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CCDS-O Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which of the following tools or processes is MOST appropriate to share with providers and administrators during a department meeting when demonstrating documentation and coding patterns?

A.

Spaghetti diagram

B.

PDSA cycle

C.

Bar graph

D.

Donabedian Model

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Question # 7

Which of the following is a key component that is used to calculate Relative Value Units (RVUs)?

A.

Time with the patient

B.

Physician specialty type

C.

Malpractice expense

D.

Medical decision making

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Question # 8

A CDI specialist identifies an opportunity to clarify a patient’s BMI. The CDI specialist leaves a query within the medical record for the ancillary support team to address during the patient’s visit. Which of the following BEST describes this type of query?

A.

Retrospective

B.

Concurrent

C.

Prospective

D.

Prebill

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Question # 9

During a PCP visit, a provider notes a patient’s history of pathological fracture of the thoracic spine related to osteoporosis. Documentation states: “Decreased muscle mass and significant weight loss in the last six months.” Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?

A.

Degree of muscle atrophy

B.

Acuity of the pathological fracture

C.

Type of osteoporosis

D.

Presence of malnutrition

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Question # 10

An elderly patient with a PMH of CHF, DM type 1, arthritis, and HTN is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment after a recent hospitalization. After an evaluation of the patient's current health status, the provider documents the following: "HFrEF: lungs clear, no edema, continue meds. DM: no changes to insulin pump. Arthritis: asymptomatic joint destruction. HTN: BP stable. Continue meds." Which of the following is the clarification opportunity in the above scenario?

A.

The type and severity of heart failure

B.

A link between the DM and arthritis

C.

A link between HTN and heart failure

D.

The insulin status

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Question # 11

In which of the following ways does payment determination (risk score calculation) differ between HHS-HCCs and CMS-HCCs?

A.

HHS-HCCs use the current year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the current year’s spending.

B.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the next year’s spending.

C.

HHS-HCCs use current ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the current year’s spending.

D.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the next year’s spending.

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Question # 12

Which of the following actions should be taken when the documentation states: “Hemiparesis, history of CVA, and intracranial trauma?”

A.

Report hemiparesis as sequelae of CVA.

B.

Report hemiparesis, history of CVA, and history of trauma.

C.

Query to clarify the etiology of the hemiparesis.

D.

Assign the code for hemiparesis.

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Question # 13

What diagnoses are included in code category N18, chronic kidney disease?

A.

Dialysis, chronic uremia, and polycystic kidney disease

B.

GFR, ATN, and unspecified kidney failure

C.

AKI, ESRD, and dialysis

D.

CKD stage 3, CKD severe, and ESRD

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Question # 14

A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

A.

Status of ostomy

B.

Status of the sleep apnea

C.

Status of the COPD

D.

Status of colon cancer

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Question # 15

An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary’s risk score?

A.

Patient noncompliance and age

B.

ICD-10-CM codes and race

C.

Medicaid status and race

D.

Medicaid status and gender

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Question # 16

A patient is evaluated in the primary care clinic for chest pain, slight shortness of breath, and mild nausea. Documentation includes an ECG and chest x-ray to rule out MI. Which of the following diagnoses are reportable?

A.

Angina pectoris, unspecified, shortness of breath, and nausea

B.

Rule out MI, shortness of breath, and nausea

C.

Acute MI, chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

D.

Other chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

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Question # 17

The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?

A.

New/established, site of service, and level of service

B.

New/established, site of service, and time

C.

New/established, physician specialty, and level of service

D.

New/established, level of service, and age of patient

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Question # 18

A morbidly obese patient with a BMI of 45 who is reliant on CPAP at night is likely to have which of the following conditions?

A.

Heart failure

B.

Essential hypertension

C.

Alveolar hypoventilation

D.

Pulmonary edema

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Question # 19

Provider documentation states: “A patient is seen today with DM type 2, peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer of the left great toe, hypertension, and BMI 43. O2 dependent, chronic respiratory failure due to COPD, stopped smoking 2 years ago - 84 packs per year smoking habit.” Which of the following query opportunities will impact risk adjustment?

A.

Nicotine dependence

B.

Diabetes with complications

C.

Morbid obesity

D.

Depth of diabetic ulcer

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Question # 20

A prospective record review of a problem list states: “Upper respiratory infection (resolved), fractured right femoral head (resolved), metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology), hypertension, morbid obesity, and bipolar disorder.” Which of the following query opportunities would provide the highest risk adjusted impact?

A.

Body mass index

B.

Sequelae related to fracture femur

C.

Specificity of bipolar disorder

D.

Status of metastatic melanoma

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Question # 21

A patient presents with pulmonary rales, pulmonary edema found on chest x-ray, and bilateral ankle edema. Which of the following conditions will the provider MOST likely evaluate further?

A.

Pleural effusion

B.

Heart failure

C.

Pneumonia

D.

Pulmonary hypertension

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Question # 22

While away on vacation, a patient sustained a compound right femoral shaft fracture requiring ORIF. Upon the patient’s return home, the fracture site is determined by the orthopedist to be healing well without any complication. Which of the following diagnoses is MOST appropriate for this office follow-up?

A.

Unspecified fracture of shaft of right femur, initial encounter, closed fracture

B.

Unspecified fracture of shaft of right femur, initial encounter, open fracture type I or II

C.

Unspecified fracture of shaft of right femur, subsequent encounter for routine healing, closed fracture type I or II

D.

Unspecified fracture of shaft of right femur, subsequent encounter for routine healing, open fracture type I or II

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Question # 23

CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology seeks to measure

A.

an individual’s anticipated cost of care.

B.

a beneficiary’s risk of mortality.

C.

group beneficiary costs.

D.

physician cost of care provision.

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Question # 24

A CDI specialist is following up on a query while the provider is seeing patients in the clinic. The BEST action that will support a quick and compliant response to the query is to

A.

wait to speak with the provider during the next scheduled meeting.

B.

catch the provider in the hallway between patients.

C.

discuss in a private room with the door closed.

D.

leave a sticky note on the chart of the next patient.

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Question # 25

When compliantly querying providers, CDI specialists or HIM/coding professionals may

A.

offer diagnoses choices supported by documentation solely from previous encounters.

B.

identify which diagnoses are HCCs.

C.

offer a new diagnosis, that is supported by the clinical evidence, as an option in a multiple-choice query.

D.

omit clinical indicators in a query as this may be leading to the provider.

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Question # 26

A patient presents for a right inguinal herniorrhaphy in ambulatory surgery and is placed in observation status postoperatively. Provider documentation states: “Observation related to the post procedural urinary retention likely related to benign prostatic hyperplasia or adverse reaction to anesthesia.” From this documentation, which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

A.

Urinary retention

B.

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

C.

Adverse reaction to anesthetic

D.

Right inguinal hernia

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Question # 27

A CDI specialist has created the following query:

“Dear Dr., Based on the following clinical indicators: history of CVA and physical therapy ordered to address left sided weakness, please confirm a diagnosis of hemiplegia.”

What feedback should be given to the CDI specialist regarding the query?

A.

Hemiplegia can be coded without the provider clarification.

B.

The query leads the physician to one diagnosis, making it non-compliant.

C.

Clinical indicators do not support the query.

D.

The query does not include results from the most recent MRI.

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Question # 28

Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) are similar to Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs) in which of the following ways?

A.

Multiple APCs can be assigned for a given encounter.

B.

APC assignment is dependent on diagnoses codes.

C.

APCs classify payment identifying similar resource use.

D.

Only one APC can be assigned for a given encounter.

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Question # 29

A 75-year-old with a PMH of chronic foot ulcer, CKD, and depression is seen by his PCP for continued fatigue and decreased urination. Labs drawn on previous day are reviewed. Patient describes extreme fatigue and no motivation. Assessment and plan include: “CKD 3 with renal failure - refer to nephrologist. Chronic nonpressure foot ulcer - home care for wound assessment. Depression - Rx for SSRI.” Which of the following are the validated diagnoses that risk adjust and qualify as CMS-HCCs?

A.

Renal failure; CKD 3

B.

CKD 3; chronic non-pressure ulcer

C.

Depression; renal failure

D.

Chronic non-pressure ulcer; depression

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Question # 30

Which of the following best differentiates inpatient from outpatient coding guidelines?

A.

Outpatient guidelines focus on principal diagnoses

B.

Inpatient guidelines emphasize diagnosis sequencing and MS-DRGs

C.

Both use the same guidelines with no differences

D.

Outpatient coding ignores encounter diagnoses

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Question # 31

Which statement is MOST accurate about the problem list?

A.

Problem list diagnoses should be removed after one year.

B.

A well-maintained problem list is vital in the continuity of patient care.

C.

More diagnoses on the problem list assist the provider in caring for the patient.

D.

A CDI specialist should update the problem list to provide continuity of care.

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Question # 32

ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient’s provider in which of the following circumstances?

A.

Anatomic site of previous amputation

B.

Type of obesity

C.

Stage of pressure ulcer

D.

Site of ostomy

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Question # 33

Which of the following are appropriate clinical indicators to support a query related to alcohol dependency in remission?

A.

The patient has history of cirrhosis of the liver and elevated liver enzymes.

B.

The patient has history of excessive alcohol use and attends AA meetings.

C.

The patient admits to occasional social drinking and recreational drug use.

D.

The patient presents with nausea, vomiting, and distended abdomen.

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Question # 34

Which of the following therapies is MOST likely to be recommended?

A.

Ensure for morbid obesity

B.

Metoprolol for atrial fibrillation

C.

Xarelto for hematemesis

D.

Tamoxifen for chronic congestive heart failure

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Question # 35

A 62-year-old female with history of HTN, CAD, chronic cough and obesity is seen by her PCP. Which of the following treatment plans may result in a query?

A.

Diagnostic chest x-ray

B.

A visit with a nutrition specialist

C.

Order placed for hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)

D.

Prescription written for the ACE inhibitor captopril

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Question # 36

Which of the following is the major difference between MIPS and APMs?

A.

MIPS participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and APM participation is voluntary.

B.

APM participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and MIPS participation is voluntary.

C.

MIPS and APM participation is voluntary by eligible providers.

D.

MIPS and APM participation is required of eligible providers.

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Question # 37

Which of the following categories of MIPS is MOST impacted by CDI provider education around specificity with diagnoses and documentation?

A.

Quality and cost

B.

Cost and improvement activity

C.

Improvement activity and promoting interoperability

D.

Quality and promoting interoperability

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Question # 38

A CDI specialist reviews the record of a patient with a history of CHF and DM Type 2 who was seen in the clinic earlier that day for possible bronchitis, fever, congestion, dyspnea, and cough. A chest x-ray indicated LLL infiltrate, and a nebulizer treatment was administered while in the office. Levofloxacin and albuterol were prescribed. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to query?

A.

Presence of pneumonia

B.

Diabetic complications

C.

Acuity of bronchitis

D.

Specificity of heart failure

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Question # 39

In review of a clinic record, a CDI specialist notes the provider has directly copied and pasted a previous inpatient problem list into the current ambulatory visit note. Which of the following is the CDI specialist’s BEST course of action?

A.

Do not code conditions that were pasted from the problem list.

B.

Query the provider for each of the conditions on the problem list.

C.

Educate the provider regarding the concerns with copying and pasting this list.

D.

Assume the conditions are all relevant for this visit.

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Question # 40

When reviewing physician metrics, a CDI specialist notes upward trends in the use of unspecified diagnoses. Which of the following diagnoses provides the BEST opportunity to positively influence the providers’ RAF score in the CMS-HCC model?

A.

Cystic fibrosis, unspecified

B.

Kaposi’s sarcoma, unspecified

C.

Arthropathic psoriasis, unspecified

D.

Angina pectoris, unspecified

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Question # 41

If a patient is being seen for follow-up and the documentation indicates that the patient was admitted to the hospital 28 days ago with an acute cerebral infarction with remaining right-sided weakness, which of the following diagnoses would be MOST appropriate?

A.

Cerebral infarction, unspecified, hemiparesis affecting right dominant side

B.

Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting unspecified side

C.

Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting right dominant side

D.

Other sequelae of cerebral infarction

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Question # 42

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

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