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IIA-CIA-Part2 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Following an audit, management developed an action plan to improve controls over the handling of scrap metal. Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the auditor to follow up?

A.

Conduct another audit engagement to ensure all risks related to the sales of scrap metal have been mitigated.

B.

Ensure new procedures have been documented, approved, and distributed to the employees responsible.

C.

Perform retesting to confirm that new procedures address the previously identified deficient control activities.

D.

Analyze the new procedures, then report to senior management whether the associated risks have been managed.

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Question # 7

An internal auditor recommended that an organization implement computerized controls in its sales system in order to prevent sales representatives from executing contracts in excess of their delegated authority levels A follow-up review found that the sales system had not been modified, but a process had been implemented to obtain written approval by the vice president of sales for all contracts in excess of S1 million The chief audit executive (CAE) would be justified in reporting this situation to the organization's board under which of the tollowing circumstances'?

1. In the opinion of the CAE the level of residual risk assumed by senior management is too high

2. Testing of compliance with the new process finds that all new contracts in excess of $1 million have been approved by the vice president of sales

3. The cost of modifying the sales system to include a preventive control is less than S100.000

A.

1 only

B.

3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and3

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Question # 8

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

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Question # 9

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

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Question # 10

During an engagement in one of the subsidiaries of an organization, an internal auditor noted the following in the workpapers:

"As a subsidiary of a multinational organization in this particular country, the entity is required to register annually with the

respective ministry. However, the subsidiary did not submit the required documentation for registration during the prior year. Failure

to comply with internal and external regulations could lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities. It is recommended

that the management of the subsidiary ensures compliance with the relevant legislation. As a recoverable action, management

should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible."

What part of this narrative represents a condition of the observation made by auditors in the final report?

A.

" ... the subsidiary did not submit required documentation for registration in the prior year."

B.

" ... the entity is required to register annually with the respective ministry."

C.

" ... failure to comply with internal and external regulations might lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities."

D.

" ... management should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible."

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Question # 11

Which of the following best demonstrates internal auditors performing their work with proficiency?

A.

internal auditors meet with operational management at each phase of the audit process.

B.

Internal auditors adhere to The IIA's Code of Ethics.

C.

Internal auditors work collaboratively with their engagement team.

D.

Internal auditors complete a program of continuing professional development.

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Question # 12

Which of the following recommendations made by the internal audit activity (IAA) is most likely to help prevent fraud?

A.

A review of password policy compliance found that employees frequently use the same password more than once during a year. The IAA recommends that the access control software reject any password used more than once during a 12-month period.

B.

A review of internal service-level agreement compliance in financial services found that requests for information frequently are fulfilled up to two weeks late. The IAA recommends that the financial services unit be eliminated for its ineffectiveness.

C.

A vacation policy compliance review found that employees frequently leave on vacation before their leave applications are signed by their manager. The IAA recommends that the manager attend to the leave applications in a more timely fashion.

D.

A review of customer service-level agreements found that orders to several customers are frequently delivered late. The IAA recommends that the organization extend the expected delivery time advertised on its website.

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Question # 13

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Question # 14

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk.

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization’s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms

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Question # 15

While conducting an audit of a third party's Web-based payment processor, an internal auditor discovers that a programming error allows customers to create multiple accounts for a single mailing address. Management agrees to correct the program and notify customers with multiple accounts that the accounts will be consolidated. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

1. Schedule a follow-up review to verify that the program was corrected and the accounts were consolidated.

2. Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the corrective action proposed by management.

3. Amend the scope of the subsequent audit to verify that the program was corrected and that accounts were consolidated.

4. Submit management's plan of action to the external auditors for additional review.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Question # 16

An internal auditor is asked to perform an assurance engagement in the organization's newly acquired subsidiary When developing the objectives tor the engagement which ot the following statements describes the most important items that the auditor needs to consider?

A.

Previous performance of the subsidiary specifically its financial results over the last three years and the outcome of external audit reviews

B.

The results of previous internal audits of the subsidiary the recommendations provided and whether the recommended actions have been implemented

C.

Organizational strategy objectives, risks, control framework and the expectations of stakeholders regarding the audit

D.

The qualifications and competencies of the subsidiary's management team and their understanding of risk and control

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Question # 17

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management's internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management's assertions?

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management's responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management's operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

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Question # 18

In a small internal audit function, a single auditor is responsible for conducting the entire audit engagement. In this situation, what is the benefit of using a checklist as part of an engagement work program?

A.

Allocation of tasks and responsibilities within the team.

B.

Facilitation of review by business representatives involved.

C.

Overview of results from previous audits.

D.

Retention of an audit trail regarding completion of tasks.

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Question # 19

What type of audit engagement would be the most appropriate to determine how an organization could be more profitable in the long term?

A.

Operational audit

B.

Compliance and financial audit

C.

Performance audit

D.

Quality audit

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Question # 20

An internal auditor is preparing an internal control questionnaire for the procurement department as part of a preliminary survey. Which of the following would provide the best source of information for questions?

A.

A relevant procurement law or regulation.

B.

A list of the company's vendors.

C.

A review of a sample of tenders during the audited period.

D.

A summary of the company's expenditures and their categories.

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Question # 21

An internal audit function described scenarios of fraud indicators and fraud-related key words. The objective is for this data to serve as an input into algorithms that will forecast potentially fraudulent behavior and prevent the execution of flagged transactions. Which of the following analytic methods is the internal audit function most likely developing?

A.

Diagnostic analytics

B.

Descriptive analytics

C.

Prescriptive analytics

D.

Predictive analytics

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Question # 22

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using flowcharts during a risk assessment?

A.

People cannot quickly understand the processes via flowcharts

B.

Flowcharts are not applicable for evaluating the design of controls

C.

Some serious risks that are not part of the linear process can be missed

D.

Flowcharts do not enable auditors to identify missing controls

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Question # 23

Which of the following sources of audit evidence is most reliable?

A.

Evidence obtained directly from an untested third party.

B.

Uncorroborated audit evidence obtained indirectly from an employee.

C.

Undocumented audit evidence obtained directly from a manager.

D.

Timely audit evidence obtained directly from a customer.

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Question # 24

The chief audit executive of an international organization is planning an audit of the treasury function located at the organization's headquarters. The current internal audit team at headquarters lacks expertise in the area of financial markets which is needed tor the engagement When of the following would be the most approbate solution considering the time constraint?

A.

Outsource the engagement 10 tie organization's external auditor who has expertise in the area of financial markets

B.

Hire additional internal auditors who have expertise in the area of financial markets.

C.

Invite a guest auditor from one of the organization's affiliates who has expertise m the area of financial markets.

D.

Limit the scope of the engagement to the knowledge and skills possessed by the internal audit team.

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Question # 25

In addition to gathering information, which of the following is a primary objective of a client interview conducted during the planning stage of an audit engagement?

A.

To obtain sufficient audit evidence.

B.

To test the client's knowledge.

C.

To agree on the auditor’s scope of authority.

D.

To establish rapport.

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Question # 26

While reviewing engagement workpapers prepared by an internal audit team, the engagement supervisor identifies instances where there is no direct connection between certain workpapers and the engagement objectives. How should the engagement supervisor respond?

A.

Request that the internal auditors remove irrelevant workpapers from the records.

B.

Sign off on all workpapers, and arrange the documentation from most relevant to least relevant.

C.

Ensure that the final audit report indicates that the initial engagement objectives were expanded.

D.

Expand the scope of the audit and include the additional documentation.

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Question # 27

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

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Question # 28

Which of the following should management action plans include at a minimum?

A.

An implementer for the action plan

B.

An owner of the action plan

C.

The internal auditor's next review date of the action plan

D.

Detailed procedures for the action plan

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Question # 29

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

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Question # 30

After completing an assurance engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) concludes that management has accepted a level of risk that may be unacceptable to the

organization. What is the most appropriate first step for the CAE to take?

A.

Discuss the issue with senior management.

B.

Discuss the issue only with the CEO.

C.

Inform the board.

D.

Discuss the issue with the members of management responsible for the risk area.

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Question # 31

As part of an audit engagement, an internal auditor verifies whether raw material is regularly delivered to the organization's warehouse in a timely manner. What type of objective does this exemplify?

A.

Operations

B.

Compliance

C.

Financial reporting

D.

Strategic

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Question # 32

An internal auditor suspects that employee turnover is unusually high at the organization's primary manufacturing plant To investigate this potential issue which of the following analytical approaches is the auditor likely to use?

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Vertical analysis

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost-benefit analysis.

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Question # 33

Which of the following would be the most effective fraud prevention control?

A.

Email alert sent to management for checks issued over S100.000.

B.

installation of a video surveillance system in a warehouse prone to inventory loss

C.

New hire training to explain fraud and employee misconduct.

D.

Daily report that Identifies unsuccessful system log-in attempts

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Question # 34

The only internal auditor, who was part of a larger team of individuals trained in the testing and reading of the organization’s quality control equipment, has resigned. With a scheduled audit of the quality department not yet completed for this year, what alternative approach should the internal audit function take in this scenario?

A.

Explain the situation to senior management and remove the audit from the audit plan until next year

B.

Conduct the audit of the quality department but adjust the audit program to remove the quality control testing

C.

Engage one of the other trained employees to participate in the audit review of the quality department

D.

Request that external auditors include this area as part of their review and provide independent assurance

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Question # 35

When is an organic organizational structure likely to be more successful than a mechanistic organizational structure?

A.

When a manufacturing organization has stable demand for its products.

B.

When an organization is subjected to strong political and social pressures

C.

When a manufacturer has reliable resources and suppliers.

D.

When an organization is infrequently affected by technological advances

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Question # 36

An organization is experiencing a significant risk that threatens its financial well-being Senior management requested that the chief audit executive (CAE) meet with them to discuss the risk. Which of the following would best describe the CAE's responsibility at the meeting?

A.

Inform senior management of the appropriate actions they should take to control the risk

B.

Recommend that the internal audit activity provide consulting services to help minimize the risk

C.

Assume the responsibility of resolving the significant risk that will affect the organization

D.

Determine whether senior management accepted risk that may be deemed unacceptable for the organization

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Question # 37

A healthcare organization's chief audit executive (CAE) noted that the organization's IT team relies heavily on a vendor. Therefore an IT vendor assessment review was added to the annual audit plan. During the review, the audit team discovered that the vendor had not been performing proper monitoring to ensure that the subcontractors it hired comply with the organization requirements. The organization's chief information officer (ClO) does not agree with the audit team's recommendation for the IT team to monitor the compliance level of vendor subcontractors. How should the audit team proceed to resolve this situation?

A.

Write a risk acceptance memo for the CIO to sign acknowledging the observation and indicating a willingness to accept the risk.

B.

Provide an example of the attestation form that vendors must use. Then, recommend that the IT team require vendors to submit the attestation form on a regular basis.

C.

Escalate the issue to the audit committee, as the CIO is unwilling to implement the recommended action plan.

D.

Escalate the issue to the CAE to assess whether the ClO's reasoning is acceptable.

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Question # 38

A manager has allowed a subordinate employee to have greater control and responsibility over the tasks that he performs This is an example of which of the following?

A.

Job enlargement

B.

Job enrichment

C.

Horizontal loading of the job.

D.

Job rotation.

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Question # 39

What information would be most useful to an internal auditor who is attempting to identify specific processes to include in the scope of an assurance engagement?

A.

Recent organizationwide recognition awards given to employees within the area.

B.

The timing of the most recent audit of the area.

C.

Management's presentation to the board regarding recent area achievements.

D.

Recent area performance indicators against productivity metrics.

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Question # 40

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?

1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.

2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.

3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.

4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 41

A toy manufacturer receives certain components from an overseas supplier and uses them to assemble final products Recently quality reviews have identified numerous issues regarding the components' compliance with mandatory quality standards. Which type of engagement would be most appropriate to assess the root causes of the quality issues?

A.

A risk assessment

B.

An operational audit

C.

A third-party audit

D.

A fraud investigation

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Question # 42

The following is a list of major findings in the executive summary report for an audit of the contract management process

- Noncompliance with contract provisions requiring vendors to obtain insurance policies with indemnity value of not less than $1 million

- Compliance with contract obligations and deliverables is not monitored

- No contract agreement with five vendors providing core services

Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion that can be drawn from these findings?

A.

These are weaknesses resulting from a lack of a documented contracting policy

B.

Substandard service delivery by vendors may not be detected

C.

Management should expedite actions to rectify the observations identified

D.

The internal controls guiding contract management are not operating effectively

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Question # 43

Which of the following best describes how an internal auditor would use a flowchart during engagement planning?

A.

To prepare for testing the effectiveness of controls

B.

To plan for evaluating potential losses

C.

To prepare a sampling plan for the engagement

D.

To evaluate the design of controls

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Question # 44

The organization’s internal audit charter was last updated six years ago to update the charter, which of the following actions is most appropriate for the chief audit executive to take?

A.

Wait for the next external assessment and address all of the missing information in the charter based on the recommendations from the external assessment team

B.

Perform a review of HA guidance to become acquainted with the latest mandatory elements prior to updating the charter

C.

Use an internal audit charter template from another organization that operates within the same industry.

D.

Identify an individual within the internal audit activity who has in-depth knowledge of mandatory IIA guidance elements to address any gaps or areas of the current version of the charter that could be improved

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Question # 45

An internal auditor notes that employees continue to violate segregation-of-duty controls in several areas of the finance department, despite previous audit recommendations. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate to address this concern?

A.

Recommend additional segregation-of-duty reviews.

B.

Recommend appropriate awareness training for all finance department staff.

C.

Recommend rotating finance staff in this area.

D.

Recommend that management address these concerns immediately.

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Question # 46

An organization experiencing staff shortages wants to contract a temporary employee to assist with work in the accounting office. Which of the following controls should be in place to ensure the temporary employee performs the assigned work before payment is issued?

A.

A three-way match between the invoice, purchase requisition, and documentation of receipt of services

B.

A member of management approves the purchase requisition before the temporary employee begins work

C.

A scope of work for the temporary employee is included in the purchase requisition and signed by the organization

D.

Payments to the vendor are analyzed monthly to ensure they do not exceed the amount approved on the purchase order

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Question # 47

In preparing the engagement work program, which of the following is generally true with respect to secondary controls?

A.

A separate engagement work program should be created for secondary controls

B.

Secondary controls do not necessarily need to be tested for effectiveness

C.

Any documented secondary controls are deemed essential to the adequacy of control design

D.

Secondary controls should be held to the same requirements as key controls

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Question # 48

An organization must maintain a current ratio of at least 1.2 to comply with debt covenants. Its current ratio is now 0.9. Which year-end transaction can increase the current ratio?

A.

Paying off an overdraft debt using funds from another bank current account.

B.

Purchasing inventory using funds from long-term bank loans.

C.

Acquiring a new car through leasing.

D.

Factoring short-term accounts receivable in exchange for cash.

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Question # 49

According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory of Motivation, which of the following factors are mentioned most often by satisfied employees9

A.

Salary and status.

B.

Responsibility and advancement

C.

Work conditions and security.

D.

Peer relationships and personal life

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Question # 50

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor. Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action. Which of the following describes management’s action in this case?

A.

A condition-based action plan.

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

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Question # 51

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

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Question # 52

Which of the following is the most important concept to be included in a consulting engagement agreement?

A.

Define the duties and responsibilities needed from management to perform the engagement.

B.

Disclose the fact that auditors who perform the work may not be subject matter experts in the topic of the review.

C.

Clarify that matters discovered during the engagement may also be reported to senior management and the audit committee.

D.

Disclose the fact that follow-up reviews may be conducted to ensure that recommendations are implemented adequately.

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Question # 53

Which of the following would present the most critical external risk to an organization?

A.

The organization experiences a merger, and the management team is reorganized and redistributed globally

B.

The organization launches a product into new global markets

C.

After minimal testing, the organization implements a new system to replace a legacy system

D.

Regulators announce broad legislative reforms applicable to the industry within which the organization operates

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Question # 54

An internal auditor of a construction organization found that completed inspection results, required by the organization's policy, were missing from the computer system. Which of the following, if included in the audit report, would demonstrate that the auditor performed a root cause analysis of this observation?

A.

Some inspection results were missing from the computer system.

B.

The results of lengthy inspections were more likely to be omitted from the computer system.

C.

Flaws in the computer system prevented employees from saving their inspection results.

D.

Employees did not ensure that inspection results were completed in the computer system.

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Question # 55

An organization facing financial hardships is planning to reduce its internal audit function size without a reduction in workload. The organization plans to aid internal auditors by providing a generative artificial intelligence application that will process written responses from the activity under review to identify high-risk areas on which the remaining auditors will concentrate. Which of the following would be the most significant concern in this process?

A.

Slight variations in answers can result in very different risk assessments

B.

Generative artificial intelligence cannot make inferences out of free text responses

C.

Replacing auditor judgment with machine judgment is contrary to the Global Internal Audit Standards

D.

Poor acceptance of the new system by the activity under review will impact engagement outcomes

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Question # 56

After concluding a preliminary assessment, the engagement supervisor prepared a draft work program According to HA guidance which of the following would be tested by this program?

A.

The process objectives.

B.

The process risks

C.

The process controls

D.

The process scope

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Question # 57

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team's IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

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Question # 58

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor most likely be questioned on?

A.

The auditor confirms the organization's ownership of physical equipment by verifying its presence on site visually.

B.

The auditor vouches for a sample of check copies to support voucher packages to test the checks' validity.

C.

The auditor vouches a sales invoice to a shipping document to conclude that the invoice has been issued.

D.

The auditor recalculates the allowance for doubtful accounts based on management assertions.

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Question # 59

Which of the following is essential for ensuring that the internal audit activity's findings and recommendations receive adequate consideration?

A.

Reporting results of audits with recommendations to management.

B.

Providing formal follow-up procedures to ensure that management complies with an action plan or accepted risk of not taking action.

C.

Reporting quarterly to management that the audit plan is focused on higher exposures of risk.

D.

Discussing audit findings with independent auditors.

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Question # 60

An organization invests excess short-term cash in trading securities Which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to test the valuation of those securities'*

A.

Use the equity method to recalculate the investment carrying value

B.

Confirm the securities held by the broker.

C.

Perform a calculation of premium or discount amortization.

D.

Compare the carrying value with current market quotations

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Question # 61

An internal auditor collected several employee testimonials Which of the following is the best action for the internal auditor to take before drawing a conclusion?

A.

Ensure the testimonials are well documented

B.

Substantiate the testimonials with physical or documentary evidence

C.

Corroborate testimonials with the results from other soft control techniques

D.

Review the testimonials with the interviewed employees

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Question # 62

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

A.

The organization's view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization's principal risk events.

C.

The organization's risk response strategies

D.

The organization's major control activities

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Question # 63

Organizations that adopt just-in-time purchasing systems often experience which of the following?

A.

A slight increase in carrying costs.

B.

A greater need for inspection of goods as the goods arrive

C.

A greater need for linkage with a vendors computerized order entry system.

D.

An Increase in the number of suitable suppliers

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Question # 64

The internal audit activity is responsible for which of the following actions related to an organization’s internal controls9

A.

Mitigating risks affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

B.

Enabling opportunities affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Analyzing and advising regarding costs versus benefits of control activities.

D.

Attesting to fairness of financial statements

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Question # 65

An engagement supervisor obtains facilities maintenance reports from a contractor during an audit of third-party services. Which of the following is the source of authority for the engagement supervisor to make such contact outside the organization?

A.

The policies and procedures of the internal audit activity.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

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Question # 66

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a small organization is developing a resource management plan. Which of the following approaches would be most beneficial to help the CAE obtain details of the internal audit activity's collective knowledge, skills, and other competencies?

A.

Review or establish a documented skills assessment of the internal audit staff and gather information from post-audit surveys.

B.

Obtain from the human resources department the job descriptions and position requirements for all internal audit staff.

C.

Conduct an objective written test of the internal audit staff to assess their knowledge and skills related to core internal audit competencies.

D.

Request the internal audit staff to submit a document that summarizes their most recent performance appraisals and post audit reviews.

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Question # 67

Which of the following is a primary reason for an internal auditor to use a risk and control questionnaire when auditing financial processes?

A.

To gain an understanding of the control environment

B.

To collect as much financial data as possible before engagement fieldwork begins.

C.

To test the effectiveness of financial controls in an efficient and relatively inexpensive way

D.

To facilitate the quantification of financial data obtained

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Question # 68

An audit observation noted that annual inventory counts of biofuel was not being performed appropriately Fuel yards were not visited and physical amounts of biofuel were not reconciled with accounting data Management of the division understood the issue and promised to resolve the problem When should the internal auditor schedule a follow-up review?

A.

As soon as possible, no later than two months after the audit

B.

When convenient for both parties

C.

When management has indicated that the issue has been resolved

D.

Before financial year end

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Question # 69

A chief audit executive (CAE) following up on action plans from previously completed audits identifies that management has determined that certain action plans are no longer necessary If the CAE disagrees with management's decision, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the CAE to take?

A.

The CAE must discuss the matter with senior management

B.

The CAE must discuss the matter with key shareholders

C.

The CAE must discuss the matter with legal counsel

D.

The CAE must discuss the matter with the board

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Question # 70

An organization uses the management-by-objectives method, whereby employee performance is based on defined goals. Which of the following statements is true regarding this approach?

A.

It is particularly helpful to management when the organization is facing rapid change.

B.

It is a more successful approach when adopted by mechanistic organizations.

C.

it is more successful when goal-setting Is performed not only by management, but by all team members, including lower-level staff

D.

it is particularly successful in environments that are prone to having poor employer-employee relations

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Question # 71

During planning, the chief audit executive submits a risk-and-control questionnaire to management of the activity under review. Which of the following statements is true regarding the questionnaire?

A.

It would be an inefficient way for internal auditors to address multiple controls in the activity under review.

B.

It would limit certain members of the internal audit team from being fully involved in the engagement.

C.

It would be the most effective way for the internal audit team to obtain a detailed understanding of the processes and controls in the activity to be audited.

D.

It would be an efficient way for the internal audit team to determine whether specified control activities are in place.

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Question # 72

Which of The following best justifies an internal auditor's decision to issue a preliminary audit report?

A.

The internal audit team and audit client have a serious dispute over the scope and objective of the engagement

B.

The internal audit team expects management to address certain issues immediately due to their severe impact

C.

The internal audit team anticipates that the formal final audit report would be undesirable for management due to the significance of outlined risks

D.

The internal audit team would like to issue a clean final audit report without any material observations or risks

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Question # 73

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the Internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement.

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement

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Question # 74

Which of the following is true about surveys?

A.

A survey with open-ended questions is weaker than a structured interview

B.

A survey with closed-ended questions can produce quantifiable evidence

C.

A survey's participants are likely to volunteer information that was not specifically requested

D.

A survey, like inspections and confirmations are best used to test the operating effectiveness of controls

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Question # 75

In the years after the mid-service point of a depreciable asset, which of the following depreciation methods will result in the highest depreciation expense?

A.

Sum of the years’ digits.

B.

Declining balance.

C.

Double-declining balance.

D.

Straight line.

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Question # 76

During the filework phase of an assurance engagement the internal auditor decides that she wants to adjust the audit work program. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the auditor to take9

A.

Request additional information needed from management of the area under review.

B.

Obtain approval from the engagement supervisor

C.

Obtain the required resources, including IT. to complete the work

D.

Discuss the change in scope with management of the area under review.

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Question # 77

The audit plan of an internal audit function includes an assurance engagement of the organization’s cybersecurity protocols. However, the engagement supervisor assigned to execute the engagement identifies that the internal auditors with competencies in cybersecurity are scheduled for upcoming leave and are involved in other engagements. Those auditors would not be available to participate in the cybersecurity engagement. Which of the following would be the appropriate action for the engagement supervisor?

A.

Reassign the competent auditors immediately.

B.

Notify the board that the cybersecurity engagement cannot be performed due to a lack of competent resources.

C.

Suspend the cybersecurity engagement due to the lack of internal auditors with relevant competencies.

D.

Seek advice from the chief audit executive on appropriate actions related to the cybersecurity engagement.

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Question # 78

Where should internal auditor focus their attention when identify and assessing key risks during the planning stage of an assurance engagement?

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Audit risk.

C.

Residual risk.

D.

Inherent risk

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Question # 79

What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

A.

To gather information from a sample of people who are geographically dispersed

B.

To assess risks that could prevent an audited area from achieving its objectives.

C.

To evaluate tie level of compliance of remote offices with centrally designed procedures

D.

To perform testing of controls more frequently

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Question # 80

Which of the following statements is true regarding the final assurance engagement report issued to management?

A.

Ratings are only used to assess the condition of an observation made by an internal auditor.

B.

Audit findings may be communicated to management prior to issuance of the final approved audit report.

C.

Communications must be relevant logical, and free from errors before they are disseminated.

D.

The audit report must present the information in the following order (1) audit scope, (2) engagement objectives, and (3) engagement results

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Question # 81

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding heat maps?

A.

A heat map sets likelihood to have higher priority than impact.

B.

A heat map sets impact to have higher priority than likelihood.

C.

A heat map recognizes that the priority of impact and likelihood can vary.

D.

A heat map recognizes impact and likelihood as equally important

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Question # 82

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization’s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board*?

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

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Question # 83

Which of the following is one of the advantages of organizing the risk universe by processes?

A.

Interfaces between organizational units are captured during audits by processes

B.

Audits by processes are less time-consuming

C.

During audits by processes, managers are more open at interviews

D.

The advantage of audits by processes is true completeness

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Question # 84

During an audit of suspense accounts the internal auditor found that there were no written policies on how suspense accounts should be treated. The auditor also found that suspense account balances were cleared once per week, not daily. Which of the following is the most appropriate first response by the auditor?

A.

The auditor should conclude that suspense accounts were not being cleared on a timely basis because they should be cleared daily

B.

The auditor should ask management whether any undocumented policies exist and. if so, determine whether they are adequate

C.

The auditor should conclude that the clearing of suspense accounts was timely and appropriate because weekly clearing is sufficient.

D.

The auditor should rely on his professional judgment and experience to develop criteria for evaluating the existing controls over suspense accounts

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Question # 85

Senior management wants assurance that third-party contractors are following procedures as agreed with the organization. Which type of audit would be most appropriate

to achieve this objective?

A.

A compliance audit.

B.

A due diligence audit.

C.

A financial audit.

D.

An external audit.

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Question # 86

During follow-up, the chief audit executive (CAE) is having a discussion with management about the internal audit team's recommendations related to a significant issue Management accepted the issue but took no remedial action What is the next step for the CAE?

A.

The CAE should reassess and validate the risk tolerance policy

B.

The CAE should escalate the issue to senior management .

C.

The CAE should reiterate the internal audit team's recommendations to management .

D.

The CAE should grant management more time to implement the recommendation and check the status of the issue during the next scheduled follow-up.

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Question # 87

According to IIA guidance, which of the following most appropriately justifies the CEO’s decision that the internal audit activity shall be responsible for risk management and Investigation at multinational organization?

A.

The recommendation of the parent office external auditors.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The level of proficiency of the chief audit executive

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Question # 88

During a review of data privacy an internal auditor is tasked with testing management's identification and prioritization of critical data collected by the organization. Which of the following steps would accomplish this objective?

A.

interview management to determine what types of data are collected and maintained

B.

Trace data from storage to the collection sources to determine how critical data is collected and organized

C.

Review a sample of data to determine whether the risk classification is reasonable

D.

Document and test a data inventory and classification program by determining the data classification levels and framework

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Question # 89

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target.

B.

Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

C.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement.

D.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

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Question # 90

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

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Question # 91

At the conclusion of a quality assurance review, the chief audit executive (CAE) was informed that several audits included incomplete workpapers, and some workpapers were not completed within the established timeframe. How should the CAE address the issue of incomplete workpapers?

A.

Delete incomplete workpapers from the audit folder.

B.

Establish a task force to complete workpapers for audits that are contested.

C.

Develop guidelines and procedures for completing workpapers.

D.

Verify that the workpapers that support audit findings are complete; if so, no further action is required.

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Question # 92

An internal auditor is tasked with evaluating the adequacy of the organization's inventory fraud controls. What is the most relevant information that the auditor can obtain from the documentation of cyclic counting for this purpose?

A.

Accounting adjustments of inventories are approved by the management in accordance with a signature policy

B.

Root causes of inventory differences are analyzed and corrective measures are followed

C.

High value items are inventoried more frequently throughout the year

D.

Value of accounting adjustments matches with the value of inventory differences and are made in a timely manner

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Question # 93
A.

To validate the engagement work program.

B.

To help the internal auditor understand the objectives of the area or process under review.

C.

To determine whether operational management has sufficient knowledge of risks and controls.

D.

To determine whether management followed through on action plans from a previous consulting engagement.

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Question # 94

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity’s position within the organization.

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Question # 95

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to ensure that all significant risks will be identified.

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor.

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist.

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost

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Question # 96

According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

A.

Criteria

B.

Cause

C.

Effect

D.

Condition

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Question # 97

An internal auditor was reviewing the procurement department's tender documentation for completeness He documented all discrepancies but the procurement manager disagreed with his findings Upon further review, the internal auditor noted that all discrepancies had been corrected in the tender database. Which of the following courses of action would have prevented this situation?

A.

The auditor should have ensured the preservation of audit evidence by taking screenshots or extracting tender documents

B.

The auditor should have extracted a list of logs and identified any actions that were executed in the database during the audit

C.

The auditor should have instructed procurement workers that changes to the database during the course of the audit were strictly forbidden

D.

The internal auditor should have created a more thorough work program, which would address audit criteria and potential causes in more detail

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Question # 98

The internal audit function is performing an assurance engagement on the organization’s environmental, social, and governance (ESG) program. The engagement objective is to determine whether the ESG program’s activities are meeting the program’s established goals. The internal audit function has completed a risk and control assessment of the ESG program's activities. What is the appropriate next step?

A.

Conclude whether the ESG program's activities are meeting the established goals

B.

Communicate the results of the assessment to senior management

C.

Develop recommendations based on the results of the assessment

D.

Perform testing on the activities selected based on the assessment

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Question # 99

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Standards requirement for ret internal audit records?

A.

Retention requirements for internal audit records should be compliant with ones set for external audit records

B.

Retention requirements should take into account the medium in which internal audit records are stored

C.

Retention requirements should be set by the chief audit executive and aligned will the organization s process and procedures

D.

Retention requirements should set a minimum period of the for records storage and the process of archiving documents

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Question # 100

Which requirement should the chief audit executive consider when communicating results of the quality assurance and improvement program to the board of a large organization?

A.

The internal assessment results should be discussed once every five years

B.

The rating conclusions and the impact from results of the external assessment should be explained

C.

The results of the external assessment should be discussed every seven years.

D.

The qualifications and independence of the internal assessment team should be discussed

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Question # 101

An internal auditor developed a list of internal and external risk considerations across the organization's processes, developed a scale to assess each risk and allocated the relative importance of each risk. When of the following approaches did the auditor take?

A.

Top-down approach

B.

Process-Metrix approach

C.

Risk-factor approach

D.

Bottom up approach

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Question # 102

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management

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Question # 103

The internal audit activity has adopted the balanced scorecard approach to assess its performance According to MA guidance which of the following is a key performance indicator relevant to the audit client?

A.

Percentage of recommendations implemented by corrective action date

B.

Staff experience

C.

Percentage of planned audits completed

D.

Conformance with the International Professional Practices Framework

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Question # 104

Which of the following methods is most closely associated to year over year trends?

A.

Horizontal analysts

B.

Vertical analysis.

C.

Common-size analysis.

D.

Ratio analysis.

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Question # 105

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Question # 106

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

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Question # 107

Which of the following factors would be the most critical in determining which engagements should be included in the annual internal audit plan?

A.

Whether an audit is explicitly required by the internal audit charter

B.

The extent to which the work to be performed is an assurance or consulting engagement

C.

The organization's annual risk management strategy

D.

Risks that are identified by operations staff or senior management

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Question # 108

Which of the following statements is true regarding risk assessments, including the evaluation and prioritization of risk and control factors?

A.

A risk-by-process matrix enables the user to determine associations between any of the processes and the risks.

B.

The risk-factor approach for linking business processes and risks is more direct than the use of a risk-by-process matrix.

C.

Internal risk factors are built into the environment and the nature of the process itself.

D.

A risk map is used primarily to depict which risks will be reduced and which will be shared.

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Question # 109

Which of the following internal control attributes should internal auditors consider testing during a review of the board of directors?

A.

The presence of an independent critical mass

B.

The established philosophy and operating style of senior management

C.

The articulated internal control objectives of the organization

D.

The organization's employee recruiting and retention policies

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Question # 110

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The IIA’s mandatory guidance on independence?

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The board seeks senior managements recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit act/vity.

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline

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Question # 111

An internal auditor wants to test the processing logic of a computer application during a specific period to ensure consistent processing of transactions. Which of the following is the best approach to achieve the objective of the test?

A.

Utility software

B.

Integrated test facility

C.

Parallel simulation

D.

Generalized audit software

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Question # 112

Which of the following is a justifiable reason for omitting advance client notice when planning an audit engagement?

A.

Advance notice may result in management making corrections to reduce the number of potential deficiencies.

B.

Previous management action plans addressing prior internal audit recommendations remain incomplete.

C.

The engagement includes audit assurance procedures such as sensitive or restricted asset verifications.

D.

The audit engagement has already been communicated and approved through the annual audit plan.

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Question # 113

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee's reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

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Question # 114

A bank uses customer departmentalization to categorize its departments. Which of the following groups best exemplifies this method of categorization?

A.

Community, institutional, and agricultural banking

B.

Mortgages, credit cards, and savings.

C.

South, southwest and east.

D.

Teller, manager, and IT specialist

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Question # 115

During which phase of the contracting process are contracts drafted for a proposed business activity’

A.

Initiation phase.

B.

Bidding phase.

C.

Development phase.

D.

Management phase

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Question # 116

In which of following scenarios is the internal auditor performing benchmarking?

A.

The auditor compares information from one period with the same information from the poor period

B.

The auditor compares new information to his general knowledge of the organization

C.

The auditor compares information he collected with simmer information from another source

D.

The auditor compares expected outcomes with actual results

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Question # 117

A manufacturer is under contract to produce and deliver a number of aircraft to a major airline. As part of the contract, the manufacturer is also providing training to the airline's pilots. At the time of the audit, the delivery of the aircraft had fallen substantially behind schedule while the training had already been completed. If half of the aircraft under contract have been delivered, which of the following should the internal auditor expect to be accounted for in the general ledger?

A.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

B.

All completed training costs, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

C.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and 50% of contracted production costs.

D.

All completed training costs, and 50% of the contracted production costs.

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Question # 118

A chief audit executive (CAE) reviews the supervision of an internal audit engagement Which of the following would most likely assure the CAE that the engagement had adequate supervision?

A.

The engagement supervisor has an open door pokey for audit team members to discuss concerns

B.

The supervisor reviews weekly progress reports from the audit team members

C.

The supervisor reviews and initials internal audit workpapers for the engagement

D.

The supervisor meets periodically with management in the reviewed area to get feedback during the engagement.

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Question # 119

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is false regarding a review of the controls in place to prevent fraud?

A.

The review should focus on the efficiency of the controls in place to prevent fraud.

B.

The scope of the review does not need to include all operating areas of the organization.

C.

The cost of the control should be compared to the benefit of mitigating the related risk.

D.

The review should assess whether the internal controls can be circumvented.

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Question # 120

An internal auditor wants to obtain management's evaluation of the organizational risk culture. Because there are more than 30 geographically dispersed managers, one-to-one interviews are not possible. Which of the following is the most efficient option for the auditor to adopt?

A.

Send out a survey with a few open questions, such as “What is your impression of the risk culture in our organization?”

B.

Send out a survey with statements and request defined answers, such as “strongly agree” and “strongly disagree.”

C.

Send out an email asking managers to evaluate the risk culture and provide detailed justification.

D.

Send out an email asking those who have something to report on organizational risk culture to step forward.

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Question # 121

While auditing an organization's credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditors relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative's information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative Is a customer

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement

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Question # 122

Which of the following best exemplifies having effective risk management and internal control processes?

A.

Relevant risk indicators and mitigation plans are in place

B.

All risks are identified and assessed

C.

Business profitability is likely to be achieved

D.

Risk information is communicated to customers and suppliers

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Question # 123

Which of the following is one of the five basic tnanoal statement assertions when an internal auditor evaluates controls over financial reporting?

A.

Reliability or appropriateness

B.

Reasonableness

C.

Existence or occurrence

D.

Relevance

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Question # 124

Which of the following actives is an internal auditor most likely to perform when establishing the objectives of an assurance engagement?

A.

Discuss the internal audit risk assessment including applicable risks and objectives with internal audit management

B.

Perform a walk-through of the process under review to determine whether control wore operating, effectively

C.

Identify when controls will be tested and the sampling method to be used based on control risk

D.

Meet with operational management to team about any areas of concern and to agree on the engagement objectives

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Question # 125

An internal auditor used a risk and control matrix to prepare a work program for testing a software release. During the engagement planning stage, he tested the design of

the release procedure as a key control and concluded that the control was not designed well. During the performance stage, he tested the operation of this control and

concluded that it was implemented as designed. Which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

A.

The test of the control design should have occurred at the performance stage.

B.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control was not necessary.

C.

A risk and control matrix is not appropriate for this type of engagement.

D.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control should have occurred at the planning stage.

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Question # 126

Which of the following would be the most helpful to a chief audit executive when developing a talent management strategy?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Staff preferences

C.

Maturity analysis

D.

Extent of external audit coverage

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Question # 127

An internal auditor discovered that sales contracts with business clients were not stored in the electronic document management database instead they were scanned and saved in a nonsystematic manner to server folders Which of the following would be an appropriate consequence for the internal auditor to include in the documented observation?

A.

The document management policy requires business client data to be stored in a specific management database

B.

Sales contracts were stored improperly because the office manager was not trained to use the electronic database and prefers to avoid it

C.

if the organization becomes subject to litigation the agreed pricing terms and conditions of the contracts may be difficult to prove

D.

All staff should be appropriately trained and required to follow the organization's established policies and procedures pertaining to document management

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Question # 128

An internal auditor e assessing the design of a control and has identified a potential significant weakness. The auditor shared his concern with management however management does not agree that the weakness is significant. What should the internet auditor do next?

A.

Perform additional audit work to better articulate the risk

B.

Report the finding that management has accepted a level of risk that is unacceptable.

C.

Proceed to testing how effectively the control is opening.

D.

Because the design weakness has been identified no additional audit work is needed

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Question # 129

An internal audit manager is planning a contract compliance audit Which of the following should be done prior to developing the audit work program?

A.

Select a sample of invoices for substantive testing

B.

Review the contract for evidence of authorization

C.

Document underlying reasons for noncompliance

D.

Assess the inherent risk of paying duplicate invoices

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Question # 130

Which of the following is the advantage of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs) as part of a preliminary survey for an engagement?

A.

ICQs provide testimonial evidence.

B.

ICQs are efficient.

C.

ICQs provide tangible evidence to be quantified.

D.

ICQs put observations into perspective.

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Question # 131

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

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Question # 132

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Question # 133

In which of the following situations would an internal auditor consider the need to outsource competencies and skills9

A.

During the inspection of a wind turbine. an internal auditor notices that some replaced parts took used According to purchase documents, the parts still have a long lifespan.

B.

The auditor believes that the audit client's actions contradict the organization's code of conduct The audit client disagrees and says his actions are for the organization's benefit

C.

An audit team member is allocated to conduct an assurance engagement m the sales unit. However, the same auditor performed an assurance engagement in that area just one year prior

D.

During an inventory count, the auditor ascertained that some goods were missing. The audit client argues that the auditor does not understand how inventory should be counted

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Question # 134

An internal auditor uses a data query tool in the purchasing process to review the vendor master file for authorizations Which of the following describes the control objective likely being tested?

A.

Effectiveness

B.

Response

C.

Efficiency

D.

Mitigation.

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Question # 135

Which of the following is the most important determinant of the objectives and scope of assurance engagements?

The organizational chart, business objectives, and policies and procedures of the area to be reviewed

A.

The most recent risk assessment conducted by management of the area to be reviewed.

B.

The requests of operational and senior management throughout the organization.

C.

The preliminary risk assessment performed by internal auditors planning the engagement.

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Question # 136

To compete in the global market, an organization is restructuring and consolidating many of its divisions. Prior to the consolidation, senior management requested assistance from tie internal audit activity. Which of the following consulting services would be most appropriate in this situation?

A.

Assess controls for potential compliance issues that may affect me consolidation

B.

Brief vendors on the potential risks that will occur without continued business

C.

Advise division managers on how to streamline operations for better efficiency

D.

Determine whether the organization’s controls are effective in meeting business objectives

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Question # 137

An internal auditor reviewed the tender documents for the procurement of manufacturing equipment and observed the following:

    Tender technical specifications were compliant with internal policies.

    The sole assessment criterion of the tender was economic feasibility.

    All bids were submitted to a designated software and could not be opened before the submission deadline.

    The winner was approved by senior management.

    The winner was selected based on which bidder offered the newest technology.

Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?

A.

Key controls of the procurement process operate as intended based on the analysis of the specific tender documents.

B.

IT controls implemented to ensure confidentiality of submitted bids seem to have several deficiencies.

C.

Management's selection of the winner should be positively acknowledged for focusing on innovative technological solution.

D.

The principles of transparency and equal treatment of bidders seem to be impaired.

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Question # 138

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short-term debt-paying ability?

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio

B.

Profit margin

C.

Current ratio

D.

Times interest earned

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Question # 139

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

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Question # 140

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 141

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.

B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by, or in conjunction with, the engagement client.

C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.

D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment.

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Question # 142

Which of the following is one of the five attributes that internal auditors include when documenting a deficiency?

A.

The criteria used to make the evaluation

B.

The methodology used to analyze data

C.

The proposed follow-up engagement work to be performed

D.

The scope of work performed during the engagement

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Question # 143

The newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a large multinational corporation, with seasoned internal audit departments located around the world, is reviewing responsibilities for engagement reports. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true?

A.

The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign every engagement report.

B.

The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign all regulatory compliance engagement reports only

C.

The CAE may delegate responsibility for reviewing, approving and signing engagement reports, but should review the reports after they are issued.

D.

The internal audit charter must identify authorized signers of engagement reports.

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Question # 144

Which of the following contributes to the reliability of information collected for an audit engagement?

A.

The information is gathered from a system where the controls are operating effectively

B.

The information is obtained directly from an experienced manager in writing

C.

The information is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

The information is useful to help the organization meet its goals

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Question # 145

White planning an audit engagement of a procurement card activity. which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to denary relevant risks and controls?

A.

Compare card transaction types against procurement card policy guidelines.

B.

Develop the scope and objectives of the engagement

C.

Determine how many cardholders exceeded their daily limit.

D.

Meet with the procurement card program administrator

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Question # 146

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target O Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

B.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement

C.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

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Question # 147

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

A.

Significant changes in the organization's accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization's internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance

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Question # 148

An internal auditor reviewed bank reconciliations prepared by management of the area under review. The auditor noted that the bank statements attached did not have the

bank heading, logo, or address. Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation?

A.

The evidence may not be reliable.

B.

The evidence is not relevant.

C.

The evidence may not be sufficient.

D.

The information missing is not relevant to the audit.

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Question # 149

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control self-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers.

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit hours.

D.

internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only if the other assurance providers report directly to the board

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Question # 150

Which of the following parties is accountable for ensuring adequate support for conclusions and opinions readied by the internal audit activity while relying on external auditors' work?

A.

Board of directors

B.

External auditors

C.

Chief audit executive

D.

Senior management

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Question # 151

Which of the following is the primary reason a chief audit executive should network with an organization’s executives?

A.

To better understand and influence executives' planning.

B.

To make executives aware of the benefits that the internal audit activity can provide.

C.

To assist executives in setting the organization’s risk appetite.

D.

To have a better understanding of the training needed to strengthen the audit team.

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Question # 152

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

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Question # 153

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms.

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map.

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Question # 154

An internal auditor is reviewing the accuracy of commission payments by recalculating 100% of the commissions and comparing them to the amount paid. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is most appropriate for identified variances?

A.

Document the results and report the overall percentage of variances.

B.

Determine the significance of the variances and investigate causes as needed.

C.

Review the results and investigate the cause of all variances.

D.

Report all variances to management and request an action plan to remediate them.

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Question # 155

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

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Question # 156

A corporate merger decision prompts the cruel audit executive (CAE) to propose interim changes lo the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks. When of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CCO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

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Question # 157

An internal auditor is performing a review of an organization's vendor for any possible conflicts of interest. Which of the following would provide the greatest assistance to the auditor in meeting this objective?

A.

Vendor contracts.

B.

Employee master list.

C.

Payment records.

D.

Purchasing policy.

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Question # 158

According to MA guidance, which of the following factors should an internal auditor consider when assessing the likelihood of fraud risk1?

A.

The effect on the organization's reputation

B.

Any potential damage to the organization's relationship with customers.

C.

Past fraud allegations and actual occurrences

D.

The potential and realized financial impacts

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Question # 159

Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization’s inventory valuation?

A.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped free on board (FOB) destination to another organization.

B.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods received on consignment from another organization.

C.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped FOB shipping point from another organization.

D.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods sent on consignment to another organization

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Question # 160

An organization is expanding into a new line of business selling natural gas. The internal auditor is planning an engagement and wants to obtain a general understanding of the natural gas market the market share that the organization wants to win, and the competitive advantage that the organization may have. Which of the following would be the best source of such information?

A.

Interview responsible managers and read strategic documents

B.

Conduct internet searches on gas sales and analyze market players

C.

Review gas clients' portfolio and compile statistics on sales margins

D.

Analyze the organization's revenues and calculate the proportion of gas

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Question # 161

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met.

B.

To ensure senior management supports the report's conclusions.

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated.

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Question # 162

Senior management decides to adopt a conservative working capital policy. What would be the expected result for the organization?

A.

Low levels of inventory

B.

Higher level of profitability

C.

High level of liquidity

D.

Higher level of risk

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Question # 163

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness. Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction. Based on this information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

Effect of the control weakness.

Cause of the control weakness.

Conclusion on the control weakness.

Recommendation for the control weakness.

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1, 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Question # 164

An internal auditor s examination of accounts receivable generates the following results:

What is the projected misstatement for the population if ratio estimation is used?

A.

$84,000

B.

$238,095

C.

$700,000

D.

$2100.000

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Question # 165

A chief audit executive (CAE) is trying to balance the internal audit activity's needs for technical audit skills budget efficiency and staff development opportunities. Which of the following would best assist the CAE in achieving this balance1?

A.

Strategic sourcing

B.

Loan staff arrangement

C.

Flat organizational structure

D.

Hierarchical organizational structure

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Question # 166

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's risk management program?

A.

Identifying and managing risks in line with the entity's risk appetite.

B.

Ensuring that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attaining an adequate understanding of the entity's key mitigation strategies.

D.

Identifying and ensuring that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

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Question # 167

Which of the following would offer the strongest evidence to support the internal auditor's conclusion that a product is in stock, as stated in the accounting records?

A.

The auditor performs an observation.

B.

The vendor provides third-party confirmation.

C.

The auditor documents interviews with multiple warehouse personnel.

D.

Warehouse management submits photographs of the product on the inventory shelf.

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Question # 168

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisors review notes?

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisors concerns have been addressed

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisors review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisors review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program

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Question # 169

Which of the following best describes why an internal audit activity would consider sending written preliminary observations to the audit client?

A.

Written observations allow for more interpretation.

B.

Written observations help the internal auditors express the significance.

C.

Written and verbal observations are equally effective.

D.

Written observations limit premature agreement.

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Question # 170

In which of the following ways can the internal audit activity new engagement opportunities?

A.

By defining activities by business processes.

B.

By looking external factors such as product complaints.

C.

By looking at activities by businesses cost centers.

D.

By defining activities by the organization chart.

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Question # 171

According to IIA guidance, which of the following reflects a valid principle for the internal audit activity to rely on the work of internal or external assurance providers?

A.

Elements of evaluation

B.

Elements of organization

C.

Elements of practice

D.

Elements of confidentiality

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Question # 172

An engagement supervisor reviewed a staff internal auditor's documentation and noted that several edits should be made. The internal audit activity uses an electronic workpaper database and does not maintain paper files for its system of record. A system error prevents the engagement supervisor from adding her electronic signature to any workpaper in the database Given this situation which is the most appropriate response to provide evidence of supervisory review?

A.

The engagement supervisor should print sign and date each workpaper after the review is complete and scan the document into the database as evidence of review

B.

Because the engagement supervisor called the help desk to correct the IT problem, he should upload the support-request ticket from the help desk to serve as evidence of the review

C.

The engagement supervisor should ask another manager-level internal auditor not associated with the project to sign the workpaper on his behalf

D.

The engagement supervisor should instruct the staff internal auditor to add a note in the workpaper on his behalf indicating that the workpaper was reviewed and feedback was provided

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Question # 173

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate actions for the chief audit executive regarding management's response to audit recommendations?

A.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

B.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

C.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

D.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

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Question # 174

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor's review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Question # 175

Which of the following describes (he primary reason why a preliminary risk assessment is conducted during engagement planning?

A.

To identify the greatest risks organizationwide

B.

To ensure that the engagement work program covers all risk areas

C.

To ensure that risks identified during previous audits of the area have been adequately addressed

D.

To ensure that significant risks are included in the engagement scope

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Question # 176

An auditor reviews tender results for the procurement of construction equipment. Based on her significant experience the auditor believes that the obtained bid prices are too high. Which of the following is required to develop a relevant conclusion?

A.

Description of the procurement policy

B.

Summary of the tendering process

C.

Substantiated and comparative evidence

D.

Impact analysis of unfavorable prices

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Question # 177

An internal auditor believes that the internal audit activity's independence is impaired Which of the following actions should the internal auditor take first?

A.

Report the impairment to senior management

B.

Discuss the impairment with the audit manager.

C.

Ascertain the best approach to disclose the impairment.

D.

Decide on the extent of impact of the impairment

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Question # 178

Which of the following statements is true regarding partnership liquidation?

A.

Operations can continue after the liquidation, if all partners agree.

B.

Partnership liquidation ends both the legal and economic life of an entity

C.

Partnership liquidation occurs when there is capital deficiency.

D.

When a partnership Is liquidated, each partner pays creditors from cash received

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Question # 179

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

A.

The last available risk assessment.

B.

Requests from senior management and the board.

C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.

D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.

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Question # 180

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

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Question # 181

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

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Question # 182

An internal auditor is conducting an assurance engagement. One engagement objective is to evaluate the project manager’s effectiveness at controlling project costs. Which of the following audit tests should be included in the engagement program?

A.

Prepare a bank reconciliation statement for all the bank accounts of the organization

B.

Track a sample of project payments from accounts payable to concluded agreements and authorization rights

C.

Validate the accuracy of assumptions and inputs used for calculations in the project’s feasibility model

D.

Investigate whether the budget of the project was approved timely as required by internal policies

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Question # 183

An internal auditor is assessing whether a vendor onboarding procedure is being followed in all business units. The procedure has been centrally designed and depicts activities and validations that must be performed at every step. Which of the following is the most suitable way to compile an internal control questionnaire?

A.

Develop statements that are based on the procedure requirements and ask respondents to select yes or no responses

B.

Develop open questions that inquire about the appropriateness and efficacy of the procedure

C.

Develop closed questions asking managers to describe the onboarding process in detail

D.

Develop multiple response questions where a respondent has to identify one correct answer out of four

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Question # 184

An organization recently acquired a subsidiary in a new industry, and management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a comprehensive audit of the subsidiary prior to recommencing operations The CAE is unsure her team has the necessary skills and knowledge to accept the engagement According to IIAguidance, which of the following responses by the CAE would be most appropriate?

A.

The CAE should accept the engagement and ensure that an explanation of the expertise limitations is included in the final audit report.

B.

The CAE should ask management to hire an external expert who is familiar with the industry to perform an independent audit for management

C.

The CAE should accept the engagement and hire an external expert to assist the audit team with the audit of the subsidiary

D.

The CAE should recommend postponing the engagement until the internal audit team is able to develop sufficient knowledge of the new industry

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Question # 185

An internal auditor wants to identity potential ghost employees in the organization's payroll system The auditor extracts the following data

- Human resources data with employees' names addresses employment conditions and identification codes

- Payroll data

- Logs from entrance systems

With this data, which of the following types of ghost employees will the auditor be able to identify?

A.

Employees who are being paid more than then approved wages

B.

Employees who get paid although their employment has expired

C.

Employees who are related to one of the subcontractors

D.

Employees who are physically present at the workplace but who do not perform the specified job duties

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Question # 186

An internal auditor is starting the fieldwork of an assurance engagement. The auditor will conduct a walkthrough of selected controls with control owners. What should be the primary objective of this walkthrough?

A.

Collect the policies and procedures relevant to the audited area

B.

Understand the financial results published for the period under review

C.

Assess the design of the internal controls in place

D.

Define the objectives of the assurance engagement

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Question # 187

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive would best ensure that internal auditors demonstrate due professional care?

A.

Developing policies and procedures for the internal audit activity

B.

Ensuring the internal audit activity is not found fallible during audit engagements.

C.

Undertaking all engagements that management requests of the internal audit activity.

D.

Ensuring the internal audit activity reports functionally to the board of directors

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Question # 188

During audit engagement planning, an internal auditor is determining the best approach for leveraging computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs). Which of the following approaches maximizes the use of CAATs and why?

A.

Tracing, because it would enable the auditor to verify quickly that the record counts were properly included in the compilation.

B.

Inspection, because it would enable the auditor to verify how management enters the data into the application for processing.

C.

Testing data, because it would enable the auditor to ensure that the application processes the transaction as described by management.

D.

Reperformance, because it enables the auditor to verify that the application performed the calculation correctly.

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Question # 189

Which of the following is an appropriate activity when supervising engagements?

A.

During engagement planning, the audit work program should be discussed between auditors and the engagement supervisor with the supervisor approving the work program.

B.

During fieldwork, scope changes made to the work program are at the auditor's discretion and should be supported adequately in the workpapers.

C.

Engagement supervision is most critical to the fieldwork and reporting phases of the audit, as this is where the majority of the work takes place.

D.

A degree of high supervision to no supervision may be provided to an auditor depending on his level of competence and the complexity of the engagement.

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Question # 190

The chief audit executive (CAE) should determine whether the internal audit activity has confirmed the status of all of management's corrective actions Doing so would help the CAE assess which of the following?

A.

Disclosure risk.

B.

Residual risk

C.

Compliance risk

D.

Inherent risk

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Question # 191

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization's suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs

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Question # 192

When setting the scope for the identification and assessment of key risks and controls in a process, which of the following would be the least appropriate approach?

A.

Develop the scope of the audit based on a bottom-up perspective to ensure that all business objectives are considered.

B.

Develop the scope of the audit to include controls that are necessary to manage risk associated with a critical business objective.

C.

Specify that the auditors need to assess only key controls, but may include an assessment of non-key controls if there is value to the business in providing such assurance.

D.

Ensure the audit includes an assessment of manual and automated controls to determine whether business risks are effectively managed.

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Question # 193

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Exception reports

C.

Training programs,

D.

Supervisory review.

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Question # 194

For which of the following fraud engagement activities would it be most appropriate to involve a forensic auditor?

A.

Independently evaluating conflicts of interests.

B.

Assessing contracts for relevant terms and conditions.

C.

Performing statistical analysis for data anomalies.

D.

Preparing evidentiary documentation.

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Question # 195

Which of the following steps should an internal auditor complete when conducting a review of an electronic data interchange application provided by a third-party service?

Ensure encryption keys meet ISO standards.

Determine whether an independent review of the service provider's operation has been conducted.

Verify that the service provider’s contracts include necessary clauses.

Verify that only public-switched data networks are used by the service provider.

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Question # 196

An organization's finance manager plans to implement a state-of-the-art management system to better manage the organization's receivables. The finance manager consulted the chief audit executive (CAE) and asked for her assistance in determining whether the organization is able to accommodate this system. How would the CAE proceed to determine the objectives of this engagement

A.

Ask the CEO to determine the scope and objectives of the engagement

B.

Request that the board disclose its concerns over governance for inclusion in the engagement

C.

Discuss the concerns with the finance manager and work together to agree on the engagement objectives

D.

Review previous audit reports from the area and develop engagement objectives to address the area's key risks and controls

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Question # 197

When addressing the excessive overtime being paid lo employees in an organization's customer service call center, which of the following would be most relevant for the internal auditor to use?

1 Confirmation.

2. Trend analysis.

3 External benchmarking

4. Internal benchmarking

A.

1.2 and 3

B.

1.2. and 4.

C.

1.3. and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

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Question # 198

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

A.

For assurance engagements, internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls.

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review, to prevent tipping off probable audit tests.

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning.

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Question # 199

A customer has supplied personal information to a bank to facilitate opening an account. The bank is part of a larger group of companies with core businesses including general insurance, life insurance, and investment products. Considering that the customer has closed his only account with the bank and the statutory data retention period has elapsed, which of the following actions by the bank is most likely to align with appropriate data privacy principles?

A.

The bank destroys all records containing a customer's personal information without informing the customer.

B.

Based on an assessment of likely products of interest to the customer, the bank shares the customer’s personal information with other companies within the group and informs the customer.

C.

The bank retains customer information to facilitate easier verification of personal information in the event that the customer returns to reopen his account. The customer is not informed.

D.

The customer's personal information is used for market research by an external company and the customer is informed prior to publishing the results of the market research.

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Question # 200

Which of the following statements is true regarding a drawback of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

A.

When internal auditors need to cover many control procedures using ICQs is generally less efficient than conducting observations and inspections

B.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors lo compile appropriate ICQs for business activities that are governed by standardized operating procedures

C.

ICQs are inadequate to provide effective assurance on how organizational processes are executed in practice.

D.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors to process completed questionnaires, because ICQs frequently elicit detailed comments and long answers from management

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Question # 201

A financial services organization's CEO requests that the internal audit function carry out fraud scenario testing over the supplier payment process. The engagement supervisor intends to identify these scenarios using a technique that motivates the sharing of ideas. Which of the following provides the internal audit function with this information?

A.

Fraud risk matrix

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Walkthroughs

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Question # 202

Which of the following is an advantage of an internal audit activity coordinating with a management-defined risk universe?

A.

Increased completeness, including risk categories like political, supplier, and social media.

B.

Business managers can identify and assess risks that occur within each category.

C.

The internal audit activity can rely on management's risk assessment.

D.

Organizationwide audits are required since risk events within categories occur in many different ways.

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Question # 203

Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take when senior management decides to accept risks by choosing to do business with a questionable vendor?

A.

Persuade senior management to take appropriate action.

B.

Cancel issuing the engagement report due to the assumed risks.

C.

Accept senior management’s assumption of the risks.

D.

Discuss the issue with the board for them to take appropriate action.

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Question # 204

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager's decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

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Question # 205

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues’ workpapers for completeness and format

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met

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Question # 206

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

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Question # 207

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor's use of review notes?

A.

The engagement supervisor's review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor's review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor's review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor's review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

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Question # 208

During a review of the treasury function an internal auditor identified a risk that all bank accounts may net to include in the daily reconciliation process.

Which of the following responses would be most effective to mitigate this risk?

A.

The treasury supervisor establishes a threshold for amounts on bank statements to be reconciled against data in the system

B.

The treasury analyst performs a daily reconciliation of al bank statements obtained via email against data in the system

C.

The treasury analyst reviews a daily report automatically generated by the treasury system, which shows bank statements that have not been uploaded into the accounting system.

D.

The treasury supervisor seeks an annual confirmation from the bank regarding the bank statements processed within a year

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Question # 209

Which of the following is an advantage of utilizing an external fraud specialist in a suspected fraud investigation?

A.

increased access to the organization's employees.

B.

Increased ability to preserve evidence and the chain of command.

C.

Increased ability to scrutinize the organization's key business processes.

D.

increased access to the organization's software and proprietary data.

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Question # 210

An internal auditor is using computer-assisted audit techniques to examine employee expenses across several divisions of the organization. Which of the following is true in this situation?

A.

The data from various sources should remain segregated for easier analysis and discovery of anomalies.

B.

Fraud detection techniques should be performed against full data populations.

C.

A reactive approach is best suited for fraud detection due to the effectiveness of tips and whistleblowing programs.

D.

Random sampling is an effective method of detecting fraudulent transactions.

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Question # 211

Which of the following is an advantage of nonstatistical sampling over statistical sampling?

A.

Nonstatistical sampling provides more objective recommendations for management.

B.

Nonstatistical sampling provides an opportunity to select the minimum sample size required to satisfy the objectives of the audit tests.

C.

Nonstatistical sampling provides for the use of subjective judgment in determining the sample size.

D.

Nonstatistical sampling permits the auditor to specify a level of reliability and the desired degree of precision.

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Question # 212

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the internal audit activity’s work?

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment.

B.

Policies that match internal auditors' performance with feedback from management of the area under review

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of Inappropriate business relationships

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Question # 213

Which of the following are advantages of flowcharts over internal control questionnaires''

1 Flowcharts reduce the need to test whether employees are observing internal control processes

2 Flowcharts provide a visual depiction of the processes in the area under review 3. Flowcharts identify and prioritize internal control design weaknesses.

4 Flowcharts highlight the control points to help internal auditors evaluate control design

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 3 only

D.

2. 3 and 4 only

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Question # 214

Which of the following is an inherent risk of issuing an opinion on the overall effectiveness of internal control?

A.

The results of individual engagements do not support a satisfactory opinion on the effectiveness of internal control.

B.

The results of the individual engagements do not support a positive assurance opinion on the effectiveness of internal control

C.

The audit risk and associated legal implications increase

D.

The reliance on other assurance providers increases

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Question # 215

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

A.

For assurance engagements internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review to prevent tipping off probable audit lasts

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal a auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning

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Question # 216

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization's strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Question # 217
A.

Generalized audit software.

B.

Utility software.

C.

Integrated test facilities.

D.

Audit expert systems.

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Question # 218

Which of the following engagements is likely to be most appropriate for an organization that is planning an acquisition?

A.

A performance engagement.

B.

A system security engagement.

C.

A due diligence engagement.

D.

A compliance engagement.

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Question # 219

According to IIA guidance, which of the following strategies would add the least value to the achievement of the internal audit activity's (IAA's) objectives?

A.

Align organizational activities to internal audit activities and measure according to the approved IAA performance measures.

B.

Establish a periodic review of monitoring and reporting processes to help ensure relevant IAA reporting.

C.

Use the results of IAA engagement and advisory reporting to guide current and future internal audit activities.

D.

Establish a format and frequency for IAA reporting that is appropriate and aligns with the organization's governance structure.

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Question # 220

Which of the following represents the best example of a strategic goal?

A.

Customer satisfaction index has to be 90% each quarter.

B.

Ten rapid charging stations will be installed next year.

C.

The organization aims to decrease the budget by 10%.

D.

The organization will be carbon neutral within 5 years.

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Question # 221

Which of the following is the primary weakness of internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

A.

ICQs do not allow for open-ended questions.

B.

ICQs do not allow for evaluating multiple locations.

C.

ICQs require significant auditor follow-up, as different managers may give different responses.

D.

ICQ respondents have incentives to answer that there are internal controls in place.

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Question # 222

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management's self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

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Question # 223

Which of the following methodologies consists of the internal auditor holding individual meetings with different people, asking them the same questions, and aggregating the results?

A.

Facilitated workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews.

D.

Elicitation.

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Question # 224

An internal auditor submitted a report containing recommendations for management to enhance internal controls related to investments. To follow up, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the internal auditor to take?

A.

Observe corrective measures.

B.

Seek a management assurance declaration.

C.

Follow up during the next scheduled audit.

D.

Conduct appropriate testing to verify management responses.

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