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ISTQB-CTFL Questions and Answers

Question # 6

A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of data.

Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Informal Review

C.

Technical Review

D.

Management Review

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Question # 7

During which review process activity are the exit criteria for an inspection defined?

A.

Review Initiation

B.

Planning

C.

Communication and analysis

D.

Fixing and reporting

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Question # 8

Which of the following statements BEST describes the shift-left approach in software testing?

A.

Testing is performed after the development phase is completed.

B.

Testing is performed on the entire system or product.

C.

Testing is performed by an independent testing team.

D.

Testing is performed as early as possible in the software development life cycle.

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Question # 9

Which of the following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase:

I. Usability

II Requirements based scenarios

III Testing parts of the code in isolation

IV Correct order of parameters in API calls

A.

I, Ill

B.

I. II

C.

II. IV

D.

III. IV

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Question # 10

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

A.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the risk-based approach

B.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

C.

Bumdown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach

D.

Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach

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Question # 11

The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).

Which sentence is correct?

A.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

B.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

C.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

D.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.

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Question # 12

Which ONE of the following options CORRECTLY describes one of the seven principles of the testing process?

A.

The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.

B.

Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.

C.

It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.

D.

Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.

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Question # 13

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

B.

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

C.

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

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Question # 14

Which of the following options should NOT be used for writing acceptance criteria?

A.

Reaction time

B.

Scenarios

C.

Input-output mappings

D.

Test charters

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Question # 15

Which of the following should be included in a test status report?

I. Estimation details

II. Total number of open and closed defects

III Actual effort spent

IV. Defect reports

V. Number of executed, failed, blocked tests

A.

III.V

B.

II, III

C.

I. II. IV

D.

II, III.V

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Question # 16

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester?

A.

Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization

B.

Promote and advocate the test team within the organization

C.

Create the detailed test execution schedule

D.

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress

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Question # 17

Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

A.

The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved

B.

The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects

C.

For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards

D.

The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing

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Question # 18

Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

A.

Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.

B.

Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.

C.

A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.

D.

Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.

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Question # 19

A tester created a decision table(DT) given below. While reviewing the DT some of the actions for the given conditions were found to be incorrect. The user is trying to view the profile, which of the given conditions has CORRECT action(s) listed?

A.

C1

B.

C4

C.

C3

D.

C2

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Question # 20

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

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Question # 21

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is TRUE?

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard.

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning.

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

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Question # 22

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

A.

Fixing the cause

B.

Reproducing the failure

C.

Diagnosing the root cause

D.

Adding new test cases

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Question # 23

Which activity is NOT documented in a test plan?

A.

Defining the quality assurance approach

B.

Defining the test approach

C.

Selecting the metrics for test monitoring

D.

Setting the budget for the test activities

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Question # 24

Given the following user story for the development of an online shoe store:

"As a customer, I want to be able to filter shoes by color so that I see, for example, only red shoes in the selection."

Which of the following positive test cases BEST fits to the user story?

A.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes are displayed.

B.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Within 2 seconds all red shoes are displayed, then the other colors.

C.

Precondition: Homepage of shoe store with shoes size 40 is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes of size 40 are displayed.

D.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

User logs in with his customer ID.

Tick "green" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes are displayed.

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Question # 25

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

A.

White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code

B.

box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage

C.

White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures

D.

White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage

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Question # 26

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

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Question # 27

Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

A.

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

B.

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

C.

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

D.

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

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Question # 28

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Question # 29

You are working on creating test cases for a user story -

As a customer, I want to be able to book an ISTQB exam for a particular date, so that I can find choose my time slot and pay the correct amount, including discounts, if any.

The acceptance criteria for this :

1. The dates shown should be from the current date to 2 years in future

2. Initially there should be 10 timeslots available for each day, 1 hour each, starting at 8 AM GMT

3. Maximum 5 persons should be able to select a time slot after which that time slot should become unavailable

4. First timeslot should have a 10% discount

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?

A.

Logon to the site. Book an exam for the current date. Expected result: timeslots should be shown. Change the time to any other date prior to the selected date. Expected result: New slot should become visible.

B.

Logon to the site. Expected result: Default 8 AM (GMT) timeslot should be selected Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: New slot should be booked

C.

Logon to the site. Book 5 exams for the current date. Expected result: Exams should be booked. Book 6th timeslot for the same date. Expected result: The exam should be booked but no discount should be given.

D.

Logon to the site and book an exam for the 8 AM (GMT) timeslot Expected result: You should get 10% discounted price. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: Discount should be removed

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Question # 30

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

A.

6

B.

4

C.

2

D.

6

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Question # 31

What does configuration management enable for testing?

A.

It enables the scheduling of test resources.

B.

It enables the derivation of test cases and test data.

C.

It enables the creation of test progress reports.

D.

It enables the versioning of the test elements.

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Question # 32

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

A.

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

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Question # 33

Which of the following statements are true?

1. Early and frequent feedback helps to avoid requirements misunderstanding.

2. Early feedback allows teams to do more with less.

3. Early feedback allows the team to focus on the most Important features.

4. Early and frequent feedback clarifies customer feedback by applying static testing techniques

Select the correct answer:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

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Question # 34

"Statement Testing" is part of;

A.

Specification Based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Experience based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Question # 35

Which of the following statements about testing in the context of an agile (iterative-incremental) development model is correct?

A.

Unit test and acceptance test ate the most important tests to make sure that the system works as expected.

B.

Each iteration of testing has to be completely finished before a new Iteration of development starts.

C.

Regression testing is necessary whenever a new Increment Is added to the existing system. D. Only certain types of non-functional and explorative testing are performed.

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Question # 36

Which one of the following statements relating to the benefits of static testing is NOT correct?

A.

Static testing enables early detection of defects before dynamic testing is performed.

B.

Static testing reduces testing costs and time.

C.

Static testing increases development costs and time.

D.

Static testing identifies defects which are not easily found by dynamic testing.

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Question # 37

A mid-size software product development company has analyzed data related to defects detected in its product and found out that detects fixed in earlier builds are getting re-opened after a few months.

The company management now seeks your advice in order to reverse this trend and prevent re-opening of defects fixed earlier.

What would be your FIRST recommendation to the company?

A.

Automate existing test suits so that lesser time is spent on execution of each test, and more tests can be executed m the available time thus leading to a lower probability of defects slipping by

B.

Verify existing regression test suite are adequate, and augment it, if required, in order to ensure that defects fixed earlier get re-tested in each subsequent build

C.

Analyze the product modules containing maximum defects, and get them thoroughly tested and defects fixed as a one-time activity

D.

If required, tram the teams responsible for development and testing of the modules containing maximum number of defects, and if this does not help, replace them with more knowledgeable people

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Question # 38

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing.

B.

Reduced test execution limes compared to manual testing.

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts.

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Question # 39

From a testing perspective, configuration management

A.

Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.

B.

Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.

C.

Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality

D.

Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.

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Question # 40

For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running these tests with a test automation tool?

A.

Test coverage is increased

B.

The total cost of the test project always decreases

C.

The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced

D.

The number of found bugs is reduced

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Question # 41

Which statement about use case testing is true?

A.

The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.

B.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

C.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

D.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

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Question # 42

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes statement testing?

A.

In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

C.

In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

D.

In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

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Question # 43

Which of the following is an example of the absence-of-errors fallacy?

A.

Repeating the same test cases will continue to find new defects, even after dozens of executions

B.

A small number of modules contains the most defects

C.

Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful

D.

Other than trivial cases, it is not feasible to test all combinations of inputs and preconditions

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Question # 44

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3)?

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

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Question # 45

In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

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Question # 46

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

A.

It identifies defects in modules and classes.

B.

Simulators and stubs may be required.

C.

It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.

D.

It may be applied using a test-first approach.

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Question # 47

You work as a test manager for a supplier of PC games which can be purchased and downloaded via an online store. A tester from your team recorded the following failure caused by a defect:

    Issue ID: DEF00223167

    Title: Saving after shopping in online shop fails

    Date: 2023-04-18

    Tester: Sabine Meier

    Description: "Saving the game immediately after purchasing it in the online store fails. As a result, the purchase is paid for, but the goods are not delivered."

    Attached data: "log.txt", "screen1.bmp", "screen2.bmp"

During the review of the defect report, you notice that at least one important piece of information is missing for defining how to deal with the defect. Which one?

A.

Severity of the defect

B.

Name of the developer who most likely caused the defect

C.

Tracking the quality of the work product

D.

Ideas for test process improvement

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Question # 48

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

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Question # 49

Which of the following is the BEST example of whole team approach?

A.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

D.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

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Question # 50

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

A.

I, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 51

Which of the following best describes the way in which statement coverage is measured?

A.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

B.

It is not possible to accurately measure statement coverage.

C.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

D.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the test, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

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Question # 52

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

A.

More subjective assessment

B.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

C.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

D.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

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Question # 53

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

A.

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

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Question # 54

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

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Question # 55

Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

A.

Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code.

B.

Static tests should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user.

C.

Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing.

D.

Static testing is done only on the requirements You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code.

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Question # 56

In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.

Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?

I.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.

ii.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.

iii.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.

iv.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.

A.

ii and iii

B.

i and iii

C.

i and ii

D.

ii and iv

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Question # 57

The following state transition diagram describes the functionality involved in a system using fingerprint and password authentication to log onto a system.

How many distinct states of the system are visible in the above diagram?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 58

Which of the following project scenario gives the BEST example where maintenance testing should be triggered?

A.

Completion of architecture of the bank system

B.

Release of the early draft of the low level project design of an loT application

C.

Defect was found in a pre-released version of the customer service application

D.

Delivery of the hot fix to mobile operating system and ensuring that it still works

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Question # 59

Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.

Which of the following examples demonstrates this?

A.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.

B.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.

C.

Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.

D.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.

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Question # 60

Which of the following statements is true in regards to how the context of a project affects the testing process?

A.

The context of testing determines which testing techniques are appropriate for a given project.

B.

The context of testing is not important as long as the test process follows a standard model.

C.

The context of testing only affects the non-functional aspects of testing, such as performance and usability.

D.

The context of testing is fixed and cannot change during a project lifecycle.

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Question # 61

The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

A.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int y = 3.

X = y=z;

B.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int z = 3.

X = z-y

C.

int x = 1.

Int y = 2.

Int z = 3.

Z = x +y

D.

int y = 2

Int z = 3.

Y = z+y

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Question # 62

A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.

You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:

Investment range| Interest rate

R500 to RIO 00010%

RIO 001 to R50 00011%

R50 001 to RlOOOOO12%

RIOOOOl to R500 000| 13%

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?

A.

5

B.

4

C.

8

D.

16

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Question # 63

Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?

A.

Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

B.

Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.

C.

Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.

D.

Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.

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Question # 64

Which ONE of the following options is a PRODUCT risk and NOT a PROJECT risk?

A.

Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.

B.

Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.

C.

Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.

D.

Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.

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Question # 65

A number of characteristics are given for impact of SDLC on the testing effort.

i. Finishing of requirements review leading to test analysis

ii. Both - static and dynamic testing performed at unit testing level

iii. Frequent regression testing may need to be performed

iv Extensive product documentation

v. More use of exploratory testing

Which of the following statements is MOST correct?

A.

i and iv are characteristics of sequential models; ii. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

B.

ii and iv are characteristics of sequential models; i. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

C.

iii and iv are characteristics of sequential models and i. ii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

D.

ii and iii are characteristics of sequential models; iv and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

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Question # 66

The following state diagram is given as basis for state transition testing and contains only valid transitions:

Explanation of the state diagram: States are depicted as nodes. The initial state is I, the final state is F. A state transition is depicted as a directed arrow with the initiating event as a label, e. g. from I to S1 with event a, and is also written as a triple (I,a,S1). Note: A test case is a sequence of events that initiates the corresponding sequence of state transitions.

The state diagram contains the following 7 state transitions:

(I, a, S1)

(S1, a, S2), (S1, b, S3), (S1, c, F)

(S2, a, S3)

(S3, a, S2), (S3, b, F)

What is the minimum number of test cases to achieve 100% coverage of all valid state transitions in the diagram?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

8

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Question # 67

Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Memb1..... Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1,2, 3,5, 8,13,21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers BEST describes how the estimation session should proceed?

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values most optimistic estimate - 1, most likely estimate - 3, and most pessimistic estimate - 21

B.

Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points.

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4> and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)

D.

Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before proceeding to another estimation round

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Question # 68

Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about how a tester should communicate about defects, test results, and other test information?

A.

Testers should include personal opinions and judgements in defect reports and review findings

B.

Testers should emphasize the benefits of testing, such as increased quality and reduced risk

C.

Testers should reject all questions about their test findings and information

D.

Testers should take a command-and-control approach with the project team

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Question # 69

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY NOT part of a test progress report?

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

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Question # 70

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

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Question # 71

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Question # 72

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

C-B-A-D

D.

D-A-B-C

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Question # 73

Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three point estimation technique-Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days Most likely effort (m) -180 person days Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days

A.

180

B.

120

C.

197

D.

20

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Question # 74

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system

B.

Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics

C.

Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests

D.

The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard

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Question # 75

You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

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Question # 76

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Question # 77

Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

A.

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

B.

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

C.

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

D.

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

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Question # 78

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

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Question # 79

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Question # 80

Which ONE of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

A.

Effectiveness depends on the individual testers' skills

B.

Usually conducted when there is sufficient time for testing

C.

Testing without defined time-boxes

D.

Test cases are written once the specifications become available

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Question # 81

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?

A.

While reviewing the test cases, testers have to make guess about the kind of mistakes test cases might contain

B.

Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing.

C.

Error guessing depends on the developers guessing what mistakes testers might make and miss the possible defects

D.

Error guessing doesn't make use of past failures as past failures are not indicators of correct defects

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Question # 82

Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:

I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.

II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.

III. Can lead to the detection of defects.

IV. Can find defects directly.

V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.

Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?

A.

Statements I, III, and IV

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I, II, and IV

D.

Statements II, III, and V

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Question # 83

Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S4

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1

C.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

D.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Question # 84

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage cnteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases.

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques.

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques.

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Question # 85

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

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Question # 86

Which of the following definitions is NOT true?

A.

Test data preparation tools fill databases, create files or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests.

B.

Test execution tools execute test objects using automated test scripts.

C.

Test Management tools monitor and report on how a system behaves during the testing activities.

D.

Test comparators determine differences between files, databases or test results.

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Question # 87

Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

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Question # 88

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

A.

I. Ill

B.

I, IV

C.

II. IV

D.

II. Ill

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Question # 89

You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.

Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room

Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

A.

Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room

B.

Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.

C.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

D.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.

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Question # 90

Which of the following examples represents System Integration testing?

A.

Testing an application m development environment which is similar to the production environment

B.

Testing the system based on specifications using simulator for a sub-system

C.

Testing an application's behaviour to check if it fulfils business needs

D.

Testing if e-commerce website works correctly with a third-party payment gateway

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Question # 91

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is “NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

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Question # 92

Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The lest environment should correspond to the production environment

III Finding defects is not the main focus

IV Testing can be based on use cases

V Testing is normally performed by testers

VI Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

A.

Component - VI

Integration - IV

System -1

Acceptance - 111

B.

Component - IV

Integration -1

System - VI

Acceptance - V

C.

Component-I

Integration - V

System - II

Acceptance - IV

D.

Component - V

Integration - II

System - IV

Acceptance - VI

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Question # 93

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

A.

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

B.

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C.

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

D.

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

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Question # 94

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which a collective authorship process generates a shared vision of user stories?

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

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Question # 95

Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

A.

II, Ill

B.

I, II

C.

I, IV

D.

III, IV

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Question # 96

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.

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Question # 97

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Question # 98

Which of the following BEST distinguishes the terms "validation" and "verification"?

A.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

B.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

C.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

D.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

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Question # 99

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

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Question # 100

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

A.

All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.

C.

All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

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Question # 101

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

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Question # 102

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees

A.

The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

B.

The report is detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends

C.

The report is high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

D.

The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends

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Question # 103

A test score indicator for students produces a performance score based on a combination of the number of consecutive hours studied (below 4 hours, 4 to 8 hours. 9 to 12 hours or above 12 hours) and the average intensity of focus on the material during the study time (low, medium or high).

Given the following test cases:

hours intensity score

T1 3 low55

T2 14 high 95

T3 9 low75

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of all valid INPUT equivalence partitions?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Question # 104

What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?

A.

A misconception that software verification is unnecessary

B.

The idea that fixing defects is NOT important to meeting user needs.

C.

The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success.

D.

The need for constant system quality assurance and improvements.

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Question # 105

Which of the following statements is true?

Select exactly one option (1 out of 4)!

A.

Errors are the inevitable result of software failure.

B.

Defects in the program code may be caused by environmental conditions.

C.

Defects in the program code may result in failures in the program during execution.

D.

Any deviation of the actual from the expected result represents an error.

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Question # 106

Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

A.

The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.

B.

Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.

C.

Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

D.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.

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Question # 107

Consider the following user story about the authentication functionality of an e-commerce website:

"As a logged-in user, I want to change my current password with a new one, so that I can make my account safer".

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a] After the logged-in user has successfully changed his password, an email confirming the change must be sent to him

[b] To successfully change the password, the logged-in user must enter the current password, enter a new valid password, and finally confirm by pressing the 'Change Password' button

[c] To be valid, the new password entered by the logged-in user is not only required to meet the criteria related to the length and type of characters, but must also be different form the last 5 passwords of that user

[d] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters a wrong current password

[e] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters the correct current password, but enters an invalid password

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written first?

A.

The logged-in user enters a wrong current password and views the dedicated error message

B.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters a valid new password (different from the last 5 passwords), presses the Change Password' button, and finally receives the e-mail confirming that the password has been successfully changed

C.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters an invalid password, and finally views the dedicated error

D.

The logged-in user submits a purchase order containing ten items, selects to pay with a Visa credit card, enters credit card information of a valid card, presses the 'Confirm' button, and finally views the dedicated message confirming that the purchase has been successful

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Question # 108

Which of the following statements is true?

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Question # 109

The statement: "Test activities should start in the early stages of the lifecycle, adhering to the testing principle of early testing” is relevant to which of the recognized software development models?

A.

Sequential development model.

B.

Iterative development model.

C.

Incremental development model.

D.

All the above

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Question # 110

Which of the following statements best describes the value of maintaining traceability in software testing?

A.

Traceability helps to identify the root cause of defects and improve the quality of the software product.

B.

Traceability helps to monitor project progress and assess the coverage.

C.

Traceability of test results to risks and residual expenditure helps evaluate requirements coverage.

D.

Traceability helps to identify the root causes of failures and to set priorities for retest and regression testing.

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Question # 111

You are performing the role of tester on an Agile project. Which of the following tasks would be your responsibility?

i. Understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy.

II. Ensuring the proper use of testing tools.

Hi. Coaching other team members in the relevant aspects of testing.

iv. Actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness.

v. Participating proactively in team retrospective meeting, suggesting and implementing improvements.

Select the correct answer:

A.

i, iv and v

B.

i, ii and iii

C.

i, iii and v

D.

iii. iv and v

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Question # 112

When should component integration tests be carried out?

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

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Question # 113

Which of the statements on confirmation testing and regression testing is correct?

A.

Regression tests are performed to confirm that defects have been corrected and no longer lead to errors

B.

Confirmation tests are performed to confirm that changes have no undesired effects

C.

Regression tests are performed to confirm that errors have been corrected and no longer lead to failures

D.

Confirmation tests are performed to confirm that defects have been corrected and no longer lead to failures

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Question # 114

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

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Question # 115

What is typically NOT included in a test progress report?

A.

Information about test obstacles during a test period

B.

Statistics on the success of each tester in finding bugs

C.

Changed risks within the test period

D.

Test status in relation to defined test metrics (including exit criteria)

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Question # 116

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

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Question # 117

Which of the following statements best describes the objective of branch testing?

A.

Branch testing is used to verify the functionality of an application on all logical branches without knowledge of its internal workings.

B.

Branch testing is used to check the interactive reachable branches of the user interface of an application.

C.

Branch testing is used to verify the performance of an application on certain branches.

D.

Branch testing is used to execute some or all branches in the code of an application at least once.

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Question # 118

What is test oracle?

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Question # 119

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

D.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

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Question # 120

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Question # 121

Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

A.

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

B.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

C.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

D.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

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