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2016-FRR Questions and Answers

Question # 6

After entering the securitization business, Delta Bank increases its cash efficiency by selling off the lower risk portions of the portfolio credit risk. This process ___ risk on the residual pieces of the credit portfolio, and as a result it ___ return on equity for the bank.

A.

Decreases; increases;

B.

Increases; increases;

C.

Increases; decreases;

D.

Decreases; increases;

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Question # 7

To hedge a foreign exchange exposure on behalf of a client, a small regional bank seeks to enter into an offsetting foreign exchange transaction. It cannot access the large and liquid interbank market open primarily to larger banks. At which one of the following exchanges can the smaller bank trade the currency futures contracts?

I. The Tokyo Futures Exchange

II. The Euronext-Liffe Exchange

III. The Chicago Mercantile Exchange

A.

I

B.

III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III

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Question # 8

Which one of the following statements correctly identifies risks in foreign exchange forwards?

A.

Short-term forward price fluctuations are driven by changes in the spot exchange rate, since most inter-country interest rates differentials are significant, and the effect of compounding is large for short periods of time.

B.

Short-term forward price fluctuations are driven by changes in the spot exchange rate, since most inter-country interest rates differentials are small, and the effect of compounding is small for short periods of time.

C.

Long-term forward price fluctuations are driven by changes in the spot exchange rate, since most inter-country interest rates differentials are small, and the effect of compounding is large for short periods of time.

D.

Long-term forward price fluctuations are driven by changes in the spot exchange rate, since most inter-country interest rates differentials are significant, and the effect of compounding is small for short periods of time.

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Question # 9

Which one of the following four global markets for financial assets or instruments is widely believed to be the most liquid?

A.

Equity market.

B.

Foreign exchange market.

C.

Fixed income market

D.

Commodities market

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Question # 10

Which one of the following four statements regarding bank's exposure to credit and default risk is INCORRECT?

A.

The more the bank diversifies its credit portfolio, the better spread its credit risks become.

B.

In debt management, the value of any loan exposure will change typically in a fashion similar the same way that an equity investment can.

C.

In debt management, the goal is to minimize the effect of any defaults.

D.

Default risk cannot be hedged away fully, and it will always exist for the holder of the credit or for the person insuring against the credit or default event.

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Question # 11

Which of the following statements about the interest rates and option prices is correct?

A.

If rho is positive, rising interest rates increase option prices.

B.

If rho is positive, rising interest rates decrease option prices.

C.

As interest rates rise, all options will rise in value.

D.

As interest rates fall, all options will rise in value.

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Question # 12

All of the following performance statistics typically benefit country's creditworthiness EXCEPT:

A.

Low unemployment

B.

Low inflation

C.

High degrees of investment

D.

Low degrees of savings

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Question # 13

A risk manager is analyzing a call option on the GBP with a vega of 0.02. When the perceived future volatility increases by 1%, the call option

A.

Increases in value by 0.02.

B.

Increases in value by 2.

C.

Decreases in value by 0.02.

D.

Decreases in value by 2.

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Question # 14

Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment. Hence, the loss rate in this case will be

A.

1%

B.

3%

C.

5%

D.

10%

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Question # 15

From the bank's point of view, repricing the retail debt portfolio will introduce risks of fluctuations in:

I. Duration

II. Loss given default

III. Interest rates

IV. Bank spreads

A.

I

B.

II

C.

I, II

D.

III, IV

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Question # 16

In analyzing market option pricing dynamics, a risk manager evaluates option value changes throughout the entire trading day. Which of the following factors would most likely affect foreign exchange option values?

I. Change in the value of the underlying

II. Change in the perception of future volatility

III. Change in interest rates

IV. Passage of time

A.

I, II

B.

I, II, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III, IV

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Question # 17

Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan is collateralized with $55,000. The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%. In this case, what will the bank's exposure at default (EAD) be?

A.

$25,000

B.

$50,000

C.

$75,000

D.

$105,000

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Question # 18

Gamma Bank provides a $100,000 loan to Big Bath retail stores at 5% interest rate (paid annually). The loan also has an annual expected default rate of 2%, and loss given default at 50%. In this case, what will the bank's expected loss be? What is the expected loss of this loan?

A.

$300

B.

$550

C.

$750

D.

$1,050

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Question # 19

Which of the following risk types are historically associated with credit derivatives?

I. Documentation risk

II. Definition of credit events

III. Occurrence of credit events

IV. Enterprise risk

A.

I, IV

B.

I, II

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III, IV

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Question # 20

In the United States, foreign exchange derivative transactions typically occur between

A.

A few large internationally active banks, where the risks become concentrated.

B.

All banks with international branches, where the risks become widely distributed based on trading exposures.

C.

Regional banks with international operations, where the risks depend on the specific derivative transactions.

D.

Thrifts and large commercial banks, where the risks become isolated.

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Question # 21

To improve the culture and awareness of the operational risk, Gamma Bank's CRO decides to promote three activities within her organization. Which one of the following four activities is NOT typically used to develop an operational risk framework?

A.

Marketing

B.

Planning

C.

Training

D.

Auditing

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Question # 22

Which one of the following statements regarding collateralized mortgage obligations (CMO) is incorrect?

A.

CMOs have senior tranches which are considered short-term, low-risk instruments by banks

B.

CMOs are asset-backed securities that have pools of collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) as underlying collateral.

C.

CMOs are generally less risky investment than CDOs.

D.

CMOs are pools of mortgages that are divided according to the timing of cash flows.

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Question # 23

If the yield on the 3-month risk free bonds issued by the U.S government is 0.5%, and the 3-month LIBOR rate is 2.5%, what is the TED spread?

A.

0.5%

B.

-2.0%

C.

2.0%

D.

3.0%

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Question # 24

The value of which one of the following four option types is typically dependent on both the final price of its underlying asset and its own price history?

A.

Stout options

B.

Power options

C.

Chooser options

D.

Basket options

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Question # 25

SigmaBank has many branches that offer the same products and services. Which one of the four following statement presents an advantage of using RCSA questionnaire approach in the SigmaBank's operational risk framework?

A.

The questionnaires are usually sent to specific nominated parties for completion.

B.

This approach ensures that there has been full participation in the scoring, rather than a single view.

C.

It provides a forum for an in-depth discussion of the operational risks in the firm.

D.

The results can be collected electronically and the responses compared to identify themes, trends and areas of potential control weakness or elevated risk.

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Question # 26

Which of the following about the ratios between various Tiers of capital is not a requirement of the Basel Committee?

A.

Tier 2 capital cannot exceed 50% of the bank's total regulatory capital.

B.

Innovative instruments in Tier 1 are limited to a maximum of 15% of Tier 1 capital.

C.

Lower Tier 2 capital may only equal 50% of core capital.

D.

Upper Tier 2 capital may only equal 30% of core capital.

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Question # 27

According to Basel II what constitutes Tier 3 capital?

A.

Subordinated debt issues that pay interest.

B.

Debt capital that can only be used to support market risk in the trading book of the bank.

C.

Preference shares that confer on issuers the right to defer payment of a fixed dividend.

D.

Hybrid debt capital instruments that are similar to equity.

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Question # 28

All of the following factors generally explain the equity bid-offer spread in a market EXCEPT:

A.

Market volatility

B.

Interest rates

C.

Competition among market makers

D.

Market depth

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Question # 29

Which of the following statements describes a bank's reasons to set risk limits?

I. To control and minimize a bank's current risk exposure.

II. To predict future risks.

III. To allocate risks to business units.

IV. To keep risk within tolerance levels.

A.

I and II

B.

III and IV

C.

I, II, and III

D.

I, III, and IV

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Question # 30

Which of the following are the most common methods to increase liquidity in stressed conditions?

I. Selling or securitizing assets.

II. Obtaining additional credit lines.

III. Securing a better credit rating.

A.

I

B.

I, II

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III

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Question # 31

A hedge fund trader buys options to establish an exposure in the currency market, thereby effectively removing the risk of being able to participate in a gapping market. In this case the options premium represents the price paid for eliminating the execution risk of

A.

The delta-hedging strategy.

B.

The gamma-hedging strategy.

C.

The vega-hedging strategy.

D.

The theta-hedging strategy.

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Question # 32

Which one of the four following aspects of legal risk is NOT included in the Basel II Accord?

A.

Exposure to fines

B.

Private settlements

C.

Punitive damages resulting from supervisory actions

D.

Negative publicity resulting from reputational damages

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Question # 33

Which one of the following four statements about the "market-maker" trading strategy is INCORRECT?

A.

A market maker that attracts buy and sell orders can make a profit from the spread quoted between the buy and sell price.

B.

A market maker can benefit from the market information she gets from the trades she is asked to execute.

C.

This strategy is independent of market liquidity and number of other market makers.

D.

This risk in this strategy is that traders have to take positions that may quickly incur a loss.

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Question # 34

Bank Omega is using futures contracts on a well capitalized exchange to hedge its market risk exposure. Which of the following could be reasons that expose the bank to liquidity risk?

I. The bank may not be able to unwind the futures contracts before expiration.

II. Prices may move such that a loss results on the hedge.

III. Since futures require margins which are settled every day, the bank could find itself scrambling for funds.

IV. Exchange margin requirements could change unexpectedly.

A.

III, IV

B.

I, III, IV

C.

I, II, III, IV

D.

I, IV

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Question # 35

Which one of the four following non-statistical risk measures are typically not used to quantify market risk?

A.

Option sensitivities

B.

Net closed positions

C.

Convexity

D.

Basis point values

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Question # 36

The data available to estimate the statistical distribution of bank losses is difficult to assemble for which of the following reasons?

I. The needed data is vast in quantity.

II. The data requires bringing together significantly different measures of risk.

III. Some risks are difficult to quantify and hence the data might involve subjective elements.

A.

I, II

B.

I, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III

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Question # 37

Forward rate agreements (FRA) are:

A.

Exchange traded derivative contracts that allow banks to take positions in forward interest rates.

B.

OTC derivative contracts that allow banks and customers to obtain the risk/reward profile of long-term interest rates by relying on long-term funding.

C.

Exchange traded derivative contracts that allow banks to take positions in future exchange rates.

D.

OTC derivative contracts that allow banks to take positions in forward interest rates.

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Question # 38

What are some of the drawbacks of correlation estimates? Which of the following statements identifies major problems with correlation calculations?

I. Correlation estimates are not able to capture increases in factor co-movements in extreme market scenarios.

II. Correlation estimates tend to be unstable.

III. Historical correlations may not forecast future correlations correctly.

IV. Correlation estimates assume normally distributed returns.

A.

I and II

B.

I and IV

C.

I, II and III

D.

II, III, and IV

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Question # 39

10 basis points are equal to:

A.

10%

B.

1%

C.

0.1%

D.

0.01%

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Question # 40

Short-selling is typically associated with the following risks:

I. Potential for extreme losses

II. Risk associated with the availability of shares to borrow

III. Market behavior risk

IV. Liquidity risk

A.

I, II

B.

I, III

C.

II, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV

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Question # 41

Interest rate swaps are:

A.

Exchange traded derivative contracts that allow banks to take positions in future interest rates.

B.

OTC derivative contracts that allow banks and customers to obtain the risk/reward profile of long-term interest rates without relying on long-term funding.

C.

Exchange traded derivative contracts that allow banks and customers to obtain the risk/reward profile of long-term interest rates without having to use long-term funding.

D.

OTC derivative contracts that allow banks to take positions in series of future exchange rates.

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Question # 42

Which one of the following four statements regarding floating rate bonds is incorrect?

A.

Floating rate bonds have coupon payments tied to floating interest rates or floating interest rate indexes.

B.

Floating rate bonds typically have less price risk than fixed rate bonds.

C.

Floating rate bonds are very sensitive to changes in interest rates.

D.

Floating rate bonds only have a small degree of interest rate risk.

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Question # 43

An options trader for a large institutional investor takes a long equity option position. Which of the following risks need to be considered when taking this position?

I. All the risks of underlying equities

II. Perceived volatility changes

III. Future dividends yields

IV. Risk-free interest rates

A.

I, II

B.

II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV

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Question # 44

Which of the following risk measures are based on the underlying assumption that interest rates across all maturities change by exactly the same amount?

I. Present value of a basis point.

II. Yield volatility.

III. Macaulay's duration.

IV. Modified duration.

A.

I and II

B.

I, II, and III

C.

I, III, and IV

D.

I, II, III, and IV

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Question # 45

Which one of the following is a reason for a bank to keep a commercial loan in its portfolio until maturity?

I. Commercial loans usually have attractive risk-return profile.

II. Commercial loans are difficult to sell due to non standard features.

III. Commercial loans could be used to maintain good relations with important customers.

IV. The credit risk in commercial loans is low.

A.

I, II and III

B.

III and IV

C.

II and IV

D.

IV only

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Question # 46

Samuel Teng owns a portfolio of bonds and is trying to compute the convexity of his portfolio. Which of the following choices equals the convexity of Samuel's portfolio?

A.

Minimum of the convexities of the component bonds

B.

Value-weighted average convexity of the component bonds

C.

Coupon-weighted average convexity of the component bonds

D.

Maximum of the convexities of the component bonds

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Question # 47

Banks duration match their assets and liabilities to manage their interest risk in their banking book. Currently, the bank's assets and liabilities both have a duration of 10. To hedge against the risk of decreasing interest rates, the bank should

I. Increase the duration of the liabilities

II. Increase the duration of the assets

III. Decrease the duration of the liabilities

IV. Decrease the duration of the assets

A.

I only.

B.

I and II.

C.

II and III.

D.

I and IV

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Question # 48

An endowment asset manager with a focus on long/short equity strategies is evaluating the risks of an equity portfolio. Which of the following risk types does the asset manager need to consider when evaluating her diversified equity portfolio?

I. Company-specific projected earnings and earnings risk

II. Aggregate earnings expectations

III. Market liquidity

IV. Individual asset volatility

A.

I

B.

I, IV

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, IV

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Question # 49

To estimate the forward price of oil, a commodity trader would most likely use the following pricing relationship:

A.

Oil forward price = Expected future oil price ± Oil market risk premium

B.

Oil forward price = Expected future oil price ± storage cost + Oil market risk premium

C.

Oil forward price = Expected future oil price ± Oil storage cost + (1 + Oil market risk premium)

D.

Oil forward price = Expected future oil price ± Oil storage cost + (1 - Oil market risk premium)

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Question # 50

Which one of the following four statements represents the advantages of the historical sim-ulation method when calculating VaR?

A.

Solve the problem caused by incorrectly assuming that asset returns are normally distributed.

B.

Rely on current market data to describe the distribution of returns and determine volatilities.

C.

Are believed to be superior in accuracy predicting future levels of realized volatility.

D.

Are only using loss probabilities that can be found in tables of the standard normal distribution.

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Question # 51

In early March, an energy trader takes a long position in natural gas futures for delivery in June, and hedges this exposure by taking a position in futures for July delivery. These trades were executed on the expectation that over time, the relative prices of the June and July contracts will come into alignment, the movement in these two contracts will largely mirror each other, and as a result of this, the net exposure is minimized and the position is protected against absolute price movements. However, if the two relative prices do not come into alignment with each other due to the scarcity of any of the two traded contracts in the futures market, the trader is likely to become exposed to the

A.

Location basis

B.

Quality basis

C.

Product basis

D.

Calendar spreads basis

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