CIFC Questions and Answers

A passively managed fund is a type of investment fund that follows a predetermined strategy or rule to track the performance of a market index, such as the S&P 500, or a specific sector, such as technology or health care. A passively managed fund does not involve active decision-making by the fund manager, who simply replicates the composition and weighting of the index or sector. A passively managed fund aims to match the return and risk of the index or sector, rather than outperform it. A passively managed fund typically has lower fees and expenses than an actively managed fund, as it requires less research, trading, and oversight.

An exchange traded fund (ETF) is a type of passively managed fund that trades on a stock exchange like a common stock. An ETF holds a basket of securities that mirrors an index or sector, and its price fluctuates throughout the day based on supply and demand. An ETF allows investors to gain exposure to a diversified portfolio of securities with low costs, high liquidity, and tax efficiency.

A commodity pool is a type of investment fund that invests in futures contracts or options on commodities, such as oil, gold, or wheat. A commodity pool is usually actively managed by a commodity trading advisor (CTA), who uses various strategies to generate returns from the price movements of commodities.

A hedge fund is a type of investment fund that employs sophisticated and often aggressive strategies to achieve high returns and reduce risk. A hedge fund is usually actively managed by a hedge fund manager, who has wide discretion and flexibility to use various instruments, such as derivatives, leverage, short selling, arbitrage, etc. A hedge fund is typically available only to accredited investors who meet certain income and net worth criteria.

A labour-sponsored investment fund (LSIF) is a type of investment fund that provides venture capital to small and medium-sized Canadian businesses, while offering tax benefits to investors. An LSIF is usually actively managed by a labour union or an organization affiliated with a labour union, who selects the companies to invest in based on their potential for growth and job creation.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

A registered disability savings plan (RDSP) is a savings plan intended to help parents and others save for the long-term financial security of a person who is eligible for the disability tax credit (DTC). The DTC is a non-refundable tax credit that helps persons with disabilities or their supporting persons reduce the amount of income tax they may have to pay. To be eligible for the DTC, a person must have a severe and prolonged impairment in physical or mental functions, as defined by the Income Tax Act and as certified by a medical practitioner. Therefore, Alex must qualify for the DTC in order to be eligible for an RDSP. References: What is a registered disability savings plan (RDSP) - Canada.ca, Disability tax credit - Canada.ca

Implied needs of your clients are needs reflected by statements made by clients regarding problems and dissatisfactions1. For example, a client may say “I’m worried about outliving my savings” or “I don’t understand how this investment works”. These statements imply that the client has a need for retirement planning or financial education, respectively. Implied needs are different from explicit needs, which are statements of wants and needs made by clients1. For example, a client may say “I want to save for my child’s education” or “I need a low-risk investment”. These statements express the client’s goals and preferences clearly. Statements made by you showing readiness to solve a client’s problem are not implied needs, but rather responses to implied needs1. For example, you may say “I can help you create a retirement plan that suits your lifestyle” or “I can explain how this investment works and what are the benefits and risks”. Statements made by clients expressing the desire for lower commissions are not implied needs, but rather objections or concerns that may arise during the sales process2. For example, a client may say “Your fees are too high” or “I can get a better deal elsewhere”. These statements may indicate that the client is not convinced of the value of your service or product, or that they are trying to negotiate a lower price. References: Unit 2: Know Your Client, Unit 10: Sales Process

Tax deductions are amounts that reduce your total income before calculating your tax payable. They lower your marginal tax rate, which is the tax rate that applies to your last dollar of income. For example, if Wilma’s total income is $50,000 and she claims $5,000 in tax deductions, her taxable income will be $45,000 and her marginal tax rate will be lower than if she had no deductions. Therefore, A is the correct answer. References: All deductions, credits, and expenses - Personal income tax - Canada.ca

The current yield on a bond is the annual interest payment divided by the current market price of the bond. In this case, the annual interest payment is 7% of the face value, which is $700. The current market price of the bond is $9,230. Therefore, the current yield is:

9230700​×100%=7.58%

The current yield is different from the coupon rate, which is the annual interest payment divided by the face value of the bond. The coupon rate does not change over the life of the bond, but the current yield changes as the market price of the bond fluctuates. References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 5: Fixed-Income Securities, Section 5.2: Bond Pricing and Yield, page 5-61
• Current Yield Definition - Investopedia2

The federal tax on eligible Canadian dividends is calculated as follows:

• First, the dividend amount is grossed up by 38%, which means multiplying it by 1.38. This is to account for the corporate tax that has already been paid by the company. Eleanora’s grossed-up dividend is $500 x 1.38 = $690.
• Second, the grossed-up dividend is multiplied by the federal marginal tax rate to get the gross federal tax. Eleanora’s gross federal tax is $690 x 0.29 = $200.10.
• Third, the grossed-up dividend is multiplied by the federal dividend tax credit rate to get the federal tax credit. This is to avoid double taxation of the dividend income. Eleanora’s federal tax credit is $690 x 0.1502 = $103.64.
• Fourth, the federal tax credit is subtracted from the gross federal tax to get the net federal tax. Eleanora’s net federal tax is $200.10 - $103.64 = $96.46.

Therefore, Eleanora will pay $96.46 in federal tax on her dividend. References: How Dividends Are Taxed and Reported on Tax Returns - Investopedia, Dividend Tax Credit in Canada - TurboTax

 A portfolio with a beta less than 1 would be suitable for Gregory, who is a conservative investor and wants to reduce his exposure to market risk. A beta less than 1 means that the portfolio is less volatile than the market index and tends to dampen its movements. This implies that the portfolio would fall less than the market in a downturn, but also rise less than the market in an upturn. A portfolio with a beta equal to 1 would move in the same direction and magnitude as the market, while a portfolio with a beta greater than 1 would be more volatile than the market and amplify its movements.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 3: Risk and Return1

 Dollar-cost averaging is the practice of systematically investing equal amounts of money at regular intervals, regardless of the price of a security. This strategy can reduce the overall impact of price volatility and lower the average cost per share. By buying regularly in up and down markets, investors buy more shares at lower prices and fewer shares at higher prices. Dollar-cost averaging aims to prevent a poorly timed lump sum investment at a potentially higher price. References: What Is Dollar-Cost Averaging? - Investopedia

 According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, different types of investment income are taxed differently in Canada. Interest income is fully taxed at the marginal rate, while dividend income is favourably taxed with a dividend tax credit. Capital gains are taxed on 50% of the gain at the marginal rate, and foreign income is subject to withholding tax. Therefore, a tax-efficient strategy is to include interest paying investments, such as bonds or GICs, in the registered plan, where they can grow tax-deferred until withdrawal. Dividend paying investments, such as Canadian stocks or ETFs, should be included in the non-registered plan, where they can benefit from the lower tax rate and the dividend tax credit. Foreign income should also be avoided in the non-registered plan, unless it is held in a U.S. dollar account or a foreign currency hedged ETF, to reduce the impact of withholding tax and currency fluctuations.

References: 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Taline’s risk profile should be “low” because her risk capacity is low and she cannot afford large investment losses. Risk capacity is the degree of risk that an investor must take in order to achieve their financial goals, while risk tolerance is the degree of risk that an investor is willing to take. Risk capacity is more important than risk tolerance in determining an investor’s risk profile1. Taline has a low risk capacity because she lives on a low, fixed income and cannot afford to lose money. Her risk tolerance may be high, but that does not mean she should take more risk than she can handle. Faruq should not override Taline’s risk capacity or assess her risk profile based on the higher of her risk tolerance and risk capacity, as that would be unsuitable and unethical. References: Unit 3: Suitability

Know Your Client (KYC) requirements are ongoing obligations that advisors must fulfill to ensure that they provide suitable recommendations and services to their clients. KYC requirements include collecting and documenting information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. KYC requirements also include monitoring and updating the client’s information and investment performance on a regular basis. According to the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA), advisors must review the KYC information at least once every 36 months, or more frequently if there are any material changes in the client’s circumstances or needs1. Advisors must also monitor the investment performance of the client’s portfolio and compare it with the client’s expectations and goals. If the investment performance is not satisfactory or consistent with the client’s risk tolerance, advisors must take appropriate actions, such as rebalancing the portfolio, switching funds, or revising the investment strategy2. Therefore, Harold’s responsibility moving forward is to monitor the investment performance of Felicia’s lump sum investment and determine if it is on track to satisfy her financial needs for the next 5 years. He must also review her KYC information at least once every 36 months, or sooner if there are any changes in her situation or objectives. References:

• MFDA Bulletin #0756-P - Know-Your-Client and Suitability1
• MFDA Bulletin #0760-P - Monitoring of Investment Performance2

 C is correct because bond funds receive fixed interest payments from most of their investments, as they invest mainly in bonds and other fixed-income securities that pay a regular coupon rate. Dividend funds receive variable dividend payments from most of their investments, as they invest mainly in stocks and other equity securities that pay dividends based on the company’s earnings and policies. The return of dividend funds does not rely only on interest rates (A), but also on other factors such as stock prices, earnings growth, dividend yield, and dividend payout ratio. The return of bond funds also depends on interest rates, as well as other factors such as credit quality, maturity, duration, and yield curve. When interest rates rise, the NAVPU of both bond funds and dividend funds decreases (B), not rises, as it lowers the present value of their future cash flows. Bond fund distributions do not receive more favorable tax treatment than that of dividend funds (D), but rather less favorable, as interest income is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate while eligible dividends receive a dividend tax credit that reduces their taxable amount. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

Gifts and benefits may be provided to a client if your employer is aware of the benefits and has given approval. This is one of the rules concerning conflicts of interest set by the MFDA. A conflict of interest is a situation where a person’s personal interests conflict with their professional obligations or duties. Gifts and benefits may create a conflict of interest if they influence or appear to influence the person’s judgment or actions. Therefore, the MFDA requires that any gifts and benefits given or received by a mutual fund dealer or its representatives must be disclosed to and approved by the dealer, and must not compromise or appear to compromise the dealer’s or representative’s integrity or objectivity. References: MFDA Bulletin #0756-P - Conflicts of Interest

LSIFs are a type of investment fund that provide venture capital to small and medium-sized Canadian businesses, while offering tax benefits to investors. However, LSIFs are also considered high-risk and illiquid investments, as they invest in private companies that may not have a proven track record or marketability. Therefore, LSIFs are not suitable for investors with a short-term time horizon or a low risk tolerance. Investors who buy LSIFs receive a 15% federal tax credit and may also receive an additional provincial tax credit, depending on the province where they reside. However, these tax credits are conditional on holding the LSIF investment for at least 8 years. If investors redeem their LSIF investment before the 8-year period, they will have to repay the tax credits they received.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

An eligible dividend is a type of dividend that is paid by a Canadian corporation that meets certain criteria and is eligible for the enhanced dividend tax credit. The dividend tax credit reduces the amount of tax payable on dividends by providing a credit against the tax liability. An eligible dividend has a higher gross-up rate and a higher dividend tax credit rate than a non-eligible dividend, which means that it results in a lower effective tax rate. A capital dividend is a type of dividend that is paid from the capital gains realized by a corporation and is tax-free to the shareholder. However, a tactical asset allocation fund is unlikely to pay capital dividends, as they are usually reserved for private corporations. A capital gain is the profit from selling an asset at a higher price than its purchase price. Only 50% of the capital gain is taxable, which means that it has a lower effective tax rate than interest income, which is fully taxable. However, a capital gain distribution from a mutual fund is not the same as a capital gain from selling the mutual fund units. A capital gain distribution is paid when the fund realizes a capital gain from selling its underlying assets, and it is taxable in the year it is received, regardless of whether the shareholder sells the fund units or not. Therefore, it does not benefit from the deferral of tax that occurs when the shareholder sells the fund units at a later date. An interest distribution is paid when the fund earns interest income from its underlying assets, such as bonds or money market instruments. Interest income is fully taxable at the marginal tax rate, which means that it has the highest effective tax rate among the four types of distributions.

To compare the amount of tax payable for each type of distribution, we can use the following formula:

Tax=(Distribution×Gross−up)×MarginalTaxRate−(Distribution×Gross−up)×DividendTaxCreditRate

For simplicity, we assume that Davis receives $100 of each type of distribution and that he does not have any other income or deductions. We also ignore any provincial taxes or credits. Using the formula, we can calculate the tax payable for each type of distribution as follows:

• Capital Dividend: Tax=(100×0)×0.26−(100×0)×0=0
• Capital Gain: Tax=(100×0.5)×0.26−(100×0.5)×0=13
• Eligible Dividend: Tax=(100×1.38)×0.26−(100×1.38)×0.15=10.14
• Interest: Tax=(100×1)×0.26−(100×1)×0=26

Therefore, an eligible dividend would result in the lowest amount of tax payable, followed by a capital gain, a capital dividend, and an interest distribution.

References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.2: Taxation of Investment Income, page 7-41
• Eligible Dividends Definition - Investopedia2
• Capital Dividend Definition - Investopedia3
• Capital Gain Distribution Definition - Investopedia4

A is correct because retractable preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the option to sell the shares back to the issuer at a predetermined price and within a specified time. This feature provides the holder with more flexibility and protection against interest rate fluctuations. Participating preferred shares (B) are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the right to receive additional dividends if the issuer’s earnings exceed a certain level. Convertible preferred shares © are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the option to convert the shares into common shares of the issuer at a predetermined ratio and price. Redeemable preferred shares (D) are a type of preferred shares that give the issuer the option to buy back the shares from the holder at a predetermined price and within a specified time. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

 A commodity pool is a type of mutual fund that can invest in specified derivatives and forward contracts for commodities, such as grains, meats, metals, energy products, and coffee. A commodity pool allows investors to gain exposure to the commodity markets without having to buy or sell the physical commodities themselves. A commodity pool may also use leverage and hedging strategies to enhance returns and reduce risks. Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Commodity Pool: Definition and How It Works - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

 Moving the DEF Bond Fund to the RRSP would be more tax-efficient than moving any of the other funds. This is because bond funds generate interest income, which is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate in a non-registered account. By moving the bond fund to an RRSP, Darryl can defer paying taxes on the interest income until he withdraws it from the RRSP. Moving the GHI Global Equity Fund to the RRSP (B) would not be tax-efficient, as global equity funds generate foreign income and dividends, which are subject to foreign withholding taxes in an RRSP. Moving $20,000 from each of the three funds to the RRSP © would not be tax-efficient, as it would trigger capital gains taxes on all three funds in proportion to their returns. Moving the ABC Canadian Equity Fund to the RRSP (D) would not be tax-efficient, as Canadian equity funds generate Canadian dividends, which are eligible for a dividend tax credit in a non-registered account. By moving the Canadian equity fund to an RRSP, Darryl would lose this tax advantage and pay taxes on the dividends at his marginal tax rate when he withdraws them from the RRSP. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

D is correct because a passive portfolio management strategy is based on the assumption that the markets are efficient and that it is impossible or very difficult to consistently find mis-priced securities that can generate abnormal returns. A passive portfolio manager aims to replicate the performance of a market index or benchmark by holding a diversified portfolio of securities that mirrors the index or benchmark. A passive portfolio manager does not believe in using active strategies such as market timing, security selection, or sector rotation. The manager does not need to use benchmarks (A), as they are essential for measuring and evaluating the performance of a passive portfolio. The manager does not wish to create capital gains in the mutual fund by frequently buying and selling stocks (B), as this would incur higher transaction costs and taxes, and deviate from the index or benchmark. The manager does not believe he or she can outperform the market with his or her stock picking skills ©, as this would imply an active portfolio management strategy. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

The statement that is true about Marta’s situation is option D. A registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered account that provides income in retirement by converting savings from an RRSP or other sources. A RRIF holder must withdraw a minimum amount from their RRIF each year, starting from the year after they open their RRIF. The minimum amount is calculated based on a percentage factor set by the Canada Revenue Agency (CRA) and the value of the RRIF at the beginning of each year. However, due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the CRA has reduced the required minimum withdrawals from RRIFs by 25% for 2020 and 2021. Therefore, Marta does not have to withdraw the minimum amount this year if she chooses to take advantage of this temporary measure. Therefore, option D is true about Marta’s situation. The other statements are not true about Marta’s situation. Option A is false because she will not be able to continue contributing to her RRIF and be subject to the same annual limits as her RRSP; rather, she will not be able to make any further contributions to her RRIF once she converts her RRSP to a RRIF. Option B is false because she will not incur a tax liability when she converts her RRSP to a RRIF; rather, she will only pay tax on the amount that she withdraws from her RRIF each year. Option C is false because she will not be subject to annual maximum withdrawal limits; rather, she will be able to withdraw any amount from her RRIF as long as she meets the minimum withdrawal requirement. References: [Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Making RRIF withdrawals | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [RRIF minimum withdrawal factors], [RRIFs: Temporary 25% reduction in minimum withdrawals for 2020 and 2021]

A strategic asset allocation strategy is one that involves setting target allocations for various asset classes based on the investor’s risk tolerance, time horizon, and investment objectives, and rebalancing the portfolio periodically to maintain the original allocations. This strategy is compatible with a buy-and-hold approach and aims to achieve long-term goals by diversifying across different asset classes and markets. In this case, you are implementing a strategic asset allocation strategy for your client Sierra by assigning 30% of her portfolio to fixed income and 70% to equities, and planning to rebalance her portfolio when the actual allocations deviate significantly from the target allocations.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7, Section 7.1

A registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered plan that provides a stream of income in retirement. A RRIF can be created by converting an RRSP, but once the conversion is done, the plan holder can no longer make contributions to the RRSP or the RRIF. Therefore, any unused RRSP contribution room is lost after the conversion. The other statements are incorrect because:

• A. There is a minimum age to be an annuitant to a RRIF, which is 71 years old. However, a plan holder can convert an RRSP to a RRIF at any age before 71.
• C. Minimum withdrawals are required to start in the year following the year the RRIF was established, not in the current calendar year.
• D. Investments that qualify as an eligible investment for a RRIF are the same as for an RRSP, such as mutual funds, stocks, bonds, GICs, etc. References:
• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Registered Plans, Section 6.2: Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF), page 6-81
• Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF) - Canada.ca2

Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that offer its shareholders the opportunity to receive additional dividends if the company’s profit exceeds a stated level. These dividends are paid in addition to the fixed dividends that are normally paid to preferred shareholders. Participating preferred shares allow shareholders to benefit from both fixed and variable income streams, depending on the company’s performance. References: Participating Preferred Stock Definition - Investopedia, Preferred Shares Explained | TD Direct Investing

A mutual fund trust is a type of unit trust that meets certain conditions under the Canadian Income Tax Act and is eligible for favourable tax treatment. A unit trust is a collective investment vehicle that holds assets and distributes profits to individual unit owners, also called unitholders, instead of reinvesting them in the fund. A mutual fund trust is not a corporation and does not have a board of directors or shareholders. It is also not a closed-end fund, which has a fixed number of shares that trade on an exchange. A mutual fund trust is an open-end fund, which can issue and redeem units at any time based on the net asset value of the fund.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5, Section 5.1

To fulfill the know your client (KYC) obligation, an advisor must collect and document information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. The KYC rule is a regulatory requirement that ensures that the advisor understands the client’s needs and goals, and provides suitable recommendations that match the client’s profile. In this case, Cosmo has provided some information about his personal and financial situation, such as his age, occupation, income, assets, and inheritance. He has also given some indication of his investment objectives, such as saving for retirement, and his investment knowledge, such as making his own investment decisions and preferring balanced funds. However, he has not disclosed his risk tolerance, which is his willingness and ability to accept fluctuations in the value of his investments. Risk tolerance is an important factor that affects the choice of investment strategies and products. Therefore, to complete the KYC process, the advisor needs to obtain additional information about Cosmo’s risk tolerance. References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 1: The Investment Funds Industry, Section 1.4: The Know Your Client (KYC) Rule, page 1-111
• Know Your Client (KYC) Definition - Investopedia2

Discretionary trading is a type of trading activity where the advisor makes investment decisions on behalf of the client without obtaining the client’s prior consent for each transaction. Discretionary trading is only allowed if the client has signed a discretionary management agreement with the advisor and the advisor is registered as a portfolio manager. A limited authorization form (LAF) does not grant the advisor the authority to engage in discretionary trading. A LAF only allows the advisor to execute trades that are initiated by the client, such as pre-authorized contributions or withdrawals. Therefore, Khuyen has performed discretionary trading by switching Bao’s funds without consulting him, which is a violation of her registrant responsibilities and ethical standards. References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 2: The Sales Process, Section 2.4: Ethics and Compliance, page 2-161
• Discretionary Trading Definition - Investopedia2

Based on Orel’s stated need, recommending an RRSP contribution is unsuitable because RRSP withdrawals are taxed as income and may affect Orel’s eligibility for government benefits. A TFSA is more suitable for Orel’s goal of developing emergency savings because TFSA withdrawals are tax-free and do not affect income-tested benefits. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

The net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of a mutual fund is calculated by dividing the net asset value (NAV) of the fund by the number of outstanding units. The NAV is the difference between the total assets and total liabilities of the fund. Current assets and current liabilities are not relevant for the NAVPU calculation. Therefore, Great Lengths Equity Fund’s NAVPU is ($135 million - $10 million) / 11 million = $11.36. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Unit 8, Lesson 1

The statement that is correct about Maalik’s identification requirements is option A. According to Section 7 of the Proceeds of Crime (Money Laundering) and Terrorist Financing Act (PCMLTFA), registered firms and individuals must report any suspicious transactions or attempted transactions to FINTRAC, which is Canada’s financial intelligence unit that collects, analyzes, and discloses information related to money laundering and terrorist financing activities. A suspicious transaction or attempted transaction is one that there are reasonable grounds to suspect that it is related to a money laundering or terrorist financing offence. Therefore, if Maalik determines that there is anything suspicious about John’s transaction, he must report the matter to his dealer, who must report it to FINTRAC within 30 days of making the determination. The other statements are not correct about Maalik’s identification requirements. Option B is false because Maalik does not need to report John as a PEFP to his dealer; rather, he must take reasonable measures to determine whether John is a PEFP or a family member or close associate of a PEFP, and if so, he must obtain senior management approval before opening an account for John, take enhanced measures to verify John’s identity, and conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of John’s account activity. Option C is false because Maalik does not need to collect personal information about John and report it to his dealer if John wants to make a large cash deposit; rather, he must verify John’s identity using an original, valid, and current document or information from a reliable source, keep a record of John’s name and address and the date and amount of the deposit, and report any large cash transactions of $10,000 or more in Canadian currency or its equivalent to FINTRAC within 15 days of receiving the cash. Option D is false because Maalik does not need to report the attempt to his dealer if John attempts to make a suspicious deposit; rather, he must report the attempt directly to FINTRAC within 30 days of detecting the suspicion, regardless of whether the transaction was completed or not. References: [FINTRAC - Home], [FINTRAC - Reporting], [FINTRAC - Guideline 2: Suspicious Transactions], [FINTRAC - Guideline 6A: Record Keeping and Client Identification for Financial Entities]

 Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder a right to share in the issuer’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. This means that participating preferred shareholders may receive additional dividends if the issuer performs well. Iliana owns participating preferred shares in the First Canadian Bank, which means she has a right to share in the bank’s net profits over and above the specified dividend rate. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute

The amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC is $950,000. The IPC is a not-for-profit corporation that provides coverage to eligible clients of insolvent members of the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA). The IPC covers up to $1 million per account type per client for losses of securities, cash, and other property held by the insolvent member. The account types include RRSPs, RRIFs, TFSAs, RESPs, and non-registered accounts. Therefore, the client will be eligible for coverage of $950,000 for his RRSP account, which is the value of his securities and cash held by Tradewell Mutual Funds in his RRSP account. The client will not be eligible for any coverage for his non-registered account, as it is held in nominee name, meaning that the securities and cash are registered in the name of Tradewell Mutual Funds on behalf of the client. Nominee name accounts are not covered by the IPC, as they are not considered to be at risk in the event of insolvency. Therefore, option B is correct regarding the amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC. The other options are not correct regarding the amount that the client will be eligible to receive from the IPC. Option A is false because the client will be eligible for some coverage, as his RRSP account is covered by the IPC. Option C is false because the client will not be eligible for coverage of $1.5 million, as his non-registered account is not covered by the IPC. Option D is false because the client will not be eligible for coverage of $550,000, as his non-registered account is not covered by the IPC. References: [IPC Coverage | IFIC], [IPC - Home], [IPC - Coverage]

The answer that you should tell Lior is that dividend funds tend to be less volatile and lower risk than equity funds. A dividend fund is a type of equity fund that invests primarily in dividend-paying stocks, which are shares of companies that distribute a portion of their earnings to shareholders on a regular basis. A dividend fund provides income and capital appreciation to investors, as well as tax advantages for eligible dividends paid by Canadian corporations. A dividend fund tends to be less volatile and lower risk than an equity fund that invests in non-dividend-paying stocks or growth stocks, which are shares of companies that reinvest their earnings into expanding their business rather than paying dividends. This is because dividend-paying stocks are usually issued by well-established and profitable companies that have stable cash flows and earnings, which make them more resilient to market fluctuations and economic downturns. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what you should tell Lior. The other options are not correct or relevant to what you should tell Lior. Option A is false because equity funds are not more appropriate than dividend funds if Lior requires a steady flow of income; rather, dividend funds are more suitable for income-oriented investors who want to receive regular dividends from their investments. Option B is false because dividend funds do not generate tax-preferred income while income from equity funds is fully taxable; rather, both types of funds generate taxable income for investors, but eligible dividends from Canadian corporations may qualify for a lower tax rate than other types of income due to the dividend tax credit. Option D is false because equity funds do not hold common shares while dividend funds hold only preferred shares; rather, both types of funds hold common shares, but dividend funds focus on common shares that pay dividends, while equity funds may also hold common shares that do not pay dividends or pay low dividends. References: [Dividend Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Equity Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Dividend Tax Credit | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

 Underwriting is the process through which an individual or institution takes on financial risk for a fee. This risk most typically involves loans, insurance, or investments. In the case of securities, underwriting involves conducting research and assessing the degree of risk each applicant or entity brings to the table before assuming that risk. During the underwriting process, investment bankers raise investment capital from investors on behalf of corporations and governments issuing securities. They also help determine the company’s underlying value compared to the risk of funding its IPO. References: Underwriting: Definition and How the Various Types Work - Investopedia, The future of insurance underwriting | Deloitte Insights

The value of John’s investment on December 31 of this year can be calculated by multiplying the number of units he holds by the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) on that date. Since John invested $500 on January 3 and $500 on July 1, he holds a total of 125.6 units (62.8 units from the first investment and 62.8 units from the second investment). Therefore, the value of his investment on December 31 will be 125.6 units x $9.55 NAVPU = $1,256.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2: Mutual Funds1

The question that you should ask Sarah and Kyle next is what is their investment objective for these savings. An investment objective is a statement that defines the purpose and goals of an investment. It helps investors and advisors select suitable investment products and strategies that match the investor’s needs and expectations. An investment objective typically considers factors such as risk tolerance, return expectations, time horizon, liquidity needs, tax situation, and personal preferences. Therefore, option B is the correct question to ask Sarah and Kyle next. The other options are not relevant or sufficient to determine their investment objective. Option A is related to their risk tolerance, but it is not the only factor that affects their investment objective. Option C is related to their net worth, but it does not indicate their purpose and goals for their savings. Option D is related to their income, but it does not reflect their return expectations or liquidity needs for their savings. References: [Investment Objective Definition], [Investment Objectives: What They Are and How to Use Them], [Investment Objectives | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

This statement is true because a mutual fund trust can distribute its net income and net realized capital gains to its unitholders, and avoid paying tax at the fund level. The unitholders then report their share of the fund’s income and capital gains on their tax returns, and pay tax according to their marginal tax rates. In this case, Redwood has generated $14.25 per unit of capital gains from the sale of Canadian and foreign corporations, and $2.00 per unit of capital losses from the sale of foreign corporations. Therefore, its net capital gains are $12.25 per unit ($14.25 - $2.00), which it can distribute to its unitholders. The unitholders will only include 50% of the net capital gains in their taxable income, as per the inclusion rate for capital gains in Canada1. The other 50% is tax-free.

The other statements are false because:

• A. Redwood cannot flow the foreign dividends to unitholders, who can then take advantage of the dividend gross-up and tax credit mechanism. This mechanism only applies to dividends received from Canadian corporations that are eligible for the enhanced dividend tax credit or the ordinary dividend tax credit2. Foreign dividends are treated as foreign income, and are subject to withholding tax by the source country and income tax by Canada3.
• C. Redwood cannot distribute the $2.00 per unit of capital losses to unitholders, who can then use them to offset their capital gains. A mutual fund trust can only distribute its net income and net realized capital gains, not its capital losses4. However, a mutual fund trust can carry forward its capital losses indefinitely and use them to reduce its taxable capital gains in future years5.
• D. Redwood does not pay the tax on foreign income, and it does distribute dividend or capital gains income from foreign sources to unitholders. A mutual fund trust pays tax on its foreign income only if it does not distribute it to its unitholders in the same year it is earned. However, most mutual fund trusts distribute all or most of their foreign income to their unitholders, as they want to avoid paying tax at the fund level and maintain their status as a mutual fund trust.

References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.3: Taxation of Mutual Funds, page 7-10
• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.2: Taxation of Investment Income, page 7-4
• Foreign Income - Canada.ca
• Mutual Fund Trusts - Canada.ca
• Capital Losses and Deductions - Canada.ca
• Taxation of Foreign Income - IFSE Institute
• Mutual Fund Trusts - IFSE Institute

This is because a target date fund is designed to reduce the risk and volatility of the portfolio as the investor gets closer to their retirement or other savings goal. Equities tend to have higher returns but also higher risk than fixed income, so a target date fund gradually reduces the exposure to equities and increases the exposure to fixed income over time. This way, the investor can benefit from the growth potential of equities in the early years and preserve their capital with the stability of fixed income in the later years. 

One of the steps in the Know Your Client (KYC) rule is to assess the client’s financial resources, which include their income, assets, liabilities, and net worth. Asking about pension plans at work is a relevant question to determine the client’s sources of income and potential retirement savings. Pension plans can also affect the client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives, as they may provide a stable and guaranteed income in the future. Asking about children, money needs, and investment experience are also important questions, but they relate to other aspects of the KYC rule, such as personal circumstances, time horizon, and investment knowledge. References:

• Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 1: The Investment Funds Industry, Section 1.4: The Know Your Client (KYC) Rule, page 1-111
• Know Your Client (KYC) Definition - Investopedia

A normal yield curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the interest rates and the maturities of different fixed income securities. It slopes upward to the right, meaning that longer-term bonds have higher yields than shorter-term bonds. This reflects the fact that investors demand higher compensation for lending money for longer periods of time and taking on more risk. A normal yield curve indicates that investors expect the economy to grow steadily and inflation to remain stable. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Unit 4, Lesson 3

Contributed funds grow tax-free within the plan3. This means that any income or capital gains earned by the investments in an RESP are not taxed until they are withdrawn3. This allows the plan to grow faster than a taxable account with the same investments and contributions3. The other statements are incorrect. Contributions to RESPs are not tax deductible3. This means that you cannot deduct the amount you contribute to an RESP from your taxable income3. However, you do not have to pay tax on the contributions when they are withdrawn from the plan3. There is no yearly contribution limit per beneficiary, but there is a lifetime contribution limit of $50,000 per beneficiary3. This means that you can contribute any amount to an RESP in any given year, as long as you do not exceed the lifetime limit for each beneficiary3. RESPs must be collapsed by the end of the 35th year of its starting date3. This means that you have up to 35 years to use the funds in an RESP for educational purposes or transfer them to another plan3. If you do not use or transfer the funds by then, you have to close the plan and pay tax on the accumulated income portion3. References: Unit 8: Retirement

A treasury bill is a short-term debt instrument issued by the government at a discount from its face value and redeemed at par value at maturity. The difference between the purchase price and the face value is the interest income earned by the investor. Therefore, Megan treats the $1,800 difference as interest income for tax purposes. Interest income is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate in the year it is received. Megan does not report any capital gain, dividend, or return of capital from the treasury bill.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5, Section 5.2

According to the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA), personal information is any factual or subjective information, recorded or not, about an identifiable individual. This includes information in any form, such as age, name, ID numbers, income, ethnic origin, or blood type. However, PIPEDA also specifies some exceptions to the definition of personal information, such as business contact information. Business contact information is any information that is used for the purpose of communicating or facilitating communication with an individual in relation to their employment, business or profession. This includes the employee’s name, position name or title, work address, work telephone number, work fax number or work electronic address. Therefore, an employee’s business address and business telephone number are not considered personal information under PIPEDA. An employee’s name could be considered personal information if it is not used for business purposes, but it is not clear from the question whether that is the case. An employee’s credit record is clearly personal information under PIPEDA, as it reveals sensitive information about the individual’s financial situation and history.

References: 1: PIPEDA in brief - Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada 2

 If Ellen receives the National Child Benefit Supplement (NCBS), Jeff may be eligible for the Canada Learning Bond (CLB). The CLB is a grant of up to $2,000 that the Government of Canada deposits into a child’s RESP to help low-income families start saving for their child’s education2. The CLB does not require any contributions from the parents. To be eligible for the CLB, the child must have been born after December 31, 2003 and the family must receive the NCBS, which is part of the Canada Child Benefit3. The other statements are false. If Jeff qualifies for additional CESG, his CESG lifetime maximum increases to $7,200, not $10,000. If Jeff decides not to pursue a post-secondary education, he cannot keep the CESG; it must be returned to the government. George may open an RESP for Jeff and it will qualify to receive CESGs, as long as George is a resident of Canada and has a valid social insurance number. References: Unit 8: Retirement, Canada Learning Bond, [Canada Education Savings Grant], [RESP Withdrawals], [RESP Providers]

Tony is employing a top-down investment approach, which is a method of selecting securities based on macroeconomic factors, such as the state of the economy, the industry trends, and the market conditions. A top-down investor starts by analyzing the big picture and then drills down to the specific sectors, regions, and companies that are expected to perform well in that environment. Tony has done an economic analysis of the various provinces and sectors of the Canadian economy and has determined that Nova Scotia and Alberta present the best prospects. He has also identified potential in the oil and gas sector. He then narrows down his selection to an oil supply firm in Medicine Hat and a drilling company in Halifax. This shows that he is using a top-down approach to choose his investments.

References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 3: Risk and Return1

A Canadian equity index fund would be the most tax-efficient option for Xerxes. A Canadian equity index fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of Canadian stocks that track a specific market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index. A Canadian equity index fund would be tax-efficient for Xerxes because it would generate mostly capital gains and eligible dividends, which are taxed at lower rates than interest income or foreign dividends. A Canadian equity index fund would also have low turnover and minimal distributions, which would defer taxes until Xerxes sells his units. The other options are less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund. A target date fund is a type of mutual fund that adjusts its asset allocation over time based on a predetermined retirement date. A target date fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would have higher turnover and more distributions, which would trigger taxes every year. A target date fund would also invest in a mix of asset classes, such as bonds and foreign equities, which would generate interest income and foreign dividends that are taxed at higher rates than capital gains and eligible dividends. A bond fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of fixed-income securities, such as government bonds, corporate bonds, and mortgage-backed securities. A bond fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would generate mostly interest income, which is taxed at the highest rate among different types of investment income. A bond fund would also have regular distributions, which would trigger taxes every year. An asset allocation fund is a type of mutual fund that invests in a portfolio of other mutual funds that cover different asset classes, such as stocks, bonds, and cash equivalents. An asset allocation fund would be less tax-efficient than a Canadian equity index fund because it would have higher fees and more distributions, which would reduce the net returns and trigger taxes every year. An asset allocation fund would also invest in a mix of asset classes, some of which would generate interest income and foreign dividends that are taxed at higher rates than capital gains and eligible dividends. References: [Canadian Equity Index Funds], [Tax-Efficient Investing], [Target Date Funds], [Bond Funds], [Asset Allocation Funds]

 Relationship Disclosure Information (RDI) is a document that provides important information about the nature and scope of the relationship between a registered firm and its clients. It covers topics such as the products and services offered by the firm, the fees and charges applicable to the client’s account, the risks associated with investing, the conflict of interest management policies of the firm, and the dispute resolution services available to the client. According to Section 14.2 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), registered firms must provide RDI to their clients before they purchase or sell securities for them or advise them to do so. Registered firms must also update RDI in a timely manner if there are any significant changes to it. To evidence that they have satisfied their RDI obligation, registered firms may retain a copy of the RDI in the client file with detailed notes to confirm that they have provided and explained RDI to their clients. This is one of the acceptable methods suggested by Alberta Securities Commission (ASC) in its presentation on RDI1. Delivering RDI only upon request or using a letter of engagement are not sufficient methods to comply with NI 31-103. Providing and explaining Fund Facts is a separate obligation under NI 31-101 Mutual Fund Distribution Rules. References: Relationship Disclosure Information August 2021, Relationship Disclosure Information, Relationship Disclosure Information