How to Trade Them, Put: What It Is and How It Works in Investing, With Examples, Put Options: Definition, Overview, and Example

Avoidance is a method of addressing conflict of interest by preventing it from occurring in the first place. Ethical Financial’s policies and procedures manual (PPM) require that Catarina decline the gift from Darlene, which is a potential source of conflict of interest. By doing so, Catarina avoids any appearance of favouritism or bias towards Darlene’s mutual fund family. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3)

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest

IFSE Institute: Conflicts of Interest1

Money market funds are safe investments because their net asset value per unit does not usually fluctuate. Money market funds invest in highly liquid instruments like high-interest savings accounts, term deposits, short-term debt securities, cash equivalents, and other low-risk, short-term investments3. These funds aim to preserve capital and provide liquidity while generating some income3. Money market funds typically have a stable net asset value per unit (NAVPU) that does not change much over time3. The other statements are false. Money market funds do not provide high returns without risking the capital invested. Money market funds offer low returns that may not keep up with inflation or meet long-term investment goals3. Money market funds also have some risks, such as credit risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk3. Money market funds do not pay income weekly which can be automatically reinvested. Money market funds may pay income monthly, quarterly, semi-annually, or annually, depending on the fund’s distribution policy3. Investors can choose to receive cash distributions or reinvest them in more units of the fund3. Money market funds do not provide investors a guaranteed fixed rate of return. Money market funds do not guarantee any return or principal amount3. The return of money market funds depends on the interest rates and yields of the underlying investments, which may vary over time3. References: 7 Best Money Market ETFs in Canada 2023: Cash And HISA ETFs, Best Money Market Funds in Canada | WOWA.ca, 3 Best Canadian Money Market Funds (2023) - PiggyBank

One of the steps in the Know Your Client (KYC) rule is to assess the client’s financial resources, which include their income, assets, liabilities, and net worth. Asking about pension plans at work is a relevant question to determine the client’s sources of income and potential retirement savings. Pension plans can also affect the client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives, as they may provide a stable and guaranteed income in the future. Asking about children, money needs, and investment experience are also important questions, but they relate to other aspects of the KYC rule, such as personal circumstances, time horizon, and investment knowledge. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 1: The Investment Funds Industry, Section 1.4: The Know Your Client (KYC) Rule, page 1-111

Know Your Client (KYC) Definition - Investopedia

For money market funds, performance reporting differs from other mutual funds because the NAVPS is relatively fixed.

Instead of reporting NAVPS, financial sources publish the current yield and effective yield.

The current yield is calculated based on the most recent seven-day yield, expressed as an annualized percentage.

The effective yield compounds the current yield over a year for comparison with other investments.

Thus, the correct answer is Current yield.

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Loss aversion bias causes investors to hold onto unprofitable investments due to a stronger desire to avoid losses than to seek gains. The feedback from the document states:

"Loss aversion bias states that people generally feel a stronger impulse to avoid losses than to acquire gains. Loss aversion can prevent people from unloading unprofitable investments, even when they see little to no prospect of a turnaround."

Canadian preferred share funds distribute income in the form of eligible Canadian dividends, which are tax-advantaged through the dividend tax credit.

In contrast:

U.S. preferred dividends are taxed as foreign income, fully taxable without credits.

Mortgage and bond funds generate interest income, which is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal rate.

Therefore, the most tax-advantaged distribution comes from a Canadian preferred share fund.

The answer that you should tell Lior is that dividend funds tend to be less volatile and lower risk than equity funds. A dividend fund is a type of equity fund that invests primarily in dividend-paying stocks, which are shares of companies that distribute a portion of their earnings to shareholders on a regular basis. A dividend fund provides income and capital appreciation to investors, as well as tax advantages for eligible dividends paid by Canadian corporations. A dividend fund tends to be less volatile and lower risk than an equity fund that invests in non-dividend-paying stocks or growth stocks, which are shares of companies that reinvest their earnings into expanding their business rather than paying dividends. This is because dividend-paying stocks are usually issued by well-established and profitable companies that have stable cash flows and earnings, which make them more resilient to market fluctuations and economic downturns. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what you should tell Lior. The other options are not correct or relevant to what you should tell Lior. Option A is false because equity funds are not more appropriate than dividend funds if Lior requires a steady flow of income; rather, dividend funds are more suitable for income-oriented investors who want to receive regular dividends from their investments. Option B is false because dividend funds do not generate tax-preferred income while income from equity funds is fully taxable; rather, both types of funds generate taxable income for investors, but eligible dividends from Canadian corporations may qualify for a lower tax rate than other types of income due to the dividend tax credit. Option D is false because equity funds do not hold common shares while dividend funds hold only preferred shares; rather, both types of funds hold common shares, but dividend funds focus on common shares that pay dividends, while equity funds may also hold common shares that do not pay dividends or pay low dividends. References: [Dividend Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Equity Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Dividend Tax Credit | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

Disclosure documents are documents that provide information about a mutual fund’s features, risks, performance, fees, and expenses to investors and regulators. Disclosure documents are required by securities laws and must be prepared and filed by the fund manager in accordance with the prescribed rules and standards. Disclosure documents relating to mutual funds include the following:

Statement of net assets: This is a document that shows the value of the fund’s assets and liabilities as of a specific date. It also shows the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of the fund, which is the price at which investors can buy or sell units of the fund. The statement of net assets is part of the fund’s financial statements, which are prepared and filed semi-annually and annually.

Annual information form (AIF): This is a document that provides additional information about the fund that is not included in the simplified prospectus or the fund facts. The AIF includes information such as the fund’s history, organization, management, governance, policies, risks, conflicts of interest, fees, expenses, taxation, and legal matters. The AIF is prepared and filed annually.

Management reports of fund performance (MRFP): These are documents that provide information about the fund’s financial performance, portfolio composition, risk profile, and management expenses. The MRFPs are prepared by the fund manager and filed semi-annually and annually. The MRFPs include sections such as financial highlights, past performance, summary of investment portfolio, management discussion of fund performance, and financial statements.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 6: Fund Operations and Regulations1

To fulfill the know your client (KYC) obligation, an advisor must collect and document information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. The KYC rule is a regulatory requirement that ensures that the advisor understands the client’s needs and goals, and provides suitable recommendations that match the client’s profile. In this case, Cosmo has provided some information about his personal and financial situation, such as his age, occupation, income, assets, and inheritance. He has also given some indication of his investment objectives, such as saving for retirement, and his investment knowledge, such as making his own investment decisions and preferring balanced funds. However, he has not disclosed his risk tolerance, which is his willingness and ability to accept fluctuations in the value of his investments. Risk tolerance is an important factor that affects the choice of investment strategies and products. Therefore, to complete the KYC process, the advisor needs to obtain additional information about Cosmo’s risk tolerance. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 1: The Investment Funds Industry, Section 1.4: The Know Your Client (KYC) Rule, page 1-111

Know Your Client (KYC) Definition - Investopedia2

The life-cycle hypothesis suggests that as people move through different life stages, their objectives, financial circumstances, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge change. Advisors can use this framework to make general assumptions about investment objectives based on age and stage (e.g., younger investors focus on short-term goals, older investors on retirement and estate building).

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

A custodian in mutual fund is a trust company, bank, or similar financial institution that is responsible for holding and safeguarding the securities owned within a mutual fund. The custodian also records and reports all transactions to the fund manager. The custodian does not oversee the general administration, construct and manage the portfolio, or calculate the NAVPU of the mutual fund. These are the roles of other entities such as the fund administrator, the fund manager, and the fund accountant.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 2: Investment Products - Section 2.2: Mutual Funds1 and web search results from search_web(query="role of a custodian in mutual funds")23

1: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-2.pdf

When opening a new non-registered account, the Know Your Client (KYC) rule requires collecting information such as:

personal and financial circumstances,

investment knowledge,

investment objectives,

risk profile, and

time horizon.

The Social Insurance Number (SIN) is mandatory only for registered accounts (RRSP, TFSA, RESP, etc.) to track tax-related reporting, but it is optional for non-registered accounts.

Thus, the correct answer is A. Social insurance number.

An individual can legally sell mutual funds only after receiving notification of registration from the securities administrator, not merely after completing exams or filing applications. The feedback from the document states:

"Despite receiving notification of successful completion of the required proficiency examination, filing a registration application and paying the required fee, an individual is not officially registered to sell mutual funds until notice has been received from the applicable securities administrator."

Lenny would qualify for a partial OAS pension, because he meets the following criteria:

•He is 65 years old or older.

•He is a Canadian citizen or a legal resident at the time of his OAS pension application.

•He has resided in Canada for at least 10 years since the age of 18.

The amount of his partial OAS pension would be proportional to the number of years he has lived in Canada after the age of 18, divided by 40. For example, if he has lived in Canada for 15 years, he would receive 15/40 or 37.5% of the full OAS pension1

References = web search results from search_web(query="Old Age Security pension eligibility")

Gifts and benefits may be provided to a client if your employer is aware of the benefits and has given approval. This is one of the rules concerning conflicts of interest set by the MFDA. A conflict of interest is a situation where a person’s personal interests conflict with their professional obligations or duties. Gifts and benefits may create a conflict of interest if they influence or appear to influence the person’s judgment or actions. Therefore, the MFDA requires that any gifts and benefits given or received by a mutual fund dealer or its representatives must be disclosed to and approved by the dealer, and must not compromise or appear to compromise the dealer’s or representative’s integrity or objectivity. References: MFDA Bulletin #0756-P - Conflicts of Interest

According to CSC ethical guidelines, integrity requires an advisor to act honestly and avoid conflicts of interest.

By recommending his brother’s private equity fund without disclosing the relationship, Seth risks a conflict of interest and breaches the principle of integrity.

Duty of care relates to suitability and due diligence.

Compliance refers to following regulations.

Confidentiality refers to safeguarding client information.

Thus, the violated value is Integrity.