220-1201 Questions and Answers

NFC (Near-Field Communication)operates atvery short ranges usually less than 4cm, and is ideal for quick, secure transactions like contactless payments.Bluetoothsupportslonger ranges (up to 10 meters or 32 feet)and is suited for ongoing connections like wireless headsets or file transfers.

Option A:Bluetooth is faster for large file transfers.

Option B:NFC usesless power, not more.

Option C:NFC doesnotrequire pairing Bluetooth does.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.

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Fiber optic connections provide the highest data transfer rates and symmetrical upload and download speeds. This makes fiber the ideal choice for applications requiring high-speed connectivity, such as video conferencing, large file transfers, and cloud-based workflows.

Inkjet printers are the best choice for a small company seeking full-color printing with a minimal initial cost. While they have higher operating costs (due to ink), they are affordable and capable of high-quality color output.

Why Not A (Thermal printer): Thermal printers are not designed for color printing and are typically used for labels or receipts.

Why Not C (Dot matrix printer): Dot matrix printers are outdated, noisy, and do not support full-color printing.

Why Not D (Laser printer): Laser printers have lower running costs but a higher initial purchase price, especially for color models.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer types​.

D. Crimper:

A crimper is used to terminate an RJ45 cable properly by attaching the connector to the twisted-pair wires.

If the termination is not done correctly, the connection will be intermittent or fail entirely.

Incorrect Options:

A. Toner probe: Used to locate cables or trace their path, not for terminating RJ45 connectors.

B. Cable tester: Useful for testing connectivity but does not fix termination issues.

C. Punchdown: Used to connect wires to a patch panel or keystone jack, not for RJ45 connectors.

Key Takeaway: A crimper is the proper tool for fixing an improperly terminated RJ45 connection.

Syslog is used to log system events and tasks performed by applications, providing a centralized record of activity.

Why Not A (Fileshare): Fileshares store files but are not designed for event logging.

Why Not C (Database): Databases can store logs but are not a logging mechanism themselves.

Why Not D (SAN): A SAN is a storage solution, not a logging tool.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, system monitoring and logging​.

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers to provide error detection and correction, improving reliability in critical systems. It is designed to detect and correct single-bit errors, ensuring data integrity in environments where stability is paramount.

Option A (SODIMM): Incorrect. SODIMM is typically used in laptops, not servers.

Option B (Rambus): Incorrect. Rambus is an outdated RAM type and not commonly used today.

Option C (DDR3): Incorrect. While DDR3 is a type of RAM, it is not specific to servers and does not provide error correction.

A modular power supply allows the user to connect only the cables needed, reducing clutter and improving organization inside the case.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Power supplies:

“Modular power supplies provide detachable cables, allowing users to use only the required connections for a neater build.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Supplies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

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If performance isnot a primary concernand the user requireslarge, cost-effective storage, a2TB 5400rpm SATA HDDis ideal. It offers high capacity at a lower price point than SSDs and faster HDDs.

Option A:NVMe drives offer exceptional speed but are significantly more expensive per GB and not necessary when read/write speed is not a concern.

Option B:RAID 1 improves redundancy but cuts usable capacity in half and uses expensive SSDs.

Option D:SAS drives are fast and reliable but are enterprise-grade and expensive overkill for desktop use.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.3: Given a scenario, install and configure storage devices.

Amaintenance kitfor a laser printer often includesrollers, fuser, and other partsthat wear out over time. If the printer issmudging and misfeeding, it's a sign thatmultiple components are failing, which a maintenance kit is designed to resolve.

Option A (Fuser):May cause smudging if it's not heating correctly, but it won’t resolve paper misfeeds alone.

Option C (Corona wire):Can cause poor image quality if dirty but doesn’t affect paper feeding.

Option D (Toner cartridge):Can cause streaks if defective, but not paper feed issues.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.

Older motherboards use 20-pin connectors, while newer power supplies use 24-pin connectors. An adapter resolves the compatibility issue cost-effectively.

Why Not A (Adjust the input voltage): Input voltage adjustment is unrelated to connector compatibility.

Why Not B (Install a modular power supply): While modular supplies are versatile, this doesn’t address the connector issue directly.

Why Not C (Rebuild the failed power supply): Rebuilding is costly and complex compared to using an adapter.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply compatibility​.

A loopback plug is a diagnostic tool used to test whether a physical port such as an Ethernet NIC port or serial port is capable of sending and receiving its own signal. When inserted, it “loops” outgoing signals back into the device, confirming the port's transmit/receive functionality.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes loopback plugs as essential tools during hardware and network troubleshooting, especially when isolating physical port or NIC failures.

Network taps passively monitor traffic, crimpers attach RJ45 connectors to cables, and patch panels organize cabling none of these verify port-level functionality. Therefore, only a loopback plug can confirm that a port is working correctly by testing signal integrity and hardware responsiveness.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

When delivering 10Gbps speeds over long distances, fiber optic cables are the best choice. Here’s the breakdown:

A. Multimode Fiber (Correct Answer):

Multimode fiber is designed for relatively short to medium distances (up to 1,312 feet or 400 meters) while supporting high-speed data transfer (10Gbps and above).

It uses LED light sources and is cost-effective for environments like data centers or within buildings.

For the specified distance of over 328ft but under 1,312ft, multimode fiber is the most suitable option.

Incorrect Options:

B. Single-mode Fiber: While single-mode fiber supports much greater distances (up to several miles or kilometers) and higher speeds, it is more expensive and unnecessary for the specified range. Single-mode fiber is generally used for long-haul networking or telecommunications.

C. Cat 6a: Cat 6a is capable of 10Gbps speeds but only up to 328ft (100 meters). It cannot reliably handle the specified distance of over 328ft.

D. Cat 6: Cat 6 is also limited to 10Gbps speeds at distances up to 328ft (100 meters). Beyond this range, it is unsuitable.

Key Takeaway:

For delivering 10Gbps speeds over distances longer than 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m), Multimode Fiber is the best choice due to its ability to support high-speed data over medium distances at a reasonable cost.

A distorted image where the screen is not symmetrical (wider at the top or bottom) is typically due to keystone distortion. Adjusting the projector's keystone settings corrects this trapezoidal effect caused by an angled projection.

Tethering refers to sharing a mobile phone’s internet connection with another device, such as a laptop, either through USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. Tethering effectively turns the mobile phone into a personal hotspot for internet access.

Option A (IR): Incorrect. Infrared (IR) is used for short-range communication, such as remote controls, but it does not support internet sharing.

Option B (NFC): Incorrect. Near-field communication (NFC) is used for close-proximity data transfer, not for internet sharing.

Option C (Wi-Fi Direct): Incorrect. Wi-Fi Direct enables device-to-device communication but does not inherently provide internet sharing.

After determining the issue is likely on the remote server, the technician should test the theory to confirm the root cause before proceeding.

Why Not A (Document the findings): Documentation comes after confirming the issue.

Why Not C (Gather information): Information gathering is already completed.

Why Not D (Establish a plan of action): This is done after confirming the issue.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology​.

Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic design or photo editing, ensuring the screen's colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.

Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.

Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.

Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.

Since only one user experiences the issue in a shared environment where everyone else has stable connectivity, CompTIA A+ suggests that the problem is most likely with the client device, not the network. The wireless card may be failing, overheating, or experiencing intermittent hardware faults.

If other Wi-Fi signals or EMI (electromagnetic interference) were the cause, multiple users would be affected. Frequency congestion (Option B) also impacts groups, not a single device.

CompTIA stresses that isolating whether the issue affects one user or many helps determine whether the fault lies with the network or device. Because the problem is isolated, the most probable cause is a malfunctioning wireless NIC in the user’s laptop.

Thermal printerscreate images using aheated print headon specially coated thermal paper. Vertical white lines indicate thatpart of the heating element is dirty or blocked, preventing heat transfer to the paper. Cleaning the print head (heating element) will restore full functionality.

Option A:Thermal printers donot use ink or toner, so this is not applicable.

Option B:Wrong paper could cause blank output, but consistent vertical lines point to the print head.

Option C:Maintenance kits are typically for laser printers, not thermal printers.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. This includes virtual servers, storage, and networking. Deploying server machines falls under IaaS since the organization is responsible for managing the OS and applications on top of the infrastructure.

Security groups are used to manage access permissions to network resources, ensuring only authorized HR department members can access the shared materials.

Why Not B (Audit logs): Audit logs monitor activity but do not restrict access.

Why Not C (Time-of-day access): Time-of-day access limits when users can access resources but doesn’t specify user permissions.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but does not control file access.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, access control and permissions​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100–150 Words):

A proxy server acts as an intermediary between client devices and the internet. One of its primary functions is URL filtering, web-content restriction, and logging user activity. When a user attempts to connect to a website, the request first goes to the proxy, where filtering rules determine whether the site is allowed or blocked. CompTIA A+ 220-1201 emphasizes that proxies help organizations control outbound traffic, enforce browsing policies, block malicious or inappropriate content, and improve security through caching.

Spam gateways only filter email, DHCP assigns IP addresses, and RADIUS handles authentication, none of which enforce website restriction. Therefore, the correct solution for content control is a proxy server, as stated in the Networking domain of the A+ curriculum.

A sandbox is an isolated virtual environment, often used for testing code or software safely without affecting the host system.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization:

“A sandbox provides an isolated environment, often implemented as a virtual machine, to safely test applications or code.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Storage devices:

“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

SMB (Server Message Block)is a protocol used to access files and printers over a network, including across shared network folders. It enables the user to access and print files stored remotely on a shared directory.

Option A (ADF):Automatic Document Feeder hardware, not a network protocol.

Option B (USB):Used for direct physical connections, not for printing over networks.

Option C (PCL):Printer Command Language relates to printer drivers, not file sharing or access.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.

A hard disk drive (HDD), especially if it's older or nearly full, is the most common cause of slow startup times in laptops. HDDs are much slower than SSDs and can significantly bottleneck the boot process.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

“A slow startup or sluggish system performance is commonly due to a failing or fragmented hard disk drive (HDD). Replacing with an SSD can greatly improve boot times and overall system responsiveness.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting PC Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

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Mobile Application Management (MAM) enforces policies restricting access to apps and services based on location, ensuring security at external sites.

Why Not A (MOW): "Mobile Only Workplace" (MOW) is not a recognized term in this context.

Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is unrelated to mobile device policies.

Why Not C (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user accounts but does not enforce app restrictions.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, mobile device security policies​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

LC Connector (Lucent Connector):

LC is a type of fiber optic connector commonly used in optical networking cables. It is small, compact, and widely used for high-speed data transfer over fiber optic networks.

LC connectors are specifically designed for fiber optic cables, making them the correct answer.

Incorrect Options:

A. RJ45: RJ45 connectors are used for Ethernet cables (twisted-pair copper cabling) and are not compatible with optical networking cables.

C. USB-C: USB-C is a connector type used for general-purpose data transfer, charging, and video output, not for optical networking.

D. Lightning: Lightning connectors are proprietary to Apple devices and are not used in optical networking.

Key Takeaway:

The LC connector is specifically designed for fiber optic cables, making it the correct answer for optical networking.

Reasoning: Projectors have air filters that prevent dust from entering the internal components. A clogged filter can cause the projector to overheat, resulting in shutdowns and even strange smells due to overheating components. Cleaning the filter is a standard troubleshooting step when projectors exhibit overheating symptoms.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Replace the bulb:

While a failing bulb may eventually cause issues, it would not typically result in a strange smell or repeated shutdowns after a fixed period. Bulb issues usually manifest as dim or flickering images.

B. Check the projector configuration:

Configuration settings, such as resolution or input options, would not cause overheating or shutdowns. This option does not address the described symptoms.

D. Adjust the gamma settings:

Gamma settings affect display brightness and contrast but have no impact on overheating or strange smells.

Practical Example:

Dust accumulation in projectors is a common issue, especially in environments with poor air circulation. A clogged filter causes restricted airflow, leading to overheating and automatic shutdowns to protect internal components. Cleaning the filter typically resolves this issue.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 5.5: Troubleshoot common video, projector, and display issues.

DisplayPort is a fully digital video interface that supports HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection), a digital rights-management protocol used to protect copyrighted content such as movies, streaming video, and Blu-ray playback. The CompTIA A+ study guide notes that DisplayPort and HDMI support HDCP, while analog connections like VGA and DVI-A do not support HDCP because analog signals cannot enforce digital content protection.

F-type connectors are used for coaxial cabling (cable TV, satellite), not digital video output. DisplayPort's support for encrypted high-definition video streams makes it the correct answer and aligns with CompTIA’s coverage of display connectors and digital content protection technologies.

APrivate Cloudis operated solely for a single organization. It ishosted on-premises or in a dedicated off-site data center, giving the company full control over data, security, and compliance often hosted in theorganization’s own local data center.

Option B (Public):Hosted by third-party providers and shared by multiple clients.

Option C (Hybrid):Combines private and public cloud resources.

Option D (Community):Shared by several organizations with similar goals.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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When a device shows asnot connectedeven though it previously paired, the most effective action is tore-pair the devices. This resets the Bluetooth connection, clears any corruption in pairing profiles, and re-establishes communication.

Option A:Entering a PIN is only relevant during initial pairing and may not be prompted again.

Option B:Turning off Wi-Fi doesn’t typically affect Bluetooth; they operate on similar frequencies but don’t conflict this way in normal use.

Option D:If Bluetooth were disabled, the device wouldn’t appear at all, not just show as “not connected.”

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A firewall allows for detailed traffic control, including blocking outbound connections while allowing inbound ones. This is contrary to typical security setups, but it can be configured via advanced firewall rules.

Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 – Common ports and protocols:

"Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1

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Asandboxis an isolated virtual environment used totest or run applications securelywithout risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.

Option A (VDI):Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.

Option B (Private cloud):Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.

Option D (Type 1 hypervisor):Runs VMs directly on hardware and doesnotinherently block communication.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) technology can turn off individual pixels completely, producing “true black” and resulting in the highest contrast ratios compared to other display types.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Display types and features:

“OLED displays provide superior contrast by emitting light per pixel, allowing perfect black and extremely high contrast ratios.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Display Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

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AVLAN (Virtual LAN)is used to logically segment a network without requiring physical separation. It enables grouping devices based on function or department regardless of their physical location.

Option A (DHCP):Assigns IP addresses dynamically but doesn’t create network segments.

Option C (DNS):Resolves domain names to IP addresses, not used for network segmentation.

Option D (VPN):Provides secure remote access but does not relate to logical segmentation within a local network.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.3: Explain common logical networking concepts.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RAID 6 uses two parity blocks, allowing it to tolerate the failure of two drives without losing data.

The first security step after deploying a new router is to change the default administrative password. Default credentials are well known and pose a security risk if left unchanged.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.3 – Secure a wireless network:

“Always change default administrative credentials before further configuration to prevent unauthorized access.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Security

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.3

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CompTIA A+ teaches that the default gateway is required for any device to communicate with external networks such as the internet. Without a configured default gateway, the computer can communicate only with devices on the same local subnet explaining why the file server is reachable.

DNS and IPv6 settings are not the issue; without a gateway, external routing cannot occur. Flushing DNS affects hostname resolution, not routing. NetBIOS settings have no effect on internet connectivity.

Adding or correcting the default gateway (usually the router’s LAN IP, such as 192.168.1.1) will allow the PC to route traffic beyond its local network.

This aligns precisely with CompTIA’s troubleshooting steps for missing or incorrect gateway configuration.

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.

Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.

Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.

Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts​.

A common reason for aPOST failureafter a motherboard installation isimproperly seated RAM. The system requires working memory to successfully complete POST. Reseating (removing and reinserting) the RAM ensures it's making proper contact with the motherboard.

Option A:Flashing the BIOS is not possible if the system won’t POST.

Option B:A dead CMOS battery can cause BIOS settings to reset, but it usually won’t prevent POST entirely.

Option D:Reinstalling the old motherboard is premature basic troubleshooting steps should be completed first.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

An older HDMI cable version may not support 4K resolution. For 4K output, both the device and the cable must support HDMI 2.0 or higher.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Display troubleshooting:

“Ensure the correct version of HDMI cable is used for high-resolution outputs like 4K. Older cables may be limited to 1080p.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Display and Video

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

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A sandbox is a secure, isolated environment used to test potentially harmful software or code. It prevents the software from affecting the main system, allowing safe malware testing. Thismethod is standard in cybersecurity best practices.

A managed switch allows an administrator to enable or disable individual ports as part of network security and management. If a port on a managed switch has been disabled, the device connected to that port will lose connectivity, which matches the scenario described.

A port replicator is designed to allow a user to quickly connect a laptop to multiple peripherals (display, keyboard, mouse, network, etc.) using a single interface, reducing setup time.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Laptop hardware and connections:

“Port replicators offer quick connections for multiple peripherals, streamlining the process of docking and undocking a laptop.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Laptop Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

Elasticity in cloud computing refers to the ability of a system to automatically allocate and release resources (such as CPU, RAM, or virtual machines) as workload demands change. This feature is key to ensuring that resources are used efficiently without manual intervention.

Large electrical motors can emit electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can disrupt wireless signals and prevent connectivity.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Wireless troubleshooting:

“Sources of external interference such as motors or other electrical equipment can disrupt wireless network connectivity.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4

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High resource usage along with frequentpop-upsare strong signs of amalware infection. The next logical step is toupdate anti-malware definitionsandrun a full scanto detect and remove threats.

Option A:Network performance is likely not the root cause local system behavior points to malware.

Option B:Drivers affect hardware functionality; they don’t resolve malware-related slowness.

Option D:DHCP issues usually cause IP conflicts or no network access, not CPU spikes or pop-ups.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.

Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud deployment models:

“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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If flipping the cable helps but the problem is isolated to this device (not others of the same type), the most likely cause is a dirty or damaged charging port on the device itself. Dirt or debris inside the port can prevent a good electrical connection, causing the cable to work intermittently.

Input voltage must be validated to ensure desktop PCs can operate in different regions with varying power standards (e.g., 110V in North America vs. 220V in Europe). Failure to verify input voltage compatibility can lead to hardware damage or operational issues.

Option B (BIOS language support): Incorrect. While language support may be helpful, it is not critical for hardware deployment across regions.

Option C (Supply chain security): Incorrect. This refers to ensuring secure sourcing of components but does not directly impact deployment.

Option D (Power efficiency): Incorrect. Power efficiency may be important for energy savings but is not relevant to regional compatibility.

An eSIM (embedded SIM) allows users to change carriers and provision new cellular service without installing any physical hardware. It is managed via software and is ideal for international travelers who need to switch providers quickly.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Install and configure mobile device network connectivity:

"eSIMs provide carrier flexibility by enabling remote provisioning and profile switching, making it possible to connect to different networks without a physical SIM card."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

ACommunity Cloudis designed for use by several organizations with shared concerns (e.g., security, compliance, jurisdiction). It’s common in industries like healthcare or finance where multiple entities benefit from a common infrastructure with shared policies.

Option A (Public):Open to general public or large industry group less secure.

Option B (Hybrid):Mix of public and private does not imply industry collaboration.

Option D (Private):Dedicated to a single organization.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

Amodular power supplyallows a technician toconnect only the power cables that are needed, reducing clutter and improving airflow. This is ideal when aiming for a clean build withminimal visible internal cables.

Option A (SATA drive connections):Still require both power and data cables, adding to cable count.

Option B (Liquid cooling):May reduce some bulk from large air coolers, but adds tubing and still needs cabling.

Option D (Wireless NIC):Adds wireless capability but has no relation to internal cabling cleanliness.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.3: Given a scenario, apply the appropriate PC configuration.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Modifying duplex settings to double-sided:

Printing on both sides of the paper (duplex printing) reduces paper usage, making it one of the most effective environmentally friendly printing initiatives.

It directly minimizes waste and supports sustainability goals in the workplace.

Incorrect Options:

A. Requiring user authentication for printing: While this can reduce unnecessary or unauthorized printing, it does not directly address environmental objectives like saving resources.

B. Locking down printing to only certain individuals: Limiting access may reduce printing overall, but it does not actively contribute to environmentally friendly practices like duplex printing.

D. Changing the print quality settings to best: Using the "best" print quality increases toner or ink usage, which is counterproductive to environmentally friendly objectives.

Key Takeaway:

Modifying duplex settings to enable double-sided printing is the best initiative to achieve environmentally friendly goals by reducing paper consumption.

A fileshare becoming slow over time and then failing completely strongly suggests storage subsystem degradation, often due to a failing RAID array. CompTIA A+ explains that slow file access is an early sign of a degraded array, and eventual unavailability indicates the array may have failed or entered a critical state.

Since the technician can still RDP into the server, the OS is functioning, meaning memory is likely not the issue. Network connectivity is sufficient for remote login. Backup integrity does not affect real-time file availability.

Thus, the next step is to check the RAID array status, which directly controls the server’s storage performance and availability precisely what CompTIA identifies as the primary point of failure in such scenarios.

Inlaser printers, thefuser unitis responsible formelting the toner onto the paperusing heat and pressure. If the toner rubs off easily, it's a clear sign thefuser is failing or not heating properly. Replacing the fuser will ensure the toner bonds correctly to the paper.

Option B (Drum):Transfers the image, but doesn't fuse the toner.

Option C (Developer roller):Applies toner to the drum wouldn’t cause toner to rub off.

Option D (Discharge lamp):Prepares the drum for a new image; not related to toner adhesion.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

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A valid public IP address must fall outside the private IP address ranges:

10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

66.157.195.20 is outside these ranges, making it a public IP address.

Why Not A, C, D: These IPs fall within private IP address ranges.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, IP addressing​.

Wi-Fi assistance in mobile devices helps improve location accuracy by using nearby wireless networks to triangulate the device’s position, even when GPS signals are weak (like indoors or in dense areas).

The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.

Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector’s maximum capability.

Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.

Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply and connectors​.

Firewalls are specifically designed to monitor, filter, and control network traffic using Access Control Lists (ACLs). ACLs define which traffic is allowed or denied based on parameters like IP address, protocol, or port.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Networking hardware and security:

“Firewalls use access control lists (ACLs) to allow or deny traffic based on rules. Unmanaged switches and PoE injectors do not support ACLs.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Security Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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Ceiling-mounted projectors are typically installed upside down, and therefore include a built-in “Ceiling Mount” or “Vertical Flip” setting within their display menu. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that projectors provide their own orientation controls intended specifically for this installation scenario. Adjusting orientation from the laptop rotates the desktop, not the projected output configuration. Changing input sources does not affect image orientation. Display frequency affects refresh rate and flickering, not physical image rotation.

Flipping the image directly from the projector ensures the display is oriented correctly regardless of the device connected. This is the method recommended in A+ material under display configuration and projector troubleshooting, which covers keystone correction, rotation, and mounting modes.

Thus, the correct solution is to flip the image vertically using the projector’s built-in settings.

The appropriate network type for this scenario is a Local Area Network (LAN), which is designed for small, localized networks, such as within a single building or room. LANs are ideal for gaming because they provide high-speed, low-latency connections.

Option A (SAN): Incorrect. A Storage Area Network is used for data storage, not for gaming or general networking.

Option B (MAN): Incorrect. A Metropolitan Area Network covers a city or campus, far exceeding the scope needed for a gaming setup in a single room.

Option D (PAN): Incorrect. A Personal Area Network is designed for a single user, such as Bluetooth devices, and would not support multiple devices connecting to a game server.

Port flapping refers to a network port continuously going up and down, which can prevent the access point from fully coming online.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Wired and wireless troubleshooting:

“Repeated loss and restoration of network link is called port flapping and may result in network devices, such as access points, not coming online.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4

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Choppy or unintelligible audio is typically caused by issues with the microphone, such as poor quality, hardware defects, or misconfiguration.

Why Not A (Webcam): The webcam handles video, not audio.

Why Not B (Digitizer): A digitizer relates to touchscreens, not audio.

Why Not C (Inverter): Inverters manage power for displays, not audio.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.6, audio troubleshooting​.

The baseline documentation says the valid network range ends at 192.168.232.255, but the user’s gateway is 192.168.233.1, which is outside the permitted network range. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that devices must have a gateway inside their own subnet.

Given a mask of 255.255.255.0, the user’s subnet is 192.168.223.x, so the gateway must be in 192.168.223.x, not 192.168.233.x.

DNS settings are public and acceptable. The IP address and subnet mask are valid within the documented address space.

Therefore, the incorrect setting is the gateway, which prevents external routing. Correcting it resolves the connection issue, matching CompTIA’s routing and TCP/IP troubleshooting procedures.