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350-401 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

Which two features does the Cisco SD-Access architecture add to a traditional campus network? (Choose two.)

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

private VLANs

C.

SD-WAN

D.

modular QoS

E.

identity services

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Question # 7

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an eBGP neighborship to Router B on Router A. The network that is connected to GO/1 on Router A must be advertised to Router B. Which configuration should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 8

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must log in to the router via the console, but the RADIUS servers are not reachable Which credentials allow console access1?

A.

the username "cisco" and the password "Cisco"

B.

no username and only the password "test123"

C.

no username and only the password "cisco123"

D.

the username "cisco" and the password “cisco123"

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Question # 9

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the Loopback interface of router R2 during, the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 10

Which feature Is used to propagate ARP broadcast, and link-local frames across a Cisco SD-Access fabric to address connectivity needs for silent hosts that require reception of traffic to start communicating?

A.

Native Fabric Multicast

B.

Layer 2 Flooding

C.

SOA Transit

D.

Multisite Fabric

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Question # 11

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be implemented to establish EBGP peering between R1 and R2?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 12

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration set implements Control plane Policing for SSH and Telnet?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 13

What is a characteristics of a vSwitch?

A.

supports advanced Layer 3 routing protocols that are not offered by a hardware switch

B.

enables VMs to communicate with each other within a virtualized server

C.

has higher performance than a hardware switch

D.

operates as a hub and broadcasts the traffic toward all the vPorts

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Question # 14

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router r R1 Allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 to addresses in the public space?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 15

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting, Which method can a client use to authenticate to the network?

A.

text string

B.

username and password

C.

certificate

D.

RADIUS token

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Question # 16

In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?

A.

to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric

B.

to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric

C.

to advertise fabric IP address space to external network

D.

to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric

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Question # 17

What are two benefits of YANG? (Choose two.)

A.

It enforces the use of a specific encoding format for NETCONF.

B.

It collects statistical constraint analysis information.

C.

It enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf list.

D.

It enforces configuration semantics.

E.

It enforces configuration constraints.

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Question # 18

What is the difference between CEF and process switching?

A.

CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.

B.

CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.

C.

CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.

D.

Process switching is faster than CEF.

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Question # 19

Which router is elected the IGMP Querier when more than one router is in the same LAN segment?

A.

The router with the shortest uptime

B.

The router with the lowest IP address

C.

The router with the highest IP address

D.

The router with the longest uptime

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Question # 20

Which free application has the ability to make REST calls against Cisco DNA Center?

A.

API Explorer

B.

REST Explorer

C.

Postman

D.

Mozilla

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Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit.

Which GRE tunnel configuration command is missing on R2?

A.

tunnel source 192.181.2

B.

tunnel source 172.16.1.0

C.

tunnel source 200.1.1.1

D.

tunnel destination 200.1.1.1

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Question # 22

What is difference between TCAM and the MAC address table?

A.

TCAM is used to make Lalyer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables.

B.

The MAC address table supports partial matches .TCAM requires an exact match.

C.

The MAC address table is contained in CAM.ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM.

D.

Router prefix lookups happens in CAM.MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.

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Question # 23

Which two methods are used to interconnect two Cisco SD-Access Fabric sites? (Choose two.)

A.

SD-Access transit

B.

fabric interconnect

C.

wireless transit

D.

IP-based transit

E.

SAN transit

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Question # 24

In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints?

A.

DHCP

B.

VXLAN

C.

SXP

D.

LISP

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Question # 25

A script contains the statement "while loop != 999:" Which value terminates the loop?

A.

A value equal to 999.

B.

A value less than or equal to 999.

C.

A value not equal to 999.

D.

A value greater than or equal to 999.

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Question # 26

What Is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode?

A.

All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller.

B.

All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller.

C.

Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers.

D.

The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers

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Question # 27

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 28

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer checks connectivity between two routers. The engineer can ping the remote endpoint but cannot see an ARP entry. Why is there no ARP entry?

A.

The ping command must be executed in the global routing table.

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/0 Is configured in VRF CUST-A, so the ARP entry is also in that VRF.

C.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol must be enabled In each VRF.

D.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol is disabled in the global routing table.

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Question # 29

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left to the table types on the right.

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Question # 30

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must configure router B to allow traffic only from network 10.1002.0 to networks outside of router 0. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 31

Which collection contains the resources to obtain a list of fabric nodes through the vManage API?

A.

device management

B.

administration

C.

device inventory

D.

monitoring

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Question # 32

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure the router to use the ISE-Servers group for authentication. If both ISE servers are unavailable, the local username database must be used. If no usernames are defined in the configuration, then the enable password must be the last resort to log in. Which configuration must be applied to achieve this result?

A.

aaa authentication login default group ISE-Servers local enable

B.

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

C.

aaa authorization exec default group ISE-Servers local enable

D.

aaa authentication login error-enable

aaa authentication login default group enable local ISE-Servers

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Question # 33

what is a benefit of using a Type 2 hypervisor instead of a Type 1 hypervisor?

A.

better application performance

B.

Improved security because the underlying OS is eliminated

C.

Improved density and scalability

D.

ability to operate on hardware that is running other OSs

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Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit.

The port channel between the switches does not work as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

A.

Interface Gi0/0 on Switch2 must be configured as passive.

B.

Interface Gi0/1 on Switch1 must be configured as desirable.

C.

interface Gi0/1 on Switch2 must be configured as active.

D.

Trucking must be enabled on both Interfaces on Switch2.

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Question # 35

What is a characteristics of traffic policing?

A.

lacks support for marking or remarking

B.

must be applied only to outgoing traffic

C.

can be applied in both traffic directions

D.

queues out-of-profile packets until the buffer is full

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Question # 36

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the API request?

A.

The "params" variable sends data fields to the network appliance.

B.

The native interface information is read from the network appliance.

C.

The Information for all interfaces is read from the network appliance.

D.

The "params" variable reads data fields from the network appliance

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Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit. Which EEM script generates a critical-level syslog message and saves a copy of the running configuration to the bootflash when an administrator saves the running configuration to the startup configuration?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 38

Refer io me exhibit.

An engineer configures the trunk and proceeds to configure an ESPAN session to monitor VLANs10. 20. and 30. Which command must be added to complete this configuration?

A.

Device(config.mon.erspan.stc)# no filter vlan 30

B.

Devic(config.mon.erspan.src-dst)# no vrf 1

C.

Devic(config.mon.erspan.src-dst)# erspan id 6

D.

Device(config.mon-erspan.Src-dst)# mtu 1460

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Question # 39

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must load balance traffic that comes from the NAT Router and is destined to 10.10.110.10, to several FTP servers. Which two commands sets should be applied? (Choose two).

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Question # 40

Which definition describes JWT in regard to REST API security?

A.

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authentication

B.

an encrypted JSON token that is used for authorization

C.

an encoded JSON token that is used to securely exchange information

D.

an encoded JSON token that is used for authentication

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Question # 41

What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?

A.

send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

B.

ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver

C.

receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers

D.

secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver

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Question # 42

What is the result when an active route processor fails that combines NSF with SSO?

A.

An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network.

B.

The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes.

C.

An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network.

D.

The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete.

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Question # 43

Refer to the exhibit.

Why does the OSPF neighborship fail between the two interfaces?

A.

The IP subnet mask is not the same.

B.

There is a mismatch in the OSPF interface network type.

C.

The OSPF timers are different.

D.

The MTU is nor the same.

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Question # 44

Which JSON script is properly formatted?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 45

Refer to the exhibit. Why was the response code generated?

A.

The resource was unreachable

B.

Access was denied based on the user permissions.

C.

The resource 15 no longer available on the server.

D.

There Is a conflict in the current stale of the resource.

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Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables fallback to local authentication and authorization when no TACACS+ server is available?

A.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login default local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec default local

B.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ local

C.

Router(config)# aaa fallback local

D.

Router(config)# aaa authentication login FALLBACK local Router(config)# aaa authorization exec FALLBACK local

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Question # 47

Refer to the exhibit. Which router is elected as the VRRP primary virtual router?

A.

Router B

B.

Router D

C.

Router C

D.

Router A

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Question # 48

An engineer must export the contents of the devices object in JSON format. Which statement must be used?

A.

json.repr(Devices)

B.

json.dumps(Devices)

C.

json.prints(Devices)

D.

json.loads(Devices)

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Question # 49

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

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Question # 50

An engineer configures GigabitEthernet 0/1 for VRRP group 115. The router must assume the primary role when it has the highest priority in the group. Which command set is required to complete this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 51

Why would an engineer use YANG?

A.

to transport data between a controller and a network device

B.

to access data using SNMP

C.

to model data for NETCONF

D.

to translate JSON into an equivalent XML syntax

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Question # 52

Which DHCP option provides the CAPWAP APs with the address of the wireless controller(s)?

A.

43

B.

66

C.

69

D.

150

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Question # 53

What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?

A.

The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions

B.

The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored

C.

The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB

D.

The FIB is populated based on RIB content

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Question # 54

A network monitoring system uses SNMP polling to record the statistics of router interfaces The SNMP queries work as expected until an engineer installs a new interface and reloads the router After this action, all SNMP queries for the router fail What is the cause of this issue?

A.

The SNMP community is configured incorrectly

B.

The SNMP interface index changed after reboot.

C.

The SNMP server traps are disabled for the interface index

D.

The SNMP server traps are disabled for the link state.

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Question # 55

A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process. Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two.)

A.

Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command

B.

Configure the logging delimiter feature

C.

Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty

D.

Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line

E.

increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command

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Question # 56

If a client's radio device receives a signal strength of -67 dBm and the noise floor is -85 dBm, what is the SNR value?

A.

15 dB

B.

16 dB

C.

18 dB

D.

20 dB

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Question # 57

A customer wants to provide wireless access to contractors using a guest portal on Cisco ISE. The portal Is also used by employees A solution is implemented, but contractors receive a certificate error when they attempt to access the portal Employees can access the portal without any errors. Which change must be implemented to allow the contractors and employees to access the portal?

A.

Install a trusted third-party certificate on the Cisco ISE.

B.

Install an Internal CA signed certificate on the contractor devices

C.

Install an internal CA signed certificate on the Cisco ISE

D.

install a trusted third-party certificate on the contractor devices.

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Question # 58

Which Python snippet should be used to store the devices data structure in a JSON file?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 59

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment types on the right.

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Question # 60

A company requires a wireless solution to support its mam office and multiple branch locations. All sites have local Internet connections and a link to the main office lor corporate connectivity. The branch offices are managed centrally. Which solution should the company choose?

A.

Cisco United Wireless Network

B.

Cisco DNA Spaces

C.

Cisco Catalyst switch with embedded controller

D.

Cisco Mobility Express

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Question # 61

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

A.

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

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Question # 62

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco IOS routers R1 and R2 are interconnected using interface Gi0/0. Which configuration allows R1 and R2 to form an OSPF neighborship on interface Gi0/0?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 63

What are the main components of Cisco TrustSec?

A.

Cisco ISE and Enterprise Directory Services

B.

Cisco ISE. network switches, firewalls, and routers

C.

Cisco ISE and TACACS+

D.

Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense

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Question # 64

Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90?

A.

RIP

B.

EIGRP

C.

OSPF

D.

BGP

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Question # 65

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied for the TACACS+ server to grant access-level rights to remote users?

A.

R1(config)# aaa authentication login enable

B.

R1(config)# aaa authorization exec default local if-authenticated

C.

R1(config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+

D.

R1(config)# aaa accounting commands 15 default start-stop group tacacs+

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Question # 66

Which two functions is an edge node responsible for? (Choose two.)

A.

provides multiple entry and exit points for fabric traffic

B.

provides the default exit point for fabric traffic

C.

provides the default entry point for fabric traffic

D.

provides a host database that maps endpoint IDs to a current location

E.

authenticates endpoints

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Question # 67

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must implement HSRP between two WAN routers. In the event R1 tails and then regains operational status, it must allow 100 seconds for the routing protocol to converge before preemption takes effect. Which configuration is required?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 68

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

A.

0c:5e:ac:07:0c:29

B.

00:05:0c:07:ac:41

C.

004:41:73:18:84:29

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:29

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Question # 69

Witch two actions provide controlled Layer 2 network connectivity between virtual machines running on the same hypervisor? (Choose two.)

A.

Use a single trunk link to an external Layer2 switch.

B.

Use a virtual switch provided by the hypervisor.

C.

Use a virtual switch running as a separate virtual machine.

D.

Use a single routed link to an external router on stick.

E.

Use VXLAN fabric after installing VXLAN tunneling drivers on the virtual machines.

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Question # 70

What is a characteristics of Cisco SD-WAN?

A.

operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

B.

requires manual secure tunnel configuration

C.

uses unique per-device feature templates

D.

uses control connections between routers

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Question # 71

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-ACCESS fabric? (Choose two)

A.

All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center

B.

Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect

C.

User connectivity is unaffected

D.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance

E.

Users lose connectivity

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Question # 72

Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to store the changed interface configuration to a local JSON-formatted file?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit Which command must be applied to complete the configuration and enable RESTCONF?

A.

ip http secure-server

B.

ip http server

C.

ip http secure-port 443

D.

ip http client username restconf

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Question # 74

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer builds an EEM script to apply an access list. Which statement must be added to complete the script?

A.

event none

B.

action 2.1 cli command "ip action 3.1 ell command 101''

C.

action 6.0 ell command ''ip access-list extended 101''

D.

action 6.0 cli command ''ip access-list extended 101"

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Question # 75

Simulation 04

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Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must allow the FTP traffic from users on 172.16.1.0 /24 to 172.16.2.0 /24 and block all other traffic. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 77

Why does the vBond orchestrator have a public IP?

to enable vBond to team the public IP of WAN Edge devices that are behind NAT gateways or in private address space

A.

to facilitate downloading and distribution of operational and security patches

B.

to allow for global reachability from all WAN Edges in the Cisco SD-WAN and

C.

to facilitate NAT traversal to provide access

D.

to Cisco Smart Licensing servers for license enablement

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Question # 78

Which configuration filters out DOT1X messages in the format shown below from being sent toward Syslog server 10.15.20.33?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 79

Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?

A.

CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain

B.

CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain

C.

CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain

D.

CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain

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Question # 80

Simulation 02

Configure HSRP between DISTRO-SW1 and DISTRO-SW2 on VLAN 100 for hosts connected to ACCESS-SW1 to achieve these goals:

1. Configure group number 1 using the virtual IP address of 192.168.1.1/24.

2. Configure DlSTRO-SW1 as the active router using a priority value of 110 and DISTRO-SW2 as the standby router.

3. Ensure that DISTRO-SW2 will take over the active role when DISTRO-SW1 goes down, and when DISTRO-SW1 recovers, it automatically resumes the active role.

DISTRO-SW2

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Question # 81

In a Cisco SD-Access environment, which function is performed by the border node?

A.

Connect uteri and devices to the fabric domain.

B.

Group endpoints into IP pools.

C.

Provide reachability information to fabric endpoints.

D.

Provide connectivity to traditional layer 3 networks.

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Question # 82

Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?

A.

provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration

B.

performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks

C.

used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches

D.

in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node

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Question # 83

What is one method for achieving REST API security?

A.

using built-in protocols known as Web Services Security

B.

using a combination of XML encryption and XML signatures

C.

using a MD5 hash to verify the integrity

D.

using HTTPS and TLS encryption

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Question # 84

Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming all links are functional, which path does PC1 take to reach DSW1?

A.

PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to CORE to DSW1.

B.

PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to DSW1.

C.

PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW1.

D.

PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to ALSW2 to DSW1.

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Question # 85

Where in Cisco DNA Center is documentation of each API call, organized by its functional area?

A.

Developer Toolkit

B.

platform management

C.

platform bundles

D.

Runtime Dashboard

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Question # 86

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 30 use?

A.

00:05:0c:07:ac:30

B.

00:00:0c:07:ac:1e

C.

05:0c:5e:ac:07:30

D.

00:42:18:14:05:1e

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Question # 87

Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings?

A.

Command Runner

B.

Template Editor

C.

Application Policies

D.

Authentication Template

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Question # 88

Which hypervisor requires a host OS to run and is not allowed to directly access the hosts hardware and resources?

A.

native

B.

bare metal

C.

type 1

D.

type 2

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Question # 89

What are two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two.)

A.

The border node is required for communication between fabric and nonfabric devices.

B.

Traffic within the fabric always goes through the control plane node.

C.

Fabric endpoints are connected directly to the border node.

D.

The control plane node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

E.

The border node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

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Question # 90

Based on the router's API output in JSON format below, which Python code will display the value of the “hostname" key?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 91

An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?

A.

WPA2 Personal

B.

WPA3 Enterprise

C.

WPA3 Personal

D.

WPA2 Enterprise

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Question # 92

A wireless administrator must create a new web authentication corporate SSID that will be using ISE as the external RADIUS server. The guest VLAN must be specified after the authentication completes. Which action must be performed to allow the ISE server to specify the guest VLAN?

A.

Set AAA Policy name.

B.

Enable AAA Override

C.

Set RADIUS Profiling

D.

Enable Network Access Control State.

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Question # 93

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

A.

logging buffer

B.

service timestamps log uptime

C.

logging host

D.

terminal monitor

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Question # 94

An engineer is configuring RADIUS-Based Authentication with EAP MS-CHAPv2 is configured on a client device.

Which outer method protocol must be configured on the ISE to support this

authentication type?

A.

EAP-TLS

B.

PEAP

C.

LDAP

D.

EAP-FAST

Full Access
Question # 95

Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels?

A.

marking

B.

shaping

C.

policing

D.

classification

Full Access
Question # 96

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures HSRP and enters the show standby command. Which two facts about the network environment are derived from the output? (Choose two.)

A.

The local device has a higher priority selling than the active router

B.

The virtual IP address of the HSRP group is 10.1.1.1.

C.

If the local device fails to receive a hello from the active router for more than 5 seconds, it becomes the active router.

D.

The hello and hold timers are set to custom values.

E.

If a router with a higher IP address and same HSRP priority as the active router becomes available, that router becomes the new active router 5 seconds later.

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Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of this Python code?

A.

1

B.

0

C.

7

D.

7.5

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Question # 98

Refer to the exhibit.

Extended access-list 100 is configured on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 in an inbound direction, but it does not have the expected behavior of allowing only packets to or from 192.168.0.0/16. Which command set properly configures the access list?

A.

R1(config)#no access-list 100 seq 10

R1(config)#access-list 100 seq 40 deny ip any any

B.

R1(config)#ip access-list extended 100

R1(config-ext-nacl)#no 10

C.

R1(config)#no access-list 100 deny ip any any

D.

R1(config)#ip access-list extended 100

R1(config-ext-nacl)#5 permit to any any

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Question # 99

Refer to the exhibit.

What is achieved by this Python script?

A.

It counts JSON data from a website.

B.

It loads JSON data into an HTTP request.

C.

It reads JSON data into a formatted list.

D.

It converts JSON data to an HTML document.

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Question # 100

Refer to the exhibit.

What is achieved by the XML code?

A.

It reads the access list sequence numbers from the output of the show ip access-list extended flp command into a dictionary list.

B.

It displays the output of the show ip access-list extended flp command on the terminal screen

C.

It displays the access list sequence numbers from the output of the show Ip access-list extended flp command on the terminal screen

D.

It reads the output of the show ip access-list extended flp command into a dictionary list.

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Question # 101

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is required to summarize the Area 2 networks that are advertised to Area 0?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 102

How do cloud deployments compare to on-premises deployments?

A.

Cloud deployments provide a better user experience across world regions, whereas on-premises deployments depend upon region-specific conditions

B.

Cloud deployments are inherently unsecure. whereas a secure architecture is mandatory for on-premises deployments.

C.

Cloud deployments mandate a secure architecture, whereas on-premises deployments are inherently unsecure.

D.

Cloud deployments must include automation infrastructure, whereas on-premises deployments often lack the ability for automation.

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Question # 103

Which function does a virtual switch provide?

A.

CPU context switching (or multitasking between virtual machines

B.

RAID storage for virtual machines

C.

emulation of power for virtual machines.

D.

connectivity between virtual machines

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Question # 104

Simulation 04

Configure OSPF on both routers according to the topology to achieve these goals:

Full Access
Question # 105

Which DNS lookup does an AP perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?

A.

CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.Iocal

B.

CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.Iocal

C.

CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER.Iocal

D.

CISCO-CONTROLLER.Iocal

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Question # 106

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

A.

PETR

B.

PITR

C.

map resolver

D.

map server

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Question # 107

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20?

A.

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1

B.

spanning-tree mst 1 root primary

C.

spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary

D.

spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root

E.

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096

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Question # 108

: 262 DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that brings up the failover Ethernet port if the primary port goes down and also shuts down the failover port when the primary returns to service. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 109

What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the delivery of applications through a network and to yield analytics for innovation?

A.

process adapters

B.

Command Runner

C.

intent-based APIs

D.

domain adapters

Full Access
Question # 110

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters

  • The first method for authentication it TACACS
  • If TACACS is unavailable login is allowed without any provided credentials

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 111

Which deployment option of Cisco NGFW provides scalability?

A.

tap

B.

clustering

C.

inline tap

D.

high availability

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Question # 112

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to bundle interface Gi0/0 into the port channel, but it does not function as expected. Which action resolves the issue?

A.

Configure channel-group 1 mode active on interface Gi0/0.

B.

Configure no shutdown on interface Gi0/0

C.

Enable fast LACP PDUs on interface Gi0/0.

D.

Set LACP max-bundle to 2 on interface Port-channeM

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Question # 113

Which access point mode allows a supported AP to function like a WLAN client would, associating and identifying client connectivity issues?

A.

client mode

B.

SE-connect mode

C.

sensor mode

D.

sniffer mode

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Question # 114

Refer to the Exhibit.

An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected. Which action will resolve the configuration error?

A.

configure matching hold and delay timers

B.

configure matching key-strings

C.

configure matching priority values

D.

configure unique virtual IP addresses

Full Access
Question # 115

Refer the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

A.

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B.

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

C.

Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID

D.

Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID

Full Access
Question # 116

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A.

fail-safe defaults

B.

password hash

C.

adding a timestamp in requests

D.

OAuth

Full Access
Question # 117

Refer to the exhibit.

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 118

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures the BGP adjacency between R1 and R2, however, it fails to establish Which action resolves the issue?

A.

Change the network statement on R1 to 172.16 10.0

B.

Change the remote-as number for 192 168.100.11.

C.

Enable synchronization on R1 and R2

D.

Change the remote-as number on R1 to 6500.

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Question # 119

Refer to the exhibit.

Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

A.

1

B.

7

C.

13

D.

15

Full Access
Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit. Which result does the python code achieve?

A.

The code encrypts a base64 decrypted password.

B.

The code converts time to the "year/month/day" time format.

C.

The code converts time to the yyyymmdd representation.

D.

The code converts time to the Epoch LINUX time format.

Full Access
Question # 121

A client device roams between wireless LAN controllers that are mobility peers, Both controllers have dynamic interface on the same client VLAN which type of roam is described?

A.

intra-VLAN

B.

inter-controller

C.

intra-controller

D.

inter-subnet

Full Access
Question # 122

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be applied to Router 1 to bring the GRE tunnel to an up/up state?

A.

Routed (config if funnel mode gre multipoint

B.

Router1(config-if)&tunnel source Loopback0

C.

Router1(config-if)#tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/1

D.

Router1 (config)#interface tunnel0

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Question # 123

AN engineer is implementing MPLS OAM to monitor traffic within the MPLS domain. Which action must the engineer perform to prevent from being forwarded beyond the service provider domain when the LSP is down?

A.

Disable IP redirects only on outbound interfaces

B.

Implement the destination address for the LSP echo request packet in the 127.x.y.z/8 network

C.

Disable IP redirects on all ingress interfaces

D.

Configure a private IP address as the destination address of the headend router of Cisco MPLS TE.

Full Access
Question # 124

Which two characteristics define the Intent API provided by Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

A.

northbound API

B.

business outcome oriented

C.

device-oriented

D.

southbound API

E.

procedural

Full Access
Question # 125

An engineer must create a new SSID on a Cisco 9800 wireless LAN controller. The client has asked to use a pre-shared key for authentication Which profile must the engineer edit to achieve this requirement?

A.

RF

B.

Policy

C.

WLAN

D.

Flex

Full Access
Question # 126

Which method is used by an AP to join HA controllers and is configured in NVRAM?

A.

stored WLC information

B.

DNS

C.

IP Helper Addresses

D.

Primary/Secondary/Tertiary/Backup

Full Access
Question # 127

An engineer must enable a login authentication method that allows a user to log in by using local authentication if all other defined authentication methods fail Which configuration should be applied?

A.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local-case enable aaa

B.

authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable none

C.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable

D.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group tacacs+ local enable

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Question # 128

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that adds a prefix list to a route map and sets the local preference. Not all options are used

Full Access
Question # 129

What Is a Type 2 hypervisor?

A.

installed as an application on an already installed operating system

B.

runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system

C.

supports over-allocation of physical resources

D.

also referred to as a "bare metal hypervisor" because it sits directly on the physical server

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Question # 130

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must add the SNMP interface table to the NetFlow protocol flow records. Where should the SNMP table option be added?

A.

under the interface

B.

under the flow record

C.

under the flow monitor

D.

under the flow exporter

Full Access
Question # 131

Drag and drop the tools from the left onto the agent types on the right.

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Question # 132

Refer to the exhibit.

A company requires that all wireless users authenticate using dynamic key generation. Which configuration must be applied?

A.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open wep wep_methods

B.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic wep wep_methods

C.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication dynamic open wep_dynamic

D.

AP(config-if-ssid)# authentication open eap eap_methods

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Question # 133

Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)

A.

TCP MSS

B.

PMTUD

C.

DF bit Clear

D.

MTU ignore

E.

IP MTU

F.

TCP window size

Full Access
Question # 134

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line, but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 135

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer entered the command no spanning-tree bpduguard enable on interface Fa 1/0/7. What is the effect of this command on Fa 1/0/7?

A.

It remains in err-disabled state until the shutdown/no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

B.

It remains in err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery cause failed-port-state command is entered in the global configuration mode.

C.

It remains in err-disabled state until the no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

D.

It remains in err-disabled state until the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard disable command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

Full Access
Question # 136

Which component transports data plane traffic across a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A.

vSmart

B.

vManage

C.

cEdge

D.

vBond

Full Access
Question # 137

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 14 use?

A.

04.16.19.09.4c.0e

B.

00:05:5e:19:0c:14

C.

00:05:0c:07:ac:14

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:0e

Full Access
Question # 138

Refer to The exhibit.

Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

A.

VRF VFN_A

B.

VRF VPN_B

C.

management VRF

D.

default VRF

Full Access
Question # 139

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters.

  • The first method for authentication is TACACS
  • If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login VTY group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

password 7 0202039485748

R1#sh run | include username

R1#

B.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

R1#sh run | include username

R1#

C.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

password 7 0202039485748

D.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

transport input none

R1#

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Question # 140

Drag and drop characteristics of PIM dense mode from the left to the right.

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Question # 141

What is a characteristic of Cisco DNA Northbound APIs?

A.

They simplify the management of network infrastructure devices.

B.

They enable automation of network infrastructure based on intent.

C.

They utilize RESTCONF.

D.

They utilize multivendor support APIs.

Full Access
Question # 142

Why would a log file contain a * next to the date?

A.

The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded.

B.

The network device was unable to reach The NTP server when the log messages were recorded

C.

The network device is not configured to use NTP.

D.

The network device is nor configured to use NTP time stamps for logging

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Question # 143

How must network management traffic be treated when defining QoS policies?

A.

as delay-sensitive traffic in a low latency queue

B.

using minimal bandwidth guarantee

C.

using the same marking as IP routing

D.

as best effort

Full Access
Question # 144

In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?

A.

provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic

B.

provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence

C.

provide advanced network security features such as 802. IX, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port security

D.

provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP

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Question # 145

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of these commands on the BR and HQ tunnel interfaces?

A.

The tunnel line protocol goes down when the keepalive counter reaches 6

B.

The keepalives are sent every 5 seconds and 3 retries

C.

The keepalives are sent every 3 seconds and 5 retries

D.

The tunnel line protocol goes down when the keepalive counter reaches 5

Full Access
Question # 146

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be added to the configuration to analyze 50 packets out of every 100?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 147

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

A.

security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

B.

security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

C.

security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D.

security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Full Access
Question # 148

When is the Design workflow used In Cisco DNA Center?

A.

in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure

B.

in a greenfield or brownfield deployment, to wipe out existing data

C.

in a brownfield deployment, to modify configuration of existing devices in the network

D.

in a brownfield deployment, to provision and onboard new network devices

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Question # 149

Refer to the exhibit.

CR2 and CR3 ate configured with OSPF. Which configuration, when applied to CR1. allows CR1 to exchange OSPF Information with CR2 and CR3 but not with other network devices or on new Interfaces that are added to CR1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 150

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32.Which configuration set achieves this goal?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 151

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer attempts to establish BGP peering between router CORP and two ISP routers. What is the root cause for the failure between CORP and ISP#2?

A.

Router ISP#2 is configured to use SHA-1 authentication.

B.

There is a password mismatch between router CORP and router ISP#2.

C.

Router CORP is configured with an extended access control list.

D.

MD5 authorization is configured incorrectly on router ISP#2.

Full Access
Question # 152

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

A.

ISE server

B.

local WLC

C.

RADIUS server

D.

anchor WLC

Full Access
Question # 153

What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

A.

common exchange point between two different services

B.

attribute to identify a set of services offered in specific places in the SD-WAN fabric

C.

virtualized environment that provides traffic isolation and segmentation in the SD-WAN fabric

D.

virtual channel used to carry control plane information

Full Access
Question # 154

A network engineer configures a WLAN controller with increased security for web access. There is IP connectivity with the WLAN controller, but the engineer cannot start a management session from a web browser. Which action resolves the issued

A.

Disable JavaScript on the web browser

B.

Disable Adobe Flash Player

C.

Use a browser that supports 128-bit or larger ciphers.

D.

Use a private or incognito session.

Full Access
Question # 155

What is a characteristic of Cisco StackWise technology?

A.

It uses proprietary cabling

B.

It supports devices that are geographically separated

C.

lt combines exactly two devices

D.

It is supported on the Cisco 4500 series.

Full Access
Question # 156

A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 157

Refer to the exhibit.

The trunk does not work over the back-to-back link between Switch1 interface Giq1/0/20 and Switch2 interface Gig1/0/20. Which configuration fixes the problem?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 158

Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?

A.

The WLC is running a different software version.

B.

The API is joining a primed WLC

C.

The AP multicast traffic unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3.

D.

The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2.

Full Access
Question # 159

Refer to the exhibit.

All switches are configured with the default port priority value. Which two commands ensure that traffic from PC1 is forwarded over Gi1/3 trunk port between DWS1 and DSW2? (Choose two)

A.

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 16

B.

DSW2(config)#interface gi1/3

C.

DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 0

D.

DSW1(config) #interface gi1/3

E.

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 128

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is enabling logging to a local buffer, to the terminal and to a syslog server for all debugging level logs filtered by facility code 7. Which command is needed to complete this configuration snippet?

A.

logging buffered debugging

B.

logging discriminator Disc1 severity includes 7

C.

logging buffered discriminator Disc1 debugging

D.

logging discriminator Disc1 severity includes 7 facility includes fac7

Full Access
Question # 161

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router?

A.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

B.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

C.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

D.

Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

Full Access
Question # 162

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router handle traffic after the CoPP policy is configured on the router?

A.

Traffic coming to R1 that does not match access list SNMP is dropped.

B.

Traffic coming to R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

C.

Traffic passing through R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

D.

Traffic generated by R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed.

Full Access
Question # 163

What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.)

A.

rogue AP

B.

conventional oven

C.

fire alarm

D.

LED lights

E.

radar

Full Access
Question # 164

An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process. Which action should the engineer use?

A.

action 1 syslog msg "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

B.

action 1 syslog send "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

C.

action 1 syslog pattern "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

D.

action 1syslog write "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

Full Access
Question # 165

What occurs when a high bandwidth multicast stream is sent over an MVPN using Cisco hardware?

A.

The traffic uses the default MDT to transmit the data only if it isa (S,G) multicast route entry

B.

A data MDT is created to if it is a (*, G) multicast route entries

C.

A data and default MDT are created to flood the multicast stream out of all PIM-SM neighbors.

D.

A data MDT is created to allow for the best transmission through the core for (S, G) multicast route entries.

Full Access
Question # 166

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker can advertise OSPF fake routes from 172.16.20.0 network to the OSPF domain and black hole traffic. Which action must be taken to avoid this attack and still be able to advertise this subnet into OSPF?

A.

Configure 172.16.20.0 as a stub network.

B.

Apply a policy to filter OSPF packets on R2.

C.

Configure a passive Interface on R2 toward 172.16.20.0.

D.

Configure graceful restart on the 172.16.20.0 interface.

Full Access
Question # 167

A Cisco DNA Center REST API sends a PUT to the /dna/intent/api/v1/network-device endpoint A response code of 504 is received What does the code indicate?

A.

The response timed out based on a configured interval

B.

The user does not have authorization to access this endpoint.

C.

The username and password are not correct

D.

The web server is not available

Full Access
Question # 168

An engineer must configure an EXEC authorization list that first checks a AAA server then a local username. If both methods fail, the user is denied. Which configuration should be applied?

A.

aaa authorization exec default local group tacacs+

B.

aaa authorization exec default local group radius none

C.

aaa authorization exec default group radius local none

D.

aaa authorization exec default group radius local

Full Access
Question # 169

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to permit and log all traffic that comes from 172.20.10.1 in interface GigabitEthernet0/1 without impacting the functionality of the access list?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 170

Which benefit is provided by the Cisco DNA Center telemetry feature?

A.

provides improved network security

B.

inventories network devices

C.

aids In the deployment network configurations

D.

improves the user experience

Full Access
Question # 171

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

A.

a predetermined string that is passed from client to server

B.

a one-time encrypted token

C.

a username that is stored in the local router database

D.

a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Full Access
Question # 172

An engineer must configure a new loopback Interface on a router and advertise the interface as a fa4 in OSPF. Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 173

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 174

Which Cisco FlexConnect state allows wireless users that are connected to the network to continue working after the connection to the WLC has been lost?

A.

Authentication Down/Switching Down

B.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Local

C.

Authentication- Down/Switch-Local

D.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Central

Full Access
Question # 175

Drag and drop the LISP components on the left to their descriptions on the right. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 176

Which two Cisco SD-Access components provide communication between traditional network elements and controller layer? (choose two)

A.

network data platform

B.

network underlay

C.

fabric overlay

D.

network control platform

E.

partner ecosystem

Full Access
Question # 177

What is one main REST security design principle?

A.

separation of privilege

B.

password hashing

C.

confidential algorithms

D.

OAuth

Full Access
Question # 178

Refer to the exhibit.

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP-enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02 Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 179

What happens when a FlexConnect AP changes to standalone mode?

A.

All controller-dependent activities stop working except the DFS.

B.

All client roaming continues to work

C.

Only clients on central switching WLANs stay connected.

D.

All clients on an WLANs are disconnected

Full Access
Question # 180

Which two solutions are used for backing up a Cisco DNA Center Assurance database? (Choose two)

A.

NFS share

B.

non-linux server

C.

local server

D.

remote server

E.

bare metal server

Full Access
Question # 181

An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, WHICH VIRTUAL IP address must be used in this configuration?

A.

192.0.2.1

B.

172.20.10.1

C.

1.1.1.1

D.

192.168.0.1

Full Access
Question # 182

If the maximum power level assignment for global TPC 802.11a/n/ac is configured to 10 dBm, which power level effectively doubles the transmit power?

A.

13dBm

B.

14 dBm

C.

17dBm

D.

20 dBm

Full Access
Question # 183

Drag and drop the LIPS components on the left to the correct description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 184

What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system?

A.

Container

B.

Mainframe

C.

Host

D.

virtual machine

Full Access
Question # 185

Which function does a fabric AP perform in a cisco SD-access deployment?

A.

It updates wireless clients' locations in the fabric

B.

It connects wireless clients to the fabric.

C.

It manages wireless clients' membership information in the fabric

D.

It configures security policies down to wireless clients in the fabric.

Full Access
Question # 186

What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

A.

EIRP

B.

mW

C.

dBm

D.

dBi

Full Access
Question # 187

Refer to the exhibit. What is generated by the script?

A.

the cdp neighbors

B.

the routing table

C.

the router processes

D.

the running configuration

Full Access
Question # 188

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 189

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set is needed to configure and verify router R3 to measure the response time from router R3 to the file server located in the data center?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 190

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

Full Access
Question # 191

Refer to the exhibit.

Which commands are required to allow SSH connection to the router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 192

Which two characteristics apply to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

detect and black ransomware in email attachments

B.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

C.

user context analysis

D.

blocking of fileless malware in real time

E.

cloud-based analysis of threats

Full Access
Question # 193

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

applications

B.

disk

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Full Access
Question # 194

Which type of tunnel Is required between two WLCs to enable Intercontroller roaming?

A.

mobility

B.

LWAPP

C.

CAPWAP

D.

iPsec

Full Access
Question # 195

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effect of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet.

B.

It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation.

C.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range.

D.

The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range.

E.

The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses.

Full Access
Question # 196

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 197

How is MSDP used to interconnect multiple PIM-SM domains?

A.

MSDP depends on BGP or multiprotocol BGP for mterdomam operation

B.

MSDP SA request messages are used to request a list of active sources for a specific group

C.

SDP allows a rendezvous point to dynamically discover active sources outside of its domain

D.

MSDP messages are used to advertise active sources in a domain

Full Access
Question # 198

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

Full Access
Question # 199

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 200

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must create a configuration that executes the show run command and then terminates the session when user CCNP legs in. Which configuration change is required?

A.

Add the access-class keyword to the username command

B.

Add the access-class keyword to the aaa authentication command

C.

Add the autocommand keyword to the username command

D.

Add the autocommand keyword to the aaa authentication command

Full Access
Question # 201

Which DHCP option helps lightweight APs find the IP address of a wireless LAN controller?

A.

Option 43

B.

Option 60

C.

Option 67

D.

Option 150

Full Access
Question # 202

In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one access point to another on a different access switch using a single WLC?

A.

Layer 3

B.

inter-xTR

C.

auto anchor

D.

fast roam

Full Access
Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

R1 becomes the active router.

B.

R1 becomes the standby router.

C.

If R2 goes down, R1 becomes active but reverts to standby when R2 comes back online.

D.

If R1 goes down. R2 becomes active and remains the active device when R1 comes back online.

E.

If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active but reverts to standby when R1 comes back online.

Full Access
Question # 204

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 205

An engineer configures HSRP group 37. The configuration does not modify the default virtual MAC address. Which virtual MAC address does the group use?

A.

C0:00:00:25:00:00

B.

00:00:0c:07:ac:37

C.

C0:39:83:25:258:5

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:25

Full Access
Question # 206

A network administrator applies the following configuration to an IOS device.

What is the process of password checks when a login attempt is made to the device?

A.

A TACACS+server is checked first. If that check fail, a database is checked?

B.

A TACACS+server is checked first. If that check fail, a RADIUS server is checked. If that check fail. a local database is checked.

C.

A local database is checked first. If that fails, a TACACS+server is checked, if that check fails, a RADUIS server is checked.

D.

A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+server is checked.

Full Access
Question # 207

A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands

Sampler Netflow1

Mode random one-out-of 100

Interface fastethernet 1/0

Flow-sampler netflow1

Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)

A.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced.

B.

Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported

C.

The data export flow is more secure.

D.

The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced

E.

The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved

Full Access
Question # 208

Refer to the exhibit.

Security policy requires all idle-exec sessions to be terminated in 600 seconds. Which configuration achieves this goal?

A.

line vty 0 15

absolute-timeout 600

B.

line vty 0 15

exec-timeout

C.

line vty 01 5

exec-timeout 10 0

D.

line vty 0 4

exec-timeout 600

Full Access
Question # 209

Refer to the exhibit.

Which HTTP JSON response does the python code output give?

A.

NameError: name 'json' is not defined

B.

KeyError 'kickstart_ver_str'

C.

7.61

D.

7.0(3)I7(4)

Full Access
Question # 210

Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?

A.

SSL

B.

MD5

C.

AES128

D.

AES256

Full Access
Question # 211

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?

A.

It is leveraged for dynamic endpoint to group mapping and policy definition.

B.

It provides GUI management and abstraction via apps that share context.

C.

it is used to analyze endpoint to app flows and monitor fabric status.

D.

It manages the LISP EID database.

Full Access
Question # 212

What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?

A.

It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.

B.

It requires a client certificate.

C.

It is an IETF standard.

D.

It operates in transparent mode.

Full Access
Question # 213

When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experience for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem?

A.

Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

B.

Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

C.

All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

D.

All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

Full Access
Question # 214

Drag and drop the LISP components from the left onto the function they perform on the right. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 215

Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 216

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is investigating why guest users are able to access other guest user devices when the users are connected to the customer guest WLAN. What action resolves this issue?

A.

implement MFP client protection

B.

implement split tunneling

C.

implement P2P blocking

D.

implement Wi-Fi direct policy

Full Access
Question # 217

Which HTTP code must be returned to prevent the script form exiting?

A.

200

B.

201

C.

300

D.

301

Full Access
Question # 218

What are two benefits of virtual switching when compared to hardware switching? (Choose two.)

A.

increased MTU size

B.

hardware independence

C.

VM-level isolation

D.

increased flexibility

E.

extended 802.1Q VLAN range

Full Access
Question # 219

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4, the device will authenticate them against TACACS+ if local authentication fails

B.

The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+

C.

The device will allow users at 192.168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password ciscotestkey

D.

The device will allow only users at 192.166.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4

Full Access
Question # 220

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:

Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A.

The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing

B.

Location D has the strongest RF signal strength

C.

The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than location A

D.

The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than location C

E.

The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than location B

 

Full Access
Question # 221

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as an entry point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 222

which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?

A.

Oracle VM VirtualBox

B.

VMware server

C.

Citrix XenServer

D.

Microsoft Virtual PC

Full Access
Question # 223

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer implemented several configuration changes and receives the logging message on switch1. Which action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A.

Change the VTP domain to match on both switches

B.

Change Switch2 to switch port mode dynamic auto

C.

Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic auto

D.

Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic desirable

Full Access
Question # 224

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Full Access
Question # 225

Refer to the exhibit How was spanning-tree configured on this interface?

A.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast trunk in the interface configuration mode.

B.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast in the interface configuration mode

C.

By entering the command spanning-tree mst1 vlan 10,20,30,40 in the global configuration mode

D.

By entering the command spanning-tree vlan 10,20,30,40 root primary in the interface configuration mode

Full Access
Question # 226

Refer to the exhibit.

After implementing the configuration 172.20.20.2 stops replaying to ICMP echoes, but the default route fails to be removed. What is the reason for this behavior?

A.

The source-interface is configured incorrectly.

B.

The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo

C.

The default route is missing the track feature

D.

The threshold value is wrong.

Full Access
Question # 227

Refer to the exhibit Which single security feature is recommended to provide Network Access Control in the enterprise?

A.

MAB

B.

802.1X

C.

WebAuth

D.

port security sticky MAC

Full Access
Question # 228

When using TLS for syslog, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port?

A.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514

B.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514

C.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514

D.

logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

Full Access
Question # 229

Refer to the exhibit.

The IP SLA is configured in a router. An engineer must configure an EEM applet to shut down the interface and bring it back up when there is a problem with the IP SLA. Which configuration should the engineer use?

A.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state down

B.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state unreachable

C.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state unreachable

D.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state down

Full Access
Question # 230

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Full Access
Question # 231

In cisco SD_WAN, which protocol is used to measure link quality?

A.

OMP

B.

BFD

C.

RSVP

D.

IPsec

Full Access
Question # 232

When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?

A.

NTP server

B.

PKI server

C.

RADIUS server

D.

TACACS server

Full Access
Question # 233

Which measurement is used from a post wireless survey to depict the cell edge of the access points?

A.

SNR

B.

Noise

C.

RSSI

D.

CCI

Full Access
Question # 234

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 235

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows Customer2 hosts to access the FTP server of Customer1 that has the IP address of 192.168.1.200?

A.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 VlanlO

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

B.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer2

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customerl

C.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customerl

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer2

D.

ip route vrf Customerl 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 172.16.1.1 global

ip route vrf Customer 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 global

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 VlanlO

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20

Full Access
Question # 236

Which three elements determine Air Time efficiency? (Choose three)

A.

evert-driven RRM

B.

data rate (modulation density) or QAM

C.

channel bandwidth

D.

number of spatial streams and spatial reuse

E.

RF group leader

F.

dynamic channel assignment

Full Access
Question # 237

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two)

A.

Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

B.

Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

C.

Reduce AP transmit power.

D.

Increase minimum mandatory data rate

E.

Enable Fastlane

Full Access
Question # 238

Drag and drop the threat defense solutions from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 239

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to R to enable R to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 240

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer troubleshoots an issue with the port channel between SW1 and SW2. which command resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 241

Refer to exhibit.

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?

A.

SW1 (config)#vtp pruning

B.

SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent

C.

SW2(config)=vtp pruning

D.

SW1 (config >»vtp mode transparent

Full Access
Question # 242

Which command set configures RSPAN to capture outgoing traffic from VLAN 3 on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 while ignoring other VLAN traffic on the same interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 243

Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two.)

A.

Proxy ETR

B.

egress tunnel router

C.

route reflector

D.

HMAC algorithm

E.

spoke

Full Access
Question # 244

How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking

environments and data centers?

A.

classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

B.

uses flexible NetFlow

C.

classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP

address correct

D.

assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

Full Access
Question # 245

An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows:

The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?

A.

configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205

B.

configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205

C.

configure dns-server 172.16.50.5

D.

configure dns-server 172.16.100.1

Full Access
Question # 246

Refer to the exhibit. After configurating an IPsec VPN, an engineer enters the show command to verify the ISAKMP SA status. What does the status show?

A.

ISAKMP SA is authenticated and can be used for Quick Mode.

B.

Peers have exchanged keys, but ISAKMP SA remains unauthenticated.

C.

VPN peers agreed on parameters for the ISAKMP SA

D.

ISAKMP SA has been created, but it has not continued to form.

Full Access
Question # 247

Which function in handled by vManage in the cisco SD-WAN fabric?

A.

Establishes BFD sessions to test liveliness of links and nodes.

B.

Distributes polices that govern data forwarding.

C.

Performs remote software upgrades for WAN Edge vSmart and vBond.

D.

Establishes iPsec tunnels with nodes

Full Access
Question # 248

Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial?

A.

under interface saturation condition

B.

under network convergence condition

C.

under all network condition

D.

under traffic classification and marking conditions.

Full Access
Question # 249

Which characteristic distinguishes Ansible from Chef?

A.

Ansible lacs redundancy support for the master server. Chef runs two masters in an active/active mode.

B.

Ansible uses Ruby to manage configurations. Chef uses YAML to manage configurations.

C.

Ansible pushes the configuration to the client. Chef client pulls the configuration from the server.

D.

The Ansible server can run on Linux, Unix or Windows. The Chef server must run on Linux or Unix.

Full Access
Question # 250

Which two network problems Indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two.)

A.

port flapping

B.

excess jitter

C.

misrouted network packets

D.

duplicate IP addresses

E.

bandwidth-related packet loss

Full Access
Question # 251

A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

Which protocol does the design include?

A.

HSRP version 2

B.

VRRP version 2

C.

GLBP

D.

VRRP version 3

Full Access
Question # 252

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a trunk between switch sw1 and switch SW2 using DTP, but the trunk does not form. Which command should the engineer apply to switch SW2 to resolve this issue?

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport nonegotiate

C.

no switchport

D.

switchport mode access

Full Access