FC0-U71 Questions and Answers

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives are high-speed storage devices that commonly use the M.2 form factor. M.2 allows for compact design and direct connection to the motherboard.

“M.2 is a compact form factor used for high-speed NVMe and SATA SSDs, enabling faster storage access in modern systems.” — CompTIA ITF+ Hardware Overview

Correct answer: A

An e-reader is designed specifically for reading digital books in a portable, lightweight format:

“E-readers are mobile devices optimized for reading electronic books, offering portability, long battery life, and digital storage of thousands of titles.”

Servers, external drives, and workstations are either not portable or not designed for reading books.

When a system administrator needs to troubleshoot a user’s laptop remotely, especially over a VPN, they would use remote assistance software. This allows full or partial control over the target system for diagnostic and support tasks.

“Remote assistance software enables support personnel to remotely access and control another computer to perform diagnostics or provide help, often used in IT support scenarios.” — CompTIA ITF+ Guide

Correct answer: D

In the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), an array is described as:

“An array is a data structure that stores multiple values of the same data type under a single variable name. Each value in the array can be accessed using an index or key. Arrays are commonly used to organize related sets of data such as names, numbers, or records that share a common context.”

The guide illustrates how arrays can hold tabular data, similar to a spreadsheet or database table:

“Arrays let programmers store data in a table-like format, using rows and columns to represent related values, such as months and corresponding totals. This makes it easier to manage and manipulate structured data programmatically.”

In contrast:

A constant is a fixed value that cannot change during program execution.

A function performs an operation or returns a value based on parameters.

A variable holds a single value that can change.

Since the dataset represents multiple related values (Food and Drinks) across months in a table structure, it is an array.

Verified Reference from CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide, Exam FC0-U71 (3rd Edition, 2025):

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Data Types and Structures” section (pages 371–372).

Exam Objective 6.2 — Recognize basic programming structures such as arrays and variables.

If a USB port is disabled in the BIOS or device manager, the system won’t detect devices connected to it. This is the most likely cause if nothing happens when a USB device is inserted.

“Hardware ports can be disabled via firmware settings or device policies, which prevents detection of peripherals.” — CompTIA ITF+ Hardware Troubleshooting

Correct answer: A

Account logs provide details about authentication attempts and can confirm whether a user successfully logged in or was denied access.

“Authentication events are recorded in system and application logs, helping verify login success or failure.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Concepts

Correct answer: A

A touch screen functions as both an input and output device. According to the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

"A touchscreen display is a hybrid device combining input and output. It shows visual output like a standard monitor but also allows the user to interact directly by touching the screen."

"Input devices allow users to provide data or control signals (e.g., keyboard, mouse, touchscreen)."

"Output devices show results from the computer's processing (e.g., monitor, printer, touchscreen)."

Touchscreens display information (output) and receive user input through touch (input). They do not perform storage, networking, processing, or logging.

A query is a request for information from a database. Structured Query Language (SQL) is commonly used to retrieve specific records or information from a data set.

“A query is used to extract and retrieve specific data from a database based on defined criteria.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Concepts

Correct answer: D

Output devices display or present data to users:

“A Smart TV displays visual and audio output, qualifying it as an output device.”

Web cameras, keyboards, and microphones are input devices that capture data rather than display or present it.

A relational database uses tables consisting of rows and columns where a primary key uniquely identifies each row (record). As stated in the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

"Relational databases store data in tables consisting of rows and columns. Each table has a primary key, which uniquely identifies each record."

"Document and key/value databases are types of NoSQL databases and do not use primary keys in the same structured tabular format."

Non-structured databases (like object storage or big data repositories) do not enforce primary keys.

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide:

“Changing Default Usernames and Passwords — The first thing a potential hacker will try to use is the default username or password for a device. Always change them.”

It also emphasizes:

“Enabling passwords and changing default usernames and passwords are essential password management best practices.”

Therefore, the correct action after server setup is to change the default usernames and passwords to secure the system.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Managing Passwords” (pp. 594–595).

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“A crimper is used to attach modular connectors, such as RJ45 or RJ11, to network or phone cables. The crimper pushes the metal contacts into the wires, securing them in place.”

Punchdown tools, by contrast, are used for patch panels or keystone jacks, not RJ45 ends.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Networking Tools: Crimpers, Punchdown Tools, Cable Testers” (pp. 106–108).

Browsers store previously loaded pages in their cache to improve performance. If outdated content is cached, clearing the cache forces the browser to load the latest version from the server.

“Clearing the browser cache removes stored versions of web pages and resolves display issues caused by outdated content.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: C

This structure uses branching, which allows a program to make decisions based on conditions using "if," "else if," and similar statements.

“Branching allows the flow of execution in a program to change based on decisions or conditions.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: D

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), the SFP (Small Form-Factor Pluggable) connector is directly associated with fiber-optic networking. The guide lists:

“SFP (small form-factor pluggable) connectors are commonly used in fiber-optic connections to allow hot-swappable transceivers for different types of fiber cables.”

Additionally, the same guide’s chapter on Networking Concepts and Technologies explains:

“Fiber-optic around 2 Gbps – Incredibly fast and more expensive than DSL or cable.”

Therefore, fiber Internet is the only service type that uses SFP connectors for data transmission over optical cables.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “External network connections” and “Common Internet connection types and speeds” (pp. 429–435).

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “SFP (small form-factor pluggable) connectors” (pp. 97–98).

When the network is unavailable, portable storage like a flash drive (USB storage device) is suitable for transferring large files:

“Flash drives provide portable storage solutions capable of handling large data files.”

NAS (network-attached storage) requires a functioning network. RAM is volatile memory not used for file transfer, and cloud storage requires internet connectivity.

In CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), the section “Reviewing Throughput Speeds” explains:

“The most basic measure of throughput is in bits per second (bps)—that is, how many bits are transmitted across the network media (or wireless connection) any given second. Each of the following designations increases that speed by 1000 times:

■ Kilobits per second (Kbps)

■ Megabits per second (Mbps)

■ Gigabits per second (Gbps)

■ Terabits per second (Tbps)”

This shows that Mbps (megabits per second) is the standard measurement unit for Internet connection speed.

802.11X is a wireless security standard,

MHz measures processor frequency, and

Bytes measure data size, not transfer rate.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Reviewing Throughput Speeds” (pp. 424–425).

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Throughput units of measure” (p. 80).

Gaming monitors are often described using refresh rates, which are measured in hertz (Hz), often specified in MHz for related processing frequencies. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide states:

"Monitor refresh rate refers to how many times per second the screen updates, usually measured in Hz."

"MHz (megahertz) is used for various frequencies, including GPU and monitor refresh processing."

GPU and RAM refer to hardware components, TB measures storage, and MHz relates to the frequency, applicable for monitor performance metrics.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) explains that software requiring activation often stops working after a trial period—typically 30 days—until a valid product key is entered:

“Activating software is a different story—you have to do it. Either you will need to enter the product key before the app will work the first time, or it might work for a few times for free then ask you to activate. Some products… include activation features that lock the installed copy… Usually you have 30 days to do so, or a certain number of uses, before it stops working.”

This clearly identifies a product key as the required input to activate or continue using the software.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 5: Software Applications — “Registering and Activation” (pp. 288–290).

When a new vulnerability is discovered in software, the best way to secure it is by applying updates (patches) released by the software vendor. According to the CompTIA ITF+ objectives:

“Vendors regularly release software updates and security patches to fix vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Installing these patches promptly is crucial for maintaining system security.”

Although configuring a firewall and authentication improves overall security, they do not directly patch or fix the vulnerability. Uninstalling may be an option only if a patch is unavailable or the software is no longer needed. Therefore, the best and most proactive response is B: Apply updates.

CPU speed is measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), indicating how many million or billion cycles the processor can execute per second.

“CPU performance is commonly measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), representing the processor’s clock speed.” — CompTIA ITF+

MB is for memory/storage size.

Mbps is for network speed.

MAC is a hardware address, not a performance metric.

Correct answer: A

Line 10 starts with “FOR Q=1 TO 100,” which is a loop construct. It defines a loop that will run 100 times, incrementing Q from 1 to 100 and executing the enclosed lines (20 and 30).

“Loops are programming constructs that repeat a set of instructions until a condition is met. A ‘FOR’ loop is a common control structure in procedural programming.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Objectives

Other options:

Attribute applies to objects, not control flow.

Sequence is the overall flow of code lines.

Branches involve decision-making (e.g., IF/ELSE), not repetition.

Correct answer: D

Compiled languages (e.g., C, C++, Go) are translated into machine code before execution, making them faster and more efficient at runtime than interpreted or scripting languages.

“Compiled code is translated into machine language before execution, providing faster performance compared to interpreted code.” — CompTIA ITF+ Software Concepts

Correct answer: B

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates a secure, encrypted connection over the internet between the user and a remote network, enabling secure access from home or public networks.

“VPNs provide a secure tunnel for transmitting data over unsecured networks, such as the internet, by encrypting all traffic between the client and the network.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Other options:

A. LAN – Local and not for remote use

B. FTP – Transfers files but lacks modern encryption

C. DNS – Resolves domain names, not for access

Correct answer: D

Data at rest refers to information stored on a device or disk, such as a hard drive. The encryption that protects it is typically file-level encryption (or full-disk encryption).

“File-level encryption applies encryption to individual files or directories on storage media and is used to protect data at rest.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

VPN and HTTPS protect data in transit.

Plaintext means data is unencrypted, and therefore is not protective.

Therefore, A is the correct answer.

Changing the router's password (particularly the Wi-Fi password) prevents unauthorized users from reconnecting to the network. It’s the most immediate and effective response.

“One of the most effective ways to secure a wireless network is by changing the default and existing passwords to prevent unauthorized access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Calling support may help but doesn’t address the issue directly.

Decreasing signal range may reduce but not eliminate access.

Resetting the router is more disruptive and unnecessary if the password can be changed.

Correct answer: C

A MAC (Media Access Control) address is a hardware address assigned to a network interface card. It follows a 48-bit hexadecimal format usually displayed as six pairs separated by colons or hyphens:

“MAC addresses typically appear as 00:50:09:2D:4D:94.”

192.68.10.24 is an IPv4 address, fe80:102d:cd62:5434:82ae is an IPv6 address, and 0x3476 is simply a hexadecimal number, not a MAC address.

Markup languages, such as HTML and XML, use tags (e.g.,

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