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CAMS Questions and Answers

Question # 6

In which of the following situations would it be most crucial for the designated AML compliance officer of a company to perform a complete review of the company's AML program, including identifying the risks and commensurate controls?

A.

An external audit highlights several deficiencies

B.

The company is merging with or acquiring another entity

C.

Extensive AML legislation is proposed by a legislative body in the company's jurisdiction

D.

A high-profile money laundering case involving another industry is publicized

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Question # 7

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 8

An AML analyst at a bank is investigating cases triggered by transaction monitoring alerts.

Which circumstances might cause the analyst to suspect a case involves terrorist financing? (Select Two.)

A.

Transactions involving non-profit organizations with no internet presence

B.

Small dollar payments sent to crowdfunding initiatives with detailed descriptions of the project being financed

C.

Transactions involving structured currency deposits below the reporting threshold to avoid paying taxes

D.

Small dollar payments sent to higher-risk jurisdictions with no prior history

E.

Transactions involving domestic non-profit organizations providing charitable aid to refugees from higher-risk countries

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Question # 9

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act relates to forfeiture of funds and allows for extraterritorial reach?

A.

Section 319(b)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 314(a)

D.

Section 319(a)

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Question # 10

The compliance department of a casino is reviewing recent transactions and has identified activities that may require further scrutiny.

Which transaction would require further investigation?

A.

A patron who regularly visits the casino, deposits small amounts of cash, and consistently requests to cash out winnings in high-value checks

B.

A group of tourists who buy chips with credit cards and engage in high-stakes games before cashing out

C.

A player who purchases USD 50,000 in chips using a combination of cash and a wire transfer from an international account, does not gamble, and then cashes out

D.

An occasional visitor who plays low-stakes games using a prepaid debit card linked to a foreign account

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Question # 11

A risk-based approach (RBA) means that countries, competent authorities, and financial institutions:

A.

Are exempt from mitigating AML/CFT risks assessed as low

B.

Are expected to reduce all residual risks to low

C.

Are expected to identify, assess, and understand the AML/CFT risks to which they are exposed

D.

Will allocate compliance resources to non-compliance-related tasks

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Question # 12

The supply of goods and services can be vulnerable to corruption within a company, particularly the solicitation and receipt of bribes and kickbacks, because: (Choose two.)

A.

certain contractors may receive preferential treatment, allowing them opportunities to inflate margins during the tender process

B.

unsuccessful bidders are informed of decisions and provided detailed justifications for awarding the contracts

C.

procurement and contracting processes involve the management of the tender process, which may lack sufficient oversight

D.

bids are solicited and disseminated to a wide audience through advertising and other channels.

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Question # 13

In a standard customer due diligence (CDD) process focused on financial inclusion, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations require: (Choose two.)

A.

identification of the customer's occupation.

B.

identification and verification of the customer's identity.

C.

identification of the customer's work address.

D.

identification of the beneficial owner.

E.

verification of the customer's credit history.

F.

[verification of the customer's income sources.

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Question # 14

Which of the below is a core function of a financial intelligence unit (FIU) as described in FATF Recommendation 29?

A.

Sponsoring the research and development of advanced technological surveillance tools to be used nationally

B.

Prosecuting significant cases of money laundering or terrorist financing falling under national jurisdiction

C.

Sharing real-time criminal intelligence gathered from national law enforcement agencies with the private sector

D.

Serving as a national center for the collection and analysis of suspicious activity

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Question # 15

A financial institution's (FI's) policy is to apply enhanced due diligence (EDD) for every new client to ensure the effectiveness of the program.

How should a consultant advise the FI's management team?

A.

Suggest the FI needs to implement a risk-based approach for EDD.

B.

Suggest the management team select the clients that are chosen for EDD.

C.

Suggest the management team ask the regulator for advice on EDD measures.

D.

Suggest EDD for 50% of the clients is appropriate.

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Question # 16

According to PinCEN. when a financial institution (PI) identities a suspicious activity that necessitates suspicious activity report (SAR) filing, the SAR supporting documentation should (Select Two.)

A.

include all documents or records that assisted the Fl in making the determination that the activity required a filing.

B.

always be limited to account name, account details, and transaction records.

C.

have written policies and procedures to maintain supporting documentation.

D.

be saved in a single separate file with hard copies stored in a fireproof cabinet.

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Question # 17

Which of the following best describes one of the principal threats of proliferation financing?

A.

Adversary governments using sophisticated attacks to threaten critical infrastructure and sectors, including finance, health care and energy

B.

Networks of individuals and entities exploiting financial systems to move funds that will be used to acquire weapons of mass destruction or their components

C.

Transnational criminal organizations expanding their engagement into more varied types of illicit activities, including human trafficking and corruption

D.

Networks of individuals and entities raising funds to further proliferate their ideological goals wholly or in part through unlawful acts of force or violence

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Question # 18

Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)

A.

data privacy.

B.

enhanced due diligence (EDD) policies.

C.

the Travel Rule.

D.

data quality.

E.

complexity.

F.

regulatory.

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Question # 19

A law firm is involved in setting up complex offshore corporate structures for a client with minimal documentation of the source of funds. The firm does not question the client’s transactions or report any suspicious activity.

What is the primary money laundering risk associated with this behavior by the law firm?

A.

The law firm is avoiding fees by minimizing documentation for clients in high-risk jurisdictions

B.

The law firm is engaging in aggressive tax planning to help the client avoid legal taxes

C.

The law firm is providing routine legal services that include creating complex legal structures, and no further scrutiny is required

D.

The law firm is acting as a gatekeeper, facilitating the movement and concealment of illicit funds through complex corporate structures

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Question # 20

Which situation involving a vendor presents increased AML and/or sanctions risk to an organization?

A.

The vendor provides services to end users located in an area subject to economic sanctions

B.

The vendor's sales representative was a refugee from a sanctioned jurisdiction as a child

C.

The vendor is organized as a privately held company

D.

The vendor has no individuals that own or control more than 10% of the company

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Question # 21

Which line of defense would be tasked with interpreting new AML regulations and revising training for client-facing relationship managers?

A.

The first line

B.

The second line

C.

Senior management

D.

The third line

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Question # 22

Which of the following is a benefit of public-private partnerships (PPP)?

A.

Sourcing of key resources

B.

Rapid exchange of information on risks and high-risk activities or persons

C.

Ensuring understanding of politically exposed persons (PEPs)

D.

Obtaining salaries in the financial industry

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Question # 23

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities. Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Choose two.)

A.

create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

B.

exchange strategic information between FlUs and obliged entities

C.

exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

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Question # 24

Which of the following statements is true regarding the 2012 Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations and'or 11 Immediate Outcomes?

A.

The 40 Recommendations have not been updated to reflect the impact of new technology

B.

Each jurisdiction can reach out to the FATF for private access to the interpretive notes to the 40 Recommendations

C.

The 11 Immediate Outcomes are recommendations specific to high-risk jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring.

D.

The cornerstone of the 40 Recommendations is the adoption of a risk-based approach by each jurisdiction

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Question # 25

A bank in the Netherlands has been requested to share information about a series of transactions and related customers with a bank in Italy. Both banks are subject to European Union jurisdiction.

Which factor is the most important to consider before the Dutch bank shares the requested information with the Italian bank?

A.

The Dutch bank should limit any information sharing to what is necessary, reasonable, and proportionate, in line with applicable laws and regulations

B.

The Dutch bank's legal obligations to protect customer privacy and bank secrecy prohibit it from sharing any such information

C.

The Dutch bank should require a production order from the Italian bank and receive approval from its legal department before sharing the requested information

D.

The need to fight financial crime outweighs the EU's data protection and privacy regulations

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Question # 26

Which regulatory bodies cooperate when dealing with cross-border suspicious or unusual financial activity investigations?

A.

European Commissions

B.

Financial Action Task Forces

C.

Wolfsberg Groups

D.

Financial Intelligence Units

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Question # 27

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

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Question # 28

A multinational financial institution (FI) detected suspicious transactions involving shell companies across the United States, Germany, and Singapore, which appeared to be part of a money laundering scheme. The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in Germany initiated a joint investigation with the U.S. Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) and the Singapore FIU. The investigation faced challenges due to differing legal frameworks, data privacy laws, and procedural requirements.

Which approach would best enhance cooperation between regulatory authorities and law enforcement agencies across these jurisdictions to ensure a successful investigation?

A.

Relying on each jurisdiction’s existing legal frameworks and informal communication channels

B.

Engaging a third-party consulting firm to mediate between the regulatory authorities and law enforcement agencies in different jurisdictions

C.

Centralizing the investigation under the jurisdiction with the most stringent AML laws to streamline the process and reduce the complexity of multi-jurisdictional coordination

D.

Establishing a Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT)

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Question # 29

Technology has the potential to increase the efficiency and effectiveness of AML/CFT workflows by: (Select Two.)

A.

Eliminating backlogs through the ability to process large volumes of data

B.

Minimizing privacy concerns through minimized human intervention

C.

Minimizing human intervention in repetitive tasks, increasing data accuracy

D.

Allowing for automatic one-stop searches at the front end by analysts

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Question # 30

Perpetual KYC includes: (Choose two.)

A.

triggers identifying static data changes and data based on client's behaviors in real time.

B.

periodic refreshing at one-, three- and five-year cycles.

C.

ability to prioritize better based on client data rather than driven by schedules alone.

D.

classification of clients into categories of risk.

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Question # 31

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

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Question # 32

A trust and company services provider that offers a variety of services to businesses is approached by a client interested in establishing a new company. The client requests assistance with the incorporation process, a local business address, annual maintenance services, and the designation of individuals to serve in official capacities for the new company.

Which of the following services involves a higher money laundering risk?

A.

Appointing individuals to serve in official capacities of the company

B.

Annual maintenance services

C.

Provision of a local business address

D.

Company incorporation services

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Question # 33

Key functions of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) include: (Select Three.)

A.

Prosecuting non-cooperative jurisdictions

B.

Maintaining engagement with other international organizations and bodies

C.

Developing international standards to combat money laundering, terrorist financing, and proliferation financing

D.

Identifying and engaging with high-risk, non-cooperative jurisdictions with strategic deficiencies

E.

Suspending the membership of countries that perform poorly in mutual evaluations

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Question # 34

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

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Question # 35

An EU Trust and Company Service Provider analyst notices some unusual activity while looking through a customer's financial statements and detailed general ledger. The customer is in the business of importing and exporting machineries.

Which transaction indicator warrants further escalation to the compliance officer?

A.

The payment of company secretarial retainer fees to a foreign company in a tax-efficient jurisdiction

B.

The payment of virtual offices services overseas

C.

Inter-company loans from the holding company to the subsidiary company to finance the shipment of machinery

D.

The payment of consultancy fees to unrelated companies and service providers established in a foreign jurisdiction

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Question # 36

Which of the services provided by Trust and Company Service Providers (TCSPs) present the greatest financial crime risks? (Choose three.)

A.

Providing clear procedures to ensure compliance with local tax regulations

B.

Using trusts to obscure the identity of beneficial owners

C.

Promoting the use of complex corporate structures

D.

Maintaining accurate and updated beneficial ownership details for all customers registered for their services

E.

Establishing shell companies for holding financial assets

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Question # 37

Which of the following businesses require enhanced or additional scenarios for identifying anomalous transactions? (Select Two.)

A.

Companies operating in cash intense businesses not subject to licensing requirement

B.

Companies operating hospitals and health-care services

C.

Companies operating in cash intense businesses subject to licensing requirement

D.

Companies producing pharmaceutical products and medical devices, companies active in the mining industry

E.

Companies operating retail shops countrywide

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Question # 38

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

A.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

B.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

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Question # 39

Which should be provided to the board of directors or designated specialized committee when preparing suspicious activity reports (SARs)?

A.

Statistical data regarding SARs filed during the reported period

B.

All possible details of SARs filed during the reported period

C.

Copies of all SARs filed during the reported period

D.

Names of all customers subject to SARs filed during the reported period

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Question # 40

Which characteristic of accountants is most attractive to those looking to launder funds using an accountant or accountancy firm?

A.

Accountants can prepare ledgers and spreadsheets, draft annual returns and make payments to government offices

B.

Accountants can advise on the structuring of companies as well as ensure compliance with local tax regulations

C.

Accountants are knowledgeable about financial management, including what to record over the course of the accounting year

D.

Accountants are able to create and structure companies, falsify accounts and manipulate financial statements

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Question # 41

When a multinational organization develops its anti-financial crime (AFC) program, what is the most important consideration for ensuring compliance across different jurisdictions?

A.

Ensuring sanctions coy on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws.

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide.

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations.

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations.

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Question # 42

An AML compliance officer for a large bank has recently received an internal audit report on the private banking unit. The report revealed that the unit staff were not following risk-based due diligence procedures, so that the unit was not operating effectively.

Which immediate actions should the AML compliance officer consider to address these findings? (Select Two.)

Management Should implement a quality assurance program in the private banking unit

A.

Private bankers should receive training on AML procedures.

B.

All employees should receive refresher AML training.

C.

The board should review and approve a revised AML policy to change customer due diligence requirements in private banking.

D.

The legal department should conduct a review to assess potential legal consequences.

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Question # 43

Money laundering can have a profound impact on the global economy that includes:

A.

Declining money supplies

B.

Increased sectoral polarization

C.

Increased inflation and low economic growth

D.

Destabilization of legitimate governments

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Question # 44

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Choose three.)

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

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Question # 45

How can public-private partnerships (PPPs) foster collaboration in the fight against financial crime? (Choose two.)

A.

Developing a culture of compliance

B.

Improving governance in the public sector by requesting feedback from financial institutions

C.

Reducing transaction monitoring false positives for all financial institutions

D.

Improving the quality and quantity of data available for analysis by sharing information

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Question # 46

The primary objectives of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are to: (Choose two.)

A.

evaluate and monitor compliance with the FATF standards and provide recommendations for improvement.

B.

assist countries in implementing EU, UN, and regional sanctions regimes.

C.

develop and promote international standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing.

D.

conduct investigations on countries legislations and laws to prevent them from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

ensure that countries follow its laws to maintain financial stability.

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Question # 47

What areas of laws and regulations have the greatest impact on AML/CFT applications? (Choose three.)

A.

Information security, data privacy, and cybersecurity

B.

Foreign exchange control, and precious gemstone and metal dealing

C.

Ombudsman and anti-competition authority

D.

Electronic contract and biological signature acceptance

E.

Consumer protection, financial inclusion, and environmental, social and governance

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Question # 48

To provide aid in investigating a cross-border money laundering case, a Financial Intelligence Unit (PIU) that is a member of the Egmont Group can:

A.

directly contact financial institutions in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

B.

directly contact other FlUs in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

C.

deputize its law enforcement investigators to assist in a material ongoing investigation in another country

D.

assist law enforcement in another country with a material ongoing investigation.

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Question # 49

A financial crimes risk appetite statement describes:

A.

how an organization defines Its risk-based approach.

B.

how an organization determines its key risk and performance indicators.

C.

the level and type of risk the organization is willing to take to meet its objectives

D.

the purpose of an organization's financial crimes compliance program.

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Question # 50

Risks associated with real estate transactions include (Select Two.)

A.

cross-border purchases.

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person.

C.

paying true market price for a property.

D.

non-financed purchases.

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Question # 51

Which regulation is the cornerstone of AML/CFT legislation in the United States and requires financial institutions (FIs) to establish and maintain robust AML programs, including customer identification and due diligence procedures, as well as record-keeping and reporting of certain transactions to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)?

A.

USA PATRIOT Act

B.

Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)

C.

Money Laundering Control Act (MLCA)

D.

Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MiCA)

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Question # 52

Which risks are specifically associated with the misuse of gaming accounts in financial crime? (Choose three.)

A.

Using gaming accounts to transfer illicit funds between players undetected

B.

Structuring transactions to avoid reporting thresholds by keeping them under certain limits

C.

Providing false personal information to evade regulatory oversight

D.

Ensuring identity verification is completed prior to the onboarding of new customers

E.

Investing all gaming winnings into high-risk stocks to conceal funds

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Question # 53

A basic principle of the Egmont Group is to:

A.

Publish standards for reporting suspicions

B.

Facilitate the organization of regulatory authorities

C.

Publish decisions taken on international investigations

D.

Arrange information-sharing protocols between Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)

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Question # 54

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

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Question # 55

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

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Question # 56

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Select Three.)

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

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Question # 57

Interactions between the compliance department and other functions or departments within an organization contribute to making the anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program more robust by addressing specific risk areas.

Which departments play a crucial role in enhancing the AFC compliance program of an organization? (Select Two.)

A.

Information security office (ISO)

B.

Marketing and sales

C.

Human resources (HR)

D.

Data privacy office (DPO)

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Question # 58

The recently appointed senior money laundering reporting officer (MLRO) at a newly opened small digital bank has been instructed by the group chief compliance officer to implement an effective AML transaction monitoring system that can identify unusual and suspicious transactions.

What are important considerations for the project to select and implement the AML transaction monitoring system at the digital bank? (Select Two.)

A.

Whether the vendor has documented appropriate internal controls for designing system and data integration schema

B.

Whether the permissions and user access settings for reviewing, investigating, and reporting details of alerts generated by the system are commensurate with those in use at other banks

C.

Whether the monitoring system is adequate with respect to the bank's size, activities, complexity, and risks

D.

Whether the monitoring system can be configured to enable the bank to execute trend analysis of transaction activity and to identify unusual business relationships and transactions

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Question # 59

Which red flags apply to trade-based money laundering (TBML) schemes? (Choose three.)

A.

Use of wire transfers

B.

Loitering

C.

Instructions or involvement from third parties

D.

Amended letters of credit without reasonable justification

E.

Non-standard settlement arrangements

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Question # 60

A financial institution's transaction monitoring system flags an unusually high volume of international wire transfers originating from a small business account. The transfers are being sent to multiple jurisdictions known for limited regulatory oversight. Additionally, an employee reports suspicious behavior from the account holder during an in-person visit, where they requested a large cash withdrawal without providing a clear business justification. As part of the investigation, the compliance team must assess whether this activity is suspicious and determine the appropriate next steps.

Which of the following steps should be taken first in the investigation process to properly gather information and assess whether the transactions are suspicious?

A.

Review the transaction history of the account to identify patterns, including the frequency, destination, and purpose of the wire transfers

B.

Notify senior management and suggest account closure due to potential risks

C.

Immediately file a suspicious activity report (SAR) based on the employee's report of suspicious behavior

D.

Contact the customer directly to ask for clarification on the reason for the large cash withdrawal

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Question # 61

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

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Question # 62

Reference data screening includes the screening of which types of datasets? (Select Two.)

A.

Types of payment messages

B.

Customers

C.

Third-party service providers

D.

Customer spouses

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Question # 63

The owner of a real estate investment company deposits multiple cashier's checks that were bought using cash over a three-month period, from the sale of two apartments. This account also receives several electronic transfers from other financial institutions for US$10,000 each.

What activity is considered suspicious of money laundering?

A.

Receiving electronic transfers for US$10,000 amounts from other financial institutions

B.

Using cash to buy multiple cashier's checks over a period of time

C.

Performing operations with real estate investment companies

D.

Using cashier's checks in the transactions with the real estate investment company's account

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Question # 64

Which of the following indicators of potentially suspicious activity are commonly associated with high-risk business sectors and structures such as shell companies? (Select Three.)

A.

Knowing the goods or services, if identified, do not match the profile of the company or the nature of the financial activity

B.

All payments are in smaller amounts below reporting thresholds but are high when aggregated while still being consistent with standard business practices

C.

A company regularly conducts large-volume transactions in a medium-risk jurisdiction with longstanding business partners and provides complete documentation and audit trails

D.

Insufficient or no information is available to identify originators or beneficiaries of funds transfers through searches or direct inquiries

E.

Payments have no stated purpose, do not reference goods or services, or only reference a contract or invoice number

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Question # 65

Customer segmentation is important for effective transaction monitoring because:

A.

All customers transact in the same way, allowing patterns to be easily spotted

B.

Customer behavior can be compared and analyzed most effectively among similar peer groups

C.

It allows a broad range of customer types to be compared in one large group

D.

It is recommended by regulators solely to prevent sanctions risk

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Question # 66

A US bank recently received a regulatory order to remediate its AML programs, which included several violations of law.

What degree of accountability is it possible for the bank's senior management and employees to face?

A.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer is likely to face criminal prosecution because the bank received a regulatory order

B.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer and senior management can face civil prosecution but not criminal prosecution for violation of AML laws

C.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer and senior management may face personal liability if they failed to take actions while aware of AML violations at the bank

D.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer is the only individual in the company's senior management team that can face personal liability for violation of AML laws

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Question # 67

How should risk-related issues be addressed to ensure the effectiveness of the three lines of defense model?

A.

Ensure that the second line reviews, monitors, and escalates risk-related issues as needed to senior management while maintaining independent oversight from the third line

B.

Have senior management handle risk-related issues directly when possible because they are ultimately responsible for the organisation's overall risk management strategy

C.

Delegate some risk-related issues to the first line to avoid overwhelming the second line and to ensure operational efficiency

D.

Assign risk-related oversight duties to the third line to provide an independent review and address issues more effectively by avoiding conflicts of interest in the first and second lines

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Question # 68

Which of the following scenarios warrants enhanced due diligence (EDD)? (Select Three.)

A.

An existing local league footballer trying to open a bank account with a bank in their local jurisdiction

B.

The current prime minister of a country trying to open a bank account in another country

C.

The former personal secretary to the minister of transport in a low-risk country 25 years ago opening a bank account at a bank in a neighboring low-risk country

D.

A bank located in a higher risk country trying to establish a correspondent-respondent banking relationship with a bank in a lower-risk country

E.

An individual with a current bank account who resides in one country becoming the ambassador of another country

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Question # 69

Which of the following AML/CFT arrangements should a bank have in place at minimum before opening for business? (Choose three.)

A.

Independent compliance testing

B.

Qualified and knowledgeable staff

C.

Third-party screening software

D.

An automated monitoring system

E.

Written policy and procedures

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Question # 70

Which key financial crime risks relate to the remote gambling sector specifically? (Select Three.)

A.

Customers not being physically present for identification purposes

B.

Customers depositing large amounts of cash

C.

Customers using anonymous prepaid cards

D.

Customers betting more than they can afford

E.

Customers making numerous low-level transactions to avoid enhanced due diligence

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Question # 71

Which measures help ensure that the name screening process is effective in identifying potential risk? (Select Three.)

A.

Define in policies and procedures the screening scope, frequency, and alert adjudication process

B.

Identify the most commonly used name screening database in the industry

C.

Assign a designated person to ensure consistent implementation of screening controls

D.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine which data attributes to screen, screening frequency, and database selection

E.

Conduct regular testing to validate that the screening system is performing as expected

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Question # 72

Which statement is the most accurate describing who must comply with Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions?

A.

All US citizens and permanent residents while located in the US, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals within the United States

B.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities excluding their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

C.

All US citizens except those with dual nationality, US permanent residents, all US incorporated entities, and all individuals within the United States

D.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

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Question # 73

Which techniques are most commonly used in a rules-based approach to transaction monitoring for detecting suspicious activities? (Choose two.)

A.

Using predefined rules to flag specific transaction patterns

B.

Randomly flagging transactions for further investigation

C.

Statistical tuning of monitoring scenarios to improve accuracy

D.

Using advanced machine learning models to detect outliers

E.

Setting transaction thresholds for automated alerts

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Question # 74

Which of the options below is an indicator of potential insider activity that may warrant escalation For further investigation?

A.

A relationship manager advocates for overriding the results of the company's client risk rating model that resulted in a client's high-risk rating.

B.

An If employee shares information about a firm's risk management framework with employees of other firms at an industry convention.

C.

An investigator does not complete the automated transaction monitoring system alerts assigned to them before the time required by company procedures.

D.

A relationship manager makes an exception to company policy and proceeds with onboarding a customer without documenting a passport for customer identification

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Question # 75

What are the primary sources of reference besides AML laws and regulations when developing and maintaining the AML policies, standards, and procedures of a bank? (Choose three.)

A.

National Risk Assessment

B.

Regulatory guidance or publications

C.

Government or state-run newspapers

D.

Guidance issued by international bodies

E.

Policies and procedures developed by other banks

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Question # 76

Which of the following statements describe the strengths associated with public-private partnerships (PPPs)? (Choose two.)

A.

Public organizations can belter understand what the private sector experiences and inform policy and the enactment of laws

B.

Data-protection privacy policies provide an opportunity to develop information sharing protocols to prevent unauthorized access to information

C.

Data-protection privacy policies prohibit the evolution of PPPs due to restrictions based on legacy government legislation

D.

Small business owners can choose third-party providers or financial institutions to keep their private data safe which can easily be shared within a PPP

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Question # 77

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

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Question # 78

When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

A.

Digital identification on mobile devices

B.

Different applications to connect and communicate

C.

Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics

D.

Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding

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Question # 79

A national risk assessment (NRA) can impact the risk-based approach (RBA) within an organization's anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program by: (Choose two.)

A.

helping to identify high-risk sectors that require enhanced due diligence (EDO),

B.

eliminating the need for sectoral risk assessments within the organization

C.

guiding the allocation of resources for mitigating financial crime risks

D.

requiring all organizations to apply standardized measures

E.

automatically reducing the organization's responsibility for conducting its own risk assessment

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Question # 80

A periodic review has been completed for an existing virtual asset service provider (VASP) customer.

Which of the following are indicators of potential money laundering? (Select Three.)

A.

Use of shell companies for deposits and withdrawals into the VASP

B.

Using a peer-to-peer network to reduce costs associated with server maintenance and data storage

C.

Rapid market fluctuations resulting in quick changes in the value of underlying assets

D.

Frequent use of mixers and tumblers for holdings and transactions

E.

Receiving funds from countries known for weak money laundering regulations and frameworks

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Question # 81

An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.

Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?

A.

Consistency of approach

B.

Periodic training of the function

C.

Qualification of the team

D.

Independent testing

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Question # 82

Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?

A.

Work with the front-line to understand their strategic growth targets specifically aimed at increasing their market share around military technology and dual-use products

B.

Review the organization's sanction risk assessment to better understand the potential for exposure to Russia and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea

C.

Read and analyze the most recent National Proliferation Financing Risk Assessment produced by the relevant body of the organization's jurisdiction

D.

Undertake a detailed review of all payment-related transactions to any clients identified as defense contractors, paying special attention to the beneficial owners of those clients

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Question # 83

A financial institution has received complaints about friction in the onboarding process when additional information is requested.

Which potential solutions could help ensure a better customer onboarding experience with reduced friction? (Select Two.)

A.

Implement internal or external tools that streamline onboarding processes

B.

Implement new processes only once every three years to ensure consistency

C.

Ensure consistent training of all employees on new processes, policies, and tools

D.

Ensure that only team leads or managers have decision-making power

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Question # 84

Which technologies are commonly used to help financial institutions (FIs) navigate privacy and data protection regulations while securely sharing client information with private third-party entities? (Choose two.)

A.

Blockchain to ensure traceability and security in shared data transactions

B.

Data encryption to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access

C.

Privacy-enhancing technologies (PETs) to enable secure and privacy-compliant data sharing

D.

Artificial intelligence (AI) to automating compliance processes like data anonymization and secure sharing

E.

Cloud storage solutions for efficient data handling and management

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Question # 85

While there are legitimate reasons for trust and company service providers (TCSPs) to appoint a nominee shareholder, which feature of a nominee shareholder presents the greatest financial crime risk?

A.

Supporting company liquidity and ease of exit strategies

B.

Providing anonymity for the beneficial owner by keeping their identity hidden from the public register

C.

Simplifying administrative tasks associated with shareholding

D.

Helping non-residents comply with local ownership laws

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Question # 86

When assessing and managing money laundering risks while operating in foreign jurisdictions different from that of the head office, an effective AML monitoring program should:

A.

Be consistent with the head office audits

B.

Be tailored to the higher of standards between the jurisdictions.

C.

Conform to the foreign jurisdiction policies to align with the head office policies.

D.

Provide all foreign jurisdiction reports to the head office for approval.

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Question # 87

Which of the following risk factors are considered by many supervisory authorities as representing a higher inherent risk associated with MSBs? (Select Two.)

A.

The use of new technologies to facilitate the onboarding of customers remotely

B.

The prevalence of international wire transfers

C.

Domestic business with small and medium-sized enterprises

D.

The cash-intensive nature of the services offered

E.

The use of digital channels and traceable payment methods

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Question # 88

A sound AML compliance program requires a comprehensive governance framework that addresses key elements to ensure the integrity of the financial system.

Which element forms the starting point of an effective AML compliance program?

A.

Ongoing monitoring

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Suspicious activity reporting

E.

Customer due diligence

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Question # 89

Which of the following is a primary objective of public sector groups in the fight against money laundering?

A.

Advising private financial institutions on how to enhance their profitability through AML efforts

B.

Establishing and enforcing legal frameworks to detect, prevent, and punish money laundering and related financial crimes

C.

Providing funding to private and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) for the development of advanced compliance technologies

D.

Acting as intermediaries between private sector firms and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to streamline AML compliance programs

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Question # 90

Which of the following risk factors are commonly associated with money laundering in insurance products? (Choose two.)

A.

Surrendering a policy early to liquidate funds

B.

Focusing excessively on the investment performance of an insurance product

C.

Using a credit card to purchase an insurance policy

D.

Using cryptocurrencies or other non-fiat currencies to fund an insurance policy

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Question # 91

Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)

A.

Setting tone from the top

B.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

C.

Mandatory attendance and review of all financial crime trainings

D.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

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Question # 92

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

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Question # 93

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is empowered to impose sanctions regimes against countries and terrorist organizations.

Which statements are true regarding sanctions imposed by the UNSC? (Select Two.)

A.

Attempts to circumvent or evade sanctions imposed by the UNSC can constitute a criminal offense if designated under local laws and regulations

B.

The UN can impose arms embargoes but cannot prohibit direct or indirect exports of other goods to specific countries

C.

Member countries of the United Nations are expected to implement and enforce sanctions imposed by the UNSC

D.

Direct breaches of sanctions imposed by the UNSC constitute a criminal offense in all member countries

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Question # 94

A compliance officer at a large bank has been tasked with investigating a series of unusual transactions involving a long-time customer. The customer has made several large cash deposits into multiple accounts within a short period, raising red flags. After gathering and analyzing transaction data, reviewing customer records, and cross-referencing external sources, the compliance officer determines that there is a reasonable suspicion of money laundering. As part of documenting this investigation, the compliance officer must decide how and when to escalate the matter internally and whether to file a suspicious activity report (SAR).

What is the next critical step in this process?

A.

Document the customer's transaction history and keep the investigation confidential until further suspicious activity is detected.

B.

Immediately escalate the case to senior management, recommending the closure of the customer's accounts due to potential reputational risk.

C.

Report the investigation to external auditors and await further guidance before taking any action.

D.

Draft a SAR that includes a detailed chronology of the transactions, customer background and the rationale for suspicion, and submit it to the relevant financial intelligence unit (FIU) within the regulatory timelines.

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Question # 95

A deficiency in the design of a bank’s AML/CFT compliance program could result in placing individual accountability on which part of the regulated entity? (Select Two.)

A.

The compliance department

B.

Board of directors

C.

Product oversight committee

D.

Senior management

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Question # 96

Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)

A.

Paying premium several years in advance and terminating early for a refund

B.

Natural persons having more than one insurance policy

C.

High-premium life insurances that provide high payouts

D.

Regularly switching policies and accepting penalties

E.

Beneficiary payouts to elderly people

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Question # 97

Correspondent banking is considered a higher-risk banking sector because correspondent banking transactions:

A.

Are made primarily to and from high-risk jurisdictions

B.

Can be made anonymously and without beneficial ownership information

C.

Typically include less information than domestic payments

D.

Are made cross-border and on behalf of third parties

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Question # 98

Which of the following corporate structures present a higher money laundering risk because of reduced transparency? (Select Three.)

A.

A limited liability company incorporated in a foreign jurisdiction

B.

A private company that has no activity in a tax haven jurisdiction

C.

A company with nominee shareholders and directors in a local jurisdiction

D.

A company with bearer shares incorporated in a tax haven jurisdiction

E.

A private investment company incorporated in a tax haven jurisdiction with strict secrecy laws

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Question # 99

Which financial crime risks are inherent to e-commerce platforms? (Select Four.)

A.

E-commerce platforms exploited to move criminal proceeds

B.

Use of stolen bank cards for online purchases

C.

E-commerce platforms susceptible to fraud schemes

D.

E-commerce platforms used as a front for illicit transactions

E.

E-commerce platforms encouraging unregulated peer-to-peer lending

F.

Use of foreign currency to mask criminal proceeds

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Question # 100

A large international bank is conducting a comprehensive review of its risk management framework to ensure it effectively addresses various financial crime risks, including AML, CFT,

sanctions, fraud, anti-bribery and corruption (ABC), and tax evasion.

The bank’s compliance team is responsible for evaluating the current risk assessment processes, identifying potential gaps, and recommending enhancements to better mitigate these risks. During this review, the team needs to consider the different types of risk assessments and how to integrate findings into the overall risk management strategy.

Which approach should the compliance team prioritize to enhance the bank’s ability to identify, assess, and mitigate the identified risks?

A.

Use a static risk assessment model that remains unchanged until a significant regulatory update occurs to ensure consistency in the evaluation process over time

B.

Delegate the risk assessment process to individual business units to conduct independently and allow for specialized assessments tailored to each unit's specific activities

C.

Conduct a periodic enterprise-wide risk assessment that includes identifying inherent risks, evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls, and determining residual risks

D.

Focus primarily on AML risk assessments, as these are typically the most scrutinized by regulators, while addressing other financial crime risks only when issues are identified

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Question # 101

Which role within private banking has the best placement to identify and report money laundering risk?

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Relationship manager

C.

Operations manager

D.

Compliance officer

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Question # 102

Which of the following are limitations of using search engines to screen adverse media? (Select Three.)

A.

Search engines have limited global language coverage

B.

Search engines provide unstructured data that complicates media analysis

C.

Search results are often inefficient in identifying relevant adverse media

D.

The process is time-consuming and requires significant manual effort

E.

Outcomes can be inconsistent due to varying search engine algorithms

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Question # 103

When the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) places a jurisdiction on the list of "jurisdictions under increased monitoring," also known as the "grey list," the jurisdiction:

A.

Accepts to participate in an off-cycle FATF mutual evaluation to be held within the next 12 months.

B.

Must pay a fine to be removed from the list before the next FATF plenary.

C.

Has committed to swiftly resolving the deficiencies identified in a FATF mutual evaluation.

D.

Poses a high money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing risk and must be restricted from accessing the international financial system.

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Question # 104

Which scenario best justifies why a customer's account might be closed by a financial institution?

A.

The customer is the object of a civil subpoena.

B.

The customer uses a shipping company dealing with specially designated nationals.

C.

The account shows periodic fixed amount remittances for tuition fees.

D.

The account has transactions that triggered multiple suspicious activity reports.

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Question # 105

Which of the following is one of the pillars of the EU AML Package adopted in June 2024?

A.

Digital Operational Resilience Act

B.

Anti-Corruption Directive

C.

EU AML Regulation

D.

7th AML Directive

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Question # 106

Which of the following measures can help maintain the independence of BSA/AML compliance staff to ensure effective compliance controls?

A.

Establishing BSA/AML compliance staff reporting to the management of the business line in the first line of defense

B.

Ensuring BSA/AML compliance staff is primarily outsourced

C.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff a reporting line to compliance or other second line of defense internal control function

D.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff with a reporting line to the chief financial officer

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Question # 107

A law enforcement agency submits several requests to a financial institution.

Which request is legitimate and requires the bank to respond?

A.

Keep an account open upon verbal request

B.

Produce documents and testimony without a subpoena

C.

Seize privileged documents upon written request

D.

Freeze an account in terms of a court order

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Question # 108

An AML compliance officer is drafting plans to address deficiencies identified in an independent audit.

Which approach is the best option?

A.

Only commit to action plans that require no new investment to maximize shareholder value

B.

Draft action plans in consultation with the jurisdiction's FIU to remain aligned with other similar companies

C.

Only commit to action plans that can be implemented and closed within the three-month management reporting cycle

D.

Draft action plans to address the root cause of the deficiencies, regardless of how long they will take to fully implement

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Question # 109

Which of the following is a critical consideration for private sector firms when sharing data and intelligence to combat financial crime?

A.

The preference of upper management regarding which teams should participate in the data-sharing initiative

B.

The cost of the data-sharing system and whether it its within the existing IT budget

C.

The potential return on investment (ROI) from the data shared versus the financial crime prevention effort

D.

Ensuring that the shared data complies with applicable data protection regulations while maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the information

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Question # 110

Which of the following approaches should be used in combination to ensure customer data protection and AML compliance? (Select Three.)

A.

Data encryption

B.

Data minimization

C.

Comprehensive data collection

D.

Access controls

E.

Saving customer data beyond regulatory requirements

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Question # 111

The degree of attraction that a company holds to criminal organizations is influenced by the (Select Two.)

A.

amount of annual fees associated with the jurisdiction.

B.

permissibility of bearer shares.

C.

rules governing the disclosure of beneficial ownership by the jurisdiction.

D.

ease of travel to the jurisdiction.

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Question # 112

What are the main benefits of implementing explainable artificial intelligence (AI) or machine learning (ML) technologies to improve operational effectiveness within AML/CFT compliance? (Select Two.)

A.

Identifies AML/CFT risks without the need for human involvement

B.

Reduces the need for human resources

C.

Processes and analyzes large data sets more quickly and accurately

D.

Increases auditability, accountability, and overall good governance

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Question # 113

Which payment type presents the highest financial crime risk?

A.

A check returning a mortgage overpayment made in error

B.

A payment made to a mixer platform

C.

A regular standing order to a high-interest savings account

D.

A bill payment made to a friend after splitting a dinner bill

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Question # 114

Money services businesses (MSBs), payment service providers, and e-commerce platforms usually have a high volume of daily transactions.

What are the risks associated with these types of businesses? (Choose two.)

A.

These businesses are all cash intensive, increasing the risk of financial crime

B.

KYC challenges arise because e-commerce platforms face global customers making customer due diligence complex and resource intensive

C.

These businesses are highly regulated and therefore have no reason to be non-compliant as this would put them at risk of sanctions and fines

D.

Criminals can make use of identify fraud to fulfill KYC processes for layering purposes

E.

The settlement systems of these businesses are not sophisticated enough to cope with the high transaction volume

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Question # 115

An AML analyst at a financial institution is examining an alert generated by the automated transaction monitoring system to determine whether the alert should be escalated to the AML unit for further investigation or whether it can be archived as a false positive.

Which action might be reasonable for the AML analyst to take?

A.

Restrict the client's access to the account

B.

Request information from the relationship manager assigned to the account that caused the alert

C.

Perform below-the-line testing to ensure the automated monitoring system is operating effectively

D.

Send a request for information to the counterparty bank involved in the transaction that caused the alert

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Question # 116

Which of the following describes a formal method of information sharing and cooperation between Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering investigations?

A.

FATF, MONEYVAL, and other regional bodies acting as a contact point for FIUs

B.

The Wolfsberg Group serving as a communication platform for FIUs

C.

Memoranda of Understanding (MOUs) between FIUs establishing structured information sharing

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLATs) allowing FIUs to request arrests and evidence

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Question # 117

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

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Question # 118

A committee should have a clear and precise definition of its mandate to ensure effective function and governance, set out in a document often referred to as the Terms of Reference (ToR).

Which key features are generally included in the Terms of Reference? (Select Three.)

A.

Organization chart of the attendees

B.

Extent of power and decision-making abilities

C.

Company culture and values

D.

Composition and structure

E.

Delegation of authority

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