Cash management refers to an organization’s management of which of the following?
Payment terms
Payroll disbursements
Enterprise resource planning systems
Inflow and outflow of funds
Cash management refers to an organization’s processes for managing the inflow and outflow of funds to optimize liquidity, ensure financial stability, and meet operational needs. This includes overseeing cash receipts, payments, and forecasting cash flow. While payment terms (Option A) and payroll disbursements (Option B) are components of cash management, they are not the comprehensive definition. Enterprise resource planning systems (Option C) are tools that may support cash management but are not the definition itself.
The web source from Corcentric states: “Cash management involves managing an organization’s inflow and outflow of funds to maintain liquidity and meet financial obligations.” This directly supports Option D.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including cash management principles as they relate to AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the definition of cash management as managing cash inflows and outflows.
When applied to T&E, compliance requires which of the following processes?
II and III only (Secure record retention; Traveler location tracking)
III only (Traveler location tracking)
I and II only (Accurate recordkeeping; Secure record retention)
I only (Accurate recordkeeping)
Compliance in T&E processes requires robust systems to ensure financial accuracy and regulatory adherence.Accurate recordkeeping(Option I) is essential to document expenses, support financial reporting, and meet IRS and SOX requirements.Secure record retention(Option II) ensures that records are stored safely to protect sensitive data and comply with retention policies (e.g., IRS rules requiring records for at least three years).Traveler location tracking(Option III) is not a standard compliance requirement for T&E, as it relates more to employee safety or logistics, not financial or regulatory compliance.
The web source from Tipalti states: “T&E compliance requires accurate recordkeeping to support expense reporting and audits, as well as secure record retention to protect data and meet regulatory retention periods.” This supports Options I and II. Traveler location tracking is not mentioned as a compliance requirement in T&E processes, per the SAP Concur source: “Compliance in T&E focuses on documentation, approvals, and data security, not employee tracking.”
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing compliance with financial and tax regulations. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with accurate recordkeeping and secure retention as key compliance processes.
What is blockchain?
A distributed ledger system
A random password generator
An internal audit methodology
An accounts payable collaborative
Blockchain is a decentralized, distributed ledger system that records transactions across multiple computers in a secure, transparent, and tamper-resistant manner. In accounts payable, blockchain can enhance processes like invoice verification and payment tracking by providing a trusted, immutable record. The other options are incorrect: a random password generator (Option B) is unrelated to blockchain, an internal audit methodology (Option C) refers to audit processes, and an accounts payable collaborative (Option D) is not a defined term.
The web source from NetSuite explains: “Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology that records transactions in a secure, decentralized manner, offering potential applications in accounts payable for secure payment processing and invoice tracking.” This directly supports Option A.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including emerging technologies like blockchain. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” includes understanding technologies that enhance AP efficiency and security, confirming blockchain as a distributed ledger system.
On a procurement card statement, which of the following levels of purchase detail is necessary in order to conduct spend analysis?
Level 1 detail
Level 2 detail
Level 3 detail
Level 4 detail
Procurement card (P-card) statements provide purchase data at different levels of detail. Level 3 detail includes comprehensive transaction information, such as itemized descriptions, quantities, unit prices, and merchant category codes, making it suitable for conducting spend analysis to track spending patterns and optimize procurement strategies. Level 1 provides basic data (e.g., merchant name, amount), and Level 2 includes additional data (e.g., tax amounts), but neither is sufficient for detailed analysis. Level 4 is not a standard term in P-card reporting.
The web source from Corcentric explains: “Level 3 data on P-card statements includes detailed transaction information, such as line-item details and quantities, enabling organizations to perform robust spend analysis.” This confirms that Level 3 detail (Option C) is necessary for spend analysis.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including P-card program management and reporting. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the use of Level 3 data for effective spend analysis in P-card programs.
Which of the following are reasons an organization needs a sound records management plan? I. To afford some protection against lawsuits; II. To safeguard vital information; III. To analyze and manage expenditures.
III only
I and II only
I, II, and III
I only
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program highlights the importance of a sound records management plan for AP processes, particularly for compliance, security, and financialanalysis. A records management plan ensures that documents (e.g., invoices, vendor data) are organized, secure, and accessible, supporting legal protection, information security, and expenditure analysis.
Item I (To afford some protection against lawsuits): A records management plan ensures documentation is available to defend against legal claims, such as vendor disputes or audits, providing evidence of compliance. This is a valid reason.
Item II (To safeguard vital information): Records management protects sensitive data (e.g., vendor TINs, payment details) from loss or unauthorized access, ensuring confidentiality and compliance. This is a valid reason.
Item III (To analyze and manage expenditures): Records management enables AP to track and analyze spending patterns, supporting budgeting and cost control. This is a valid reason.
Option A (III only): Incorrect, as Items I and II are also valid reasons.
Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also a valid reason.
Option C (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items are reasons for a sound records management plan.
Option D (I only): Incorrect, as Items II and III are also valid reasons.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “A sound records management plan protects against lawsuits by maintaining auditable records, safeguards vital information like vendor data, and enables expenditure analysis for cost management.” The training video discusses records management as a critical control, citing its role in legal compliance, data security, and financial oversight.
An organization’s mission statement is intended to provide which of the following?
Policies and procedures
Ethics and compliance standards
Methodology and direction
Metrics and benchmarking information
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding the broader organizational context in which AP operates, including governance and strategic objectives. An organization’s mission statement is a high-level declaration of its purpose, values, and strategic direction. It providesmethodology and directionby guiding decision-making and aligning processes with the organization’s goals, rather than detailing specific policies, ethics standards, or metrics.
Option A (Policies and procedures): Policies and procedures are operational guidelines that dictate how tasks (e.g., AP processes) are performed. A mission statement does not provide these details; it sets a broader vision. This option is incorrect.
Option B (Ethics and compliance standards): While a mission statement may reflect ethical values, it is not the primary vehicle for defining ethics and compliance standards, which are typically outlined in separate codes of conduct or compliance policies. This option is incorrect.
Option C (Methodology and direction): The mission statement articulates the organization’s purpose and strategic direction, providing a framework (methodology) for how the organization operates and where it is headed. This is the correct answer.
Option D (Metrics and benchmarking information): Metrics and benchmarking are performance measurement tools, not part of a mission statement, which focuses on vision and purpose rather than quantitative data. This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsbriefly addresses organizational governance, noting that “a mission statement defines the organization’s purpose and provides direction for all departments, including AP, to align their processes with strategic goals.” The training video emphasizes that AP professionals must understand the organization’s mission to ensure their work supports broader objectives, such as cost efficiency or vendor trust. The mission statement is described as a guiding framework, not a detailed operational or compliance document.
Organizations most commonly use wire transfers for which of the following?
Direct deposit of executive pay
High dollar payments
Low dollar bulk payments
Rent or mortgage payments
Wire transfers are a secure and immediate payment method typically used for high-value transactions due to their reliability and speed, despite higher transaction fees compared to other methods like ACH. Organizations commonly use wire transfers for high dollar payments, such as large vendor payments, international transactions, or critical one-time payments.
The web source from Corcentric explains: “Wire transfers are often used for high-value payments where speed and security are critical, such as large supplier payments or international transactions.” This aligns with Option B.
Direct deposit of executive pay (A)is typically handled via ACH for regular payroll.
Low dollar bulk payments (C)are more cost-effectively processed via ACH or checks.
Rent or mortgage payments (D)may use wire transfers in some cases but are not the most common use.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including payment methods like wire transfers. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the use of wire transfers for high dollar payments due to their security and immediacy.
Which party is responsible for providing 1099 information for P-card transactions to the IRS?
Merchant
Card issuer
Card user
Accounts payable
For procurement card (P-card) transactions, themerchantis responsible for providing 1099 information to the IRS, as they are the party receiving payment for goods or services. IRS Form 1099-MISC or 1099-NEC is required for certain payments to non-employee vendors (e.g., independent contractors) exceeding $600 annually, and merchants report these payments directly to the IRS when paid via P-card, just as they would for other payment methods.
The web source from Tipalti states: “For P-card transactions, the merchant is responsible for reporting 1099 information to the IRS, as they receive the payment and must comply with tax reporting requirements.” This directly supports Option A. The card issuer (Option B) facilitates thetransaction but does not report 1099s, the card user (Option C) is typically an employee making purchases, and accounts payable (Option D) manages payments but does not report 1099s for P-card transactions.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS reporting requirements like Form 1099. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the merchant’s responsibility for 1099 reporting in P-card transactions.
Common elements required in a VAT-acceptable invoice include all of the following, EXCEPT:
The customer’s VAT identification number
The date of invoice issue
The VAT rate applied
The supplier’s banking information
TheInvoicestopic in the APS Certification Program covers value-added tax (VAT) requirements for invoices, particularly for organizations operating in jurisdictions with VAT systems (e.g., EU countries). A VAT-acceptable invoice must include specific elements to comply with tax regulations, such as the customer’s VAT identification number, the date of issue, and the VAT rate applied. Thesupplier’s banking information, while useful for payment, is not a mandatory requirement for VAT compliance.
Option A (The customer’s VAT identification number): Required for cross-border transactions or business-to-business sales to verify VAT status and enable zero-rating or reverse charge. This is a mandatory element.
Option B (The date of invoice issue): Required to establish the tax point and ensure proper tax period reporting. This is a mandatory element.
Option C (The VAT rate applied): Required to specify the tax rate (e.g., standard, reduced) and calculate the VAT amount. This is a mandatory element.
Option D (The supplier’s banking information): Not required for VAT compliance. While banking details may be included for payment purposes, they are not part of VAT invoice requirements. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInvoicesstates, “A VAT-acceptable invoice must include the customer’s VAT ID, date of issue, VAT rate, and other tax-related details, but supplier banking information is not required for compliance.” The training video discusses VAT invoicing for international transactions, listing mandatory elements and noting that “banking details are optional, as they relate to payment, not tax reporting.”
In which ways can the accounts payable specialist benefit the organization as a whole? I. Meet the organization’s commitments; II. Communicate to management barriers to performance; III. Maintain positive relationships with suppliers.
II and III only
I and III only
I, II, and III
I and II only
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the strategic role of accounts payable (AP) specialists in managing vendor data and relationships, which directly benefits the organization. AP specialists contribute by ensuring timely payments to meet commitments, communicating operational challenges to management, and fostering positive supplier relationships, all of which enhance organizational efficiency and reputation.
Item I (Meet the organization’s commitments): AP specialists ensure invoices areprocessed and paid on time, meeting the organization’s financial obligations to vendors. This supports trust and operational continuity.
Item II (Communicate to management barriers to performance): AP specialists identify issues such as process bottlenecks, system inefficiencies, or vendor disputes and report them to management, enabling proactive solutions.
Item III (Maintain positive relationships with suppliers): By managing the vendor master file, resolving disputes, and ensuring timely payments, AP specialists foster strong supplier relationships, which can lead to better terms and reliability.
Option A (II and III only): Incorrect, as it excludes I, which is a core AP function.
Option B (I and III only): Incorrect, as it excludes II, which is also a key responsibility.
Option C (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items represent ways AP specialists benefit the organization.
Option D (I and II only): Incorrect, as it excludes III, which is critical for vendor management.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “AP specialists add value by ensuring accurate vendor data, timely payments to meet organizational commitments, and strong supplier relationships.” It also notes that “communicating barriers to performance, such as delays or system issues, helps management optimize AP processes.” The training video reinforces that AP’s role extends beyond transactions to strategic contributions, including supplier trust and process improvement.
According to the IRS definition of an accountable plan, how much time is given an employee to adequately account for business expenses after they are incurred?
120 days
60 days
30 days
90 days
An accountable plan, as defined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), is a reimbursement or allowance arrangement that meets specific requirements to ensure business expenses are properly documented and not treated as taxable income. One key requirement is that employees must adequately account for their expenses within a reasonable period. According to IRS guidelines, employees must submit expense reports or other documentation within 60 days after the expenses are incurred to meet the "reasonable period" standard.
The web source from the IRS states: “Under an accountable plan, employees must adequately account to the employer for their expenses within a reasonable period of time. The IRS considers 60 days after the expense was paid or incurred to be a reasonable period for accounting.” This directly supports Option B (60 days). The other options (120 days, 30 days, 90 days) do not align with the IRS’s specific timeframe for accounting under an accountable plan.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS regulations related to expense reimbursements. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” and compliance with federal tax laws includes understanding the requirements of an accountable plan, such as the 60-day rule for expense accounting.
Which of the following are data security concerns?
I and II only (What data is being accessed; Who is accessing the data)
I and III only (What data is being accessed; For what purpose the data is being used)
II and III only (Who is accessing the data; For what purpose the data is being used)
I, II, and III (What data is being accessed; Who is accessing the data; For what purpose the data is being used)
Data security concerns in accounts payable involve protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access or misuse. Key concerns includewhat data is being accessed(Option I, e.g., sensitive vendor or financial data),who is accessing the data(Option II, e.g., authorized vs. unauthorized users), andfor what purpose the data is being used(Option III, e.g., legitimate business needs vs. fraudulent activities). All three are critical to ensuring data security.
The web source from Esker states: “Data security in AP requires monitoring what data is accessed, who is accessing it, and the purpose of access to prevent unauthorized use or breaches.” This supports Option D, as all three elements are essential data security concerns.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including data security practices. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with comprehensive monitoring of data access, users, and purposes to safeguard sensitive information.
Which of the following are potential red flags for T&E expenses that fall outside of policy?
II and III only (Cab fares; Weekend stays)
I only (Charges for airline upgrades)
I and III only (Charges for airline upgrades; Weekend stays)
II only (Cab fares)
Potential red flags for T&E expenses that fall outside of company policy includecharges for airline upgrades(Option I), which may indicate unauthorized luxury spending, andweekend stays(Option III), which could suggest personal travel disguised as business-related. These expenses often require additional scrutiny to ensure compliance with T&E policies.Cab fares(Option II) are typically routine and not inherently a red flag unless excessive or unsupported, making them less likely to be a policy violation compared to upgrades or weekend stays.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “Red flags in T&E expenses include charges for airline upgrades, which may violate policy on allowable travel classes, and weekend stays, which could indicate personal travel.” This supports Options I and III. Cab fares are noted as common expenses that require receipts but are not typically flagged unless unusual, per the Esker source: “Routine expenses like cab fares are less likely to be red flags compared to upgrades or extended stays.”
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing fraud detection and policy compliance. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with identifying airline upgrades and weekend stays as potential red flags.
When maintaining an audit trail of changes to the vendor master file, which of the following should be recorded? I. Who requested the change; II. Who actually made the change; III. The date the change was made.
I, II, and III
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of maintaining an audit trail for changes to the vendor master file (VMF) to ensure transparency, accountability, and fraud prevention. An effective audit trail should recordwho requested the change(to verify authorization),who actually made the change(to track accountability), andthe date the change was made(to establish a timeline), ensuring a complete record for compliance and audits.
Item I (Who requested the change): Essential to verify that the request came from an authorized individual, supporting internal controls and fraud prevention.
Item II (Who actually made the change): Critical to track the individual who modified the VMF, ensuring accountability and traceability.
Item III (The date the change was made): Necessary to document when the change occurred, aiding in audits and fraud investigations.
Option A (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items are essential components of a VMF audit trail.
Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III (date) is also essential.
Option C (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item I (requester) is also essential.
Option D (I and III only): Incorrect, as Item II (changer) is also essential.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “An audit trail for VMF changes must include who requested the change, who made the change, and the date of the change to ensure transparency and compliance.” The training video reinforces, “Recording the requester, the person making the change, and the date in the VMF audit trail is critical for fraud prevention and audit readiness.”
Which of the following has significantly reduced the number of small dollar invoices to be processed?
Petty cash
Evaluated receipt settlement
Electronic data interchange
Payment cards
Payment cards, such as procurement cards (P-cards) or corporate credit cards, have significantly reduced the number of small dollar invoices processed by accounts payable departments. Byconsolidating small, recurring, or low-value purchases onto a single card statement, organizations can avoid processing individual invoices for each transaction, streamlining AP workflows and reducing administrative costs.
The web source from Corcentric states: “Payment cards, like P-cards, significantly reduce the number of small dollar invoices by consolidating multiple purchases into a single statement, minimizing AP processing efforts.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are less relevant:
Petty cash (A)is used for small cash transactions but does not reduce invoice volume, as it typically bypasses invoicing.
Evaluated receipt settlement (B)eliminates invoices for specific purchases but is not primarily focused on small dollar transactions.
Electronic data interchange (C)automates invoice data exchange but does not inherently reduce the number of invoices.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including the role of payment cards in optimizing AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the use of payment cards to reduce small dollar invoice processing.
What is the current thinking regarding automation of T&E expense handling, reporting, and reimbursement?
While automation can be helpful, T&E processing still requires a lot of manual work
It opens too many loopholes for unauthorized expenses to sneak through
T&E automation solutions are still too new to evaluate accurately
It reduces processing costs, thereby increasing efficiency in handling T&E data
The current thinking on automation of Travel and Entertainment (T&E) expense handling, reporting, and reimbursement is that itreduces processing costs, thereby increasing efficiency in handling T&E data. Automation streamlines tasks like receipt capture, expense report submission,approval workflows, and reimbursement, reducing manual effort and errors while improving compliance and visibility.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “T&E automation significantly reduces processing costs by streamlining expense reporting, improving accuracy, and increasing efficiency in handling T&E data.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are incorrect:
Option A: Automation minimizes, not perpetuates, manual work in modern T&E systems.
Option B: Automation strengthens controls, reducing loopholes through features like policy checks.
Option C: T&E automation is well-established, not too new to evaluate.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing the benefits of automation in expense management. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the efficiency and cost-saving benefits of T&E automation.
Benefits of ACH include each of the following, EXCEPT:
ACH replaces having to issue paper checks
ACH reduces the cost of invoice processing
ACH eliminates the need for vendor verification
ACH speeds up payment processing time
Automated Clearing House (ACH) payments offer several benefits, including replacing paper checks (Option A), speeding up payment processing compared to checks (Option D), and reducing costs associated with manual payment methods. However, ACH does not eliminate the need for vendor verification (Option C), as organizations must still validate vendor bank details to prevent fraud and ensure accurate payments.
The web source from Tipalti states: “ACH payments reduce costs by replacing paper checks, speed up payment processing, and improve efficiency… However, proper vendor verification is still required to ensure secure transactions.” This confirms that Options A, D, and indirectly B (through overall cost reduction) are benefits, while Option C is not.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including ACH as a cost-effective payment method. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes the benefits of ACH but also the importance of vendor validation, aligning with the exclusion of Option C.
All of the following are areas in which accounts payable has a significant influence EXCEPT:
Inventory turnover
Vendor relationships
Cash management
Financial statements
TheInternal Controlstopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the role of accounts payable (AP) in managing financial processes, ensuring compliance, and supporting organizational objectives. AP has a significant influence on several key areas, including vendor relationships (through timely payments and communication), cash management (by optimizing payment timing and methods), and financial statements (by ensuring accurate recording of liabilities and expenses). However, AP typically has minimal direct influence oninventory turnover, which is more closely tied to supply chain and inventory management functions.
Option A (Inventory turnover): Inventory turnover measures how quickly a company sells and replaces its inventory. While AP processes payments for inventory purchases, it does not directly control inventory levels, purchasing decisions, or sales velocity, which are managed by procurement and sales teams. This is the correct answer, as it is the exception.
Option B (Vendor relationships): AP directly influences vendor relationships by ensuring timely and accurate payments, resolving disputes, and maintaining vendor master file data. This is a core AP responsibility, so it is not the exception.
Option C (Cash management): AP plays a critical role in cash management by scheduling payments to optimize cash flow, using electronic payments, and implementing positive pay to prevent fraud. This is a key AP function, so it is not the exception.
Option D (Financial statements): AP impacts financial statements by recording invoices (affecting liabilities and expenses) and payments (affecting cash and liabilities). Accurate AP processes ensure reliable financial reporting, so this is not the exception.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlshighlights AP’s role in “supporting financial integrity through accurate transaction recording and cash flow management.” It notes that AP professionals manage vendor payments and cash outflows, directly affecting vendor relationships, cash management, and financial statement accuracy. However, inventory turnover is described as a supply chain metric, outside AP’s primary scope. The IOFM training video reinforces this by focusing on AP’s responsibilities in payment processing and financial reporting, with no mention of inventory turnover as a direct AP function.
What is a good strategy for dealing with the change that typically accompanies automation?
Request that you be reassigned to a role that is unaffected by automation
If you feel the change won’t be for the best, try to convince management to delay
Don’t worry about it until you must actually implement the changes
Understand and accept that it will take time to learn a new system
Automation in accounts payable often introduces significant changes, such as new systems or workflows. A good strategy is tounderstand and accept that it will take time to learn a new system(Option D), which involves embracing training, adapting to new processes, and recognizing the learning curve. This proactive approach supports successful implementation and long-term efficiency. Requesting reassignment (Option A), delaying implementation (Option B), or ignoring the change (Option C) are not constructive strategies, as they resist adaptation and hinder organizational progress.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “To manage change from AP automation, employees should embrace the learning process, understanding that mastering new systems takes time and training.” This directly supports Option D.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including strategies for managing change during automation. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes proactive adaptation to new technologies.
What is another term for “software-as-a-service”?
Perpetual software license
Onsite vendor support
Consultant-specific applications
On-demand software
Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)is a cloud-based software delivery model where applications are hosted by a provider and accessed over the internet, typically on a subscription basis. Another term for SaaS ison-demand software, as it allows users to access software as needed without on-premises installation. A perpetual software license (Option A) refers to a one-time purchase model, onsite vendor support (Option B) is a service, and consultant-specific applications (Option C) is not a standard term.
The web source from Tipalti states: “Software-as-a-Service (SaaS), also known as on-demand software, provides cloud-based access to applications, enabling flexible and scalable AP solutions.” This directly supports Option D.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including cloud-based solutions like SaaS. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with recognizing SaaS as on-demand software for AP automation.
Which of the following is the purpose of FATCA?
To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.
To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent
To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.
To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA), enacted in 2010 to combat tax evasion by U.S. taxpayers using foreign accounts. FATCA requires foreign financial institutions (FFIs) to report U.S. account holders’ information to the IRS, making it harder for individuals and organizations to hide income offshore and avoid U.S. taxes.
Option A (To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.): Incorrect. FATCA reduces privacy by requiring FFIs to report account details to the IRS, not protect it.
Option B (To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent): Incorrect. FATCA focuses on reporting foreign accounts of U.S. taxpayers, not harmonizing payment reporting rules for U.S. and non-U.S. persons.
Option C (To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.): Correct. FATCA’s primary purpose is to prevent tax evasion by requiring FFIs and certain non-financial foreign entities to report U.S. account holders’ financial information, ensuring taxable income is reported.
Option D (To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries): Incorrect. FATCA addresses U.S. tax compliance, not foreign governments’ tax policies.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “FATCA was enacted to combat tax evasion by requiring foreign financial institutions to report U.S. account holders’ information, making it difficult to avoid taxes through offshore accounts.” TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliance, a recommended IOFM resource, explains, “FATCA ensures compliance by imposing withholding on payments to non-compliant FFIs, targeting U.S. taxpayers hiding income abroad.” The training video reinforces this, noting FATCA’s role in “closing loopholes for offshore tax evasion.”
Each of the following is a goal of a vendor management program, EXCEPT:
Reducing duplicate payments
Streamlining sales and use tax process
Collecting spend information for procurement
Compliance with laws and regulations
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program outlines the goals of a vendor management program, which include preventing duplicate payments, ensuring compliance with laws (e.g., IRS reporting), and collecting spend data for procurement.Streamlining sales and use tax processes, while related to AP, is typically handled through tax compliance systems or purchasing processes, not the vendor management program, which focuses on vendor data and relationships.
Option A (Reducing duplicate payments): A key goal, achieved by maintaining accurate vendor master file data to avoid duplicate vendor entries.
Option B (Streamlining sales and use tax process): Not a primary goal. Sales tax processes are managed separately, often through AP or procurement systems, not the vendor management program. Correct answer.
Option C (Collecting spend information for procurement): A goal, as vendor management provides data on spending patterns, aiding procurement negotiations.
Option D (Compliance with laws and regulations): A goal, ensuring vendor data supports IRS reporting (e.g., 1099s) and sanction list compliance.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Vendor management programs aim to reduce duplicate payments, ensure regulatory compliance, and collect spend data for procurement, but sales tax processes are typically managed outside vendor management.” The training video notes, “Vendor management focuses on accurate data to prevent errors like duplicates and support compliance, not directly on tax processes.”
The acronym “VAT” stands for:
Value assessed tax
Variable added tax
Variable assessed tax
Value added tax
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers value-added tax (VAT), a consumption tax levied on the value added at each stage of production or distribution, common in many countries (e.g., EU, Canada). The acronymVATstands forValue Added Tax, a standard term in tax compliance.
Option A (Value assessed tax): Incorrect. This is not a recognized term in tax regulations.
Option B (Variable added tax): Incorrect. The term does not reflect the concept of value added at production stages.
Option C (Variable assessed tax): Incorrect. This is not a standard tax term.
Option D (Value added tax): Correct. VAT is universally known as Value Added Tax, as defined by tax authorities and IOFM materials.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancedefines VAT as “Value Added Tax, a tax on the value added at each stage of goods or services production.” The training video explains, “VAT, or Value Added Tax, is a key compliance area for AP in international transactions, requiring accurate invoicing and reporting.”
Which of the following techniques is NOT recommended to help protect confidential data?
When leaving your work area even briefly, lock your computer down
Save reports to a portable USB drive and give that to the requestor instead of emailing them
When approached at your desk, turn off your monitor and turn papers face down
Shred unneeded paper documents or put them in a secure disposal container
Protecting confidential data in accounts payable requires secure practices to prevent unauthorized access. Locking your computer when leaving your work area (Option A), turning off your monitor and securing papers when approached (Option C), and shredding or securely disposing of unneeded documents (Option D) are recommended techniques to safeguard sensitive information. However, saving reports to a portable USB drive and giving it to a requestor (Option B) is not recommended, as USB drives are easily lost, stolen, or compromised, posing a significant security risk compared to secure email or file-sharing systems.
The web source from Esker states: “To protect confidential AP data, lock computers when unattended, secure physical documents, and use secure disposal methods. Avoid using portable devices like USB drives for data transfer due to security risks.” This directly supports Options A, C, and D, while identifying Option B as an insecure practice.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including data security practices. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with secure data handling, ruling out the use of USB drives for sensitive reports.
In the U.S., what is the best way to verify a vendor’s business registration?
Send a letter to the vendor requesting written confirmation that the registration is up-to-date
Submit a request to the Internal Revenue Service to do a Form 1120 search
Require a sworn affidavit from the vendor’s financial institution
Check the database of the Secretary of State where the vendor is registered
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program covers vendor validation to ensure legitimacy and prevent fraud. The best way to verify a vendor’s business registration in the U.S. is tocheck the database of the Secretary of Statein the state where the vendor is registered, as this provides authoritative, public confirmation of the vendor’s legal status and registration details.
Option A (Send a letter to the vendor requesting written confirmation): Incorrect. Vendor-provided confirmation is less reliable, as it may be falsified, and is not authoritative.
Option B (Submit a request to the IRS to do a Form 1120 search): Incorrect. Form 1120 is a corporate tax return, not a business registration record, and the IRS does not provide registration verification services.
Option C (Require a sworn affidavit from the vendor’s financial institution): Incorrect. Financial institutions do not typically provide affidavits for business registration, and this is not a standard practice.
Option D (Check the database of the Secretary of State where the vendor is registered): Correct. Secretary of State databases offer verifiable, public records of business registration, the most reliable method.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “To verify a vendor’s business registration, check the Secretary of State database in the vendor’s state of incorporation for authoritative confirmation.” The training video notes, “The best practice for validating vendor legitimacy is accessing Secretary of State records online to confirm registration details.”
TESTED 10 May 2025
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