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APM-PFQ Questions and Answers

Question # 6

The project team comprises:

A.

all those responsible to the project manager who are working towards the project objectives.

B.

the members of staff who are allocated full time to the project.

C.

the members of staff who report to the project manager and who carry out work on the project.

D.

all project stakeholders.

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Question # 7

To be considered effective. how should quality management be used in the project?

A.

To ensure compliance.

B.

To ensure quality standards are met.

C.

To ensure the required process needs of stakeholders are met.

D.

To ensure both the project outputs and the processes meet the required needs of stakeholders.

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Question # 8

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

A.

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

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Question # 9

Programme Management can BEST be described as...

A.

the management of multiple projects by one project manager.

B.

the management of very large, complex projects.

C.

the means of linking business strategy to projects within an organisation.

D.

a fashionable term which means the same as Project Management.

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Question # 10

Which of these is a correct definition of an Estimate?

A.

The use of a range of tools and techniques to produce forecasts of the probable time or cost of completing work

B.

An educated guess that improves over time

C.

A forecast of the probable time or cost of completing work

D.

An estimate is an approximation of project time and cost targets that forms the basis of the contract

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Question # 11

A member of your team has described being involved in a risk event. Which one of the following would best describe such an event?

A.

An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or impact of a threat, or to increase the probability or impact of an opportunity.

B.

The plan of the response to risks.

C.

An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A risk identification workshop.

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Question # 12

Which of the following aspects would best describe part of the project environment?

A.

The influence and interests of the key stakeholders of the project.

B.

The technical difficulties that are anticipated when undertaking the project.

C.

The circumstances within which the project is being undertaken.

D The relationship between the project manager and the project team.

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Question # 13

When in the project life cycle might analogous estimating be most commonly used?

A.

Transition.

B.

Concept

C.

Deployment.

D.

Definition.

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Question # 14

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

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Question # 15

How should issues be prioritised?

A.

The time order in which the issues occurred.

B.

The impact on success criteria and benefits.

C.

The relative seniority of the issue owner.

D.

The relationship with A. relevant risk.

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Question # 16

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

A.

quality assurance.

B.

quality planning.

C.

quality control.

D.

quality audit.

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Question # 17

The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether:

A.

the response to a risk is valid.

B.

a project is viable in line with the business case.

C.

the project delivered against the success criteria.

D.

lessons were effectively learned during the project.

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Question # 18

Which of the following is most true of the business case?

A.

It provides details of the overarching approach to be taken to move the current to a future desirable state using a coordinated and structured approach.

B.

It evaluates the benefit, cost and risk of alternative project options and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It demonstrates the relationship between the costs of undertaking a project, initial and recurrent, and the benefits likely to arise from the changed situation, initially and recurrently.

D.

It describes each major element in the work breakdown structure (WBS) describing the work content, resources required, the time frame of the work element and a cost estimate.

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Question # 19

Communication is said to be the means by which information or instructions are:

A.

exchanged.

B.

received.

C.

clarified.

D.

given.

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Question # 20

The main objective of stakeholder management is to establish stakeholder:

A.

interests.

B.

expectations.

C.

influence.

D.

engagement.

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Question # 21

Which one of the following best describes the entire project reporting process?

A.

Producing an exception report to communicate A. project issue to the project board.

B.

Publicising the project benefits to the business organisation.

C.

Notifying team members of the project's progress at the weekly team meeting.

D.

Formally notifying the status of the project to the project's stakeholders.

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Question # 22

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

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Question # 23

Which one of the following best describes A. programme?

A.

A group of projects collected together that have a common purpose.

B.

A group of projects collected together for management convenience.

C.

A group of projects collected together because of their use of common resources.

D.

A group of projects collected together because of their relationship to business-as-usual.

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Question # 24

By carrying out a stakeholder analysis, project managers can assess whether or not stakeholders are:

A.

making unfair judgements.

B.

able to bring expertise to the project team.

C.

in a position to affect their careers.

D.

for or against the project outcomes.

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Question # 25

One way that communication could be improved in the project is to:

A.

ensure that free flowing feedback channels are planned into the communication structure.

B.

ensure that communication is carried out as much as possible, transmitting as much information as possible.

C.

target only those stakeholders who seem to show a valid interest in the project.

D.

avoid planning communication too much so that messages are not seen as rigid and overly complex.

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Question # 26

The deployment baseline is the ______ for progress monitoring.

A.

decision gate.

B.

starting point.

C.

end point.

D.

outline schedule.

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Question # 27

Which of the following BEST describes a project issue?

A.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur

B.

An opportunity that occurs through change control

C.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis

D.

A problem that needs to be escalated to the next level of management for resolution

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Question # 28

The primary purpose of a gate review is to decide:

A.

whether the project manager and team are performing well.

B.

if the project is on schedule and within budget.

C.

if stakeholders are satisfied.

D.

whether to continue with the project.

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Question # 29

One aspect of quality planning is to:

A.

plan the audit of a project to provide assurance to the project board.

B.

provide confidence that a project will achieve its objectives in the required time frame.

C.

specify the acceptance criteria used to validate the outputs are fit for purpose.

D.

confirm routes for reporting to ensure effective communication

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Question # 30

A key output of a well-controlled configuration management process is:

A.

documented traceability between versions of each configuration item.

B.

that the project is most likely to meet its success criteria.

C.

documented evidence of all project changes: proposed. authorised, rejected or deferred.

D.

an agreed point after which no further changes to scope will be considered.

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Question # 31

Which of the following statements about the role of project sponsor is false?

A.

A. project sponsor is an advocate for the project and the change it brings about.

B.

A. project sponsor writes and owns the project management plan.

C.

A. project sponsor is able to work across functional boundaries within an organisation.

D A. project sponsor is prepared to commit sufficient time and effort to support the project.

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Question # 32

The post project review report should be:

A.

included in the project plan for the next similar project.

B.

restricted in circulation in case it contains critical information.

C.

archived for use in a future audit of project management processes.

D.

available to all project managers within the organisation

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Question # 33

What aspect of business case development will assist project management the most?

A.

That the sponsor who has developed the business case will also be the sponsor who oversees actual delivery of the project.

B.

That the option chosen has taken recognition of how the resultant project is actually going to be managed and delivered.

C.

That the project management plan for the project is captured as an appendix of the approved business case.

D.

That the business case has sufficient detail to allow the project manager to take over accountability for the financial success of the project

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Question # 34

What information would be expected as content for a business case?

A.

A. detailed schedule of the project.

B.

An outline of the project management team.

C.

An outline of the estimated costs of implementing the project.

D.

detailed breakdown of the scope of the project.

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Question # 35

Configuration management is defined as a process which enables:

A.

the creation, maintenance, controlled change and the quality control of a scope of work.

B.

a structured approach to move an organisation from a current state to a future desired state.

C.

the safeguarding of stakeholder benefits, outputs and outcomes to requirements.

D.

the identification of differences would affect successful completion of objectives.

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Question # 36

Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

A.

Staff appraisals.

B.

Management buy in.

C.

Milestone achievement.

D.

Master schedule.

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Question # 37

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 38

In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Deployment

D.

Transition

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Question # 39

When are benefits usually realised when using an iterative life cycle?

A.

During the project

B.

Post project

C.

At project closure

D.

Both during and after the project

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Question # 40

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

B.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

C.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.

D.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.

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Question # 41

When is it best to carry out a benefit review?

A.

At 6—12 months after handover.

B.

At various stages prior to handover.

C.

At the concept phase when developing the business case

D.

At various stages through deployment

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Question # 42

A generic linear project life cycle might include the sequence:

A.

Definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.

B.

Concept. definition, deployment. transition.

C.

Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.

D.

Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover. review.

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Question # 43

Which project management process is NOT likely to be used when resolving an issue?

A.

Risk management

B.

Change control

C.

Scope management

D.

Team building

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Question # 44

How does having a business case help an organisation?

A.

It provides a documented account of the decisions that have been made and by whom in the planning of the project's finances, ensuring the project's compliance with recognized governance standards

B.

It provides an overview of how the project will deliver the scheduled progress over the period agreed between the project manager, sponsor and other key stakeholders associated with the project.

C.

It provides a means by which the sponsor can monitor the project manager's performance in relation to the plans documented in the business case and highlight points at which a change of project manager may be necessary.

D.

It provides a recognized framework by which project spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted returns.

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Question # 45

Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?

A.

Recommendation.

B.

Justification.

C.

Planning.

D.

Continuous improvement

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Question # 46

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers:

A.

at the post-project review.

B.

not more frequently than monthly.

C.

throughout the project.

D.

only when assessing project risk.

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Question # 47

Which of the following is a reason for scheduling?

A.

To establish what work needs to be performed.

B.

To establish the roles and responsibilities of the project team.

C.

To produce the quality acceptance criteria.

D.

To produce a project management plan.

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Question # 48

Which of the following statements about risks and issues is correct?

A.

Issues must be escalated to the project sponsor.

B.

Risks must be escalated to the project sponsor.

C.

Issues must be dealt with by the governance board.

D.

Risks must be dealt with by the governance board.

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Question # 49

Which of the following estimating techniques utilizes work packages, assigning costs and consolidating to provide a project estimate?

A.

Analytical.

B.

Comparative.

C.

Parametric.

D.

Strategic.

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Question # 50

One of the main purposes of dividing a project into life cycle phases is to:

A.

break the work into controllable blocks in terms of effort and size.

B.

ensure the processes are properly maintained.

C.

ensure that the workforce is certain of their individual roles.

D.

provide a means Of producing overall project cost estimates.

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Question # 51

What is a key role of the project manager?

A.

Coordinating the development of the project management plan.

B.

Conducting benefits realisation reviews.

C.

Reviewing progress against success criteria and checking that the planned business benefits will be achieved.

D Authorising any changes to the business case.

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Question # 52

The accuracy of an estimate should:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project life cycle.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle

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Question # 53

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

A.

Budget.

B.

Stakeholder.

C.

Resource.

D.

Schedule

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Question # 54

An important aim of a post-project review is to:

A.

validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

B.

capture learning and document it for future usage.

C.

ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

D.

establish that project benefits have been identified.

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Question # 55

When managing the internal context, the project manager should especially be aware of:

A.

organisational strategy, policies and frameworks.

B.

competitive positioning.

C.

new legislation.

D business continuity.

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Question # 56

Quality control verifies that:

A.

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

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Question # 57

The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by?

A.

Quality alignment.

B.

Quality control.

C.

Quality assurance.

D.

Quality improvement.

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Question # 58

Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?

A.

To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.

B.

To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.

C.

To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.

D.

To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.

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Question # 59

Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

A.

A. summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.

B.

A. summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

C.

A. tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.

D.

A. tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

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Question # 60

Which phase of the project life cycle will utilize the new project and enable the acceptance and use of the benefits?

A.

Adoption.

B.

Transition.

C.

Deployment.

D.

Implementation.

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Question # 61

Which of the following can be adjusted in a timebox situation?

A.

Deadline and duration.

B.

Time and cost.

C.

Scope and quality.

D.

Budget and resources.

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Question # 62

Success criteria can be defined as:

A.

measures of success that can be used throughout the project to ensure that it is progressing towards a successful conclusion.

B.

management practices that will increase the likelihood of success of a project.

C.

the satisfaction needs for the deployment of the project.

D.

the value of benefits that are realised when the project delivers its output into business-as-usual.

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Question # 63

Within which phases of a project life cycle are risks identified?

A.

Within the end phase.

B.

Within the initial phases.

C.

Within the deployment phase.

D.

Within each phase.

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Question # 64

Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?

A.

To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.

B.

To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

C.

To manage the project team in all daily activities.

D.

To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

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Question # 65

The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:

A.

provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and risk of alternative options.

B.

ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager's activity.

C.

document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing the project.

D.

document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.

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Question # 66

Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?

A.

A target for the project to receive zero change requests.

B.

The date by which the project is to be completed.

C.

Delivery of products that meet required specifications.

D.

The awarding of bonuses to senior management.

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Question # 67

The advantages of communicating using a telephone conference call is:

A.

accents are easier to interpret.

B.

information is easier to understand.

C.

discussions will be quicker.

D.

there is less visual distraction.

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Question # 68

What could be considered a significant barrier to communication?

A.

Use of body language.

B.

Having formal meetings.

C.

Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

D.

Use of informal communication channels

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Question # 69

What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

A.

Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum.

B.

Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information.

C.

Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

D.

Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback

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Question # 70

Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

A.

People working collaboratively towards a common goal.

B.

Developing skills that will enhance project performance.

C.

Gathering the right people together to work on a project.

D.

Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

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Question # 71

How is 'quality' best defined?

A.

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements.

C.

A. discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the processes by which they are delivered meet stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose.

D.

The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of the project.

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Question # 72

One benefit of stakeholder analysis is that:

A.

the communication plan becomes unnecessary.

B.

the stakeholders who oppose the project the most can be "cut off' to reduce their negative influence.

C.

the communication requirements for each stakeholder Can be established.

D.

the stakeholders can be removed from any of the decisions that are bang planned.

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Question # 73

Which one of the following is a generic project management process?

A.

Risk management.

B.

Learning and closing.

C.

Staff appraisal.

D.

Quality management.

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Question # 74

Communication includes:

1) exchanging information

2) managing stakeholders

3) confirming there is a shared understanding

4) building relationships within your team

A.

2 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Question # 75

On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined?

A.

By assessing its probability of occurrence.

B.

By assessing its impact on project objectives,

C.

By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives.

D.

By assessing its effect on the business case.

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Question # 76

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

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Question # 77

Which one of the following statements BEST defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure(PBS)?

A.

To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project

B.

To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies

C.

To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover

D.

To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project

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Question # 78

What is one of the most important aspects to establish about a stakeholder's interest in the project?

A.

If it is positive or negative.

B.

If it is regular or intermittent.

C.

If it is influenced by the project.

D.

If it is influenced by other stakeholders.

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Question # 79

Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

A.

It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.

B.

It facilitates the risk appetite.

C.

It facilitates the recording of risk responses.

D.

It facilitates the recording of risks.

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Question # 80

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

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Question # 81

During the consideration of when and how the development of the project management plan should take place, the objectives of carrying out such an exercise can often appear to be uncertain. As a recommendation, the project management plan should be:

A.

assembled when all information is available.

B.

developed iteratively throughout the early stages of the project.

C.

completed in detail before the project is authorised.

D.

free from detailed schedule information.

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Question # 82

When the project progresses through the life cycle. which one of the following aspects would be expected to occur?

A.

The accuracy of the estimate reduces and the level of contingency requirement increases.

B.

The accuracy of the estimate increases and the level of contingency requirement reduces.

C.

The accuracy and level Of contingency requirement both increase.

D.

The accuracy and level of contingency requirement both reduce.

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Question # 83

What aspects of benefits realisation would be considered as most important to note in the business case?

A.

Who is going to be responsible for carrying out each of the projects activities.

B.

How the benefits will be realised, measured and the stakeholders involved

C.

What type of contract is going to be used to procure delivery of the project.

D.

Which benefits should be realised first and then the subsequent order

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Question # 84

Configuration management could best be described as:

A.

the process through which all requests to change the approved baseline of a project is captured. evaluated and then approved. rejected or deferred.

B.

the system that ensures that all changes to configuration items are controlled and the interrelationships between items are identified.

C.

the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work.

D.

A report of the current status and history of all changes to the configuration, together with a complete record of what has happened to the configuration to date.

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Question # 85

Which of the following best describes a project's context?

A.

The environment in which the business operates.

B.

The geographic location in which the project is undertaken.

C.

The external and internal business environments including stakeholder's interests and influences.

D Industry and business sector practices.

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Question # 86

The purpose of project progress reporting is to:

A.

ensure a simpler critical path.

B.

enable the tracking of project deliverables.

C.

ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

D.

provide an increased total float.

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Question # 87

A typical issue management process could follow the steps:

A.

identification, escalation. action, resolution.

B.

assessment, escalation, closure, resolution.

C.

assessment, planning, action, response.

D.

identification, planning, response, resolution.

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Question # 88

Which one Of the following statements about project risk is true?

A.

Risk is always beneficial to the project.

B.

Risk is neither beneficial or detrimental to the project

C.

Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project.

D.

Risk is always detrimental to the project.

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Question # 89

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

A.

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.

develop a communication plan.

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Question # 90

The project management plan is best described as a reference document that confirms:

A.

the project completion date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

B.

the agreement between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

C.

the key project milestones as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

D.

the project start date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager

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Question # 91

Controlling or influencing project success factors will:

A.

increase the likelihood of a successful project.

B.

ensure senior management support.

C.

measure progress towards a successful conclusion.

D.

ensure project completion.

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Question # 92

The primary purpose of the post-project review is to:

A.

find out who was responsible for problems on the project and why.

B.

find out whether the business benefits were achieved and why.

C.

find out who performed well on the project in order to support future resource allocations.

D.

identify lessons learned to enable continuous improvement.

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Question # 93

What would be the most direct symptom of poor quality in the project?

A.

The project not using compliant management processes.

B.

The customer refusing to take delivery of the finished product.

C.

The failure of a quality assurance audit.

D.

The project finishing over budget.

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Question # 94

What defining character from those listed below particularly typifies an issue?

A.

A major problem that was unexpected and now requires the attention Of the whole project team.

B.

A major problem that can only be addressed by the project sponsor.

C.

A major problem that may happen in the future.

D.

A major problem that requires A. formal process of escalation

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Question # 95

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Question # 96

Which one of the following is NOT a project change?

A.

An approved omission from the agreed project scope.

B.

The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project.

C.

A. requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs.

D.

The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

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Question # 97

An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

A.

the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

B.

technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.

C.

lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.

D.

the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

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Question # 98

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

A.

identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B.

identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

C.

identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

D.

satisfy the organisation's project management process.

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Question # 99

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

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Question # 100

A procurement strategy is a:

A.

technical specification.

B.

day-to-day requirement.

C.

detailed timetable.

D.

high-level approach.

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Question # 101

Which of the following is a project?

A.

Introducing a new information technology system.

B.

Operating a national rail network.

C.

Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces.

D.

Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians

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Question # 102

A portfolio can best be defined as:

A.

A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.

B.

A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

C.

A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

D.

A range of products and services offered by an organisation.

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Question # 103

One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:

A.

facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.

B.

balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.

C.

mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.

D.

chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

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Question # 104

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project team members?

A.

To establish formal reporting procedures for project progress.

B.

To assess the progress of their work against the strategic objectives.

C.

To ensure that work assigned to them by the Project Manager is performed.

D.

To identify and resolve project issues affecting the work delegated to them

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Question # 105

A project manager has a team member who is creative, unconventional and good at solving problems, but who doesn't always concentrate on details or communicate well. According to Belbin's model, which team role will best use this person's qualities?

A.

Completer-Finisher.

B.

Plant.

C.

Monitor-Evaluator.

D.

Specialist.

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Question # 106

Which of the following are the major stakeholders of the project management plan?

1) Project sponsor

2) General public

3) Project team

4) Project manager

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 107

Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?

A.

It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

B.

It advocates employing A. consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.

C.

It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.

D.

It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

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Question # 108

While providing support to the project and attending a risk management workshop, the following statements were noted. Which one of these could be considered as a risk to a project?

A.

We have never done a project of this kind before.

B.

We might not have sufficient people with the right experience to undertake the project.

C.

We always find that design verification takes longer than planned.

D.

We have never worked in that country before.

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Question # 109

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

A.

The life cycle phases.

B.

The logical order of tasks.

C.

The scope of the project.

D.

Project costs.

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Question # 110

Portfolio management involves:

1) selection

2) control

3) prioritisation

4) transition

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

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Question # 111

Once a proposed change is logged it should then be:

A.

accepted, rejected or deferred.

B.

accepted and the project plan updated.

C.

sent to the project sponsor for approval.

D.

assessed to determine its potential impact.

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Question # 112

In order to be defined as an issue, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

A.

It must result in a set tolerance being exceeded.

B.

The project manager must be able to resolve it.

C.

It must have happened because of an identified risk.

D.

The project team must be able to deal with it internally.

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Question # 113

Configuration management can be used to control documents, information and:

A.

users.

B.

audits.

C.

stakeholders.

D.

assets.

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Question # 114

A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a:

A.

gate review.

B.

learning review.

C.

handover review.

D.

audit review.

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Question # 115

Which of the following are documented in a risk register?

1) Analysis

2) Priority

3) Ownership

4) Responses

A.

1, 3 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 116

The characteristics of a product that determine whether it meets certain requirements is known as the:

A.

product criteria.

B.

acceptance criteria.

C.

quality criteria.

D.

success criteria.

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Question # 117

Which of the following would be considered as the main purpose of a project management plan?

A.

To provide a documented account of the outcomes of the planning process.

B.

To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale.

C.

To provide A. record of how the project was planned, for archiving in the organisation's lessons learned.

D.

To identify and record the projects intended financial spend over the period of project delivery.

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Question # 118

For successful risk identification to take place what must the project team know as a minimum?

A.

Skills of the team delivering the project.

B.

Project objectives.

C.

Amount of time allowed for risk identification to take place.

D.

Location of the venue Where risk identification Will take place

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Question # 119

To effectively manage the project the range of documentation may appear to be extensive; however, the document that captures the why, what, where, when, how, how much and who for the project is called:

A.

the project schedule.

B.

the project definition and delivery report.

C.

the project feasibility report.

D.

the project management plan.

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Question # 120

Which of the following statements about scheduling is false?

A.

Defines the sequence of activities.

B.

Considers work calendars and time contingency.

C.

Provides a baseline for safety considerations.

D.

Quantifies the required resources.

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Question # 121

Which one of the following statements best defines a portfolio?

A.

A. group of related projects, which may include business-as-usual activities, that delivers change.

B.

A. timetable of how project activities and project milestones are planned over a period of time.

C.

A. group of projects that represent the delivery of all, or a discrete part of a new capability.

D.

A. grouping of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities.

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Question # 122

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

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