A group health insurance policy MUST include coverage for which of the following expenses?
Adult dental
Hospice
Adult vision
Over-the-counter dietary supplements
A group health insurance policy in Nevada must include coverage for expenses arising from hospice care. Hospice care is intended for patients with terminal illness and emphasizes comfort, pain control, symptom management, supportive services, and assistance for the patient and family rather than curative treatment.
Nevada’s group-policy required-provisions statute specifically identifies benefits for expenses arising from hospice care. This makes hospice the correct answer. Adult dental and adult vision benefits may be offered by separate policies, riders, employer plans, or benefit arrangements, but they are not universally required in every group health policy. Over-the-counter dietary supplements are not a standard mandated group health benefit and are generally covered only when specifically provided by a policy or health plan.
Hospice coverage should be distinguished from ordinary inpatient hospital coverage. Hospice care may be delivered in a home, residential setting, hospice facility, or other appropriate location, depending on the patient’s needs and the terms of coverage. It frequently involves an interdisciplinary team and includes both patient care and family-support services.
Study Guide references/topics: group health required provisions; hospice care; mandated benefits; supportive services; NRS 689B.030 .
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What is the principal purpose of Medicare supplement insurance?
To replace Medicare Part A and Part B entirely
To help pay certain deductibles, coinsurance, and other gaps in Original Medicare
To provide Medicaid eligibility
To pay only long-term custodial care
Medicare supplement insurance, often called Medigap, is designed to help pay certain out-of-pocket costs left by Original Medicare, such as deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, and other covered gaps, depending on the standardized policy type and current rules. It supplements Original Medicare Parts A and B; it does not replace Medicare coverage. The insured must generally remain enrolled in Original Medicare to use a Medicare supplement policy.
Medigap differs from Medicare Advantage. A Medicare Advantage plan is a private plan through which an eligible beneficiary receives Medicare-covered services, usually with plan networks, plan rules, and an annual out-of-pocket maximum. A consumer generally does not use a Medicare supplement policy to supplement a Medicare Advantage plan. Medigap also differs from stand-alone Part D prescription-drug coverage, which is separately arranged for many Original Medicare beneficiaries.
Producers selling Medicare-related products must make accurate comparisons, use required disclosures, and avoid misleading consumers about benefits, provider access, premiums, or enrollment rights. A client’s health needs, travel patterns, provider preferences, prescription needs, affordability, and enrollment timing are important factors. No single Medicare arrangement is automatically best for every beneficiary.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medicare Supplement Insurance; Original Medicare; Medicare Advantage; Medicare Part D; Medicare Cost Sharing.
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Under a Medicare Supplement policy that is issued in response to a direct solicitation, a policyowner may return the policy to the insurance company for a full premium refund within a MAXIMUM of how many days?
Ten
Thirty
Forty-five
Sixty
A Medicare Supplement policy issued in response to direct solicitation may be returned for a full premium refund within 30 days. This is commonly called a free-look or right-to-return period. It gives the policyowner time to examine the policy after delivery and decide whether the coverage is suitable.
Direct solicitation presents a heightened consumer-protection concern because the purchaser may not have received the same personal explanation and comparison assistance available in a face-to-face sale. The 30-day period allows the consumer to review benefits, exclusions, premiums, Medicare coordination, replacement implications, and suitability without financial penalty.
The policyowner should return the policy within the required period and follow the insurer’s return instructions. Once timely returned, the insurer must refund the premium in accordance with the applicable rule. The free-look right does not mean that every policy can be cancelled at any time for a complete refund; it is a specific statutory or regulatory rescission period following delivery.
Ten, 45, and 60 days are common distractors because various insurance rules use different deadlines. For Medicare Supplement direct-solicitation policies, the tested maximum period is 30 days.
Study Guide references/topics: Medicare Supplement insurance; direct solicitation; free-look period; consumer protections; Nevada Medicare Supplement regulations .
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Medicaid is best described as:
A federal retirement program funded only by payroll taxes
A joint federal-state program that provides medical assistance to eligible individuals
A private insurance policy sold by producers
A Medicare supplement insurance plan
Medicaid is a joint federal-state medical-assistance program serving eligible individuals and families under income, resource, categorical, residency, and other program rules. The federal government establishes broad requirements and provides funding, while each state administers its program within federal parameters. Nevada administers Medicaid through its state health and human-services structure and contracted delivery systems. Eligibility and benefits can vary by category and may change with law and program administration.
Medicaid is not the same as Medicare. Medicare is principally a federal social-insurance program associated with age 65 or older, certain disabilities, and end-stage renal disease or other qualifying conditions. Medicaid is generally means tested, although eligibility is determined by detailed program standards and should never be assumed from income alone. Some people may qualify for both Medicare and Medicaid; these individuals are often referred to as dual-eligible beneficiaries.
A producer should avoid giving legal or public-benefit eligibility advice beyond the scope of insurance licensing. The proper role is to identify the program accurately, explain how private coverage may coordinate where applicable, and direct a consumer to the appropriate state agency or benefits specialist for an eligibility determination.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medicaid; Medicare; Dual Eligibility; Government-Sponsored Health Programs; Nevada Public Health Benefits.
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Group coverage for a handicapped dependent child may be continued if the primary insured submits the required proof to the insurance company within what MAXIMUM period of time after the child reaches the limiting age?
15 days
30 days
31 days
45 days
A group health policy that terminates dependent-child coverage at a stated limiting age must continue coverage for an eligible dependent child who remains incapable of self-sustaining employment because of a qualifying disability and who remains dependent on the insured group member for support and maintenance. To preserve that continuation right, the required proof must be furnished within 31 days after the child reaches the policy’s limiting age.
This is a time-sensitive protection. The purpose is to prevent automatic termination of coverage solely because a dependent reaches the normal age limit when the child remains disabled and financially dependent. After initial proof is provided, the insurer may require continuing proof of incapacity and dependency, but it may not demand that proof more often than permitted by law.
The 31-day rule should be distinguished from notice periods for newborn coverage, conversion rights, premium grace periods, and claim notices. Each insurance provision may use a different time period, so examination questions often test the exact statutory deadline.
Study Guide references/topics: group health dependents; limiting age; continuation of coverage; NRS 689B.035 .
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT about Business Overhead Expense insurance?
It can be obtained only by corporations.
It covers eligible expenses for staff, rent, and utilities.
It reimburses the policyowner for loss of income.
It covers eligible expenses for staff only.
Business Overhead Expense insurance reimburses a business for specified ongoing operating expenses when a business owner becomes disabled. Eligible expenses commonly include employee salaries, rent, utilities, office expenses, and other ordinary fixed costs identified in the policy. Accordingly, choice B is correct. The purpose is business continuity: it helps keep the office or practice operating during the owner’s disability rather than replacing the owner’s personal income. A disability income policy, not Business Overhead Expense insurance, is the product intended to replace an individual’s lost earned income. The coverage is not restricted to corporations; it may be appropriate for sole proprietors, partners, and owners of closely held businesses, depending on underwriting and policy eligibility. It also is not limited to staff expenses alone, because rent, utilities, and other contractually covered overhead are central components of the protection. Benefits are generally limited by the actual covered overhead incurred and the policy’s monthly benefit amount. Study Guide References/Topics: Taxation and Business Uses of Health Insurance; Disability Income Insurance; Business Overhead Expense Coverage.
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Which statement best describes Medicare Part B?
It is automatic for every person at age 55.
It is medical insurance and generally requires enrollment and a monthly premium.
It provides only outpatient prescription-drug benefits.
It is Medicaid coverage for low-income individuals.
Medicare Part B is the medical-insurance portion of Original Medicare. It generally helps cover physician services, outpatient care, diagnostic services, preventive care, durable medical equipment, and other covered medical services. Enrollment is generally voluntary, although it may be automatic for certain people who are already receiving Social Security benefits. Most individuals pay a monthly Part B premium, and higher-income beneficiaries may pay an income-related additional amount.
Part B should not be confused with Medicare Part D, which provides outpatient prescription-drug coverage, or with Medicaid, which is a joint federal-state program for eligible individuals with limited income and resources. Part B also differs from Part A, which is primarily hospital insurance. Delaying Part B enrollment without qualifying employer coverage can result in late-enrollment penalties and gaps in coverage, so producers should avoid casual advice and instead direct consumers to current Medicare enrollment guidance.
When discussing Medicare-related products, producers must accurately identify whether a client has Original Medicare, a Medicare Advantage plan, a Medicare supplement policy, and/or a Part D prescription-drug plan. These arrangements have different rules, premiums, provider networks, and cost-sharing structures.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medicare Part B; Original Medicare; Enrollment Periods; Medicare Premiums; Medicare Supplement Products.
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Which of the following benefits are usually EXCLUDED or limited under a Long Term Care policy?
Hospice care
Home health care
Skilled nursing
Addictive behavior rehabilitation
Long-term care insurance is intended to provide benefits for qualified services needed because of chronic illness, cognitive impairment, or inability to perform activities of daily living. Typical covered settings and services include skilled nursing facilities, home health care, and hospice care, subject to the policy’s benefit triggers, elimination period, daily or monthly limits, and plan of care requirements. Therefore, choice D is correct. Treatment or rehabilitation for addictive behavior is commonly excluded or restricted because it is not ordinarily a qualifying l ong-term care service under the policy’s chronic-care purpose. Long-term care insurance is not the same as comprehensive medical insurance, disability income insurance, or substance-use treatment coverage. Before benefits become payable, the insured usually must be certified as chronically ill, often based on inability to perform at least two activities of daily living or severe cognitive impairment. Policies may cover institutional care, assisted living, adult day care, respite care, and home-based services, but each benefit is subject to contractual definitions and limits. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Long-Term Care Insurance; Long-Term Care Exclusions and Benefit Triggers.
An incorporated licensee who seeks to do business under a fictitious name is required to file a document about the name with the:
National Association of Health Underwriters
Nevada Insurance Commissioner
National Association of Insurance and Financial Advisors
Nevada Attorney General ' s office
An incorporated insurance licensee using a name other than its true legal name must obtain approval and file the required fictitious-name documentation with the Nevada Insurance Commissioner. This ensures that insurance business is conducted under a name that has been reviewed, recorded, and can be connected to the actual licensed person or entity responsible for the transaction. It supports consumer protection, regulatory oversight, complaint handling, and enforcement of licensing laws.
Nevada’s producer-licensing law requires an applicant or licensee wishing to use a name other than the true name shown on the license to submit a request for approval and file with the Commissioner a certified copy of the applicable certificate. The purpose is not merely administrative. A producer may not use a trade, assumed, or fictitious name in a way that could conceal the responsible licensee or mislead an insurance consumer.
The Attorney General, NAHU, and NAIFA do not approve fictitious names used by Nevada insurance licensees. The Nevada Division of Insurance, acting through the Commissioner, is the proper regulatory authority.
Study Guide references/topics: Nevada producer licensing; use of true or fictitious names; regulatory authority of the Commissioner; NRS 683A.301 .
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Basic cancer plans pay for all of the following EXCEPT:
immunotherapy
chemotherapy
physical therapy
radiotherapy
Basic cancer policies are limited-benefit plans intended to supplement, rather than replace, comprehensive medical coverage. They commonly provide benefits for cancer-specific treatment such as chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and immunotherapy, subject to the policy’s definitions, schedules, and limits. Therefore, choice C is correct because physical therapy is not ordinarily a core cancer-treatment benefit under a basic cancer policy. Physical therapy may be covered under a comprehensive medical plan or under a more expansive supplemental policy if expressly included, but it is not a standard basic cancer-plan benefit. Cancer policies can pay specified amounts for surgery, hospital confinement, physician services, diagnostic testing, drugs, radiation, chemotherapy, or other treatment tied directly to a covered cancer diagnosis. The insured should not assume that every medical expense arising during cancer treatment is covered. Benefits may be subject to waiting periods, preexisting-condition restrictions, recurrence rules, benefit schedules, and exclusions. The appropriate exam distinction is between benefits directly associated with treatment of cancer and general rehabilitative or medical services that are not expressly included in the cancer policy. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Limited-Coverage Health Policies; Cancer Insurance.
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When a nonqualified annuity is surrendered for more than the owner’s investment in the contract, how is the gain generally treated for federal income-tax purposes?
As a tax-free return of principal only
As ordinary income
As a long-term capital gain in all cases
As a deductible business loss
Gain from a nonqualified annuity is generally taxed as ordinary income when distributed. The owner’s investment in the contract, often called the cost basis, is not taxed again because it was paid with after-tax dollars. However, the growth above that basis is tax-deferred only while it remains inside the annuity. When the owner surrenders the contract or receives a taxable distribution, the gain is subject to ordinary-income treatment rather than the preferential capital-gains treatment that may apply to certain investments.
A nonqualified annuity is funded with after-tax money and is not held inside a qualified retirement arrangement such as an IRA or employer plan. The contract’s tax deferral can be valuable for long-term planning, but it does not mean that every distribution is tax free. In addition, distributions before age 59½ may be subject to an additional federal tax penalty unless an exception applies. A full surrender may also trigger a surrender charge under the contract if it occurs during the surrender-charge period.
The producer should never present an annuity as tax avoidance. The accurate explanation is tax deferral, possible ordinary-income taxation of gain upon distribution, potential penalties for early distributions, and the importance of consulting a qualified tax adviser for individual circumstances.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Annuity Taxation; Nonqualified Annuities; Cost Basis; Tax Deferral; Surrender Charges.
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The Nevada Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association is financed by which of the following methods?
Assessing member insurance companies
Assessing insureds
Assessing agent association members
Assessing a premium tax
The Nevada Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association is financed through assessments on member insurance companies. Insurers authorized to transact covered life, health, or annuity business in Nevada are members of the Association as a condition of their authority to operate in the state. When an assessment is necessary, the Association assesses member insurers according to the statutory assessment system.
The Association exists to provide limited protection when a member insurer becomes impaired or insolvent and cannot meet covered contractual obligations. It is not financed by direct assessments against insureds, policyowners, agents, or association members. It is also not simply funded through a general premium tax imposed on consumers.
Nevada law establishes assessment classes, including assessments for administrative and legal expenses and assessments needed to carry out the Association’s obligations regarding an impaired or insolvent insurer. Member insurers may consider the cost of assessments when establishing rates and dividends, but that does not change the source of the Association’s direct funding: the member insurers themselves.
The Guaranty Association is a safety mechanism with statutory limits. It is not a substitute for evaluating an insurer’s financial strength, and insurers and producers may not use its existence as a sales inducement.
Study Guide references/topics: insurer insolvency; guaranty associations; member insurer assessments; NRS Chapter 686C .
A Major Medical policy insured is injured in an auto collision during a police chase. The occupants in the police car are killed. The insured is convicted of reckless driving and manslaughter. If the insured files a claim, the insurance company will MOST likely take which of the following actions?
Pay full benefits
Pay partial benefits
Deny the claim only
Deny the claim and return the premiums paid
Major medical coverage pays covered medical expenses resulting from accidental injury or sickness, subject to the policy’s stated exclusions and limitations. The facts establish reckless and criminal conduct, but they do not establish an intentional self-inflicted injury or identify a policy exclusion that removes coverage. Therefore, choice A is the best answer: the insurer will pay the covered benefits according to the policy. Insurance examination questions require careful separation of criminal conduct from intentional injury. Reckless driving and a resulting conviction do not automatically mean that the insured intended to injure himself. A health insurer may deny a claim only when a valid policy exclusion, limitation, misrepresentation defense, or other contract basis applies. The insurer does not reduce benefits merely to “partial benefits” because of the conviction, and it does not return all premiums after denying a properly covered accidental-injury claim. The controlling analysis is the policy language, including exclusions for intentional self-inflicted injury, war, occupational losses, or other listed circumstances. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Major Medical Insurance; Exclusions and Limitations.
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A group health policy that covers hospital expenses MUST also cover:
burial expenses
elective cosmetic surgery
travel expenses for caretakers
routine physical examinations
A group health policy that provides hospital-expense coverage must also provide coverage for routine physical examinations. Routine examinations are preventive services intended to identify health concerns early, promote wellness, and reduce the risk that a medical condition will progress before treatment begins.
Burial expenses are not health-insurance benefits. They are ordinarily addressed through life insurance, final-expense coverage, or other arrangements. Elective cosmetic surgery is generally excluded unless it is medically necessary, reconstructive, or otherwise required by the policy or applicable law. Travel expenses for caretakers are likewise not a standard mandatory group health benefit.
The key point is that group health coverage is not confined to hospitalization after illness or injury occurs. Required provisions can include preventive and health-maintenance benefits. Routine physical examinations allow the insured to receive medical assessment before a condition requires hospital confinement or major treatment.
The exact scope of a routine examination, frequency limitations, network requirements, and whether additional diagnostic services are covered may depend on the policy and applicable preventive-care rules. But among the choices, routine physical examinations are the mandated benefit associated with hospital-expense group coverage.
Study Guide references/topics: group health required provisions; hospital expense coverage; preventive care; routine physical examinations; Nevada group-health policy requirements .
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As a condition to granting a loan, a creditor can:
require insurance coverage through a specific insurer
require insurance in an amount greater than the debt
assess a higher interest rate if insurance is not purchased
accept assignment from an existing policy
A creditor may accept an assignment from an existing policy as security for a loan. When consumer credit insurance is required as additional security for debt, Nevada law allows the debtor to furnish the required insurance through existing policies owned or controlled by the debtor, or through any insurer authorized to transact insurance in Nevada.
A creditor may not require the borrower to purchase insurance from a particular insurer. That would improperly limit the borrower’s freedom of choice. The creditor also may not require coverage in an amount greater than the debt being secured. Credit insurance is intended to protect the creditor against the unpaid obligation, not to create excess insurance for the creditor’s benefit.
Similarly, a creditor may not impose a higher interest rate merely because the borrower declines to purchase credit insurance. Credit insurance must not be represented as a mandatory condition of loan approval when it is optional.
Assignment allows the borrower’s existing coverage to be used as collateral or security without forcing the borrower to buy duplicative insurance. The creditor may require proof that the existing insurance is adequate for the risk and debt involved.
Study Guide references/topics: credit insurance; creditor-debtor relationship; assignment; consumer protections; NRS 690A.140 .
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Under the Guaranteed Renewable provision in a policy issued to a group of persons having a common occupation, an insurance company may NOT terminate coverage on a group member if the member:
ceases to fall within the eligible classification
ceases to be actively employed
reaches the age specified in the policy
becomes disabled
The correct answer is D. A guaranteed renewable provision protects an insured against termination based solely on health deterioration or disability, provided the premium is paid and the insured continues to meet the policy’s stated conditions. Therefore, the insurer may not terminate coverage merely because the member becomes disabled. The insurer may, however, terminate or end coverage when a member no longer meets an eligibility requirement, such as leaving the eligible occupational classification, ceasing active employment, or reaching a policy-specified terminating age. Those conditions concern the member’s contractual eligibility for the group coverage rather than the member’s health status. Guaranteed renewable does not necessarily mean that premiums can never change. The insurer may generally change premiums on a class basis, but it cannot single out one insured for an individual premium increase or cancellation because that person became ill or disabled. This concept should be distinguished from noncancellable coverage, which provides stronger protection by preventing the insurer from changing either premiums or benefits during the stated period. Study Guide References/Topics: Group Health Insurance; Renewability Provisions; Guaranteed Renewable Coverage.
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A doctor who is receiving Disability Income benefits is not able to return to work full-time but continues practicing on a part-time basis. Which of the following policy features would allow the doctor to continue receiving benefits?
A Residual Benefit clause
A Contingent Benefit clause
A Concurrent Benefit clause
A Guaranteed Insurability rider
The correct answer is A. A residual benefit clause permits an insured who has returned to work on a limited basis, but still suffers a loss of income because of disability, to receive partial disability benefits. The doctor is able to practice part-time but cannot resume full-time work, so the disability continues to cause an earnings loss. Residual benefits are intended to encourage rehabilitation and return to productive work without forcing the insured to lose all benefits immediately. The benefit amount is usually tied to the percentage of income lost compared with pre-disability earnings, subject to policy requirements. A contingent benefit clause and concurrent benefit clause are not the standard disability-income provisions that address partial return to work. A guaranteed insurability rider permits future increases in coverage without proof of insurability; it does not pay benefits for a continuing partial disability. Residual disability should be distinguished from total disability, which generally requires inability to perform the duties defined in the policy. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Disability Income Insurance; Residual Disability Benefits.
Which of the following policies provides a specified income benefit when the insured person becomes unable to work because of illness or accident?
Emergency Income
Supplemental Income
Temporary Income
Disability Income
Disability Income insurance is designed to replace a portion of an insured’s earned income when illness or accidental injury prevents the insured from working. Choice D is correct. Unlike medical expense insurance, which pays for covered health-care costs, disability income coverage pays a stated periodic benefit—commonly monthly—to help the insured meet ordinary financial obligations during disability. Benefits are subject to the policy definition of disability, elimination period, benefit period, maximum monthly benefit, and any offsets or residual-disability provisions. “Emergency Income,” “Supplemental Income,” and “Temporary Income” are not standard policy classifications that describe the core income-replacement product tested here. Disability policies may be written on an own-occupation, modified-own-occupation, or any-occupation basis, and that definition materially affects when benefits are payable. Individual disability income is commonly purchased by self-employed persons, professionals, and others who want income protection beyond employer-sponsored benefits. Group disability plans often provide short-term and long-term benefits, while individual policies can offer more customized benefit levels, riders, and noncancellable or guaranteed-renewable features. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Disability Income Insurance; Income Replacement.
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An application for an individual Disability Income policy may require all of the following information about the proposed insured EXCEPT for:
marital status and occupation
medical history
other disability policies already in force
the spouse ' s occupation
The correct answer is D. Underwriting for an individual disability income policy focuses on facts that affect the proposed insured’s probability of disability, ability to work, existing income protection, and potential for overinsurance. Marital status and occupation may be relevant to financial and occupational underwriting. Medical history is directly relevant because past and current health conditions can affect eligibility, exclusions, ratings, or benefit limitations. Other disability policies already in force are important because insurers must evaluate the total amount of disability benefits relative to earned income and avoid excessive coverage. The spouse’s occupation ordinarily does not determine the proposed insured’s disability risk or benefit eligibility and is therefore the least relevant item. Insurers also may request information about income, employer, job duties, hazardous activities, tobacco use, prior claims, and other sources of disability income. The producer must obtain complete and accurate answers from the applicant, explain questions when necessary, and avoid making assumptions or completing answers without the applicant’s direction. Study Guide References/Topics: Completing the Application, Underwriting, and Delivering the Policy; Disability Income Underwriting; Application Information.
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The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that:
interest charged on premium loans be limited to a specified amount
applicants be advised that a consumer report may be requested
insurance companies treat insureds fairly and not discriminate
insurance companies pay interest on claims that are paid late
The Fair Credit Reporting Act governs the collection, use, and disclosure of consumer-report information. Choice B is correct because an insurance applicant must receive appropriate notice when an insurer may obtain a consumer report or investigative consumer report in connection with underwriting. Consumer reports can contain information relevant to an insurer’s evaluation of risk, including credit-related information and other data permitted by law. The notice requirement promotes transparency and gives applicants the opportunity to understand that reporting information may be used in the underwriting process. The remaining choices concern different legal issues. Interest on premium loans is governed by policy and insurance-law rules, not the FCRA. Unfair discrimination is addressed through insurance regulation and unfair-trade-practice standards. Interest for late claim payments is governed by applicable claims-handling requirements, not the FCRA. The FCRA permits insurance companies to obtain consumer reports only for a permissible purpose and imposes duties regarding notices and adverse actions when report information is used. See the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau’s FCRA guidance . Study Guide References/Topics: Nevada Insurance Regulation and Licensing; Consumer Reports; Fair Credit Reporting Act.
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In order to be covered under the Nevada Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association, an insurance company MUST be:
rated by AM Best
admitted
a fraternal benefit society
alien
An insurer must be admitted in Nevada—meaning authorized to transact the applicable insurance business in the state—to be a member of the Nevada Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association. Membership is a condition of authority for insurers and health maintenance organizations writing the kinds of coverage protected by the Guaranty Association Act.
The Association provides limited protection when a member insurer becomes impaired or insolvent and cannot meet covered contractual obligations. It is not a general guarantee of every insurance company or every policy. Coverage is governed by statute, subject to eligibility requirements, benefit limits, exclusions, and residency provisions.
An AM Best rating is an independent financial-strength opinion. It may be useful to consumers and producers evaluating an insurer, but it does not determine membership in the Guaranty Association. A fraternal benefit society is specifically excluded from the definition of a member insurer for this purpose. “Alien” refers to an insurer organized under the laws of another country and does not, by itself, establish Association membership; the key consideration is whether the insurer is authorized to transact covered insurance in Nevada.
Study Guide references/topics: admitted versus nonadmitted insurers; guaranty associations; insurer insolvency; NRS Chapter 686C .
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Which person is generally eligible to establish and contribute to a health savings account (HSA)?
A person enrolled in any health plan with no deductible
A person covered by a qualified high-deductible health plan and meeting other eligibility requirements
A person enrolled in Medicare Part A
A person claimed as another taxpayer’s dependent
An HSA is generally available to an eligible individual who is covered by a qualified high-deductible health plan, commonly called an HDHP, and who meets the other federal eligibility requirements. The account is owned by the individual, not the employer or insurer. Contributions may be made by the individual, an employer, or another person, subject to annual contribution limits. Qualified distributions used for eligible medical expenses are generally tax advantaged under federal rules.
Eligibility is not based solely on having a high deductible. The health plan must meet the federal HDHP requirements for the applicable year. In addition, an individual generally cannot be enrolled in Medicare, cannot be claimed as another person’s tax dependent, and cannot have disqualifying other health coverage. Because federal limits and requirements can change, the producer should not provide individualized tax advice and should refer the consumer to current IRS guidance or a qualified tax professional.
An HSA differs from a flexible spending arrangement because unused HSA funds generally remain with the account owner and may carry forward. It also differs from health insurance itself; the HSA is a tax-advantaged account used alongside an eligible health plan.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Health Savings Accounts; High-Deductible Health Plans; Consumer-Directed Health Plans; Tax-Advantaged Medical Accounts.
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After appointing a producer as its agent, when must an insurer generally file its notice of appointment with the Nevada Commissioner?
Within 15 days after the contract is executed or the first application is submitted
Within 90 days after the first premium is collected
Only at the producer’s next license renewal
Before the producer completes any insurance training
In Nevada, an insurer appointing a producer as its agent must generally file a notice of appointment with the Commissioner within 15 days after the agency contract is executed or the first application for insurance is submitted, whichever event triggers the statutory timing. The appointment establishes the producer’s authority to act as the insurer’s agent for the applicable business. An agent is a producer compensated by the insurer who sells, solicits, or negotiates insurance for that insurer.
A producer who is not acting as an insurer’s agent may act as a broker, subject to the statutory definition and applicable requirements. The distinction matters because an agent represents the insurer in the agency relationship, while a broker acts on behalf of the insured or prospective insured and lacks authority to bind an insurer through the broker’s own actions.
The appointment requirement does not replace the producer-license requirement. Before selling, soliciting, or negotiating a class of insurance in Nevada, the person must hold the appropriate line of authority. A life or health producer must therefore have the relevant licensing authority and, when acting as an insurer’s agent, be properly appointed.
Examination questions often test both the 15-day filing timeline and the difference between an agent and a broker.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Producer Appointments; Agent and Broker Distinction; Insurer Appointments; Nevada Producer Licensing; NRS 683A.321.
A Long-Term Care policy provides coverage for:
medical expenses
hospital expenses
custodial care in a nursing home
Medicare Supplement coverage
Long-term care insurance is designed primarily to cover services required when an insured cannot perform activities of daily living independently or has a severe cognitive impairment. Custodial care in a nursing home is a core example of long-term care coverage. Custodial care involves assistance with everyday personal needs, such as bathing, dressing, eating, transferring, toileting, and continence, rather than acute medical treatment.
Long-term care benefits may be provided in a nursing home, assisted-living setting, adult day-care setting, or the insured’s home, depending on the policy. Coverage can include skilled nursing care, intermediate care, custodial care, home health care, hospice care, respite care, and care-management services, subject to policy conditions and benefit triggers.
Hospital-expense and medical-expense policies generally focus on acute treatment, physician services, surgery, hospitalization, and related medical costs. Medicare Supplement insurance is designed to help pay certain Medicare deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments; it is not long-term care insurance.
The distinction is crucial: long-term care insurance addresses prolonged assistance and supervision resulting from chronic illness, disability, frailty, or cognitive impairment, whereas major medical insurance focuses principally on acute medical treatment.
Study Guide references/topics: long-term care insurance; custodial care; skilled care; activities of daily living; nursing-home benefits; Nevada long-term-care regulations .
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What is the primary purpose of a waiver-of-premium rider on a life insurance policy?
It eliminates all future policy loans.
It waives required premiums if the insured becomes totally disabled as defined by the rider.
It guarantees a higher death benefit every year.
It converts term insurance automatically into whole life insurance.
A waiver-of-premium rider keeps qualifying life insurance coverage in force by waiving required premiums when the insured becomes totally disabled as defined in the rider. The rider protects against the risk that disability will interrupt income and make premium payments unaffordable. Once the rider’s requirements are satisfied, the insurer pays or waives the premium according to the policy terms, allowing the coverage and any applicable cash-value features to continue.
The definition of total disability, the waiting period, the age limitation, proof-of-disability requirements, and the duration of the waiver are contractual matters. The rider does not usually mean that premiums are waived for every illness, injury, or temporary work interruption. The insured must meet the stated definition and provide required evidence. Some riders also require that disability begin before a specified age.
This rider should not be confused with disability-income insurance. Disability income pays a periodic benefit to replace a portion of income. Waiver of premium does not provide an income payment; it protects the life policy from lapse due to qualifying disability. It also differs from a payor-benefit rider, which is commonly used with juvenile policies and protects the policy when the premium-paying adult dies or becomes disabled.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Waiver of Premium Rider; Total Disability; Disability Income; Payor Benefit Rider; Policy Continuation.
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The maximum cost share for preventive screening from an in-network provider is:
30%
20%
10%
0%
The maximum cost share for a covered preventive screening received from an in-network provider is 0%. In practical terms, the insured generally pays no deductible, copayment, or coinsurance for qualifying preventive services delivered in-network. This rule is intended to encourage early detection of illness and promote preventive care before conditions become more serious and costly.
Examples of qualifying preventive care can include certain screenings, immunizations, counseling, and wellness services. The precise covered service and frequency may depend on age, sex, medical circumstances, and the applicable preventive-service recommendations. The in-network condition is important because services received outside the plan’s network may be subject to different cost-sharing rules, except where other law or plan provisions apply.
The choices of 10%, 20%, and 30% reflect ordinary coinsurance levels that may apply to nonpreventive treatment or to services that do not qualify for first-dollar preventive coverage. They do not apply to an eligible preventive screening under the in-network preventive-care rule.
Always distinguish preventive screening from diagnostic care. A screening is generally performed when no symptom or suspected condition is being evaluated; a diagnostic service may generate cost sharing depending on the circumstances and plan terms.
Study Guide references/topics: preventive services; in-network providers; deductibles; copayments; coinsurance; HealthCare.gov preventive-care guidance .
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In Nevada, a producer or examining physician who knowingly and willfully makes a false statement on an application for insurance may be guilty of:
twisting
fraud
misrepresentation
coercion
A producer, examining physician, applicant, or other person who knowingly and willfully makes a false or fraudulent statement or representation in, or in reference to, an insurance application may be guilty of fraud. Nevada law expressly prohibits this conduct because insurance underwriting depends on truthful and complete information concerning the proposed insured and the risk.
Fraud requires knowing and willful conduct. An innocent clerical error or an inadvertent misunderstanding may require correction, but the exam question describes intentional falsification. Examples can include knowingly misstating medical history, concealing material treatment, falsifying income information in a disability application, or knowingly submitting an untrue medical statement.
Twisting is an improper sales practice involving inducing a policyowner to replace coverage through misleading comparisons or representations. Misrepresentation is a broader term that may describe false statements in insurance transactions, but the statute specifically identifies false or fraudulent application statements as insurance fraud. Coercion involves forcing or improperly pressuring a person to act and is not the conduct described here.
A producer must ensure that application answers are accurately recorded, should not alter answers without authorization, and should promptly correct discovered inaccuracies before policy issuance.
Study Guide references/topics: insurance fraud; applications; producer ethics; prohibited trade practices; NRS 686A.290 .
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An insurer shall not issue an individual long-term care insurance contract in Nevada unless the insurer has received from the applicant:
a written designation of at least one person, in addition to the applicant, who must receive notice of any lapse or termination of coverage under the policy for nonpayment of premium
a notarized waiver dated and signed by the applicant stating that the applicant has chosen not to designate another person to receive notice of any lapse or termination of coverage for nonpayment of premium
a designation by at least one person, in addition to the applicant, to accept liability for services provided to the applicant
a written designation by the applicant to pay premium for long-term care insurance through either a payroll or pension deduction plan
Nevada requires an individual long-term care insurer to obtain a written designation of at least one additional person who will receive notice if coverage is about to lapse or terminate for nonpayment of premium. This protection is intended to reduce unintended lapses, particularly when an insured experiences cognitive decline, illness, disability, or another circumstance that interferes with managing premiums.
The applicant may instead submit a written waiver, dated and signed, stating that the applicant chooses not to designate another person. The waiver is not required to be notarized. Because option B incorrectly adds a notarization requirement, option A is the best answer as written.
The designated person does not become responsible for paying premiums and does not assume liability for the applicant’s care. The person’s role is simply to receive notice, allowing the person an opportunity to alert the insured or help address an overlooked payment. Payroll or pension deduction is not a required payment method.
Before an individual long-term care policy can lapse for nonpayment, notice requirements apply to both the policyholder and the designated person. This is a key long-term-care consumer-protection provision.
Study Guide references/topics: long-term care insurance; lapse protection; nonpayment of premium; designation of another person; NAC 687B.0681 .
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For which of the following losses would an insurance company MOST likely pay benefits under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy?
Loss of life due to a heart attack
Loss of eyesight due to an accidental injury
Loss of the spleen due to an accidental injury
Partial paralysis due to a stroke
Choice B is correct because accidental loss of eyesight is a standard covered dismemberment loss under most AD & D policies. These policies pay benefits for accidental death and for specifically listed losses, often including loss of life, both hands, both feet, one h and and one foot, sight in one or both eyes, hearing, speech, or specified paralysis. The loss must result directly from accidental bodily injury and occur within the policy’s required loss period. Death from a heart attack is generally illness-related rather than accidental. Loss of the spleen, even when caused by an accident, is not usually one of the specifically scheduled losses in a basic AD & D policy. Partial paralysis due to a stroke is caused by illness rather than accidental injury. AD & D policies are limited-benefit contracts, so the policy does not pay merely because an injury is serious; the loss must match the policy’s defined covered loss. The benefit amount varies according to the loss, with full principal sums often payable for death or loss of both eyes and smaller percentages for certain partial losses. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Accidental Death and Dismemberment; Covered Losses.
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A person insured under a policy of Long Term Care insurance issued pursuant to a direct response solicitation has how many days after delivery to return the policy for a full refund?
Ten days
Thirty days
Forty-five days
Sixty days
A long-term care insurance policy may be returned within 30 days after delivery for a full premium refund if the applicant is dissatisfied for any reason. This is known as a free-look or right-to-return provision. It gives the insured time to examine the contract after delivery and determine whether the coverage is appropriate.
The right is especially important in a direct-response sale, where the consumer may not have met face-to-face with a producer. Long-term care policies can contain detailed provisions concerning benefit triggers, elimination periods, activities of daily living, cognitive impairment, benefit periods, inflation protection, exclusions, premium changes, and nonforfeiture benefits. The 30-day review period allows a buyer to examine those terms without forfeiting premium.
The policy must prominently disclose the right to return the contract and receive a refund. The insurer must make the refund within the required period after the policy is returned. This rule differs from other health-insurance free-look, cancellation, grace-period, and reinstatement provisions, which can use different deadlines.
Study Guide references/topics: long-term care insurance; direct response solicitation; free-look provision; return of policy; NAC 687B.060 .
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Life insurance death proceeds paid to a named beneficiary are generally:
Subject to ordinary federal income tax in every case
Received free of federal income tax, subject to exceptions and special circumstances
Taxed as capital gains
Treated as a deductible premium refund
Life insurance death proceeds paid to a named beneficiary are generally excluded from the beneficiary’s gross income for federal income-tax purposes. This favorable treatment is one reason life insurance is widely used for family income protection, estate liquidity, business continuation, and debt protection. However, the producer should use the word “generally” because exceptions and special circumstances can affect taxation.
For example, interest paid by the insurer because it retains proceeds under an interest option is generally taxable as interest income. Transfers of a policy for valuable consideration can create a transfer-for-value issue. Business-owned life insurance can involve additional notice, consent, and tax rules. Estate-tax treatment is also separate from income-tax treatment; incidents of ownership or other estate-planning facts may cause proceeds to be included in the insured’s taxable estate even though the beneficiary does not owe income tax on the benefit.
Premiums paid for personally owned life insurance are generally not deductible. The producer should not provide individualized tax or legal advice. The proper explanation is that life insurance provides a generally income-tax-favored death benefit, while policy ownership, beneficiary designation, business arrangements, and estate planning should be reviewed with qualified advisers.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Life Insurance Taxation; Death Proceeds; Transfer-for-Value Rule; Estate Tax Concepts; Business-Owned Life Insurance.
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A producer aggrieved by any regulation or order of the Insurance Commissioner may request:
an administrative hearing
injunctive relief through the Secretary of State
legislative review of the case
peer review of the case
A producer who is aggrieved by a regulation or order of the Nevada Insurance Commissioner may request an administrative hearing. Nevada law requires the Commissioner to hold a hearing upon a proper written application from a person aggrieved by an act, failure to act, report, rule, regulation, or order related to the business of insurance, subject to statutory timing and procedural requirements.
The request is a due-process mechanism. It gives the affected producer an opportunity to state the grounds for relief, present evidence, challenge the factual or legal basis of the regulatory action, and create an administrative record. The application must generally be filed with the Division within 60 days after the person knew or reasonably should have known of the action, unless another law establishes a different period.
The Secretary of State does not provide the administrative remedy described in this question. Legislative review and peer review are not the standard appeal mechanisms for an individual Commissioner action. Judicial review may become available after the administrative process, but the immediate remedy tested here is the request for an administrative hearing.
Study Guide references/topics: Commissioner authority; hearings; producer rights; administrative due process; NRS 679B.310 .
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A policyowner borrows money from the insurer using the cash value of a whole life policy as security. If the loan and accrued interest are unpaid when the insured dies, what is the usual result?
The beneficiary receives the full death benefit and the loan is forgiven.
The death benefit is reduced by the outstanding loan and interest.
The insurer cancels the policy immediately when the loan is made.
The cash value is transferred automatically to the beneficiary instead of the death benefit.
A policy loan is a loan made by the insurer to the policyowner and secured by the policy’s available cash value. It is not a withdrawal that automatically terminates the coverage. However, the outstanding principal and accrued interest become indebtedness against the policy. If the insured dies before repayment, the insurer deducts that indebtedness from the amount otherwise payable to the beneficiary. Therefore, the usual result is a reduced death benefit.
This concept is especially important with permanent life insurance, including whole life and certain universal-life policies, because cash value may support policy loans. Interest continues to accrue under the policy’s loan provision. If the debt becomes large enough, it can threaten the policy’s continuation because a lapse may occur if the cash value is insufficient to support the indebtedness and required charges. A producer should explain both the availability of loans and their consequences; presenting a loan as “free money” would be misleading.
Nevada’s life-insurance standards require a loan provision in policies to which the requirement applies. The contractual terms control such matters as interest, notice, repayment, and the effect of indebtedness on policy values and proceeds.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Cash Value; Policy Loans; Nonforfeiture Values; NRS 688A.110—Loan Secured by Policy.
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An insured has a $1,000 deductible and then pays 20% of covered medical expenses, while the insurer pays 80%. What is the insured’s 20% share called?
Copayment
Coinsurance
Elimination period
Stop-loss benefit
Coinsurance is the percentage of covered expenses that the insured shares with the insurer after the deductible has been satisfied. In this question, the insured pays 20% and the insurer pays 80%; this is commonly described as 80/20 coinsurance. The deductible is separate. It is the amount the insured must pay before the insurer begins sharing covered expenses, subject to any services that the policy covers before the deductible.
A copayment is a fixed dollar amount paid for a covered service, such as a stated amount for a physician visit or prescription. It is not normally expressed as a percentage. An elimination period is a waiting period in disability-income insurance before benefits begin. A stop-loss feature, also called an out-of-pocket maximum in many plans, limits the insured’s covered cost sharing after a stated maximum has been reached, subject to plan rules.
Understanding these terms is essential when comparing health plans. A plan may have a lower premium but a higher deductible, greater coinsurance, or a larger out-of-pocket maximum. Producers must clearly explain the consumer’s potential financial responsibility and must not imply that the insurer pays every medical expense once a policy is issued.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Major Medical Insurance; Deductibles; Coinsurance; Copayments; Out-of-Pocket Maximums.
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TESTED 22 Aug 2026
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