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SPLK-5002 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

An EDR tool was recently purchased and needs to be integrated into existing Splunk SOAR playbooks. Which actions are typically associated with this type of asset?

A.

Block device, remove email, detonate URL, get indicator

B.

Block hash, block process, quarantine device, get indicator

C.

Block URL, block subdomain, quarantine device, get indicator, detonate URL

D.

Block hash, reset user password, quarantine device, get indicator

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Question # 7

Which fields are used to determine asset priority, when priority is assigned through an asset and identity lookup?

A.

dest, src, or dvc

B.

dest, src, or tag

C.

user or src_user

D.

dest_user or src_user

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Question # 8

An engineer notices that a detection is creating multiple Findings (notables) for the same potential incident. Which setting can be adjusted to reduce the number of generated findings (notables)?

A.

Correlation search throttling

B.

Correlation search priority

C.

Adaptive risk modifier

D.

Adaptive response actions

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Question # 9

What field is used by default to direct data into CIM data model datasets?

A.

tag

B.

sourcetype

C.

source

D.

dataset

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Question # 10

Based on a recent red team exercise, an organization is highly concerned about pass-the-hash attacks, especially including tools like Empire. Which EventCode associated with PowerShell Script Block Logging would be used to detect this activity?

A.

EventCode=4104

B.

EventCode=4126

C.

EventCode=4624

D.

EventCode=4168

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Question # 11

Which tool can help identify known tactics, techniques, and procedures that a threat group is most likely to use when targeting a financial organization?

A.

The MITRE ATT & CK® Posture panel within Mission Control ' s Incident Review page

B.

The MITRE ATT & CK® matrix ' s industry heatmap in Splunk Security Essentials

C.

The Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain® Posture panel within Enterprise Security ' s Incident Review page

D.

Splunk Threat Intelligence Management

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Question # 12

MITRE D3FEND® is designed to complement MITRE ' s list of adversarial tactics, techniques, and common knowledge (ATT & CK). Which tactics are associated with MITRE D3FEND in order to detect, deny, and disrupt adversarial efforts?

A.

Harden, Detect, Isolate, Disrupt, Evict

B.

Harden, Detect, Enrich, Define, Eradicate

C.

Harden, Detect, Isolate, Deceive, Evict

D.

Harden, Detect, Exhaust, Deceive, Eradicate

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Question # 13

Which syntax is correct to create two new rows on an existing threat intelligence collection?

A.

curl -k -u admin\:pass https://localhost:8089/services/data/threat_intel/item/email_intel -d item= ' [{ " src_user " : " user_new " , " subject " : " click this " },{ " src_user " : " user2_new " , " subject " : " click this " }] ' -G -X

B.

curl -k -u admin\:pass https://localhost:8089/services/data/threat_intel/item/email_intel -d item= ' [{ " src_user " : " user_new " , " subject " : " click this " }] '

C.

curl -k -u admin\:pass https://localhost:8089/services/data/threat_intel/item/email_intel -d item= " [{ " src_user " : " user_new " , " subject " : " click this " },{ " src_user " : " user2_new " , " subject " : " click this " }] "

D.

curl -k -u admin\:pass https://localhost:8089/services/data/threat_intel/item/email_intel -d item= ' [{ " src_user " : " user_new " , " subject " : " click this " }] ' -G -X

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Question # 14

When creating a new playbook to be called directly from Mission Control or Enterprise Security, which type of playbook must be used?

A.

Input

B.

Automation

C.

Process

D.

Response

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Question # 15

What external support consideration should an engineer account for if they plan to automate the disabling of a system or user?

A.

Communicate the actions to the IT Help Desk.

B.

Enable logging on the playbook.

C.

Validate that the system or user is not already disabled.

D.

Add the " support " tag to the playbook.

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Question # 16

Which type of correlation search reviews the events in the risk index and uses an aggregation of events impacting a single risk object to generate risk notables?

A.

Risk Category

B.

Risk Rule

C.

Risk Incident Rule

D.

Risk Incident Notable

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Question # 17

How can you incorporate additional context into notable events generated by correlation searches?

A.

By adding enriched fields during search execution

B.

By using the dedup command in SPL

C.

By configuring additional indexers

D.

By optimizing the search head memory

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Question # 18

The following SPL is designed to report on a certain SOC metric. Which metric is the most likely topic for this report?

| tstats summariesonly=true earliest(_time) as _time

FROM datamodel=Incident_Management

BY " Notable_Events.Meta.rule_id "

| rename " Notable_Events.Meta.* " as " * "

| lookup update=true incident_updates_lookup rule_id OUTPUTNEW time

| search time=*

| stats earliest(_time) as create_time, min(time) as triage_time by rule_id

| eval diff=triage_time-create_time,

stat_type=if(

create_time < relative_time(now(), " -7d@d " ),

" past " ,

" current "

),

past=if(stat_type= " past " , 1, 0),

current=if(stat_type= " current " , 1, 0),

past_diff=if(stat_type= " past " , diff, 0),

current_diff=if(stat_type= " current " , diff, 0)

| stats sum(past) AS past,

sum(current) AS current,

sum(past_diff) AS past_diff,

sum(current_diff) AS current_diff

| eval past=round(past_diff/past/60),

current=round(current_diff/current/60)

| table past, current

| transpose

A.

Mean time to Triage

B.

Mean time to Respond

C.

Mean time to Resolve

D.

Dwell Time

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Question # 19

A Splunk administrator needs to integrate a third-party vulnerability management tool to automate remediation workflows. What is the most efficient first step?

A.

Set up a manual alerting system for vulnerabilities

B.

Use REST APIs to integrate the third-party tool with Splunk SOAR

C.

Write a correlation search for each vulnerability type

D.

Configure custom dashboards to monitor vulnerabilities

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Question # 20

Which of the following should an engineer do as they evaluate their Threat Detection and Incident Response lifecycle?

A.

Focus efforts on the least impactful threat vectors.

B.

Use the MITRE ATT & CK Framework to evaluate the organization ' s risk appetite.

C.

Evaluate the threat process lifecycle solely from predefined technical profiles.

D.

Evaluate the threat process lifecycle based on contextual business and industry knowledge.

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Question # 21

An engineer receives a report that the “Traffic over time by action” dashboard is not populating. It has been confirmed that the relevant logs are being ingested properly and they are CIM compliant. What other configuration may be missing?

A.

The Network Sessions data model should be accelerated.

B.

The Performance data model is missing the network dataset.

C.

The Network Traffic data model should be accelerated.

D.

The Network Sessions data model has been deleted.

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Question # 22

An engineer adds a custom event status of ' Testing ' and accidentally makes it the new default status. Their SOC calculates some metrics based on Notable status change sequences, starting from the old default status of ' New ' . Which metrics can be affected by this mistake?

A.

Mean Time to Respond, Mean Time to Resolve

B.

No metrics are impacted

C.

Mean Time to Triage, Dwell Time

D.

Mean Time to Resolve, Dwell Time

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Question # 23

What is one method used in ESCU content to calculate a risk score when creating a detection that uses the Risk Analysis adaptive response action?

A.

Risk Score = (Impact × Confidence / 100)

B.

Risk Score = (Risk Object Severity × Confidence / 100)

C.

Risk Score = (Risk Object Priority × Confidence / 100)

D.

Risk Score = (Impact × Priority / 100)

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Question # 24

When developing security metrics, why would a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) that focuses on total perimeter firewall blocks be an ineffective metric?

A.

Perimeter firewalls should be measured on both the number of connections they permit and the number they block.

B.

Perimeter firewalls are exposed to the Internet and therefore subject to automated scanners and attack tools.

C.

The metric is too high level and should instead be broken down by the type of block.

D.

This is a Key Result Indicator, not a KPI; it measures the results of the perimeter firewall ' s actions rather than the performance of the firewall.

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Question # 25

MITRE D3FEND is designed to compliment MITRE ' s list of adversarial tactics, techniques, and common knowledge (ATT & CK). Which tactics are associated with MITRE D3FEND in order to detect, deny, and disrupt adversarial efforts?

A.

Harden, Detect, Exclude, Deceive, Eradicate

B.

Harden, Detect, Isolate, Disrupt, Evict

C.

Harden, Detect, Exclude, Define, Eradicate

D.

Harden, Detect, Isolate, Deceive, Evict

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Question # 26

What document can be helpful in understanding the prioritization of risk when comparing entities in an organization?

A.

A hierarchical organization chart

B.

Infrastructure architecture diagrams

C.

Application architecture diagrams

D.

Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery plan

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Question # 27

A detection engineer is using a threat defense informed strategy to define use cases. Which Splunk app would best facilitate their use case development process by cross referencing detections with the MITRE ATT & CK Framework?

A.

Enterprise Security Content Update App

B.

Splunk Security Essentials App

C.

Enterprise Security

D.

Supporting add-on for MITRE ATT & CK

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Question # 28

Which of the following identifies elements of the Detection Development Lifecycle (DDLC)?

A.

Research, Develop, Document, Test, Deploy

B.

Research, Design, Deploy, Validate

C.

Design, Develop, Deploy, Monitor, Maintain

D.

Design, Develop, Test, Deploy

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Question # 29

Once an engineer has determined that a new detection will fire, what is the next priority for that detection?

A.

Ensure that threat intelligence has been integrated for use with the detection.

B.

Ensure that all annotations, such as MITRE ATT & CK, are attached and understood with the detection.

C.

Ensure that the SOAR playbooks are available to automate the outcomes from the detection.

D.

Ensure that all fields that an analyst would need are present in the output from the detection.

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Question # 30

When should a detection be reviewed or retuned after deployment?

A.

Every 30 days.

B.

Only if it has generated a large amount of false positives.

C.

As defined by the established detection lifecycle.

D.

Only if it hasn ' t generated a finding after several weeks.

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Question # 31

How can an engineer verify if results will return for a potential detection based on historical events within the organization?

A.

Run the detection with appropriate earliest and latest constraints covering the historical events.

B.

Run the detection against production data only within the default current time range.

C.

Run the detection using an inappropriate time constraint that does not cover the historical events.

D.

Run the detection in Splunk Attack Range against the latest Atomic Red Team injections.

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