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CAMS Questions and Answers

Question # 6

According to PinCEN. when a financial institution (PI) identities a suspicious activity that necessitates suspicious activity report (SAR) filing, the SAR supporting documentation should (Select Two.)

A.

include all documents or records that assisted the Fl in making the determination that the activity required a filing.

B.

always be limited to account name, account details, and transaction records.

C.

have written policies and procedures to maintain supporting documentation.

D.

be saved in a single separate file with hard copies stored in a fireproof cabinet.

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Question # 7

Tax evasion is:

A.

a deliberate attempt not to pay the tax which is due or obliged.

B.

bending the rules to pay less tax than required.

C.

not an important crime as it does not impact society.

D.

a sophisticated process which always means the same as tax avoidance.

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Question # 8

Which risks inherent to real estate sector carry the highest AML/CFT risk? (Select Two.)

A.

Use of cash to purchase property

B.

Unlicensed real estate agents acting as front companies

C.

Use of a registered trust for the purchase of property

D.

Use of a company for the purchase of property

E.

Manipulation of the value of a property

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Question # 9

Which of the following entities could potentially pose a higher money laundering risk and require additional review prior to onboarding? (Select Two.)

A.

A large multinational corporation with extensive, documented wire transfer activity

B.

A local convenience store that replenishes the onsite automated teller machine (ATM) with cash from its till

C.

A local used car sale lot that allows individuals to pay their monthly bill in cash

D.

A virtual asset service provider (VASP), facilitating peer-to-peer cryptocurrency transactions

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Question # 10

Which of the following statements best describes the financial crime risk associated with gatekeepers?

A.

Gatekeepers have specialized knowledge that can be abused to facilitate the movement of illicit funds and conceal the Involvement of their clients in illicit schemes.

B.

Gatekeeper positions ate of a secretive nature, often making it difficult to verify (heir source of wealth.

C.

Gatekeepers have unique relationship structures, making it difficult to determine beneficial ownership

D.

Gatekeepers are entrusted with prominent functions and code of conduct that can assist laundering Illicit funds.

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Question # 11

A financial crimes risk appetite statement describes:

A.

how an organization defines Its risk-based approach.

B.

how an organization determines its key risk and performance indicators.

C.

the level and type of risk the organization is willing to take to meet its objectives

D.

the purpose of an organization's financial crimes compliance program.

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Question # 12

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

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Question # 13

When a government imposes economic sanctions on a target the purpose is to:

A.

protect the rights of the citizens of the state target against their own government and improve financial stability in the region.

B.

indicate that the use of military force is likely unless the state or non-state target complies with the government's

C.

interests encourage non-governmental organizations to increase the provision of humanitarian and charitable aid to the target

D.

alter the behavior of the state or non-state target that threatens the interests of that government or violates international norms

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Question # 14

When services are provided by a trust and company service provider (TCSP) connected to a high-risk country, which of the following may present an immediate financial crime risk concern?

A.

Management structure

B.

Governance framework

C.

Asset structure

D.

Origin of the funds

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Question # 15

A financial institution plans to implement adverse media screening with Artificial Intelligence (AI)/Machine Learning (ML) capabilities During testing, the system produces high volumes of irrelevant news articles for review.

What is the best way to address this issue?

A.

Narrow the media sources to avoid unrelated articles

B.

Rely on manual filtering by investigators

C.

Increase the frequency of updates to media sources

D.

Adjust AI/ML models to focus on high-risk keywords/phrases from reputable media sources

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Question # 16

Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)

A.

The family members and close associates of PEPs may be involved in illicit activities.

B.

PEPs are granted unlimited credit and financial immunity under international banking regulations.

C.

PEPs may exploit embassy activities to conceal bribery and corruption transactions.

D.

PEPs can have illegitimate fund sources but are legally protected from having their accounts closed for activities outside a bank's risk appetite.

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Question # 17

The supply of goods and services can be vulnerable to corruption within a company, particularly the solicitation and receipt of bribes and kickbacks, because: (Choose two.)

A.

certain contractors may receive preferential treatment, allowing them opportunities to inflate margins during the tender process

B.

unsuccessful bidders are informed of decisions and provided detailed justifications for awarding the contracts

C.

procurement and contracting processes involve the management of the tender process, which may lack sufficient oversight

D.

bids are solicited and disseminated to a wide audience through advertising and other channels.

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Question # 18

Upon learning of a potential weakness through an organization's enterprise-wide sanctions risk assessment relating to a low number of sanctions screening alerts generated compared to the business size and operations identified, which action would best ensure the risk area is properly managed and remediated to the best possible extent?

A.

Reviewing the enterprise-wide risk assessment methodology

B.

Enhancing staff training on the documentation of justification on closed alerts

C.

Revisiting the post-transaction monitoring system parameters and thresholds

D.

Reviewing the fuzzy logic currently adopted in the screening system

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Question # 19

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

A.

impose sanctions to maintain or restore international peace and security.

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

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Question # 20

A large international bank is conducting a comprehensive review of its risk management framework to ensure it effectively addresses various financial crime risks, including AML, CFT,

sanctions, fraud, anti-bribery and corruption (ABC), and tax evasion.

The bank’s compliance team is responsible for evaluating the current risk assessment processes, identifying potential gaps, and recommending enhancements to better mitigate these risks. During this review, the team needs to consider the different types of risk assessments and how to integrate findings into the overall risk management strategy.

Which approach should the compliance team prioritize to enhance the bank’s ability to identify, assess, and mitigate the identified risks?

A.

Use a static risk assessment model that remains unchanged until a significant regulatory update occurs to ensure consistency in the evaluation process over time

B.

Delegate the risk assessment process to individual business units to conduct independently and allow for specialized assessments tailored to each unit's specific activities

C.

Conduct a periodic enterprise-wide risk assessment that includes identifying inherent risks, evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls, and determining residual risks

D.

Focus primarily on AML risk assessments, as these are typically the most scrutinized by regulators, while addressing other financial crime risks only when issues are identified

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Question # 21

What key element contributes to the effectiveness of AML training programs'?

A.

In-person training sessions

B.

Comprehensive curriculum delivered by senior management

C.

Comprehensive content with engaging delivery methods

D.

Generalized content designed to apply to a broad audience

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Question # 22

Which benefits are most commonly associated with transitioning from a rules-based approach to artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning-based tools in transaction monitoring? (Choose three.)

A.

Reduction in the number of false positives in long term

B.

Complete automation of compliance processes

C.

Elimination of the need for human oversight

D.

Increased flexibility in adapting to changing financial crime risks

E.

Enhanced ability to detect emerging patterns and anomalies

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Question # 23

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

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Question # 24

Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)

A.

Guaranteeing 100% accuracy in regulatory compliance across all jurisdictions

B.

Improving customer satisfaction by offering personalized recommendations

C.

Reducing identity theft effectively

D.

Providing reliable customer authentication to enhance trust

E.

Decreasing the time required for customer authentication

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Question # 25

Which of the following is a common strategy employed by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to combat money laundering?

A.

Helping Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) to analyze the suspicious activity reports (SARs)

B.

Directly prosecuting money launderers in court

C.

Providing financial assistance to governments to strengthen their anti-money laundering efforts

D.

Raising awareness about the issue of money laundering and its consequences

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Question # 26

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

A.

impose sanctions lo maintain of restore international peace and security

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

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Question # 27

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

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Question # 28

At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:

A.

comparing these risks with industry benchmarks to determine the residual risk.

B.

implementing new controls to eliminate all risks

C.

rating the effectiveness of the related controls in order to calculate the residual risk.

D.

documenting the historical risk incidents for future reference.

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Question # 29

How canawareness be raisedwithincountries that do not have sanctions regulatory regimes? (Select Two.)

A.

Restrict trade between countries that have robust AML/CFT and sanctions regulatory regimes and those that do not.

B.

AFC (Anti-Financial Crime) and sanctions-related seminars, webinars, and training within these countries.

C.

Enforcement and pecuniary fines against these countries.

D.

Bilateral conversations and cooperation between governments.

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Question # 30

Which of the following is a critical consideration for private sector firms when sharing data and intelligence to combat financial crime?

A.

The preference of upper management regarding which teams should participate in the data-sharing initiative

B.

The cost of the data-sharing system and whether it its within the existing IT budget

C.

The potential return on investment (ROI) from the data shared versus the financial crime prevention effort

D.

Ensuring that the shared data complies with applicable data protection regulations while maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the information

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Question # 31

How do nominees benefit criminals misusing thorn for money laundering purposes? (Select Two.)

A.

Allow beneficial owners to provide proxies lot voting on corporate decisions

B.

Obscure beneficial ownership

C.

Allow domicile in the nominee's jurisdiction

D.

Derail investigations

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Question # 32

Assessing the money laundering risk related to a product within the financial sector includes assessing the: (Select Two.)

A.

governance arrangements

B.

complexity of the products

C.

results of the last audit

D.

financial status of the business

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Question # 33

Interactions between the compliance department and other functions or departments within an organization contribute to making the anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program more robust by addressing specific risk areas.

Which departments play a crucial role in enhancing the AFC compliance program of an organization? (Select Two.)

A.

Information security office (ISO)

B.

Marketing and sales

C.

Human resources (HR)

D.

Data privacy office (DPO)

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Question # 34

Which control would be most effective as part of a risk-based approach (RBA) to managing AML/CFT risk for a bank established in the EU that also has a branch in a high-risk third country outside of the EU?

A.

Fully rely on central beneficial owner registry records in the high-risk third country to determine the ultimate beneficial owners of all customers

B.

Apply tailored due diligence measures, based on the level of risk posed by each customer following risk assessment

C.

Monitor every cross-border transaction in real time, flagging all for enhanced scrutiny due to the country risk level

D.

Automatically apply enhanced customer due diligence measures to all customers in the high-risk third-country branch regardless of risk level

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Question # 35

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is empowered to impose sanctions regimes against countries and terrorist organizations.

Which statements are true regarding sanctions imposed by the UNSC? (Select Two.)

A.

Attempts to circumvent or evade sanctions imposed by the UNSC can constitute a criminal offense if designated under local laws and regulations

B.

The UN can impose arms embargoes but cannot prohibit direct or indirect exports of other goods to specific countries

C.

Member countries of the United Nations are expected to implement and enforce sanctions imposed by the UNSC

D.

Direct breaches of sanctions imposed by the UNSC constitute a criminal offense in all member countries

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Question # 36

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

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Question # 37

Which of the following actions is specifically permitted or required under FinCEN section 314(b) for financial institutions (FIs) to enhance their efforts in combating money laundering and terrorist financing?

A.

FIs may disclose customer information to any third party

B.

FIs may provide information about their internal compliance programs to law enforcement agencies without any limitations

C.

FIs are required to report all transactions involving foreign entities to FinCEN so that FinCEN can share this information with other financial institutions

D.

FIs may share information about suspected money laundering activities with other FIs to aid in identifying and reporting suspicious transactions

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Question # 38

Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)

A.

Paying premium several years in advance and terminating early for a refund

B.

Natural persons having more than one insurance policy

C.

High-premium life insurances that provide high payouts

D.

Regularly switching policies and accepting penalties

E.

Beneficiary payouts to elderly people

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Question # 39

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

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Question # 40

A legal instrument which is executed between two nations and governs cross-border information sharing Is known as a.

A.

mutual legal assistance treaty.

B.

memorandum of understanding.

C.

request for urgent information.

D.

declaration of understanding.

E.

memorandum of agreement.

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Question # 41

During a routine periodic KYC refresh of a policyholder and client of an insurance company, updated business registry documentation has highlighted that the policyholder's business has changed addresses five times during the last year and that the ultimate beneficial owner (UBO) changed two weeks ago.

What actions should be taken immediately?

A.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime decline payment and withdrawal instructions from the policy until completion of the investigation and next steps are agreed upon

B.

Request the relationship manager set up a meeting with the policyholder to update their address and submit details of the new UBO in the name of good customer service

C.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime freeze the client's policy

D.

File a suspicious transaction report because the insurance company was not made aware of the business' change of UBO

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Question # 42

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

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Question # 43

Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?

A.

Work with the front-line to understand their strategic growth targets specifically aimed at increasing their market share around military technology and dual-use products

B.

Review the organization's sanction risk assessment to better understand the potential for exposure to Russia and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea

C.

Read and analyze the most recent National Proliferation Financing Risk Assessment produced by the relevant body of the organization's jurisdiction

D.

Undertake a detailed review of all payment-related transactions to any clients identified as defense contractors, paying special attention to the beneficial owners of those clients

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Question # 44

Which risks are specifically associated with the misuse of gaming accounts in financial crime? (Choose three.)

A.

Using gaming accounts to transfer illicit funds between players undetected

B.

Structuring transactions to avoid reporting thresholds by keeping them under certain limits

C.

Providing false personal information to evade regulatory oversight

D.

Ensuring identity verification is completed prior to the onboarding of new customers

E.

Investing all gaming winnings into high-risk stocks to conceal funds

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Question # 45

Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?

A.

Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 of the European Parliament

B.

Collaborative Sharing of Money Laundering/Terrorism Financing (ML/TF) Information & Cases (COSMIC)

C.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(a)

D.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(b)

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Question # 46

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

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Question # 47

A risk-based approach (RBA) to anti-financial crimes (AFC) involves understanding and managing risks by:

A.

applying uniform controls to all customers, regardless of their risk profile

B.

allocating resources and implementing controls based on the level of identified risks

C.

prioritizing regulatory compliance over customer experience and operational efficiency

D.

relying on automated systems to detect and mitigate AFC risks

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Question # 48

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele’s high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

A.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

B.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

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Question # 49

Which line of defense would be tasked with interpreting new AML regulations and revising training for client-facing relationship managers?

A.

The first line

B.

The second line

C.

Senior management

D.

The third line

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Question # 50

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

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Question # 51

A compliance officer is reviewing an institutional banking prospect proposal for a new foreign entity that is a multinational business but headquartered in a country where most businesses are state-owned.

Which risks should be prioritized in the review? (Choose two.)

A.

Politically exposed persons (PEPs)

B.

Capital flight risk

C.

Anti-bribery and corruption risk

D.

Tax evasion

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Question # 52

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

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Question # 53

What is the primary advantage of using a risk-based approach in allocating compliance resources?

A.

It reduces the overall cost of compliance programs.

B.

It eliminates the need for periodic audits of low-risk customers.

C.

It ensures focus on high-risk areas while maintaining operational efficiency.

D.

It standardizes compliance processes across all regions.

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Question # 54

Which characteristic of accountants is most attractive to those looking to launder funds using an accountant or accountancy firm?

A.

Accountants can prepare ledgers and spreadsheets, draft annual returns and make payments to government offices

B.

Accountants can advise on the structuring of companies as well as ensure compliance with local tax regulations

C.

Accountants are knowledgeable about financial management, including what to record over the course of the accounting year

D.

Accountants are able to create and structure companies, falsify accounts and manipulate financial statements

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Question # 55

In a standard customer due diligence (CDD) process focused on financial inclusion, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations require: (Choose two.)

A.

identification of the customer's occupation.

B.

identification and verification of the customer's identity.

C.

identification of the customer's work address.

D.

identification of the beneficial owner.

E.

verification of the customer's credit history.

F.

[verification of the customer's income sources.

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Question # 56

Common risks and red flags associated with trade finance clients may include: (Choose four.)

A.

account activity that is not consistent with the purpose of the account

B.

bills of lading matching the description of goods, quantities, and values with transshipment details justified

C.

transaction structures that appear unnecessarily complex

D.

trade documents, such as invoices and letters of credit, that are not clearly worded or are in foreign languages

E.

invoices with prices that are much higher than market price

F.

fluctuations in the pricing of standard goods and services

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Question # 57

The compliance officer at a casino in Taiwan discovers that the casino received multiple cash deposits from a customer just below the Large-Amount Transaction Report (LTR) limit on consecutive days. The customer used three different betting accounts.

What is the appropriate next step?

A.

Make a note in the customer's account that the customer's gambling activities are frequently conducted below the reporting limit

B.

Follow internal reporting procedures to escalate the activity as suspicious and report to appropriate authorities

C.

Inform the customer their activity Is suspicious and request an explanation

D.

Contact law enforcement to launch an Investigation into the customer's financial activities

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Question # 58

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

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Question # 59

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

A.

include sophisticated and automated controls that use the newest types of technology available (for example, artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning).

B.

be proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

C.

be completed by the business and validated by an external firm (for example, an auditing or consulting firm)

D.

be created approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense business team, and reviewed annually

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Question # 60

Which strategies are most effective for prioritizing resources within an anti-financial crime (AFC) program using a risk-based approach (RBA)? (Choose two.)

A.

Prioritizing resources towards lower-risk areas to reduce workload

B.

Regularly reassessing risks to adjust resource allocation

C.

Allocating more resources to areas with higher financial crime risk

D.

Providing equal resources to all departments to maintain consistency

E.

Using a fixed resource allocation plan without adjustments

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Question # 61

Why is it important to use multiple sanctions lists, such as United Nations (UN), Office of Foreign Assets Control ("OFAC"), and European Union ("EU") lists, in name screening systems?

A.

To avoid sanctions breach related to payments

B.

To avoid onboarding customers previously exited due to true match

C.

To meet international regulatory requirements and identify risks across jurisdictions

D.

To be in line with the risk appetite statement

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Question # 62

A National Risk Assessment (NRA) can impact a financial institution's (Fl's) risk-based approach to anti-money laundering and terrorism financing by:

A.

dictating what predicate offences must be considered in the Fl's risk assessment.

B.

providing guidance on the types of customers and transactions that pose the highest risk.

C.

defining exactly what policies and procedures must be implemented.

D.

determining the maximum fines that can be imposed for AML violations.

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Question # 63

A bank has been fined for failing to take reasonable care to establish and maintain effective systems and controls for high-risk customers, including politically exposed persons (PEPs).

Which typical financial crime risks should the bank have addressed? (Choose three.)

A.

Gathering sufficient information to establish the source of funds and source of wealth

B.

Assessing the level of money laundering risk posed by prospective and existing high-risk customers

C.

Assessing and reviewing the minutes of the relevant committee responsible for onboarding customers

D.

Ensuring an employee is responsible for liaison with the authorities on matters related to countering the finance of terrorism

E.

Ensuring that resources in its compliance and AML areas kept pace with the bank's growth

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Question # 64

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

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Question # 65

What are the primary sources of reference besides AML laws and regulations when developing and maintaining the AML policies, standards, and procedures of a bank? (Choose three.)

A.

National Risk Assessment

B.

Regulatory guidance or publications

C.

Government or state-run newspapers

D.

Guidance issued by international bodies

E.

Policies and procedures developed by other banks

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Question # 66

Why is the prevention of financial crime so important?

A.

Financial crime does enormous damage to society, undermining market integrity and consumers' and market participants' confidence

B.

Financial crime risk incidents always result in fines and losses for the financial firm

C.

Financial crime prevention processes make the onboarding process for clients unnecessarily burdensome and complex but create work

D.

Financial crime prevention is important as it reduces costs and improves customer services.

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Question # 67

The new KYC lead at a bank is particularly focused on enhancing the risk management component of its KYC program and refers to the Basel Committee's customer due diligence (CDD) principles.

Which of the following describe key improvements to a KYC program established in the Basel Committee's CDD principles? (Select Two.)

A.

Implementation of a blacklist of correspondent customers with previously detected and investigated suspicious activity

B.

Enhancement of a customer acceptance policy to more clearly identify high-risk customers

C.

Increased frequency of training provided to front office employees

D.

Enhancement of customer identification procedures to appropriately identify trust, nominee, and fiduciary accounts

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Question # 68

Which of the following programs would most likely be considered part of an effective supervision regime for a regulator?

A.

Onsite and offsite reviews, cooperating on an international basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

B.

Onsite and offsite reviews, cooperating on an international and domestic basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

C.

Offsite reviews, cooperating on a domestic basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

D.

Onsite reviews, cooperating on an international and domestic basis with outreach and access to a range of sanctions

Full Access