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200-301 Questions and Answers

Question # 6

What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

A.

In-band management via an asynchronous transport

B.

out-of-band management via an IP transport

C.

in-band management via an IP transport

D.

out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport

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Question # 7

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?

A.

Text Description automatically generated

B.

Text Description automatically generated

C.

Text Description automatically generated

D.

Text Description automatically generated

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Question # 8

Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

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Question # 9

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

A.

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

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Question # 10

Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)

A.

Enable the Broadcast SSID option

B.

Enable the Status option.

C.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802 11g Only.

D.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

E.

Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

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Question # 11

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements:

• Consume as few IP addresses as possible.

• Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth.

Which set of configurations must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 12

Refer to the exhibit.

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

A.

192.168.1.226

B.

192.168.1.100

C.

192.168.1.254

D.

192.168.1.253

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Question # 13

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?

A.

Change the Server Status to Disabled

B.

Select Enable next to Management

C.

Select Enable next to Network User

D.

Change the Support for CoA to Enabled.

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Question # 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

A.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

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Question # 15

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Question # 16

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to identify valid routes for the R3 loopback address 1.1.1.3/32? (Choose two.)

A.

lowest cost to teach the next hop

B.

highest metric

C.

highest administrative distance

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest administrative distance

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Question # 17

Which physical component is distributed among multiple virtual machines running on the same hypervisor?

A.

external storage

B.

hardware resources

C.

network interfaces

D.

backplane network

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Question # 18

Refer to the exhibit.

A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:

• accommodates current configured VLANs

• expands the range to include VLAN 20

• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs

Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 19

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

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Question # 20

The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?

A.

ip route 192.168.10.1

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.10.1

C.

ip helper-address 192.168.10.1

D.

ip dhcp address 192.168.10.1

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Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

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Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

A.

array

B.

key

C.

value

D.

object

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Question # 23

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 24

What is a feature of WPA?

A.

802.1x authentication

B.

preshared key

C.

TKIP/MIC encryption

D.

small Wi-Fi application

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Question # 25

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

A.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

B.

Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.

C.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on interface FaO 2 on SW2.

D.

Configure the switchport trunk allowtd vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1

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Question # 26

What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?

A.

services traffic according to its class

B.

identifies the type of traffic that will receive a particular treatment

C.

writes the class identifier of a packet to a dedicated field in the packet header

D.

configures traffic-matching rules on network devices

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Question # 27

What differentiates device management enabled by cisco DNA center from traditional campus device management?

A.

CLI-oriented device

B.

device-by-device hands-on

C.

centralized

D.

per-device

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Question # 28

What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?

A.

source MAC address and aging time

B.

destination MAC address and flush time

C.

source MAC address and source port

D.

destination MAC address and destination port

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Question # 29

What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?

A.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter.

B.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter.

C.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter.

D.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter.

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Question # 30

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

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Question # 32

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 33

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

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Question # 35

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Question # 36

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Question # 37

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface vlan 2000

ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000

Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000

ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000

ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

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Question # 38

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 39

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 40

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

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Question # 41

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Question # 42

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 43

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

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Question # 44

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

A.

interface vlan 1234

ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148

ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722

ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002

ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155

ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

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Question # 45

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

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Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 47

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Full Access
Question # 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 49

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Question # 50

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Question # 51

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

hello interval 15

interface e1/1

Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

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Question # 52

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

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Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

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Question # 54

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

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Question # 55

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Swrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode active

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Question # 56

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

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Question # 57

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

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Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

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Question # 59

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

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Question # 60

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Question # 61

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

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Question # 62

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

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Question # 63

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 64

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Question # 65

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

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Question # 66

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

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Question # 67

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

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Question # 68

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

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Question # 69

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

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Question # 70

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

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Question # 71

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

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Question # 72

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

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Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

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Question # 74

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Full Access
Question # 75

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

Full Access
Question # 76

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Full Access
Question # 77

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Question # 78

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

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Question # 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Full Access
Question # 80

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Full Access
Question # 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Full Access
Question # 82

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 83

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Full Access
Question # 84

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

A.

The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

B.

The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

C.

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

D.

The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

Full Access
Question # 85

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Full Access
Question # 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

i

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

I

access-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Full Access
Question # 87

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

Full Access
Question # 88

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 89

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

Full Access
Question # 90

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

Full Access
Question # 91

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Full Access
Question # 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

Full Access
Question # 93

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

Full Access
Question # 94

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Full Access
Question # 95

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

Full Access
Question # 96

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

Full Access
Question # 97

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

Full Access
Question # 98

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

A.

TKiP encryption

B.

AES encryption

C.

scrambled encryption key

D.

SAE encryption

Full Access
Question # 99

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Full Access
Question # 100

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

A.

Each device is separated by the same number of hops

B.

It provides variable latency

C.

It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.

D.

Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Full Access
Question # 101

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

Full Access
Question # 102

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Full Access
Question # 103

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

Full Access
Question # 104

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Full Access
Question # 105

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

Full Access
Question # 106

How does WPA3 improve security?

A.

It uses SAE for authentication.

B.

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

C.

It uses RC4 for encryption.

D.

It uses TKIP for encryption.

Full Access
Question # 107

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Full Access
Question # 108

What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)

A.

It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN

B.

It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN

C.

It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN

D.

It is at most 32 characters long.

E.

IT provides secured access to a WLAN

Full Access
Question # 109

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

Full Access
Question # 110

Where does wireless authentication happen?

A.

SSID

B.

radio

C.

band

D.

Layer 2

Full Access
Question # 111

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

Full Access
Question # 112

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

Full Access
Question # 113

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Full Access
Question # 114

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Full Access
Question # 115

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Full Access
Question # 116

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

Full Access
Question # 117

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support LP connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Full Access
Question # 118

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 119

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Full Access
Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Full Access
Question # 121

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

Full Access
Question # 122

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Full Access
Question # 123

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

Full Access
Question # 124

Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?

A.

broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites

B.

multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location

C.

spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites

D.

unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

Full Access
Question # 125

Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

A.

control layer and the infrastructure layer

B.

application layer and the infrastructure layer

C.

application layer and the management layer

D.

control layer and the application layer

Full Access
Question # 126

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Full Access
Question # 127

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

Full Access
Question # 128

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

Full Access
Question # 129

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

Full Access
Question # 130

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

Full Access
Question # 131

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

Full Access
Question # 132

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

A.

Device(Config)#lldp run

B.

Device(Config)#cdp run

C.

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D.

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Full Access
Question # 133

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

Full Access
Question # 134

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Full Access
Question # 135

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Full Access
Question # 136

Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

A.

modify hello interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Full Access
Question # 137

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Full Access
Question # 138

Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

Full Access
Question # 139

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

A.

1,6,11

B.

1,5,10

C.

1,2,3

D.

5,6,7

Full Access
Question # 140

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Full Access
Question # 141

What is the function of a server?

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Full Access
Question # 142

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST API

C.

NETCONF

D.

Southbound API

Full Access
Question # 143

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

Full Access
Question # 144

Refer to exhibit.

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

A.

It is a broadcast IP address

B.

The router does not support /28 mask.

C.

It belongs to a private IP address range.

D.

IT is a network IP address.

Full Access
Question # 145

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Full Access
Question # 146

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Full Access
Question # 147

What Is a syslog facility?

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

Full Access
Question # 148

in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

Full Access
Question # 149

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

A.

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Full Access
Question # 150

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

Full Access
Question # 151

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

A.

It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

B.

It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

C.

It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

D.

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

Full Access
Question # 152

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

A.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

Full Access
Question # 153

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

Full Access
Question # 154

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

Full Access
Question # 155

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

Full Access
Question # 156

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

Full Access
Question # 157

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

A.

alert

B.

critical

C.

notice

D.

debug

Full Access
Question # 158

What does physical access control regulate?

A.

access to spec fie networks based on business function

B.

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

C.

access :o computer networks and file systems

D.

access to networking equipment and facilities

Full Access
Question # 159

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

Full Access
Question # 161

What is a DNS lookup operation?

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Full Access
Question # 162

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Full Access
Question # 163

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

A.

acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

B.

selects the best route between networks on a WAN

C.

moves packets within a VLAN

D.

moves packets between different VLANs

E.

makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

Full Access
Question # 164

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

Full Access
Question # 165

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

A.

Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

B.

Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller

C.

Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller.

D.

The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller.

Full Access
Question # 166

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 167

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

Full Access
Question # 168

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

it supports protocol discovery

Full Access
Question # 169

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Full Access
Question # 170

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

Full Access
Question # 171

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Full Access
Question # 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

A.

adminadmin123

B.

default

C.

testing 1234

D.

cisco123

Full Access
Question # 173

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 174

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 175

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Full Access
Question # 176

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

Full Access
Question # 177

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Full Access
Question # 178

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

Full Access
Question # 179

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

Full Access
Question # 180

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

Full Access
Question # 181

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

Full Access
Question # 182

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

A.

role-based access control

B.

biometrics

C.

multifactor authentication

D.

physical access control

Full Access
Question # 183

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

Full Access
Question # 184

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

Full Access
Question # 185

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor's port ID

Full Access
Question # 186

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

A.

The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame

B.

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

C.

The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

D.

The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

Full Access
Question # 187

An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 188

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

A.

reduced management overhead on network routers

B.

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.

higher degree of availability

D.

reduced ARP traffic on the network

Full Access
Question # 189

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

A.

OpenFlow

B.

NETCONF

C.

Thrift

D.

CORBA

E.

DSC

Full Access
Question # 190

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

A.

listening

B.

blocking

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

speaking

Full Access
Question # 191

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

Full Access
Question # 192

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 193

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1?

A.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

B.

configuring a password for the console port

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 194

What is the role of the root port in a switched network?

A.

It replaces the designated port when the designated port fails

B.

It is the best path to the root from a nonroot switch.

C.

It replaces the designated port when the root port fails.

D.

It is administratively disabled until a failover occurs.

Full Access
Question # 195

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

A.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

B.

This is a root bridge.

C.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

D.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

E.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

Full Access
Question # 196

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Full Access
Question # 197

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 198

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Full Access
Question # 199

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Full Access
Question # 200

What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a controller-based network?

A.

providing a central view of the deployed network

B.

forwarding packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

setting packet-handling policies

Full Access
Question # 201

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 202

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

anti-replay

D.

accounting

Full Access
Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?

A.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 265 255.255.252

B.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.248

C.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.0

D.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

Full Access
Question # 204

What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?

A.

00-00-0C-07-AD-89

B.

00-00-5E-00-01-0a

C.

00-07-C0-70-AB-01

D.

00-C6-41-93-90-91

Full Access
Question # 205

What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

A.

It enables dynamic flow identification.

B.

It enables policy-based routing.

C.

It provides best-effort service.

D.

It limits bandwidth usage.

Full Access
Question # 206

How does authentication differ from authorization?

A.

Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

B.

Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access

C.

Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network

D.

Authentication is used to verify a person's identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

Full Access
Question # 207

Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 208

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

A.

255.255.248.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.240.0

Full Access
Question # 209

What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3.

B.

The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover.

C.

The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network.

D.

The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair.

Full Access
Question # 210

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?

A.

Configure the no lldp tlv-select-management-address command globally on Cat9K-2

B.

Configure the no lldp transmit command on interface G1/0/21 in Cat9K-1

C.

Configure the no lldp receive command on interface G1/0/21 on Cat9K-1

D.

Configure the no lldp mac-phy-cfg command globally on Cat9K-2

Full Access
Question # 211

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?

A.

Port security

B.

High throughput

C.

Cable disconnect

D.

duplex mismatch

Full Access
Question # 212

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

Full Access
Question # 213

A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• "zero-touch" deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

Full Access
Question # 214

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

Full Access
Question # 215

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Full Access
Question # 216

Refer to the exhibit.

When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?

A.

Null0

B.

VIan58

C.

Vlan60

D.

VIan59

Full Access
Question # 217

What is the definition of backdoor malware?

A.

malicious code that is installed onto a computer to allow access by an unauthorized user

B.

malicious code with the main purpose of downloading other malicious code

C.

malicious program that is used to launch other malicious programs

D.

malicious code that infects a user machine and then uses that machine to send spam

Full Access
Question # 218

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 219

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Full Access
Question # 220

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Full Access
Question # 221

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Full Access
Question # 222

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Full Access
Question # 223

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 224

Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

A.

Select PSK under Authentication Key Management

B.

Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security

C.

Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security

D.

Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption

E.

Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management

Full Access
Question # 225

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 226

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

Full Access
Question # 227

Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?

A.

service port

B.

virtual

C.

AP-Manager

D.

dynamic

Full Access
Question # 228

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 229

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Full Access
Question # 230

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Full Access
Question # 231

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Full Access
Question # 232

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Full Access