CPC Questions and Answers

To accurately code a pressure ulcer in ICD-10-CM, the code must reflect the ulcer's location and stage. The codes for pressure ulcers specify both the anatomical site and the stage (extent of tissue damage).

L89.613 represents a pressure ulcer on the right heel at stage 3. The stage is critical as it indicates the severity of the ulcer, with stage 3 involving full-thickness skin loss and possibly visible subcutaneous tissue.

A. L89.609 refers to a pressure ulcer on the heel but without specific staging.

C. L89.619 is for a pressure ulcer on the right heel at stage 4, which indicates a more severe level of tissue damage than stage 3.

D. L89.603 represents a stage 3 pressure ulcer but on the left heel, not the right.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. L89.613 for a stage 3 pressure ulcer on the right heel.

90471/90472 = Administration without counseling

90707 = MMR

90746 = Hepatitis B, adult

The key phrase is “remove the sequestered section of dead infected fragment bone”, which is a sequestrectomy performed for osteomyelitis.

23172 describes sequestrectomy of the scapula (shoulder blade).Therefore, C is correct.

The procedure performed is a bilateral screening mammogram with computer-aided detection (CAD). CPT code 77067 is for bilateral screening mammography with CAD. ICD-10-CM code Z12.31 is for an encounter for screening mammogram for malignant neoplasm of the breast. Z80.3 is for a family history of malignant neoplasm of the breast. Therefore, the correct coding is 77067, Z12.31, Z80.3. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), ICD-10-CM (current year).

In ICD-10-CM coding, an Excludes2 note under a code indicates that the condition listed in the note is not included in the definition of the code, but it does not necessarily mean they cannot coexist. This type of note means that while the conditions are distinct, it may be appropriate to report both codes if a patient has both conditions at the same time.

A. is incorrect because Excludes1, not Excludes2, indicates that certain codes should not be reported together.

C. is a description of an Excludes1 note, which implies that the two conditions should not be coded together because they cannot occur simultaneously.

D. is also a description of an Excludes1 note, which serves as a "NOT CODED HERE!" directive.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. It is acceptable to report both the code and the excluded code together, when applicable.

In the ICD-10-CM Tabular List, square brackets [ ] (Brackets) are used to enclose synonyms, alternative wording, or explanatory phrases. This is a punctuation convention taught for ICD-10-CM and is tested on CPC.

To avoid confusion with other punctuation:

Parentheses ( ) indicate nonessential modifiers (supplementary words that may be present or absent without affecting the code selection).

A semicolon ( ; ) is used in the Tabular List to show that additional modifying words (that follow the semicolon) are required to complete the diagnostic statement.

Colons ( : ) are used after an incomplete term that needs one or more modifying terms to make it assignable.

44010 = Biopsy of small intestine, single or multiple

Reported once only, regardless of number

For initial fracture care of a closed scaphoid fracture, code 25622 is used, which includes treatment and initial casting. The application of the cast is part of the fracture care and is not reported separately. CPT® guidelines specify that casting or strapping performed as part of the fracture care is included in the fracture care code.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Musculoskeletal System.

In the CPT® book, codes that contain a semicolon (;) indicate that the portion of the description before the semicolon applies to all codes in that series, and the text after the semicolon completes the individual code description.

For the small intestinal endoscopy (enteroscopy) codes:

The parent code describes: “Small intestinal endoscopy, enteroscopy beyond second portion of duodenum, not including ileum;”

CPT® 44361 specifically adds: “with biopsy, single or multiple.”

Therefore, the full description of CPT® 44361 is:

Small intestinal endoscopy, enteroscopy beyond second portion of duodenum, not including ileum; with biopsy, single or multiple.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver with ultrasound guidance to assess primary biliary cirrhosis.

Code 47000 is the CPT® code for a percutaneous liver biopsy. This code encompasses the biopsy procedure itself.

Ultrasound guidance is commonly inherent to biopsy procedures, and guidance is not separately reported if the main code (47000) includes the technique used.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code K74.5 is the correct code for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is specifically indicated in this case.

K74.3 is the code for other specified cirrhosis of the liver but is less specific than K74.5, making K74.5 the appropriate choice here.

3. Exclusion of Other Codes:

Code 47100 (option A) is for an open liver biopsy, which does not apply to this percutaneous procedure.

Codes 10005 (biopsy with imaging guidance) and 76942 (ultrasound guidance) would be redundant or incorrect since the main procedure code, 47000, sufficiently describes a percutaneous liver biopsy.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines state that guidance is included in certain biopsy codes when performed for the targeted organ, such as in 47000 for a liver biopsy.

Therefore, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding rules, the correct answer is C. 47000, K74.5.

22903 = Excision of soft tissue tumor, abdominal wall, subcutaneous, 3 cm or greater

D49.2 = Neoplasm of unspecified behavior of soft tissue

R codes are not used when a neoplasm is documented

When a patient experiences an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction, the primary reason for the encounter would be the malfunction itself, which is coded first. The resulting hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia due to the pump failure is a secondary condition. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the code for the mechanical complication of the pump (T85.633-) is sequenced first, followed by a code for the diabetes with complication (E11.65 for type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia).

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 19: Injury, Poisoning and Certain Other Consequences of External Causes (S00-T88), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.

Personal history codes are not appropriate for every encounter. They are reported only when relevant to the reason for the visit. Therefore, option A is false.

Lesion excision codes in the CPT® codebook include the removal of the lesion along with the necessary margins and a simple (nonlayered) closure when performed. These codes do not cover intermediate or complex closures, which are reported separately if performed. The measurement for selecting the appropriate lesion excision code includes the lesion and the margins required for complete excision.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition, lesion excision guidelines.

26910 = Excision of supernumerary digit with bone/joint involvement

11200 = Removal of skin tag / soft tissue lesion

Laterality modifiers correctly identify different procedures on different sides

Diabetic polyneuropathy is coded as E11.42, which indicates type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic polyneuropathy. The ICD-10-CM guidelines direct that when a patient has both diabetes and polyneuropathy, a single combination code is used to capture both conditions.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 4: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases (E00-E89), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.a.6.

The provider documents history of COVID-19, not active COVID-19.

Z86.16 = Personal history of COVID-19

J18.9 = Pneumonia, unspecified organism

Codes U07.1 and U09.9 are for current or post-COVID conditions, which are not documented here. Therefore, A is correct.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a pulmonary function test that included spirometry, vital capacity, breathing capacity, and flow volume measurements before and after bronchodilator administration.

CPT® Code 94060 is for spirometry, including the bronchodilator responsiveness testing, which involves capturing pre- and post-bronchodilator measurements. This code accurately reflects the testing performed.

CPT® Code 94010 is for spirometry testing without bronchodilator, which might be considered redundant in this case since 94060 encompasses spirometry testing with and without bronchodilator. However, some practices may code both, but generally, 94060 alone should suffice.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code J45.901 is used for unspecified asthma with acute exacerbation. This code is appropriate given that the diagnosis indicates intermittent asthma with exacerbation.

J45.21 represents mild intermittent asthma without the specification of exacerbation, making it less accurate than J45.901 in this context.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 94070 (options B and C) is for bronchospasm provocation testing, which does not apply to standard pulmonary function testing with bronchodilator responsiveness.

Option D includes J45.21, which does not capture the exacerbation aspect and is therefore incorrect.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 94060 should be used when pre- and post-bronchodilator spirometry is performed, and J45.901 is appropriate for asthma with exacerbation.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 94060, 94010, J45.901.

C2617 – Sinus implant, drug-eluting

Described implant:

Ethmoid sinus

Drug-eluting (corticosteroid)

Absorbable

Why others are incorrect:

C1877 – Vascular stent

S1091 – Temporary code

C9600 – Coronary intervention

Impending myocardial infarction is reported with I21.3 for a myocardial infarction (acute). The shortness of breath, which is a symptom, is coded separately as R06.02. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a definitive diagnosis is established, the diagnosis code is sequenced first followed by symptom codes.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 9: Diseases of the Circulatory System (I00-I99), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.9.e.4.

The scenario involves a secondary repair of two flexor tendons in the forearm. CPT® code 25272 describes the repair of a secondary flexor tendon injury, including a graft, in the forearm and/or wrist, which fits the description provided. This code should be reported once, as the procedure encompasses the repair of multiple tendons.

In CPT® Surgery Guidelines, a "separate procedure" code is used to identify a service that is typically performed as part of a larger procedure and should not be coded separately when it is an integral component of that primary service. However, it may be reported independently if it is performed alone or is unrelated to the primary procedure.

A. is true because a separate procedure may be reported if it is performed independently or is unrelated to the primary procedure.

B. is true, as "separate procedure" codes are not reported in addition to the code for the primary procedure when they are part of the total procedure.

C. is correct because "separate procedure" designation indicates that the service is often part of a more comprehensive procedure but can be reported separately when performed alone.

D. is false because modifier 79 is not used for unrelated "separate procedures." Instead, modifier 59 is typically used to indicate a "distinct procedural service" when reporting a separate procedure that is unrelated to the primary service.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. To identify a service designated as a "separate procedure" that is reported with an unrelated primary service, append modifier 79 to the code.

Cholecyst- = gallbladder

Entero- = intestine

-ostomy = creation of an opening

Cholecystenterostomy is the correct term for surgically creating a connection between the gallbladder and the intestine.

This aligns with surgical terminology commonly tested in the CPT® digestive system section (40000–49999).

P1–P6 = ASA Physical Status modifiers

AA, QS are anesthesia service modifiers

The CABG procedure involved multiple bypasses, with the use of autologous saphenous vein grafts and the left internal mammary artery, along with an extensive modified MAZE procedure. CPT® code 33535 describes a coronary artery bypass using arterial grafts, including at least three coronary artery bypasses. CPT® code 33259-51 is for the MAZE procedure for supraventricular tachycardia, with the -51 modifier indicating multiple procedures. CPT® code 33519-51 is for an additional vein graft, and CPT® code 33508-51 describes the endoscopic harvesting of the vein.

Medical terms often consist of a root word and a suffix.

Hepat/o = liver

-itis = inflammation

Therefore, hepatitis literally means inflammation of the liver.

The incorrect options refer to inflammation of other body parts:

Dermatitis – inflammation of the skin

Gastritis – inflammation of the stomach

Arthritis – inflammation of the joints

Hence, the correct answer is C. Hepatitis.

New patient in community residential facility

Moderate MDM → 99344

Total time = 90 minutes

Base time exceeded → 99417 appropriate

Why others are incorrect:

99345 – High MDM (not documented)

Missing prolonged service code

Colposcopy of the Cervix: This involves a visual examination of the cervix using a colposcope.

Biopsy and Endocervical Curettage: The procedures performed include taking a biopsy and scraping the lining of the cervical canal.

CPT Code 57454: This code represents a colposcopy of the cervix with biopsy and endocervical curettage.

The scenario describes an emergency basic life support (BLS) ambulance service. The appropriate HCPCS Level II code for BLS emergency transport is A0429.

Modifier QN indicates that the service was provided by an ambulance supplier, and SH indicates the services were provided in an emergency situation.

HCPCS Level II, current year

The gallbladder is part of the digestive system. It stores and concentrates bile, which aids in the digestion of fats.

It works closely with the liver and biliary tract, all of which belong to the digestive system, making C the correct answer.

55250 = Vasectomy, bilateral procedure inherent (no modifier -50)

Z30.2 = Encounter for sterilization

Z30.012 is for contraceptive management counseling, not the procedure

For Mohs micrographic surgery, CPT® coding is based on the anatomic location of the lesion, the number of stages, and the number of tissue blocks per stage.

17311: This code is used for Mohs surgery on body areas such as the trunk, arms, or legs for the first stage.

17315: This is an add-on code used when more than five tissue blocks are examined in a single stage. Since this case involved six tissue blocks, 17315 is appropriate.

Explanation of incorrect answers:

A. 17313, 17314, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 applies to the head, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia, not the arm.

C. 17313, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 is not appropriate for the arm.

D. 17311, 17312, 17315: 17312 is used for additional stages beyond the first, which is not applicable here since only one stage was performed.

E. 85B2-335 is not a valid CPT code for Mohs surgery.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 17311, 17315, which accurately reflects a single-stage Mohs surgery with six tissue blocks on the arm.

38573 includes comprehensive laparoscopic staging with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy and paraaortic sampling

All listed components are bundled into this code

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient initially underwent a laparoscopic total abdominal hysterectomy for endometriosis of the uterus. However, due to extensive adhesions, the surgeon converted the procedure to an open total abdominal hysterectomy to complete the surgery.

CPT® Code 58150 is appropriate for a total abdominal hysterectomy, including removal of the uterus and cervix, via an open approach. Since the procedure was converted to an open approach, 58150 is the correct code.

The -22 modifier is added to indicate increased procedural services due to the extensive adhesiolysis (removal of adhesions), which extended the surgery duration.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code N80.00 is used for endometriosis of the uterus, which is the primary condition that prompted the hysterectomy.

ICD-10-CM Code N73.6 is appropriate for female pelvic peritoneal adhesions, reflecting the extensive adhesions that necessitated the conversion to open surgery.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 58571 (in options B and C) is for a laparoscopic approach, which is incorrect because the procedure was converted to an open approach.

The -78 modifier is incorrect in this context because the conversion to open surgery was part of the same operative session and not an unplanned return to the OR.

Diagnosis code N99.4 (in options B and D) pertains to postprocedural pelvic adhesions, which does not apply here as the adhesions were not due to a prior procedure.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines specify using 58150 for an open total abdominal hysterectomy and adding the -22 modifier for increased complexity or time due to factors like extensive adhesiolysis.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM guidelines is A. 58150-22, N80.00, N73.6.

For a patient with a mass in the left lower lung suspected to be cancer that is currently documented as a tumor of uncertain behavior, with existing ovarian cancer with metastases to the liver, the ICD-10-CM codes are:

D38.1: Neoplasm of uncertain behavior of bronchus and lung.

C56.9: Malignant neoplasm of unspecified ovary.

C78.7: Secondary malignant neoplasm of liver and intrahepatic bile duct.

D38.1 is used because the behavior of the lung tumor is uncertain, and C56.9 and C78.7 are used to document the known primary and metastatic cancers.

ICD-10-CM guidelines

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

33533 – CABG, arterial graft; single arterial graft (LIMA to LAD)

Correct for left internal mammary artery → LAD

33519 – CABG, venous grafts; three coronary venous grafts

Saphenous vein grafts placed to:

Obtuse marginal

Ramus intermedius

Posterior descending artery

Total = 3 venous grafts

33508 – Endoscopic harvest of saphenous vein

Separately reportable only when endoscopic

Add-on code (no modifier required)

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A / C – Incorrect arterial graft code (33536 = multiple arterial grafts)

B – Incorrect venous graft count (33512 = two grafts)

CPT® Guideline Reference:

CABG codes are selected based on:

Type of conduit (arterial vs venous)

Number of distal anastomoses

Endoscopic harvest is add-on and separately reportable

45540 = Repair of rectal prolapse, abdominal approach

52332 = Cystourethroscopy with ureteral stent

K62.3 = Rectal prolapse

The case describes two primary surgeons working together, which supports modifier 62 (co-surgeons) on the spine fusion/discectomy codes.

22556 = primary level anterior thoracic discectomy and fusion (T2–T3)

22585 = each additional thoracic level (T4–T5)

20931 = structural allograft (reported by the surgeon who solely performed/placed the structural allograft, per the statement—Surgeon Z)

Why D fits best:

Surgeon X performed the approach/exposure and closure and assisted the primary surgeon → reports the co-surgeon spine procedure codes (22556-62, 22585-62).

Surgeon Z performed the discectomy/fusion and solely performed utilizing a structural allograft → reports 22556-62, 22585-62, plus 20931.

Options with -51 are not correct here (and add-on/related reporting logic in CPT does not support the way -51 is applied in those options).

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

59821 – Induced abortion, by vaginal suppository, amniotic fluid injection, or other medical means

Used for fetal demise at ≥14 weeks gestation

Labor was medically induced and fetus delivered

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

O36.4XX0 – Maternal care for intrauterine death, not applicable or unspecified

Correct maternal record diagnosis

Z3A.19 – 19 weeks gestation

Required per ICD-10-CM guidelines for obstetric encounters

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A / D – ICD-9 code (002.1) is invalid

C – Missing required gestational age code

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The urinalysis performed was non-automated and without microscopy.

CPT® Code 81002 is appropriate for a non-automated urinalysis without microscopy. This code accurately reflects the test performed in the office.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code R30.0 is used for dysuria, which was one of the patient's presenting symptoms.

ICD-10-CM Code R10.30 is used for lower abdominal pain, another presenting symptom.

Since the urinalysis ruled out a urinary tract infection, N39.0 (UTI) is not appropriate as a final diagnosis.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 81000 (in options A and B) is for a urinalysis with microscopy, which was not performed here.

N39.0 is used when a UTI is confirmed, which is incorrect for this case since the urinalysis was negative, ruling out UTI.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines recommend coding based on the symptoms when a specific diagnosis (such as UTI) is ruled out. Therefore, R30.0 and R10.30 are appropriate symptom codes for this encounter.

Thus, the correct answer is C. 81002, R30.0, R10.30.

Procedure Coding:

56633 – Radical vulvectomy (removal of >80%), including deep subcutaneous tissue

Documentation supports greater than 80% vulvar removal

Deep tissue involvement confirms radical procedure

Diagnosis Coding:

D07.1 – Carcinoma in situ of vulva

VIN III = high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

Classified as carcinoma in situ, not benign dysplasia

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

56620 / 56625 / 56630 – Partial or simple vulvectomy

N90.1 – Mild vulvar dysplasia (incorrect severity)

ICD-10-CM Official Guideline:

VIN III is coded as D07.1, not N90.x.

44970 = Laparoscopic appendectomy

K36 = Chronic appendicitis

Symptoms are not coded once definitive diagnosis is made

The patient is an established patient presenting with bilateral thyroid nodules and has a detailed history and examination performed.

Procedure Description:

Detailed history and examination of bilateral thyroid nodules.

Review of systems and physical examination.

Assessment and plan for a percutaneous biopsy.

CPT® Coding:

99214: Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient, which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and moderate medical decision making.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on evaluation and management services.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes a labial gland biopsy of the salivary gland, performed in the office with a local anesthetic. The provider made an incision in the lower labial mucosa and took tissue samples from the salivary gland for biopsy.

Code 42400 is the correct CPT® code for a biopsy of a salivary gland. This code is specific to a biopsy without a more extensive excision or major surgery, aligning perfectly with the scenario of sampling salivary gland tissue.

2. Ruling Out Other Options:

Code 42408 is for the excision of a deep lobe of a parotid gland, which is a more extensive procedure than a simple biopsy and does not apply to this case.

Code 42405 is for the removal of an entire submandibular gland, which is a full excision and not applicable here.

Code 42450 is used for the removal of a sublingual gland, not for a biopsy of the labial salivary gland.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT® guidelines direct coders to use 42400 for minor biopsies of salivary gland tissue, particularly when only tissue samples are taken for diagnostic purposes, as described in this case.

Based on CPT® coding guidelines, the correct answer is C. 42400.

Modifier -53 = Discontinued procedure after anesthesia and/or incision due to patient safety

-74 is used by facility, not physician

-52 is for reduced services, not discontinued procedures

The procedure documented is a modified Fontan procedure → 33615 (Fontan-type single-ventricle repair per the choices given).

The congenital diagnosis documented is double inlet ventricle → Q20.2.

Why the other options are incorrect based on the statements provided:

Q20.4 is not “double inlet ventricle” as stated in the question.

Adding Q20.1 is not supported by the documentation (the question only states double inlet ventricle).

Therefore, the best match is 33615, Q20.2 → A.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient requires a surgical nasal sinus endoscopy to repair a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak caused by a skull fracture that resulted in CSF draining into the nasal passage.

Code 31291 is the correct CPT® code for an endoscopic repair of a cerebrospinal fluid leak in the sphenoid sinus. This procedure code is appropriate because it specifically addresses surgical endoscopy for CSF leak repair in the sinus region.

Other codes provided, such as 31287 (nasal/sinus endoscopy with balloon dilation) and 31235 (nasal endoscopy with biopsy), do not match the description for surgical repair of a CSF leak and are therefore inappropriate for this case.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code S02.19XA is used to describe a fracture of the anterior cranial base, which fits the described injury of the skull with cerebrospinal fluid leakage.

External cause code V47.5XXA is used for motor vehicle accidents involving a car hitting a stationary object.

Y92.411 is the appropriate code to describe the location of the accident as a highway.

3. Exclusion of Additional Procedure Codes:

There is no need for a second endoscopy code or a modifier, as 31291 fully describes the endoscopic repair procedure for the CSF leak.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

Per AAPC guidelines, procedure codes for sinus endoscopy are chosen based on the specific type of intervention (e.g., CSF leak repair). The guidelines for ICD-10-CM stress including external cause codes and location codes for trauma cases related to motor vehicle accidents.

Thus, the correct answer based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding standards is B. 31291, S02.19XA, V47.5XXA, Y92.411.

The suffix in medical terminology provides information about a condition, procedure, disorder, or disease. The term "neuralgia" contains the suffix "-algia," which refers to pain, indicating a painful condition of the nerves. In contrast:

A. malaise has no identifiable suffix related to a specific medical condition or disease.

B. ambidextrous has no suffix indicating a disease, condition, or procedure.

D. hypotension includes the prefix "hypo-" (indicating low), but the core term "tension" refers to pressure without an additional suffix specific to condition.

Thus, "neuralgia" is the correct answer as it directly includes a suffix ("-algia") that denotes a pain-related condition in medical terms.

Rhinoplasty is a surgical procedure performed to reconstruct or reshape the nose. It can be done for cosmetic reasons or to improve breathing function. The term "rhino" refers to the nose, and "plasty" refers to the surgical molding or forming of a part of the body.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition, medical dictionaries

93280 – In-person interrogation device evaluation with programming; dual-chamber pacemaker

Includes:

Full electronic analysis

Lead function

Battery status

Threshold testing

Programming changes

Why others are incorrect:

93281 – Single-chamber pacemaker

93283 / 93284 – ICD device codes

This scenario describes an anterior discectomy and arthroplasty at two levels (L3-L4 and L5-S1) using artificial discs. CPT® code 22857 describes total disc arthroplasty (artificial disc), anterior approach, including discectomy to prepare interspace (other than for decompression), single interspace, lumbar. Since the procedure was performed at two levels, the code should be reported twice.

82252 = Bilirubin, feces

82247/82248 = Serum bilirubin

82239 = Fecal fat

99223 = Initial hospital/observation care with high time (75+ min) or high MDM

Prolonged service 99418 is bundled into observation services

00813 = Anesthesia for colonoscopy

QK = Medical direction of 2–4 cases

99100 = Extreme age

99140 = Emergency anesthesia

80324 – Drug test(s), definitive, qualitative or quantitative, LC/MS; acetaminophen

LC-MS = definitive testing

Acetaminophen is specifically identified by 80324

Why others are incorrect:

60143 / 80299 – Therapeutic drug assays (obsolete or nonspecific)

B0329 – HCPCS code (not appropriate here)

Laminectomy and Facetectomy (63047 and 63048): The laminectomies at L4 and L5 with facetectomies fall under CPT codes 63047 (for the initial segment) and 63048 (for each additional segment).

Posterior Arthrodesis (22612 and 22614 x 3): The posterior arthrodesis from L1-L5 is coded with 22612 for the primary segment (L4-L5) and 22614 for each additional segment (L1-L4).

Placement of Pedicle Screws (22842): The placement of pedicle screws at L2, L3, and L4 is captured under CPT code 22842 for segmental instrumentation.

99393 = Preventive visit, established patient, age 5–11

Preventive codes are based on age and patient status, not time since last visit

89258 = Thawing of cryopreserved embryos

89250 = Culture of embryos, per day (reported once per encounter)

To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).

History:

The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.

Examination:

The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (appears tired).

Medical Decision Making:

The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem (shortness of breath and weakness) with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.

Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.

Why other options are incorrect:

99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.

99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM (moderate or high complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn't support this level of service.

Frozen section pathology coding rules:

88331 – Frozen section, first tissue block, each specimen

88332 – Frozen section, each additional tissue block, same specimen

Breakdown:

Specimen 1

Block 1 → 88331 × 1

Block 2 → 88332 × 1

Specimen 2

Block 1 → 88331 × 1

Block 2 → 88332 × 1

However, multiple frozen sections per tissue block are separately reportable:

Total first blocks = 4 frozen sections → 88331 × 4

Total additional blocks = 3 frozen sections → 88332 × 3

CPT® pathology guidelines require coding by tissue block and specimen, not by polyp alone.

This patient presents to the ER with syncope, requiring a comprehensive evaluation and critical care. Here's the breakdown of the codes:

CPT Code 99291-25: Critical care, evaluation and management of the critically ill or critically injured patient; first 30-74 minutes  

This code is appropriate because the patient's syncope and vital signs (low blood pressure, shallow respirations, low oxygen saturation) indicate a critical condition requiring immediate intervention.

Modifier -25: Significant, Separately Identifiable Evaluation and Management Service by the Same Physician on the Same Day of the Procedure or Other Service. This modifier is appended because the critical care services were provided in addition to the separately reported procedures below.  

CPT Code 92950: Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (eg, CPR, external cardiac massage, endotracheal intubation, ventilation)

While the documentation doesn't explicitly mention CPR, it states the patient was unresponsive upon arrival but had spontaneous pulse and respirations. This suggests possible resuscitation efforts were performed by the paramedics before the physician's assessment.

CPT Code 31500: Intubation, endotracheal, emergency procedure

Although not explicitly stated, the documentation indicates the patient was placed on "high flow oxygen," which strongly suggests endotracheal intubation was performed to manage the patient's respiratory distress.

CPT Code 82803: Blood gases, arterial, pH, PCO2, PO2, with oxygen saturation; interpretation and report

This code is likely reported based on the patient's respiratory distress and the need to monitor their oxygenation status.

Why other options are incorrect:

99285: This is a standard emergency department visit code and doesn't capture the critical nature of the patient's condition.

99285-25, 99291-25, 92950, 31500, 82803: This includes 99285, which is not necessary as 99291 encompasses the evaluation and management.

99291-25, 99292-25, 92950, 31500: This includes 99292, which is for subsequent critical care time. There's no indication in the documentation that the physician provided critical care beyond the initial 74 minutes.

Procedure: Complete cardiac MRI for morphology and function without contrast, followed by contrast with four additional sequences and stress imaging.

CPT® Codes:

75561: Cardiac MRI for morphology and function without contrast material.

75563: Cardiac MRI with contrast and further sequences.

ICD-10-CM Codes:

I50.1: Left ventricular failure.

I49.1: Premature ventricular contractions.

Code Selection Justification: The CPT® codes accurately capture the MRI procedures performed. The ICD-10-CM codes represent the diagnoses of left ventricular failure and premature ventricular contractions.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

71048 – Radiologic examination, chest; complete, minimum of 4 views

Includes 6 views

CPT codes are based on ranges, not per-view billing

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

71047 – 2 views only

CPT does not allow “× view” reporting

For this scenario, two surgeons are working together, each as a primary surgeon. Therefore, the correct coding requires the use of the modifier -62, which indicates co-surgeons.

The transthoracic approach to excise the damaged portion of the vertebral body is coded with 63087.

The insertion of the bone graft and metal plate is coded with 63088.

Both codes are appended with modifier -62 to indicate that two surgeons worked together as primary surgeons on this case.

The patient had a post-operative complication (cardiac tamponade) following a previous CABG surgery, requiring a return to the operating room for exploration and evacuation of a blood clot. This is coded using CPT code 32658 (Exploration, mediastinum, with or without drainage; for postoperative hemorrhage, drainage of abscess, or to locate foreign body). Modifier 78 is appended to indicate an unplanned return to the operating room by the same physician following the initial procedure for a related procedure during the postoperative period.

CPT Code 00811: Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal to the splenic flexure; diagnostic, with or without collection of specimen(s) by brushing or washing

This code is reported for anesthesia services provided during a colonoscopy that is diagnostic in nature.

ICD-10-CM Code D62: Acute posthemorrhagic anemia

This is the most accurate postoperative diagnosis. The operative report states "Anemia due to acute blood loss."

ICD-10-CM Code N18.6: End stage renal disease

This code captures the patient's documented history of ESRD.

ICD-10-CM Code Z99.2: Dependence on renal dialysis

This code is necessary to report the patient's dialysis status, as it affects the overall risk of the procedure.

Why other options are incorrect:

00812: This code is for therapeutic colonoscopies, not diagnostic.

D64.9: This code is for anemia, unspecified. D62 is more specific to the patient's condition.

K62.5: This code is for lower gastrointestinal bleeding, but the anemia is the primary diagnosis in this case.

99222 = Initial hospital inpatient care, moderate MDM

Extensive diagnostic workup → moderate complexity

Final diagnosis established during admission

Diagnosis Coding:

G00.9 – Bacterial meningitis, unspecified

Do not code symptoms (fever, neck pain) once definitive diagnosis is confirmed

Why others are incorrect:

99284 – ED visit

99264 – Inpatient consultation (deleted code)

Symptom-only diagnosis codes inappropriate

A41.52 = Sepsis due to Enterococcus.

When the organism is specified, a combination code is used.

No additional code for severe sepsis is documented.

The procedure involves a right nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy for a nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.

Procedure Description:

Right nephrectomy (removal of the kidney).

Partial ureterectomy (removal of part of the ureter).

CPT® Coding:

50220: Nephrectomy, including partial ureterectomy, any open approach.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on nephrectomy procedures.

73522 = Bilateral hips with pelvis, 3–4 views

Modifier -76 = Repeat procedure by the same physician

Modifier -51 identifies multiple procedures

Malignant lesion destruction → CPT 17260–17286

Trunk/extremities

0.6–1.0 cm → 17261

1.1–2.0 cm → 17262

Both lesions are reported separately.

The procedure described is flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsy (biopsy taken from the bronchi/bronchial tubes).

31625 = Bronchoscopy, flexible, with biopsy (single or multiple)

Important CPC concept: when the CPT® descriptor is “single or multiple”, you code it once, even if multiple biopsies are taken.

31628 is for transbronchial lung biopsy, which is not what is described (the question specifies bronchial tubes/bronchial biopsies).Therefore, A is correct.

For a comatose patient who has overdosed on tricyclic antidepressant drugs (doxepin, amoxapine, and clomipramine), the correct CPT® code is 80366. This code covers drug testing for tricyclic antidepressants, which includes the specific drugs mentioned in the scenario.

Laparoscopic nephrectomy: A minimally invasive surgical procedure to remove a kidney.

Part of the ureter: Removal includes part of the ureter.

50220: Nephrectomy (open procedure), which doesn't apply since the procedure was laparoscopic.

50548: Nephrectomy, partial, laparoscopic, which doesn't match the full nephrectomy performed.

50543: Laparoscopy, surgical; nephrectomy with total ureterectomy.

50543 is the correct CPT code for the laparoscopic removal of the kidney along with part of the ureter, fitting the scenario described.

This is destruction of malignant lesions (SCC).

17261 = Malignant lesion destruction, trunk/arms/legs, 0.6–1.0 cm

17262 = Same location, 1.1–2.0 cm

Feet are included in trunk/arms/legs.

Therefore, 17262, 17261 is correct.

47000 = Percutaneous liver biopsy

77021 = MRI guidance for needle placement

Multiple cores are included in the biopsy code

Modifier -79 is used to indicate an unrelated procedure or service performed by the same physician during the postoperative (global) period.

-57 = decision for surgery

-25 = significant, separately identifiable E/M

-55 = postoperative management only

Modifier usage is a high-yield CPC exam topic.

Cystourethroscopy: This is a procedure that involves the use of a cystoscope to look inside the urethra and bladder.

Pyeloscopy: Involves the examination of the upper urinary tract, typically done through the cystoscope.

Lithotripsy: A procedure that uses shock waves or a laser to break up stones in the kidney, bladder, or ureter.

Indwelling stent insertion: A procedure to place a stent in the ureter to help urine flow from the kidney to the bladder.

52356: Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy and/or pyeloscopy; with lithotripsy (ureteral catheterization and/or ureteral stent placement).

The code 52356 includes all components mentioned: cystourethroscopy, pyeloscopy, lithotripsy, and stent insertion performed in the same operative session.

Procedure Coding:

44970 – Laparoscopic appendectomy

Appendix removed via scope through umbilical incision, confirming laparoscopic approach

Diagnosis Coding:

K35.32 – Acute appendicitis with perforation and localized peritonitis, without abscess

Documentation supports ruptured (perforated) appendicitis

No abscess documented

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B – Signs/symptoms (R11.2, R10.31) not coded once definitive diagnosis is established

C – 44960 = open appendectomy (not performed)

D – 44950 = open appendectomy, diagnosis code incorrect

ICD-10-CM Guideline Reference:

Do not code symptoms when a definitive diagnosis is confirmed.

The patient has undergone a left total knee arthroplasty and subsequently received a femoral nerve block for postoperative pain management. CPT code 01402 is used for anesthesia for total knee arthroplasty. Code 64447-59-LT is for a femoral nerve block (single injection) for postoperative pain management, with modifier 59 indicating a distinct procedural service and LT indicating the left side. Therefore, the appropriate codes are 01402 and 64447-59-LT.

The injection into the trochanteric bursa under ultrasonic guidance is coded with CPT® 20611, which describes an injection of a major joint or bursa with ultrasound guidance. The modifier -LT indicates the procedure was performed on the left side.

93454 = Coronary angiography

R07.9 = Chest pain, unspecified

CAD code is not reported when ruled out

The CPT® codes for skin biopsies depend on the method used and the location of each lesion. Here, the scenario includes:

1. Two punch biopsies on the trunk: CPT® code 11104 is used for a full-thickness punch biopsy of the skin, and 11104 x 2 is appropriate since two lesions on the trunk were sampled.

2. One partial-thickness shave biopsy on the forehead: CPT® code 11102 is used for a tangential (shave) biopsy, which captures a partial-thickness sample, appropriate for the forehead lesion.

Explanation of other options:

B. 11104, 11105, 11103: Incorrect, as 11105 is an add-on for additional punch biopsies at separate sites but not used here.

C. 11104, 11103 x 2: 11103 is an add-on code for additional shave biopsies, which does not apply to the punch biopsies on the trunk.

D. 11104, 11102 x 2: Incorrect, as 11102 is only used for the shave biopsy, not for the punch biopsies.

37267 = Iliac artery stent placement

Angioplasty is bundled into the stent code

69209-RT – Removal of impacted cerumen using irrigation

69210-LT – Removal of impacted cerumen using instrumentation

Coding Rules Applied:

Different techniques → different CPT codes

Different ears → RT/LT modifiers, not modifier -50

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A – Modifiers reversed

B / D – Modifier -50 inappropriate when different CPT codes are used

CPT® code 46255 describes the excision of both internal and external hemorrhoids, which matches the procedure described. The ICD-10-CM codes K64.0 (First degree hemorrhoids) and K64.4 (Residual hemorrhoids) describe the conditions treated.

The spleen is a part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for filtering blood, removing damaged blood cells, and supporting immune function. The spleen contains lymphocytes that help fight infections and regulate the immune response.

A. Nervous: The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, unrelated to immune function.

B. Endocrine: The endocrine system regulates hormones through glands like the thyroid and pancreas, not directly involved with blood filtration or immune cell production.

C. Digestive: While the spleen is located near digestive organs, it does not play a role in digestion.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Lymphatic.

88027 = Autopsy, gross and microscopic, with CNS examination

88016/88020 exclude spinal cord or microscopy

1. Procedure Type and CPT® Code Selection:

The physician performed an injection into the wrist joint for degenerative osteoarthritis management using Synvisc (a viscosupplementation product).

Code 20606 is the correct CPT® code for an arthrocentesis, aspiration, and/or injection procedure in an intermediate joint, such as the wrist. This code specifically includes the use of ultrasound guidance, which is often standard in such injections.

Code 20551 (injection of a single tendon origin) and 20526 (injection into a carpal tunnel) are incorrect here as they do not apply to intra-articular injections for joint osteoarthritis management.

2. Diagnosis Code Selection (ICD-10-CM):

The diagnosis is degenerative osteoarthritis in the right wrist.

ICD-10-CM Code M19.231 is used for primary osteoarthritis of the right wrist. This code directly reflects the diagnosis of primary osteoarthritis affecting this specific joint.

M19.031 would represent primary osteoarthritis in the wrist but does not specify laterality; therefore, it is less accurate than M19.231, which denotes the right wrist.

3. Summary of Code Application:

The correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are 20606 for the injection procedure and M19.231 for primary osteoarthritis of the right wrist.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC CPC guidelines, proper joint injection codes require specific identification of the joint location and guidance if used. Additionally, selecting the most specific ICD-10-CM code for laterality is essential for accuracy in musculoskeletal diagnoses.

Thus, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, the verified answer is B. 20606, M19.231.

99464 = Attendance at delivery with initial stabilization

99465 is used when resuscitation is required

99460 is for normal newborn care after birth

J1071 = Testosterone cypionate, 200 mg per unit

96372 = Therapeutic IM injection

Vaccine admin codes do not apply

ANESTHESIA

CPT® code 36252 describes selective catheter placement of the main renal artery with angiography of both kidneys, which matches the procedure of selectively catheterizing the right and left renal arteries and performing angiography. Additionally, CPT® code 75625-26 is for an abdominal aortography with interpretation and report. The -26 modifier indicates that the professional component of the service was performed.

The Office of Inspector General (OIG) provides compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for provider practices. This guidance is intended to help healthcare providers develop effective internal controls to monitor adherence to applicable statutes, regulations, and program requirements of Federal healthcare programs. The OIG issues various compliance guidelines and resources to assist organizations in establishing comprehensive compliance programs to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse.

OIG Compliance Program Guidance, AMA's CPT® Professional Edition, and healthcare compliance resources.

ICD-10-CM guidelines state that healing pressure ulcers are coded as the stage documented.

L89.624 = Pressure ulcer of left heel, stage 4

Stage 4 ulcers involve full-thickness tissue loss and are commonly referenced in exam scenarios involving treatment of healing ulcers

Unspecified stage or laterality codes are not appropriate when documentation supports specificity.

00537 = Anesthesia for EP procedures

P1 = Normal healthy patient

11403 = Excision of benign lesion, trunk, 2.1–3.0 cm

Simple closure is included in excision codes

No separate closure code is reported.

Correct answer: A

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the removal and replacement of an inflatable penile prosthesis due to erectile dysfunction.

CPT® Code 54416 is specifically used for the removal and replacement of a multi-component inflatable penile prosthesis. This code accurately describes the procedure performed.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 54401 represents the initial insertion of a multi-component inflatable penile prosthesis but does not cover removal and replacement, making it inappropriate for this scenario.

Code 54400 is for the insertion of a non-inflatable (malleable) penile prosthesis, which does not apply here as the prosthesis is inflatable.

Code 4417 does not exist in the CPT® coding system and is likely a typo or incorrect option.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 54416 is the correct code when an inflatable prosthesis requires both removal and replacement, without the need for additional modifiers for this procedure.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® guidelines is D. 54416.