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H12-821_V1.0 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

An enterprise uses OSPF to implement network communication. To ensure data validity and security, all authentication modes supported by OSPF are enabled on routers. In this case, interface authentication is preferentially used by the routers.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 7

Without a prior version check, an engineer configures IGMP snooping on a device and the version of IGMP snooping is earlier than the IGMP versions on user hosts. In this case, which of the following situations will occur?

A.

Users cannot receive multicast data because the device forwards received IGMP Report messages only to router ports and does not generate group member ports or forwarding entries.

B.

Users cannot receive multicast data, but the device generates forwarding entries after receiving IGMP Report messages.

C.

The IGMP snooping version of the device is automatically degraded, and users can receive multicast data properly.

D.

The IGMP versions of the hosts are automatically upgraded, and users can receive multicast data properly.

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Question # 8

To enable PC1 to access PC2 using the IP address of the firewall's GE0/0/2, you need to configure NAPT for source address translation. In the following figure, fill in the blank to complete the command.

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Question # 9

After the administrator of an enterprise deploys a DHCP server, employees complain that their clients cannot obtain IP addresses from the DHCP server. Which of the following may cause this problem?

A.

Multiple DHCP servers are configured.

B.

STP is enabled on the DHCP server.

C.

The DHCP function is disabled by default, and the administrator forgets to enable the DHCP function.

D.

DHCP clients and the DHCP server are on different network segments, and no DHCP relay agent is configured on the network.

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Question # 10

Which of the following scenarios is not suitable for deploying interface PBR?

A.

A core switch needs to forward traffic between the intranet and extranet to an AC device that connects to the core switch in off-path mode.

B.

A core switch needs to forward the traffic between the intranet and extranet to a security detection device that connects to the core switch in off-path mode.

C.

A device needs to modify the next-hop IP address for locally originated traffic.

D.

On an enterprise network with multiple ISP outbound interfaces, each internal network segment accesses the Internet through a particular ISP outbound interface.

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Question # 11

Depending on the type of algorithms used, routing protocols are classified into distance-vector protocols and link-state protocols. Which of the following routing protocols are link-state protocols?

A.

RIP

B.

OSPF

C.

IS-IS

D.

BGP

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Question # 12

OSPF supports area authentication and interface authentication. If both authentication modes are configured, Interface authentication takes preference over area authentication.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 13

Similar to the OSPF DR, the IS-IS DIS needs to be elected on a broadcast network. However, the OSPF DR is preemptive by default, whereas the IS-IS DIS is not preemptive by default.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 14

Preferences of routing protocols determine the sequence In which a router selects a route among routes to the same destination /earned through different routing protocols.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 15

On an OSPF network, Type 7 LSAs can be generated only by ASBRs in NSSAs or stub areas and describe AS-external routes.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 16

A switch runs MSTP. The configuration is shown in the figure. What is the role of this switch in MSTI 1?

A.

Uncertain

B.

Root switch

C.

Non-root switch

D.

Secondary root switch

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Question # 17

In the OSPF protocol, inter-area route calculation involves only Router LSA, Network LSA, and Summary LSA.

A.

TRUE

B.

FLASE

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Question # 18

GRE is a VPN encapsulation technology that is widely used to transmit packets across heterogeneous networks. Which of the following statements is false about GRE?

A.

GRE supports encryption and authentication.

B.

GRE supports multicast transmission.

C.

GRE is a Layer 3 VPN encapsulation technology.

D.

GRE can work with other VPN protocols to better ensure data security.

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Question # 19

In a route-policy, which of the following BGP attributes can be used in apply clauses?

A.

MED

B.

AS_Path

C.

Tag

D.

Local-Preference

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Question # 20

IGMPV3 not only supports IGMPv1 General Query and IGMPv2 Group-Specific Query, and also IGMPv3 Source/Group-Specific Query.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 21

Which of the following statements regarding the MED value in BGP are true?

A.

According to BGP route selection rules, the MED value has a lower priority than AS_Path, Preferred-Value, Local-Preference, and Origin.

B.

The default MED value of BGP routes is 0.

C.

By default, BGP can compare the MED values of routes from different ASs.

D.

By default, if there is no MED value in routes, the value 0 is used. If the bestroute med-none-as-maximum command is configured, the maximum MED value 4294967295 is used.

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Question # 22

A BGP device receives a route carrying an unknown attribute from a peer but does not know whether other devices need the attribute. In this case, the BGP device retains this attribute when advertising the route to other peers. Which of the following attributes is of this type?

A.

Community

B.

AS.Path

C.

MED

D.

OriginatorID

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Question # 23

Which of the following statements is false?

A.

If the current DR fails, the current BDR automatically becomes a new DR, and a BDR will be elected again.

B.

A device with a higher router priority has a higher election priority.

C.

When a router with the highest router priority joins an OSPF network, this router will become the new DR.

D.

If two devices have the same router priority, the device with a larger router ID has a higher election priority.

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Question # 24

Multiple BGP processes cannot be configured on the same router.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 25

As a next-generation wireless technology, Wi-Fi 6 greatly improves bandwidth rate and performance. Which of the following statements is false about the features of Wi-Fi 6?

A.

Uses OFDMA technology to achieve high concurrency.

B.

Realizes zero latency, ensuring efficient service running.

C.

Provides high bandwidth, up to 9.6 Gbps.

D.

Uses TWT technology to reduce terminal power consumption.

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Question # 26

ASBRs cannot exist in an OSPF stub area.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 27

iMaster NCE-Campus can be used as an authentication server on a WLAN to authenticate STAs.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 28

The VRID of the VRRP virtual router is 3 and the virtual IP address is 100.1.1.10. What is the virtual MAC address?

A.

01-00-5E-00-01-64

B.

01-00-5E-00-01-03

C.

00-00-5E-00-01-64

D.

00-00-5E-00-01-03

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Question # 29

Which of the following statements are true about the packet filtering firewall?

A.

The packet filtering firewall can analyze associated packets to improve security.

B.

The packet filtering firewall supports per-packet detection.

C.

The packet filtering firewall can check application-layer data.

D.

The packet filtering firewall filters data packets based on ACLs.

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Question # 30

On a broadcast IS-IS network shown in the following figure, a DIS needs to be elected to create and update pseudonodes. Which of the following routers is elected as the DIS?

A.

R1

B.

R3

C.

R4

D.

R2

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Question # 31

Which of the following statements regarding OSPF route summarization commands are true?

A.

The asbr-summary command is executed in the OSPF view.

B.

The abr-summary command is executed in the OSPF area view.

C.

Advertise is the default parameter of the abr-summary command. That is, if not-advertise is not specified in the abr-summary command, the advertise parameter takes effect by default.

D.

Not-advertise is the default parameter of the abr-summary command. That is, if advertise is not specified in the abr-summary command, the not-advertise parameter takes effect by default.

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Question # 32

On an RSTP network, port roles are optimized to overcome the disadvantages of STP. Which of the following port roles are supported in RSTP?

A.

Root port

B.

Designated port

C.

Backup port

D.

Alternate port

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Question # 33

An enterprise administrator configures route summarization on ASBRs to reduce the number of inter-area Type 3 LSAs, which in turn reduces the routing table size and improves device resource utilization.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 34

On a broadcast IS-IS network, a DIS needs to be elected to create and update pseudonodes. Which of the following values is the default DIS priority of an IS-IS interface?

A.

200

B.

64

C.

1

D.

100

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Question # 35

ICMPv6 messages are classified as error or informational messages.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 36

When configuring an ACL on a router, you can specify a unique number or name to identify the ACL. Once a named ACL is created, it cannot be modified. You can only delete the named ACL and reconfigure it.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 37

Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF protocol is false?

A.

Each OSPF router uses only one Router-LSA to describe the local active connection status of an area.

B.

Routing information can be advertised only between backbone and non-backbone areas and cannot be advertised directly between non-backbone areas.

C.

Router-LSA describes four connection types: P2P, TransNet, SubNet, and virtual link.

D.

Link State ID in a Type 3 LSA indicates the router ID of an ABR.

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Question # 38

Which of the following statements is false about the default processing of the next hop address when a BGP device advertises a route?

A.

When advertising a locally originated route to an IBGP peer, a BGP device sets the next hop address to the IP address of its interface connected to the peer.

B.

When advertising a non-labeled route received from an EBGP peer to an IBGP peer, a BGP device changes the next hop address to the IP address of its interface connected to the IBGP peer.

C.

When advertising a route to an EBGP peer, a BGP device sets the next hop address to the IP address of its interface connected to the peer.

D.

A BGP device does not change the next hop address of a route if the route is received from an IBGP peer and is to be sent to another IBGP peer.

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Question # 39

A network entity title consists of an area address and a system ID. It is a special NSAP (the SEL has a fixed value of 00) and is mainly used for route calculation.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 40

To overcome the disadvantages of STP, RSTP changes the format of configuration BPDUs. Which of the following fields in STP BPDUs is used to specify the port role?

A.

Flags

B.

BPDU Type

C.

PID

D.

PVI

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Question # 41

During routine maintenance, an enterprise administrator runs a command to check VRRP group information. Which of the following statements is false about the command output?

yaml

CopyEdit

display vrrp verbose

Vlanif100 | Virtual Router 1 State: Master

Virtual IP: 10.1.1.100

Master IP: 10.1.1.2

PriorityRun: 120 PriorityConfig: 120

DR: None BDR: None MTU: 0

Preempt: YES Delay Time: 20s

Remain: --

Track: YES Priority Reduced: 20

Auth Type: MD5

BFD-session State: UP

A.

Preemption is enabled for the VRRP group.

B.

This VRRP group is an mVRRP group.

C.

Authentication is enabled for the VRRP group.

D.

The ID of the VRRP group is 1.

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Question # 42

As shown in the figure, SWA, SWB, and SWC run the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP). What are the roles of SWB's GE0/0/2 and SWC's GE0/0/1?

A.

Backup port, alternative port

B.

Alternative port, backup port

C.

Backup port, root port

D.

Root port, designated port

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Question # 43

On an OSPF network, if a router functions as an ABR, the router must also be a BR.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 44

An edge port is a new port role added to RSTP to overcome the disadvantages of STP. Which of the following statements is false about this port role?

A.

The port does not participate in RSTP calculation.

B.

The port can directly enter the Forwarding state from the Discarding state.

C.

After receiving a configuration BPDU, the port is still in the Forwarding state.

D.

The Up and Down states of the port do not cause network topology changes.

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Question # 45

Which of the following statements regarding an IP prefix are true?

A.

An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and cannot match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the same time.

B.

An IP prefix filter cannot be used to filter data packets.

C.

An IP prefix filter is used to filter IP address prefixes and can match an IP prefix number and a prefix length at the same time.

D.

An IP prefix filter can be used to filter data packets.

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Question # 46

After BGP initiates a TCP connection, the ConnectRetry timer is disabled if the TCP connection is successfully established. If the TCP connection fails to be established, the device tries to reestablish the TCP connection when the ConnectRetry timer expires.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 47

When receiving a packet that does not match any session table entry, the firewall discards the packet to prevent external attacks and ensure internal information security.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 48

Route attributes are specific descriptions of routes. BGP route attributes can be classified into four types. Which of the following are well-known discretionary attributes?

A.

Atomic_Aggregate

B.

Local-Preference

C.

Community

D.

MED

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Question # 49

When deploying BFD, you need to adjust some parameters so that it can better detect the network status. Which of the following statements is false about BFD optimization?

A.

After a high priority is configured for BFD packets, BFD packets are preferentially forwarded.

B.

To quickly learn about the network status and performance requirements, you can set the interval for sending BFD packets to the minimum value.

C.

On a live network, some devices switch traffic only when a BFD session changes to the Up state. If a routing protocol goes Up later than an interface, no route is available for switching traffic back, leading to traffic loss. To resolve this issue, configure a delay to compensate for the time difference caused when the routing protocol goes Up later than the interface.

D.

If a BFD session flaps, master/backup switchovers are frequently performed on the application associated with the BFD session. To prevent this, set the WTR time of the BFD session.

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Question # 50

An ACL can be used to match routes or data, but cannot be used to match both the IP address prefix length and mask length.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 51

Which of the following statements regarding different LSA types is false?

A.

LS Request packets contain only LS Type, LS ID, and Advertising Router.

B.

LS Ack packets contain complete LSA information.

C.

DD packets contain only LSA summary information, including LS Type, LS ID, Advertising Router, and LS Sequence Number.

D.

LS Update packets contain complete LSA information.

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Question # 52

The Next_Hop attribute in BGP records the next hop of a route. Similar to the next hop in an IGP, the Next_Hop attribute in BGP must be the IP address of a peer interface.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 53

This configuration is part of RTA configuration. Which of the following statements regarding the configuration are true?

[RTA] ospf 100

[RTA-ospf-100]silent-interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/0

A.

RTA cannot establish a neighbor relationship with the neighbor that this interface is directly connected to.

B.

GigabitEthernet 1/0/0 is prohibited from sending OSPF packets.

C.

Direct routes of GigabitEthernet 1/0/0 can still be advertised.

D.

This interface cannot send Hello packets.

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Question # 54

The BFD (Bidirectional Forwarding Detection) state machine implements a three-way handshake for BFD session setup or teardown. Which of the following session states are involved in BFD session setup?

A.

Up

B.

AdminDown

C.

Init

D.

Down

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Question # 55

The administrator of an enterprise configures SNMPv3 on a device for communicating with the NMS (Network Management System). After the configuration is complete, the display trapbuffer command output shows that there are traps in the trap buffer of the information center, but the NMS does not receive any of them. Which of the following may cause this problem?

A.

The SNMP version configured on the device is different from the SNMP version of traps sent by the device.

B.

The SNMPv3 password used by the NMS is incorrect.

C.

The size of packets sent by the NMS exceeds the threshold set on the device.

D.

The community name configured on the NMS is inconsistent with that configured on the device.

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Question # 56

Which of the following messages are sent when BGP establishes peer relationships?

A.

Keepalive

B.

Hello

C.

Update

D.

Open

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Question # 57

When a packet passes through a firewall, the firewall creates a session connection for the packet to guide subsequent forwarding of the packet. However, the firewall does not create session entries for all packets. For which of the following packets does the firewall not create session entries when the packet reaches the firewall?

A.

ICMP ping packet

B.

GRE packet

C.

Subsequent fragment

D.

UDP packet

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Question # 58

Which of the following statements regarding OSPF route summarization is false?

A.

OSPF supports two route summarization modes: ABR summarization and ASBR summarization.

B.

Any router in OSPF can summarize routes.

C.

Route summarization is the process of summarizing routes with the same prefix into one route and then advertising only the summarized route to other areas.

D.

Route summarization can reduce routing information, decrease the routing table size, and improve router performance.

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Question # 59

ACLs are a common tool for matching routes. ACLs are classified into multiple types based on ACL rule functions. An ACL can be identified by a number, and the number range for each type of ACLs is different. Which of the following type of ACLs are numbered from 4000 to 4999?

A.

User-defined ACL

B.

Basic ACL

C.

Layer 2 ACL

D.

Advance ACL

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Question # 60

In IPv6, NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol) uses multiple types of ICMPv6 packets. Which of the following functions are RS (Router Solicitation) packets used for?

A.

Duplicate address detection

B.

Prefix readdressing

C.

Redirection

D.

Address resolution

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Question # 61

Which of the following statements regarding the display bgp routing-table command output is true?

A.

The route to the destination address 192.168.1.0 is learned through AS 200.

B.

The MED value of the route to the destination address 192.168.1.0 is 100.

C.

The route to the destination address 192.168.1.0 is not the optimal route in the BGP routing table.

D.

The route to the destination address 192.168.1.0 is injected into the BGP routing table using the network command.

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Question # 62

Both MQC and PBR can be applied on device interfaces to filter received and sent packets or control packet forwarding paths.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 63

The figure shows the VRRP status switchover events. Match these events with their sequence numbers.

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Question # 64

On a network, each router has a local core routing table and protocol routing tables. A routing entry in the local core routing table has multiple key fields. Which of the following are included?

A.

Destination address of a route

B.

Routing protocol preference of a route

C.

Inbound interface that learns a route

D.

Routing protocol that learns a route

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Question # 65

STP ensures a loop-free network but has a slow network topology convergence speed, affecting communication quality. RSTP has made some improvements based on STP. Which of the following improvements is not included?

A.

If a port does not receive configuration BPDUs from the upstream device within four Hello intervals, the switch considers that the negotiation with the neighbor fails.

B.

The non-root switch running RSTP sends configuration BPDUs at the interval specified by the Hello timer, which is performed independently by each device.

C.

RSTP reduces five port states to three port states based on user traffic forwarding and MAC address learning.

D.

RSTP deletes three port states and adds two port roles.

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Question # 66

By default, some security zones are created when Huawei firewalls are enabled. Which of the following security zones is created by users?

A.

DMZ

B.

ISP

C.

Trust

D.

Local

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Question # 67

Which of the following attributes must be carried when BGP sends route update messages?

A.

MED

B.

Next_Hop

C.

AS_Path

D.

Local_Preference

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Question # 68

STAs stay on different subnets before and after Layer 3 roaming. To enable the STAs to access the original network after roaming, network engineers need to configure user traffic to be forwarded to the original subnet over a CAPWAP tunnel.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 69

On an OSPF network, if two indirectly connected routers with the same router ID run in the same area, Type 1 LSA calculation fails.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 70

Which of the following statements regarding the stateful inspection firewall is true?

A.

When the stateful inspection firewall checks packets, packets of one same connection are not correlated.

B.

Because UDP is a connectionless protocol, so the stateful inspection firewall cannot match UDP packets with the status table.

C.

The stateful inspection firewall only needs to match the first data packet against a rule, and the subsequent packets of the connection are matched directly in the state table.

D.

The stateful inspection firewall needs to match the rules for each incoming packet.

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Question # 71

The AS_Path attribute is an important BGP attribute used for route selection. Which of the following statements are true about this attribute?

A.

When a route is advertised to an IBGP peer, the AS_Path remains unchanged.

B.

This attribute can be used to prevent BGP routing loops.

C.

This attribute is a well-known discretionary attribute that must be identified by all BGP routers.

D.

BGP ignores AS_Confed_Sequence and AS_Confed_Set when calculating the AS_Path length.

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Question # 72

Which of the following LSAs are advertised only within a single area?

A.

Network LSA

B.

Router LSA

C.

Summary LSA

D.

AS External LSA

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Question # 73

There are two BFD operating modes. In_______mode, the local end sends BFD Control packets at specified intervals, and the remote end checks whether the local end periodically sends BFD Control packets. (Use lowercase letters.)

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Question # 74

After a BGP peer relationship is established between two ends, changing the router ID of one end resets the BGP peer relationship.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 75

As shown in the figure, SWA, SWB, SWC, and SWD run the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP). Which of the following statements are true?

A.

Once receiving OPOUs, the edge port re-partlci pates in the calculation of the spanning tree.

B.

After a port is Configured as an edge port, the port can quickly enter the Forwarding state.

C.

You can enable the edge port on SWD's GEO/0/2 connected to the terminal so that this port can quickly enter the Forwarding state.

D.

You can enable the edge port on SWC's GE0/0/2 connected to the terminal so that this port can quickly enter the forwarding state.

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Question # 76

Match the following IPv4 multicast protocols with the corresponding functions.

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Question # 77

In IPsec, an SA (Security Association) is uniquely identified by three parameters. Which of the following parameters does not belong to the 3-tuple information?

A.

Key exchange protocol

B.

SPI

C.

Destination IP address

D.

Security protocol ID

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Question # 78

IGMP group entries play an important role in multicast forwarding. An administrator runs a command to view information about a multicast entry. The information is as follows:

sql

Copy

display igmp group

Interface group report information

Vlanif100(10.1.6.2):

Total 1 IGMP Group reported

Group Address Last Reporter Uptime Expires

225.1.1.2 10.1.6.10 00:02:04 00:01:17

Given this, which of the following statements are true?

A.

This entry can be used to construct the corresponding (S, G) entry.

B.

This entry is created when the device receives an IGMP Join message from a user.

C.

Expires indicates the aging time of the IGMP group.

D.

225.1.1.2 is the address of the group that the user joins.

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Question # 79

What parameters can a DHCP6 server assign to a DHCPv6 client?

A.

Gateway address

B.

DNS server address

C.

IPV6 address/prefix

D.

SNTP server address

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Question # 80

An engineer sets the CAPWAP heartbeat detection interval to 20 of the active link before an active/standby switchover occurs?

A.

75s

B.

20s

C.

60s

D.

90s

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Question # 81

IGMP has three versions. Different versions support different features. Which of the following features is supported by all versions?

A.

Group-Specific Query message

B.

Leave message

C.

Report message

D.

Specifying a multicast source

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Question # 82

Which of the following statements regarding multicast MAC addresses are false?

A.

One multicast MAC address maps to 32 multicast IP addresses.

B.

One multicast MAC address maps to only one multicast IP address.

C.

The high 24 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01005E, the 25th bit is fixed to 1, and the lower 23 bits of the MAC address map to the lower 23 bits of the multicast IP address.

D.

A multicast MAC address identifies receivers of a multicast group on the data link layer.

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Question # 83

After HSB is configured, the HSB channel fails to be established and cannot back up information on the active device to the standby device. What are the possible causes for this HSB function failure?

A.

The TCP channel is not established.

B.

The retransmission count and interval for HSB service packets are different on the two devices.

C.

The two ACs have the same priority.

D.

The source IP address and port number of the local end are different from the destination IP address and port number of the remote end.

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Question # 84

In PIM-DM, which of the following processes are involved in SPT establishment?

A.

Prune

B.

Graft

C.

Flooding

D.

State-refresh

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Question # 85

Which of the following parameters are not mandatory during the configuration of a BGP peer?

A.

password

B.

Peer IP address

C.

as-number

D.

description

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Question # 86

In IGMPv1, querier selection depends on a multicast routing protocol, such as PIM. In IGMPv2 and IGMPv3, the interface with the largest IP address acts as the querier.

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Question # 87

A Huawei firewall by default creates security zones named untrust, dmz, _________ and local. (Use Lowercase letters.)

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Question # 88

Which of the following statement regarding the display ospf peer command output is true?

A.

Address: 10.1,1.1 Indicates that the local interface address is 10.1.1.1.

B.

Through negotiation during DD packet exchange, the local end becomes the slave.

C.

Router ID indicates that the local router ID Is 10.1.1.1.

D.

The DR address is 10.1.1.1

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Question # 89

Which of the following statements about BFD operating modes are true?

A.

In demand mode, once a BFD session is set up, the system no longer periodically sends BFD Control packets.

B.

Asynchronous mode does not support the Echo function.

C.

In asynchronous mode, two systems periodically exchange BFD Control packets at the negotiated interval. If one system does not receive any BFD Control packets from the other within the detection time, the BFD session is declared down.

D.

Asynchronous mode is the primary BFD operating mode.

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